Volume 1. General Maintenance Information

124 Questions
Data Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which squadrons form a maintenance group?
    • A. 

  • 2. 
    QA recommends possible corective actions to which level?
    • A. 

      Supervisors

    • B. 

      Flight commanders

    • C. 

      Group commanders

    • D. 

      Squadron commanders

  • 3. 
    Who monitors flying and maintenace schedules, and maintains visibility of fleet health indicators?
    • A. 

  • 4. 
    When you are assigned to an aircraft maintenance squadron as an engine troop, to what flight will you most likely be assigned?
    • A. 

  • 5. 
    What type of training is provided to help you learn the knowledge prtion of your job?
    • A. 

  • 6. 
    You may attend ADLS after having how many months in the Air Force?
    • A. 

  • 7. 
    Which program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all air force employees?
    • A. 

      ORM

    • B. 

      MSDS

    • C. 

      AFOSH

    • D. 

      Flightline Safety

  • 8. 
    Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series
    • A. 

      91

    • B. 

      66

    • C. 

      127

    • D. 

      161

  • 9. 
    Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
    • A. 

      00-5-1

    • B. 

      00-20-1

    • C. 

      21-101

    • D. 

      36-2108

  • 10. 
    Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?
    • A. 

      Lock and pin the workstands

    • B. 

      Check the AFTO form 781k

    • C. 

      Check the intake for FOD

    • D. 

      Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft

  • 11. 
    How far does a propeller's axis of rotation extend?
    • A. 

  • 12. 
    To avoid the engine exhaust blast, what is the minimum distance in feet to the rear of the aircraft?
    • A. 

  • 13. 
    FOD is normayy caused by
    • A. 

      People

    • B. 

      Animals

    • C. 

      Weather

    • D. 

      Mechanical failure

  • 14. 
    Who has overall responsibility for the FOD program?
    • A. 

  • 15. 
    During flightline and test cell operatios, you may be exposed to
    • A. 

      Acetone

    • B. 

      Toluene

    • C. 

      Carbon dioxide

    • D. 

      Carbon monoxide

  • 16. 
    Toxic materials are easiest to get into the body and cause rapid toxic reactions when they are in the form of
    • A. 

  • 17. 
    Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear,use, and maintain personal protective equipment?
    • A. 

      Safety

    • B. 

      Hospital

    • C. 

      Supervisor

    • D. 

      Environmental

  • 18. 
    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
    • A. 

      Explosions

    • B. 

      Unauthrrized entry

    • C. 

      Overflow of materials

    • D. 

      Mixing of unlike materials

  • 19. 
    A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is
    • A. 

      Dilution

    • B. 

      Incineration

    • C. 

      Land disposal

    • D. 

      Biodegradation

  • 20. 
    For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify
    • A. 

      Incineration

    • B. 

      Land disposal

    • C. 

      Biodegradation

    • D. 

      Chemico-physical treatment

  • 21. 
    A specialized function of the supply mission is
    • A. 

      Repair

    • B. 

      Service

    • C. 

      Disposal

    • D. 

      Retreival

  • 22. 
    From what perspective does the RSS manage supply?
    • A. 

  • 23. 
    Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?
    • A. 

      Depot Level Repair System

    • B. 

      Repair Cycle Support System

    • C. 

      Standard Base Supply System

    • D. 

      Precious Metals Recovery System

  • 24. 
    Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require
    • A. 

      Overhaul

    • B. 

      Retest OK

    • C. 

      Time change

    • D. 

      Repair cycle support

  • 25. 
    Which supply document provieds a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed dudring the day by the SBSS?
    • A. 

      Priority Monitor Report(D18)

    • B. 

      Daily Document Register(D04)

    • C. 

      Due-out Validation Listing (M30)

    • D. 

      Reoair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23)

  • 26. 
    Base supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis becuase of what difference in each organization?
    • A. 

      Mission

    • B. 

      Contract

    • C. 

      Location

    • D. 

      Type of Aircraft

  • 27. 
    What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?
    • A. 

      Origin of an item

    • B. 

      Why the item broke

    • C. 

      How long the item will take to repair

    • D. 

      The responsible reparable processing center

  • 28. 
    Which provides a block-by-block explanation of how to document the AFTO Form 350 tag?
    • A. 

  • 29. 
    If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?
    • A. 

      AF IMT 2005

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 349

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 350

    • D. 

      DD Form 1574

  • 30. 
    If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN
    • A. 

      23-110

    • B. 

      23-254

    • C. 

      91-110

    • D. 

      91-254

  • 31. 
    Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1574

    • B. 

      DD Form 1575

    • C. 

      DD Form 1577-2

    • D. 

      DD Form 1577-3

  • 32. 
    Which item is one that a storage time period must be assigned to ensure that it will perform satisfactorily over a specified period of time?
    • A. 

  • 33. 
    When a bench stock item has a type 1 shelf-life, it means the item
    • A. 

      Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended

    • B. 

      Should be returned to supply after expiration date

    • C. 

      Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life

    • D. 

      Should be inspected or tested

  • 34. 
    A Category 1 DR is used to report a deficiency
    • A. 

      That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager

    • B. 

      Found during initial acceptance inspection(critical or major defects only)

    • C. 

      That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system

    • D. 

      That identifies a potential enhancement(applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle)

  • 35. 
    Within how many hours must Category 1 DR be forwarded to the screening point?
    • A. 

  • 36. 
    Which type of items must be reflected on the CA/CRL?
    • A. 

  • 37. 
    To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
    • A. 

      Shop chief

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      Commander

    • D. 

      Supply chief

  • 38. 
    The first part of a TO number identifies the
    • A. 

      Sectionalization of the TO

    • B. 

      Type of instructions found in the TO

    • C. 

      Category and type of equipment in the TO

    • D. 

      Model series of the equipment covered by the TO

  • 39. 
    The second part of a TO number gives the
    • A. 

  • 40. 
    In which type of TO would you find a list of TOs for a specific category of equipment?
    • A. 

  • 41. 
    Which type of techinical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
    • A. 

      General equipment

    • B. 

      General system

    • C. 

      Fault isolation

    • D. 

      Job guide

  • 42. 
    Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals(IETMS)?
    • A. 

      Rapid action changes

    • B. 

      Operational supplements

    • C. 

      Urgent recommendations

    • D. 

      Time compliance technical order

  • 43. 
    What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?
    • A. 

      Introduction

    • B. 

      Numerical index

    • C. 

      Group assembly parts list

    • D. 

      Time compliance technical orders

  • 44. 
    What category of TCTO is issued to correct unsafe conditions that can result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?
    • A. 

  • 45. 
    Which TO covers information concerning the Air Force TO system?
    • A. 

  • 46. 
    How can you tell when the text or a picture in a TO has been changed?
    • A. 

  • 47. 
    An AFTO IMT 22 is not submitted for
    • A. 

  • 48. 
    Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission?
    • A. 

      Initiator

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Supervisor of initiator

    • D. 

      Product improvement office

  • 49. 
    Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Special

    • C. 

      Routine

    • D. 

      Emergency

  • 50. 
    What are the two classifications of failures in the RCM?
    • A. 

  • 51. 
    In RCM, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?
    • A. 

      Hard time

    • B. 

      Lubrication

    • C. 

      On condition

    • D. 

      Failure finding

  • 52. 
    The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit the damage to turbine engines by
    • A. 

      Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports

    • B. 

      Tracking serially controlled components and modules

    • C. 

      Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures

    • D. 

      Documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions

  • 53. 
    Within the ET&D program, to whom do flightline personnel transfer collected data for analysis?
    • A. 

  • 54. 
    Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D program?
    • A. 

      Propulsion and depot

    • B. 

      Depot and nondestructive inspection

    • C. 

      Propulsion and nondestructive inspection

    • D. 

      Environmental health and nondestructive inspection

  • 55. 
    What drives the creation of a CRP?
    • A. 

      Equipment cost and repair time

    • B. 

      Number of available spare engines

    • C. 

      Number of assigned maintenance personnel

    • D. 

      Customer wait time and transportation constraints

  • 56. 
    Who maintains accountability of CIRF assets and reports their status?
    • A. 

  • 57. 
    When a CIRF ships replacement asset to a deployed unti, who is esponsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed?
    • A. 

      Deployed unit

    • B. 

      CIRF personnel

    • C. 

      Supply squadron

    • D. 

      Transportation squadron

  • 58. 
    What supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any repairs beyond their responsibility/capability?
    • A. 

      Field maintenance

    • B. 

      Depot maintenance

    • C. 

      Engine trending and diagnostics

    • D. 

      Engine life-cycle management planning

  • 59. 
    Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by
    • A. 

      Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability

    • B. 

      Ensuring replacement parts are ordered in a timely manner

    • C. 

      Notifying maintenance personnel of upcoming TCTO

    • D. 

      Providing the most current TO updates to the field

  • 60. 
    Depot level support includes CLSS crews, depot maintenance support, maintenance assistance, and
    • A. 

  • 61. 
    A primary objective of the engine reporting system is to
    • A. 

  • 62. 
    The key to making CEMS work is
    • A. 

      Availability of engines and their parts

    • B. 

      Accurate and timely data at the lowest level

    • C. 

      Accurate and timely data at the highest level

    • D. 

      Availability of a storage and analysis computer

  • 63. 
    For how many categories of reporting does he CEMS establish and maintain records?
    • A. 

  • 64. 
    You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on which one of the following AFTO Forms?
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      44

    • C. 

      95

    • D. 

      349

  • 65. 
    To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      95

    • C. 

      98

    • D. 

      349

  • 66. 
    What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer program?
    • A. 

      Prevent unscheduled removal of engines

    • B. 

      Identify engines requiring TCTO maintenance.

    • C. 

      Accelerate the flying rate of all unit's installed engines

    • D. 

      Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field

  • 67. 
    Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?
    • A. 

      Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets

    • B. 

      Accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements

    • C. 

      Evaluate the engine controls and accessories to include engine monitoring systems

    • D. 

      Detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections

  • 68. 
    How many years ahead should participating units accelerate engines, modules, and accessories?
    • A. 

  • 69. 
    Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause
    • A. 

      Injury to you

    • B. 

      Torn clothing

    • C. 

      Electrical shock

    • D. 

      Damage to the tool

  • 70. 
    Whatn would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm's reach?
    • A. 

      Ziplock bag

    • B. 

      Parts bag

    • C. 

      FOD bag

    • D. 

      Toolbag

  • 71. 
    If you must torque a sequence of three or more bolts,
    • A. 

  • 72. 
    The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the square drive and the center of the
    • A. 

      Lock

    • B. 

      Grip

    • C. 

      Shaft index line

    • D. 

      Broached opening

  • 73. 
    What type of fule should you use for measuring an inside diameter?
    • A. 

      Hook

    • B. 

      Narrow

    • C. 

      6-inch steel

    • D. 

      Slide caliper

  • 74. 
    Micrometers are generally used to make measurements to an acuracy of
    • A. 

  • 75. 
    The lomgest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is
    • A. 

      1 inch

    • B. 

      2 inches

    • C. 

      3inches

    • D. 

      4inches

  • 76. 
    You adjust a micrometer by turning the
    • A. 

      Barrel

    • B. 

      Frame

    • C. 

      Spindle

    • D. 

      Thimble

  • 77. 
    The vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in
    • A. 

      Hundredths of an inch

    • B. 

      Thousandths of an inch

    • C. 

      Ten-thousandths of an inch

    • D. 

      Hundred-thousandths of an inch

  • 78. 
    Where is the contact point on a dial indicator located?
    • A. 

      On the dial face

    • B. 

      At the end of the anvil

    • C. 

      At the end of the thimble

    • D. 

      At the end of a pivoted lever

  • 79. 
    What feature is common to all dial indicators?
    • A. 

  • 80. 
    To avoid rust, measuring tools should never be stored where the relative humidity exceeds what percentage?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      40

    • D. 

      50

  • 81. 
    What should you use for cleaning meassuring tools?
    • A. 

      WD-40

    • B. 

      Trychlorethlene

    • C. 

      Turbo-super-carb

    • D. 

      Dry-cleaning solvent

  • 82. 
    The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for AC and DC is the
    • A. 

      Function selcector

    • B. 

      Range-mode pushbutton switch

    • C. 

      Touch-hold pushbutton switch

    • D. 

      Volts,ohms,diode test input jack

  • 83. 
    How many range settings does the fluke 8025A multimter have?
    • A. 

  • 84. 
    What is the maximum voltage that can be measured if the range button is set at 30 on the Fluke 8025A multimeter?
    • A. 

      28

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      32

    • D. 

      34

  • 85. 
    What is the purpose of a borescope inspection on an engine?
    • A. 

      Replace a teardown inspection

    • B. 

      Visually inspect internal cavities

    • C. 

      Detect major damage inside the engine

    • D. 

      Determine how much maintenance is required during a periodic inspection

  • 86. 
    Light is transmitted to the tip of a borescope by
    • A. 

  • 87. 
    What are the type(s) of view(s) available with the rigid borescope?
    • A. 

  • 88. 
    When operating a borescipe, what part of the borescope illuminates the interior of the area you are inspecting?
    • A. 

  • 89. 
    The type of borescope that uses miniature TV camera images is a
    • A. 

      Videoimagescope

    • B. 

      Rigid borescope

    • C. 

      Flexible scope

    • D. 

      Fiberscope

  • 90. 
    Which factor is not considered for borescope operator certification?
    • A. 

      Experience

    • B. 

      Maturity

    • C. 

      Age

    • D. 

      Rank

  • 91. 
    Proper bolt length allows a minimum of how many threads protruding the nut?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 92. 
    The grip length of a bolt should be a few thousandths of an inch shorter than the material it is holding to
    • A. 

  • 93. 
    What type of bolt is used primarily in high-tension applications?
    • A. 

      Clevis

    • B. 

      Hex head

    • C. 

      Special purpose

    • D. 

      Internal wrenching

  • 94. 
    Which nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250 degrees F?
    • A. 

      Plain nuts

    • B. 

      Wing nuts

    • C. 

      Metallic self-locking nuts

    • D. 

      Nonmetallic self-locking nuts

  • 95. 
    How is a screw lenght measured?
    • A. 

      Thread length of treads

    • B. 

      Base of the head to the bottom of the threads

    • C. 

      Length of the shank plus the threaded portion

    • D. 

      Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads.

  • 96. 
    When installing a self-taping screw, the hole must be
    • A. 

      Slightly smaller than the screw

    • B. 

      The same size as the screw shank

    • C. 

      Slightly deeper than the length of the shank

    • D. 

      Slightly shallower than the length of the screw

  • 97. 
    What type of washer is used to prevent corrosion of dissimilar metals?
    • A. 

      Plain

    • B. 

      Lock

    • C. 

      Star

    • D. 

      Tab

  • 98. 
    To prevent damage to the soft metal surfaces and a lock washer is required, what should you use?
    • A. 

  • 99. 
    What type of pin is used in joints that carry shear loads and where the absence of clearance is essential?
    • A. 

      Tapered

    • B. 

      Flathead

    • C. 

      Cotter

    • D. 

      Shear

  • 100. 
    When lockwiring, how many twists per inch are required to produce the proper stiffness?
    • A. 

  • 101. 
    Copper tubing is not used on jet engines because it
    • A. 

      Is expensive

    • B. 

      Is too flexible

    • C. 

      Has a high-fatigue factor

    • D. 

      Has extremely high tensile strength

  • 102. 
    You can identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines by
    • A. 

      Their intentional orange color

    • B. 

      The different colors of the tubing or hoses

    • C. 

      The specifications embossed on the tubing or hoses

    • D. 

      The coded bands of colored tape placed around the tubing or hoses.

  • 103. 
    What numerical value is given to a fitting used on tubing that measures 3/8 inch?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 104. 
    Why should dudt caps be installed over tube ends rather than inside of them?
    • A. 

      Provides a tighter fit

    • B. 

      Prevents nicking of inner tube surface

    • C. 

      Avoids possibility of leaving caps installed

    • D. 

      Provides less contact with corrosive lubricants

  • 105. 
    For a straight piece of tubing to remain serviceable, a dent must be less than what percentage of the tubing diameter?
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      25

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      35r

  • 106. 
    What type of hoses should you never use oil as an aid to installing?
    • A. 

      Hydraulic`

    • B. 

      Pneumatic

    • C. 

      Self-sealing

    • D. 

      High-pressure

  • 107. 
    When you receive an engine in your shop, you should check the applicable forms and then
    • A. 

      Look for leaks

    • B. 

      Change the oil filter

    • C. 

      Inspect for missing parts

    • D. 

      Check the compressor inlet

  • 108. 
    Operating procedures and practices that, if not strictly observed, may result in damage to equipment are shown in the maintenance manuals in the form of
    • A. 

      Notes

    • B. 

      Hints

    • C. 

      Warnings

    • D. 

      Cautions

  • 109. 
    Preservation of a component being shipped is required when it is being returned to depot or stored for more than how many days?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      60

  • 110. 
    The shroud-type cover consists of a buildup of how many layers of wrap?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 111. 
    Which TO covers the disposition of engines removed from aircraft involved in mishaps?
    • A. 

      00-20-4

    • B. 

      2J-1-14

    • C. 

      2J-1-19

    • D. 

      33-1-37-1

  • 112. 
    Which container does not require warehouse facilities?
    • A. 

      Shroud

    • B. 

      Prefabricated

    • C. 

      Fiberglass reinforced plastic

    • D. 

      Flexible environmental control

  • 113. 
    To release internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the
    • A. 

      Parting surface nuts

    • B. 

      Parting surface bolts

    • C. 

      Filler valve on the side of the container

    • D. 

      Filler vlave on the front of the container

  • 114. 
    When removing the shipping container lid from the shipping container, how much are the turnlock fasteners turned?
    • A. 

      1/4 turn

    • B. 

      1/2 turn

    • C. 

      1 turn

    • D. 

      2 turns

  • 115. 
    To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, look on the
    • A. 

      Side of the container

    • B. 

      Data plate on both halves of the container

    • C. 

      Top half on the right panel of the container

    • D. 

      Bottom half on the left panel of the container

  • 116. 
    Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning must be observed?
    • A. 

      Ensure humidity indicator is blue

    • B. 

      Release all pressure before removing lid

    • C. 

      Loosen bolts in a staggered sequence to prevent warpage

    • D. 

      Ensure pressure is below 5 psi before loosening bolts.

  • 117. 
    How many pins secure the adapters to the shipping container support?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 118. 
    Engines inactive for over 180 days must have what accomplished?
    • A. 

      Motor the engine to circulate the oil

    • B. 

      Inspect reservoirs to ensure they are full

    • C. 

      Visually inspect compressor for corrosion

    • D. 

      Preservation run and fuel system preservation.

  • 119. 
    To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, you must flush the system with
    • A. 

      Oil

    • B. 

      Fuel

    • C. 

      PD-680

    • D. 

      Calibration fluid

  • 120. 
    When metal is attacked by chemical corrosion, it will start
    • A. 

      Deep within the metal

    • B. 

      On the surface of the metal

    • C. 

      Throughout the metal all at once

    • D. 

      Just under the surface of the metal

  • 121. 
    What is used to help remove moisture from an area where engines are stored?
    • A. 

      CPC

    • B. 

      CPM

    • C. 

      Cobalt chloride

    • D. 

      Dessicants

  • 122. 
    On the personnel maintenance platforms, the purpose of the platform safety lockpins is to
    • A. 

      Prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use

    • B. 

      Prevent the platform from swaying while it is in use.

    • C. 

      Lock the base structure while the platform is in use.

    • D. 

      Prevent the wheels from swiveling while it is in use.

  • 123. 
    Which maintenance platform can be adjusted from 3 to 7 feet?
    • A. 

      B-1

    • B. 

      B-2

    • C. 

      B-4

    • D. 

      B-5

  • 124. 
    What information is found in Part 1 of an AFTO form 244?
    • A. 

      Supervisory review

    • B. 

      Item identification

    • C. 

      Employee number blocks

    • D. 

      Nonscheduled Inspection blocks