Volume 1. General Maintenance Information
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This may be used to sudy your maintenance cdc's. This is not to be used as a replacement to your regular cdc volumes. Use this and your books!
- 1.QA recommends possible corective actions to which level?
- A.
Supervisors
- B.
Flight commanders
- C.
Group commanders
- D.
Squadron commanders
- 2.Which program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all air force employees?
- A.
ORM
- B.
MSDS
- C.
AFOSH
- D.
Flightline Safety
- 3.Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series
- A.
91
- B.
66
- C.
127
- D.
161
- 4.Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
- A.
00-5-1
- B.
00-20-1
- C.
21-101
- D.
36-2108
- 5.Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?
- A.
Lock and pin the workstands
- B.
Check the AFTO form 781k
- C.
Check the intake for FOD
- D.
Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft
- 6.FOD is normayy caused by
- A.
People
- B.
Animals
- C.
Weather
- D.
Mechanical failure
- 7.During flightline and test cell operatios, you may be exposed to
- A.
Acetone
- B.
Toluene
- C.
Carbon dioxide
- D.
Carbon monoxide
- 8.Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear,use, and maintain personal protective equipment?
- A.
Safety
- B.
Hospital
- C.
Supervisor
- D.
Environmental
- 9.Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
- A.
Explosions
- B.
Unauthrrized entry
- C.
Overflow of materials
- D.
Mixing of unlike materials
- 10.A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is
- A.
Dilution
- B.
Incineration
- C.
Land disposal
- D.
Biodegradation
- 11.For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify
- A.
Incineration
- B.
Land disposal
- C.
Biodegradation
- D.
Chemico-physical treatment
- 12.A specialized function of the supply mission is
- A.
Repair
- B.
Service
- C.
Disposal
- D.
Retreival
- 13.Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?
- A.
Depot Level Repair System
- B.
Repair Cycle Support System
- C.
Standard Base Supply System
- D.
Precious Metals Recovery System
- 14.Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require
- A.
Overhaul
- B.
Retest OK
- C.
Time change
- D.
Repair cycle support
- 15.Which supply document provieds a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed dudring the day by the SBSS?
- A.
Priority Monitor Report(D18)
- B.
Daily Document Register(D04)
- C.
Due-out Validation Listing (M30)
- D.
Reoair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23)
- 16.Base supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis becuase of what difference in each organization?
- A.
Mission
- B.
Contract
- C.
Location
- D.
Type of Aircraft
- 17.
- A.
Origin of an item
- B.
Why the item broke
- C.
How long the item will take to repair
- D.
The responsible reparable processing center
- 18.If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?
- A.
AF IMT 2005
- B.
AFTO Form 349
- C.
AFTO Form 350
- D.
DD Form 1574
- 19.If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN
- A.
23-110
- B.
23-254
- C.
91-110
- D.
91-254
- 20.Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance?
- A.
DD Form 1574
- B.
DD Form 1575
- C.
DD Form 1577-2
- D.
DD Form 1577-3
- 21.When a bench stock item has a type 1 shelf-life, it means the item
- A.
Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended
- B.
Should be returned to supply after expiration date
- C.
Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life
- D.
Should be inspected or tested
- 22.A Category 1 DR is used to report a deficiency
- A.
That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager
- B.
Found during initial acceptance inspection(critical or major defects only)
- C.
That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system
- D.
That identifies a potential enhancement(applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle)
- 23.To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
- A.
Shop chief
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
Commander
- D.
Supply chief
- 24.The first part of a TO number identifies the
- A.
Sectionalization of the TO
- B.
Type of instructions found in the TO
- C.
Category and type of equipment in the TO
- D.
Model series of the equipment covered by the TO
- 25.Which type of techinical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
- A.
General equipment
- B.
General system
- C.
Fault isolation
- D.
Job guide
- 26.Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals(IETMS)?
- A.
Rapid action changes
- B.
Operational supplements
- C.
Urgent recommendations
- D.
Time compliance technical order
- 27.
- A.
Introduction
- B.
Numerical index
- C.
Group assembly parts list
- D.
Time compliance technical orders
- 28.
- A.
Initiator
- B.
Commander
- C.
Supervisor of initiator
- D.
Product improvement office
- 29.Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property?
- A.
Urgent
- B.
Special
- C.
Routine
- D.
Emergency
- 30.In RCM, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?
- A.
Hard time
- B.
Lubrication
- C.
On condition
- D.
Failure finding
- 31.The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit the damage to turbine engines by
- A.
Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports
- B.
Tracking serially controlled components and modules
- C.
Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures
- D.
Documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions
- 32.Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D program?
- A.
Propulsion and depot
- B.
Depot and nondestructive inspection
- C.
Propulsion and nondestructive inspection
- D.
Environmental health and nondestructive inspection
- 33.
- A.
Equipment cost and repair time
- B.
Number of available spare engines
- C.
Number of assigned maintenance personnel
- D.
Customer wait time and transportation constraints
- 34.
- A.
Deployed unit
- B.
CIRF personnel
- C.
Supply squadron
- D.
Transportation squadron
- 35.
- A.
Field maintenance
- B.
Depot maintenance
- C.
Engine trending and diagnostics
- D.
Engine life-cycle management planning
- 36.Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by
- A.
Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability
- B.
Ensuring replacement parts are ordered in a timely manner
- C.
Notifying maintenance personnel of upcoming TCTO
- D.
Providing the most current TO updates to the field
- 37.The key to making CEMS work is
- A.
Availability of engines and their parts
- B.
Accurate and timely data at the lowest level
- C.
Accurate and timely data at the highest level
- D.
Availability of a storage and analysis computer
- 38.You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on which one of the following AFTO Forms?
- A.
25
- B.
44
- C.
95
- D.
349
- 39.To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form
- A.
25
- B.
95
- C.
98
- D.
349
- 40.
- A.
Prevent unscheduled removal of engines
- B.
Identify engines requiring TCTO maintenance.
- C.
Accelerate the flying rate of all unit's installed engines
- D.
Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field
- 41.Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?
- A.
Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets
- B.
Accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements
- C.
Evaluate the engine controls and accessories to include engine monitoring systems
- D.
Detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections
- 42.Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause
- A.
Injury to you
- B.
Torn clothing
- C.
Electrical shock
- D.
Damage to the tool
- 43.
- A.
Ziplock bag
- B.
Parts bag
- C.
FOD bag
- D.
Toolbag
- 44.The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the square drive and the center of the
- A.
Lock
- B.
Grip
- C.
Shaft index line
- D.
Broached opening
- 45.
- A.
Hook
- B.
Narrow
- C.
6-inch steel
- D.
Slide caliper
- 46.The lomgest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is
- A.
1 inch
- B.
2 inches
- C.
3inches
- D.
4inches
- 47.You adjust a micrometer by turning the
- A.
Barrel
- B.
Frame
- C.
Spindle
- D.
Thimble
- 48.The vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in
- A.
Hundredths of an inch
- B.
Thousandths of an inch
- C.
Ten-thousandths of an inch
- D.
Hundred-thousandths of an inch
- 49.
- A.
On the dial face
- B.
At the end of the anvil
- C.
At the end of the thimble
- D.
At the end of a pivoted lever
- 50.To avoid rust, measuring tools should never be stored where the relative humidity exceeds what percentage?
- A.
10
- B.
20
- C.
40
- D.
50
- 51.
- A.
WD-40
- B.
Trychlorethlene
- C.
Turbo-super-carb
- D.
Dry-cleaning solvent
- 52.The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for AC and DC is the
- A.
Function selcector
- B.
Range-mode pushbutton switch
- C.
Touch-hold pushbutton switch
- D.
Volts,ohms,diode test input jack
- 53.
- A.
28
- B.
30
- C.
32
- D.
34
- 54.
- A.
Replace a teardown inspection
- B.
Visually inspect internal cavities
- C.
Detect major damage inside the engine
- D.
Determine how much maintenance is required during a periodic inspection
- 55.The type of borescope that uses miniature TV camera images is a
- A.
Videoimagescope
- B.
Rigid borescope
- C.
Flexible scope
- D.
Fiberscope
- 56.Which factor is not considered for borescope operator certification?
- A.
Experience
- B.
Maturity
- C.
Age
- D.
Rank
- 57.Proper bolt length allows a minimum of how many threads protruding the nut?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 58.
- A.
Clevis
- B.
Hex head
- C.
Special purpose
- D.
Internal wrenching
- 59.Which nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250 degrees F?
- A.
Plain nuts
- B.
Wing nuts
- C.
Metallic self-locking nuts
- D.
Nonmetallic self-locking nuts
- 60.
- A.
Thread length of treads
- B.
Base of the head to the bottom of the threads
- C.
Length of the shank plus the threaded portion
- D.
Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads.
- 61.
- A.
Slightly smaller than the screw
- B.
The same size as the screw shank
- C.
Slightly deeper than the length of the shank
- D.
Slightly shallower than the length of the screw
- 62.
- A.
Plain
- B.
Lock
- C.
Star
- D.
Tab
- 63.
- A.
Tapered
- B.
Flathead
- C.
Cotter
- D.
Shear
- 64.Copper tubing is not used on jet engines because it
- A.
Is expensive
- B.
Is too flexible
- C.
Has a high-fatigue factor
- D.
Has extremely high tensile strength
- 65.You can identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines by
- A.
Their intentional orange color
- B.
The different colors of the tubing or hoses
- C.
The specifications embossed on the tubing or hoses
- D.
The coded bands of colored tape placed around the tubing or hoses.
- 66.
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
- 67.
- A.
Provides a tighter fit
- B.
Prevents nicking of inner tube surface
- C.
Avoids possibility of leaving caps installed
- D.
Provides less contact with corrosive lubricants
- 68.For a straight piece of tubing to remain serviceable, a dent must be less than what percentage of the tubing diameter?
- A.
20
- B.
25
- C.
30
- D.
35r
- 69.
- A.
Hydraulic`
- B.
Pneumatic
- C.
Self-sealing
- D.
High-pressure
- 70.
- A.
Look for leaks
- B.
Change the oil filter
- C.
Inspect for missing parts
- D.
Check the compressor inlet
- 71.Operating procedures and practices that, if not strictly observed, may result in damage to equipment are shown in the maintenance manuals in the form of
- A.
Notes
- B.
Hints
- C.
Warnings
- D.
Cautions
- 72.Preservation of a component being shipped is required when it is being returned to depot or stored for more than how many days?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
- 73.The shroud-type cover consists of a buildup of how many layers of wrap?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
- 74.Which TO covers the disposition of engines removed from aircraft involved in mishaps?
- A.
00-20-4
- B.
2J-1-14
- C.
2J-1-19
- D.
33-1-37-1
- 75.Which container does not require warehouse facilities?
- A.
Shroud
- B.
Prefabricated
- C.
Fiberglass reinforced plastic
- D.
Flexible environmental control
- 76.To release internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the
- A.
Parting surface nuts
- B.
Parting surface bolts
- C.
Filler valve on the side of the container
- D.
Filler vlave on the front of the container
- 77.
- A.
1/4 turn
- B.
1/2 turn
- C.
1 turn
- D.
2 turns
- 78.To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, look on the
- A.
Side of the container
- B.
Data plate on both halves of the container
- C.
Top half on the right panel of the container
- D.
Bottom half on the left panel of the container
- 79.Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning must be observed?
- A.
Ensure humidity indicator is blue
- B.
Release all pressure before removing lid
- C.
Loosen bolts in a staggered sequence to prevent warpage
- D.
Ensure pressure is below 5 psi before loosening bolts.
- 80.
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
- 81.Engines inactive for over 180 days must have what accomplished?
- A.
Motor the engine to circulate the oil
- B.
Inspect reservoirs to ensure they are full
- C.
Visually inspect compressor for corrosion
- D.
Preservation run and fuel system preservation.
- 82.To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, you must flush the system with
- A.
Oil
- B.
Fuel
- C.
PD-680
- D.
Calibration fluid
- 83.
- A.
Deep within the metal
- B.
On the surface of the metal
- C.
Throughout the metal all at once
- D.
Just under the surface of the metal
- 84.What is used to help remove moisture from an area where engines are stored?
- A.
CPC
- B.
CPM
- C.
Cobalt chloride
- D.
Dessicants
- 85.On the personnel maintenance platforms, the purpose of the platform safety lockpins is to
- A.
Prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use
- B.
Prevent the platform from swaying while it is in use.
- C.
Lock the base structure while the platform is in use.
- D.
Prevent the wheels from swiveling while it is in use.
- 86.Which maintenance platform can be adjusted from 3 to 7 feet?
- A.
B-1
- B.
B-2
- C.
B-4
- D.
B-5
- 87.
- A.
Supervisory review
- B.
Item identification
- C.
Employee number blocks
- D.
Nonscheduled Inspection blocks
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