Volume 1. General Maintenance Information

87 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
Volume 1. General Maintenance Information

This may be used to sudy your maintenance cdc's. This is not to be used as a replacement to your regular cdc volumes. Use this and your books!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    QA recommends possible corective actions to which level?
    • A. 

      Supervisors

    • B. 

      Flight commanders

    • C. 

      Group commanders

    • D. 

      Squadron commanders

  • 2. 
    Which program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all air force employees?
    • A. 

      ORM

    • B. 

      MSDS

    • C. 

      AFOSH

    • D. 

      Flightline Safety

  • 3. 
    Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series
    • A. 

      91

    • B. 

      66

    • C. 

      127

    • D. 

      161

  • 4. 
    Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
    • A. 

      00-5-1

    • B. 

      00-20-1

    • C. 

      21-101

    • D. 

      36-2108

  • 5. 
    Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?
    • A. 

      Lock and pin the workstands

    • B. 

      Check the AFTO form 781k

    • C. 

      Check the intake for FOD

    • D. 

      Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft

  • 6. 
    FOD is normayy caused by
    • A. 

      People

    • B. 

      Animals

    • C. 

      Weather

    • D. 

      Mechanical failure

  • 7. 
    During flightline and test cell operatios, you may be exposed to
    • A. 

      Acetone

    • B. 

      Toluene

    • C. 

      Carbon dioxide

    • D. 

      Carbon monoxide

  • 8. 
    Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear,use, and maintain personal protective equipment?
    • A. 

      Safety

    • B. 

      Hospital

    • C. 

      Supervisor

    • D. 

      Environmental

  • 9. 
    Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
    • A. 

      Explosions

    • B. 

      Unauthrrized entry

    • C. 

      Overflow of materials

    • D. 

      Mixing of unlike materials

  • 10. 
    A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is
    • A. 

      Dilution

    • B. 

      Incineration

    • C. 

      Land disposal

    • D. 

      Biodegradation

  • 11. 
    For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify
    • A. 

      Incineration

    • B. 

      Land disposal

    • C. 

      Biodegradation

    • D. 

      Chemico-physical treatment

  • 12. 
    A specialized function of the supply mission is
    • A. 

      Repair

    • B. 

      Service

    • C. 

      Disposal

    • D. 

      Retreival

  • 13. 
    Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?
    • A. 

      Depot Level Repair System

    • B. 

      Repair Cycle Support System

    • C. 

      Standard Base Supply System

    • D. 

      Precious Metals Recovery System

  • 14. 
    Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require
    • A. 

      Overhaul

    • B. 

      Retest OK

    • C. 

      Time change

    • D. 

      Repair cycle support

  • 15. 
    Which supply document provieds a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed dudring the day by the SBSS?
    • A. 

      Priority Monitor Report(D18)

    • B. 

      Daily Document Register(D04)

    • C. 

      Due-out Validation Listing (M30)

    • D. 

      Reoair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23)

  • 16. 
    Base supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis becuase of what difference in each organization?
    • A. 

      Mission

    • B. 

      Contract

    • C. 

      Location

    • D. 

      Type of Aircraft

  • 17. 
    • A. 

      Origin of an item

    • B. 

      Why the item broke

    • C. 

      How long the item will take to repair

    • D. 

      The responsible reparable processing center

  • 18. 
    If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?
    • A. 

      AF IMT 2005

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 349

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 350

    • D. 

      DD Form 1574

  • 19. 
    If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN
    • A. 

      23-110

    • B. 

      23-254

    • C. 

      91-110

    • D. 

      91-254

  • 20. 
    Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance?
    • A. 

      DD Form 1574

    • B. 

      DD Form 1575

    • C. 

      DD Form 1577-2

    • D. 

      DD Form 1577-3

  • 21. 
    When a bench stock item has a type 1 shelf-life, it means the item
    • A. 

      Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended

    • B. 

      Should be returned to supply after expiration date

    • C. 

      Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life

    • D. 

      Should be inspected or tested

  • 22. 
    A Category 1 DR is used to report a deficiency
    • A. 

      That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager

    • B. 

      Found during initial acceptance inspection(critical or major defects only)

    • C. 

      That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system

    • D. 

      That identifies a potential enhancement(applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle)

  • 23. 
    To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
    • A. 

      Shop chief

    • B. 

      Supervisor

    • C. 

      Commander

    • D. 

      Supply chief

  • 24. 
    The first part of a TO number identifies the
    • A. 

      Sectionalization of the TO

    • B. 

      Type of instructions found in the TO

    • C. 

      Category and type of equipment in the TO

    • D. 

      Model series of the equipment covered by the TO

  • 25. 
    Which type of techinical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
    • A. 

      General equipment

    • B. 

      General system

    • C. 

      Fault isolation

    • D. 

      Job guide

  • 26. 
    Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals(IETMS)?
    • A. 

      Rapid action changes

    • B. 

      Operational supplements

    • C. 

      Urgent recommendations

    • D. 

      Time compliance technical order

  • 27. 
    • A. 

      Introduction

    • B. 

      Numerical index

    • C. 

      Group assembly parts list

    • D. 

      Time compliance technical orders

  • 28. 
    • A. 

      Initiator

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Supervisor of initiator

    • D. 

      Product improvement office

  • 29. 
    Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Special

    • C. 

      Routine

    • D. 

      Emergency

  • 30. 
    In RCM, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?
    • A. 

      Hard time

    • B. 

      Lubrication

    • C. 

      On condition

    • D. 

      Failure finding

  • 31. 
    The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit the damage to turbine engines by
    • A. 

      Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports

    • B. 

      Tracking serially controlled components and modules

    • C. 

      Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures

    • D. 

      Documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions

  • 32. 
    Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D program?
    • A. 

      Propulsion and depot

    • B. 

      Depot and nondestructive inspection

    • C. 

      Propulsion and nondestructive inspection

    • D. 

      Environmental health and nondestructive inspection

  • 33. 
    • A. 

      Equipment cost and repair time

    • B. 

      Number of available spare engines

    • C. 

      Number of assigned maintenance personnel

    • D. 

      Customer wait time and transportation constraints

  • 34. 
    • A. 

      Deployed unit

    • B. 

      CIRF personnel

    • C. 

      Supply squadron

    • D. 

      Transportation squadron

  • 35. 
    • A. 

      Field maintenance

    • B. 

      Depot maintenance

    • C. 

      Engine trending and diagnostics

    • D. 

      Engine life-cycle management planning

  • 36. 
    Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by
    • A. 

      Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability

    • B. 

      Ensuring replacement parts are ordered in a timely manner

    • C. 

      Notifying maintenance personnel of upcoming TCTO

    • D. 

      Providing the most current TO updates to the field

  • 37. 
    The key to making CEMS work is
    • A. 

      Availability of engines and their parts

    • B. 

      Accurate and timely data at the lowest level

    • C. 

      Accurate and timely data at the highest level

    • D. 

      Availability of a storage and analysis computer

  • 38. 
    You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on which one of the following AFTO Forms?
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      44

    • C. 

      95

    • D. 

      349

  • 39. 
    To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      95

    • C. 

      98

    • D. 

      349

  • 40. 
    • A. 

      Prevent unscheduled removal of engines

    • B. 

      Identify engines requiring TCTO maintenance.

    • C. 

      Accelerate the flying rate of all unit's installed engines

    • D. 

      Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field

  • 41. 
    Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?
    • A. 

      Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets

    • B. 

      Accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements

    • C. 

      Evaluate the engine controls and accessories to include engine monitoring systems

    • D. 

      Detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections

  • 42. 
    Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause
    • A. 

      Injury to you

    • B. 

      Torn clothing

    • C. 

      Electrical shock

    • D. 

      Damage to the tool

  • 43. 
    • A. 

      Ziplock bag

    • B. 

      Parts bag

    • C. 

      FOD bag

    • D. 

      Toolbag

  • 44. 
    The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the square drive and the center of the
    • A. 

      Lock

    • B. 

      Grip

    • C. 

      Shaft index line

    • D. 

      Broached opening

  • 45. 
    • A. 

      Hook

    • B. 

      Narrow

    • C. 

      6-inch steel

    • D. 

      Slide caliper

  • 46. 
    The lomgest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is
    • A. 

      1 inch

    • B. 

      2 inches

    • C. 

      3inches

    • D. 

      4inches

  • 47. 
    You adjust a micrometer by turning the
    • A. 

      Barrel

    • B. 

      Frame

    • C. 

      Spindle

    • D. 

      Thimble

  • 48. 
    The vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in
    • A. 

      Hundredths of an inch

    • B. 

      Thousandths of an inch

    • C. 

      Ten-thousandths of an inch

    • D. 

      Hundred-thousandths of an inch

  • 49. 
    • A. 

      On the dial face

    • B. 

      At the end of the anvil

    • C. 

      At the end of the thimble

    • D. 

      At the end of a pivoted lever

  • 50. 
    To avoid rust, measuring tools should never be stored where the relative humidity exceeds what percentage?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      40

    • D. 

      50

  • 51. 
    • A. 

      WD-40

    • B. 

      Trychlorethlene

    • C. 

      Turbo-super-carb

    • D. 

      Dry-cleaning solvent

  • 52. 
    The Fluke 8025A multimeter control that is used to set the meter to check for AC and DC is the
    • A. 

      Function selcector

    • B. 

      Range-mode pushbutton switch

    • C. 

      Touch-hold pushbutton switch

    • D. 

      Volts,ohms,diode test input jack

  • 53. 
    • A. 

      28

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      32

    • D. 

      34

  • 54. 
    • A. 

      Replace a teardown inspection

    • B. 

      Visually inspect internal cavities

    • C. 

      Detect major damage inside the engine

    • D. 

      Determine how much maintenance is required during a periodic inspection

  • 55. 
    The type of borescope that uses miniature TV camera images is a
    • A. 

      Videoimagescope

    • B. 

      Rigid borescope

    • C. 

      Flexible scope

    • D. 

      Fiberscope

  • 56. 
    Which factor is not considered for borescope operator certification?
    • A. 

      Experience

    • B. 

      Maturity

    • C. 

      Age

    • D. 

      Rank

  • 57. 
    Proper bolt length allows a minimum of how many threads protruding the nut?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 58. 
    • A. 

      Clevis

    • B. 

      Hex head

    • C. 

      Special purpose

    • D. 

      Internal wrenching

  • 59. 
    Which nuts should never be used in areas where the temperature exceeds 250 degrees F?
    • A. 

      Plain nuts

    • B. 

      Wing nuts

    • C. 

      Metallic self-locking nuts

    • D. 

      Nonmetallic self-locking nuts

  • 60. 
    • A. 

      Thread length of treads

    • B. 

      Base of the head to the bottom of the threads

    • C. 

      Length of the shank plus the threaded portion

    • D. 

      Top of the head to the bottom of the screw threads.

  • 61. 
    • A. 

      Slightly smaller than the screw

    • B. 

      The same size as the screw shank

    • C. 

      Slightly deeper than the length of the shank

    • D. 

      Slightly shallower than the length of the screw

  • 62. 
    • A. 

      Plain

    • B. 

      Lock

    • C. 

      Star

    • D. 

      Tab

  • 63. 
    • A. 

      Tapered

    • B. 

      Flathead

    • C. 

      Cotter

    • D. 

      Shear

  • 64. 
    Copper tubing is not used on jet engines because it
    • A. 

      Is expensive

    • B. 

      Is too flexible

    • C. 

      Has a high-fatigue factor

    • D. 

      Has extremely high tensile strength

  • 65. 
    You can identify the various system lines used to transfer fluids and gases on jet engines by
    • A. 

      Their intentional orange color

    • B. 

      The different colors of the tubing or hoses

    • C. 

      The specifications embossed on the tubing or hoses

    • D. 

      The coded bands of colored tape placed around the tubing or hoses.

  • 66. 
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 67. 
    • A. 

      Provides a tighter fit

    • B. 

      Prevents nicking of inner tube surface

    • C. 

      Avoids possibility of leaving caps installed

    • D. 

      Provides less contact with corrosive lubricants

  • 68. 
    For a straight piece of tubing to remain serviceable, a dent must be less than what percentage of the tubing diameter?
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      25

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      35r

  • 69. 
    • A. 

      Hydraulic`

    • B. 

      Pneumatic

    • C. 

      Self-sealing

    • D. 

      High-pressure

  • 70. 
    • A. 

      Look for leaks

    • B. 

      Change the oil filter

    • C. 

      Inspect for missing parts

    • D. 

      Check the compressor inlet

  • 71. 
    Operating procedures and practices that, if not strictly observed, may result in damage to equipment are shown in the maintenance manuals in the form of
    • A. 

      Notes

    • B. 

      Hints

    • C. 

      Warnings

    • D. 

      Cautions

  • 72. 
    Preservation of a component being shipped is required when it is being returned to depot or stored for more than how many days?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      60

  • 73. 
    The shroud-type cover consists of a buildup of how many layers of wrap?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 74. 
    Which TO covers the disposition of engines removed from aircraft involved in mishaps?
    • A. 

      00-20-4

    • B. 

      2J-1-14

    • C. 

      2J-1-19

    • D. 

      33-1-37-1

  • 75. 
    Which container does not require warehouse facilities?
    • A. 

      Shroud

    • B. 

      Prefabricated

    • C. 

      Fiberglass reinforced plastic

    • D. 

      Flexible environmental control

  • 76. 
    To release internal air pressure in a shipping container/module, you must remove the
    • A. 

      Parting surface nuts

    • B. 

      Parting surface bolts

    • C. 

      Filler valve on the side of the container

    • D. 

      Filler vlave on the front of the container

  • 77. 
    • A. 

      1/4 turn

    • B. 

      1/2 turn

    • C. 

      1 turn

    • D. 

      2 turns

  • 78. 
    To determine whether an engine stored in a shipping container is serviceable or repairable, look on the
    • A. 

      Side of the container

    • B. 

      Data plate on both halves of the container

    • C. 

      Top half on the right panel of the container

    • D. 

      Bottom half on the left panel of the container

  • 79. 
    Prior to removing a shipping container lid, what warning must be observed?
    • A. 

      Ensure humidity indicator is blue

    • B. 

      Release all pressure before removing lid

    • C. 

      Loosen bolts in a staggered sequence to prevent warpage

    • D. 

      Ensure pressure is below 5 psi before loosening bolts.

  • 80. 
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 81. 
    Engines inactive for over 180 days must have what accomplished?
    • A. 

      Motor the engine to circulate the oil

    • B. 

      Inspect reservoirs to ensure they are full

    • C. 

      Visually inspect compressor for corrosion

    • D. 

      Preservation run and fuel system preservation.

  • 82. 
    To prepare the engine fuel system for service after depreservation, you must flush the system with
    • A. 

      Oil

    • B. 

      Fuel

    • C. 

      PD-680

    • D. 

      Calibration fluid

  • 83. 
    • A. 

      Deep within the metal

    • B. 

      On the surface of the metal

    • C. 

      Throughout the metal all at once

    • D. 

      Just under the surface of the metal

  • 84. 
    What is used to help remove moisture from an area where engines are stored?
    • A. 

      CPC

    • B. 

      CPM

    • C. 

      Cobalt chloride

    • D. 

      Dessicants

  • 85. 
    On the personnel maintenance platforms, the purpose of the platform safety lockpins is to
    • A. 

      Prevent the platform from lowering while it is in use

    • B. 

      Prevent the platform from swaying while it is in use.

    • C. 

      Lock the base structure while the platform is in use.

    • D. 

      Prevent the wheels from swiveling while it is in use.

  • 86. 
    Which maintenance platform can be adjusted from 3 to 7 feet?
    • A. 

      B-1

    • B. 

      B-2

    • C. 

      B-4

    • D. 

      B-5

  • 87. 
    • A. 

      Supervisory review

    • B. 

      Item identification

    • C. 

      Employee number blocks

    • D. 

      Nonscheduled Inspection blocks