Volume 1. General Maintenance Information
This may be used to sudy your maintenance cdc's. This is not to be used as a replacement to your regular cdc volumes. Use this and your books!
- 1.
QA recommends possible corective actions to which level?
- A.
Supervisors
- B.
Flight commanders
- C.
Group commanders
- D.
Squadron commanders
Correct Answer
A. Supervisors -
- 2.
Which program's purpose is to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all air force employees?
- A.
ORM
- B.
MSDS
- C.
AFOSH
- D.
Flightline Safety
Correct Answer
C. AFOSH -
- 3.
Occupational health is regulated by Air Force series
- A.
91
- B.
66
- C.
127
- D.
161
Correct Answer
A. 91 -
- 4.
Which Air Force instruction defines quality maintenance and requires maintenance personnel to display integrity and comply with all written guidance?
- A.
00-5-1
- B.
00-20-1
- C.
21-101
- D.
36-2108
Correct Answer
C. 21-101 -
- 5.
Prior to starting any maintenance on the aircraft, what can you do to ensure that it is safe to proceed?
- A.
Lock and pin the workstands
- B.
Check the AFTO form 781k
- C.
Check the intake for FOD
- D.
Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft
Correct Answer
D. Check with other personnel working inside or outside the aircraft -
- 6.
FOD is normayy caused by
- A.
People
- B.
Animals
- C.
Weather
- D.
Mechanical failure
Correct Answer
A. People -
- 7.
During flightline and test cell operatios, you may be exposed to
- A.
Acetone
- B.
Toluene
- C.
Carbon dioxide
- D.
Carbon monoxide
Correct Answer
D. Carbon monoxide -
- 8.
Who is responsible for providing you with training on how to wear,use, and maintain personal protective equipment?
- A.
Safety
- B.
Hospital
- C.
Supervisor
- D.
Environmental
Correct Answer
C. Supervisor -
- 9.
Hazardous waste storage areas must prevent
- A.
Explosions
- B.
Unauthrrized entry
- C.
Overflow of materials
- D.
Mixing of unlike materials
Correct Answer
B. Unauthrrized entry -
- 10.
A common method for disposing of hazardous waste is
- A.
Dilution
- B.
Incineration
- C.
Land disposal
- D.
Biodegradation
Correct Answer
A. Dilution -
- 11.
For hazardous waste disposal, it is unlikely the Air Force can justify
- A.
Incineration
- B.
Land disposal
- C.
Biodegradation
- D.
Chemico-physical treatment
Correct Answer
A. Incineration -
- 12.
A specialized function of the supply mission is
- A.
Repair
- B.
Service
- C.
Disposal
- D.
Retreival
Correct Answer
C. Disposal -
- 13.
Which Base Supply function manages the repair cycle system?
- A.
Depot Level Repair System
- B.
Repair Cycle Support System
- C.
Standard Base Supply System
- D.
Precious Metals Recovery System
Correct Answer
B. Repair Cycle Support System -
- 14.
Selected equipment items, when returned to depot because of their design characteristics function or application, are predetermined to require
- A.
Overhaul
- B.
Retest OK
- C.
Time change
- D.
Repair cycle support
Correct Answer
A. Overhaul -
- 15.
Which supply document provieds a means for organizations to review all document numbers processed dudring the day by the SBSS?
- A.
Priority Monitor Report(D18)
- B.
Daily Document Register(D04)
- C.
Due-out Validation Listing (M30)
- D.
Reoair Cycle Asset Management Listing (D23)
Correct Answer
B. Daily Document Register(D04) -
- 16.
Base supply must deliver numerous parts to numerous organizations on a prioritized basis becuase of what difference in each organization?
- A.
Mission
- B.
Contract
- C.
Location
- D.
Type of Aircraft
Correct Answer
A. Mission -
- 17.
What does a completed AFTO Form 350 serve to identify?
- A.
Origin of an item
- B.
Why the item broke
- C.
How long the item will take to repair
- D.
The responsible reparable processing center
Correct Answer
A. Origin of an item -
- 18.
If you are TDY and IMDS and SBSS are not available, what form would you use to order an engine part?
- A.
AF IMT 2005
- B.
AFTO Form 349
- C.
AFTO Form 350
- D.
DD Form 1574
Correct Answer
A. AF IMT 2005 -
- 19.
If you need detailed information concerning the AF IMT 2005 codes and entries, refer to AFMAN
- A.
23-110
- B.
23-254
- C.
91-110
- D.
91-254
Correct Answer
A. 23-110 -
- 20.
Which form is attached to items that are awaiting parts or maintenance?
- A.
DD Form 1574
- B.
DD Form 1575
- C.
DD Form 1577-2
- D.
DD Form 1577-3
Correct Answer
B. DD Form 1575 -
- 21.
When a bench stock item has a type 1 shelf-life, it means the item
- A.
Has an assigned shelf-life period that may be extended
- B.
Should be returned to supply after expiration date
- C.
Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life
- D.
Should be inspected or tested
Correct Answer
C. Has a definite non-extendible period of shelf-life -
- 22.
A Category 1 DR is used to report a deficiency
- A.
That is required for tracking by agreement of the single manager
- B.
Found during initial acceptance inspection(critical or major defects only)
- C.
That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system
- D.
That identifies a potential enhancement(applies to enhancements noted during the acquisition cycle)
Correct Answer
C. That, if uncorrected, will cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system -
- 23.
To become an equipment custodian, you must be appointed by the
- A.
Shop chief
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
Commander
- D.
Supply chief
Correct Answer
C. Commander -
- 24.
The first part of a TO number identifies the
- A.
Sectionalization of the TO
- B.
Type of instructions found in the TO
- C.
Category and type of equipment in the TO
- D.
Model series of the equipment covered by the TO
Correct Answer
C. Category and type of equipment in the TO -
- 25.
Which type of techinical manual is divided into tasks that cover a particular maintenance action?
- A.
General equipment
- B.
General system
- C.
Fault isolation
- D.
Job guide
Correct Answer
D. Job guide -
- 26.
Which type of additional data is not provided in interactive electronic technical manuals(IETMS)?
- A.
Rapid action changes
- B.
Operational supplements
- C.
Urgent recommendations
- D.
Time compliance technical order
Correct Answer
C. Urgent recommendations -
- 27.
What section of the IPB contains an explanation of the coding used in the IPB?
- A.
Introduction
- B.
Numerical index
- C.
Group assembly parts list
- D.
Time compliance technical orders
Correct Answer
A. Introduction -
- 28.
Who makes sure the AFTO IMT 22 is valid and warrants submission?
- A.
Initiator
- B.
Commander
- C.
Supervisor of initiator
- D.
Product improvement office
Correct Answer
C. Supervisor of initiator -
- 29.
Which AFTO IMT 22 recommendation would you submit which, if not corrected, could cause personnel injury or damage to equipment or property?
- A.
Urgent
- B.
Special
- C.
Routine
- D.
Emergency
Correct Answer
A. Urgent -
- 30.
In RCM, which preventative maintenance task is a scheduled inspection to detect a potential failure condition?
- A.
Hard time
- B.
Lubrication
- C.
On condition
- D.
Failure finding
Correct Answer
C. On condition -
- 31.
The primary goal of the ET&D program is to prevent or limit the damage to turbine engines by
- A.
Reviewing past engine accident investigation reports
- B.
Tracking serially controlled components and modules
- C.
Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures
- D.
Documenting engine overspeed and overtemperature conditions
Correct Answer
C. Early detection of performance degradation and/or failures -
- 32.
Which technicians provide maintenance activity data to the ET&D program?
- A.
Propulsion and depot
- B.
Depot and nondestructive inspection
- C.
Propulsion and nondestructive inspection
- D.
Environmental health and nondestructive inspection
Correct Answer
C. Propulsion and nondestructive inspection -
- 33.
What drives the creation of a CRP?
- A.
Equipment cost and repair time
- B.
Number of available spare engines
- C.
Number of assigned maintenance personnel
- D.
Customer wait time and transportation constraints
Correct Answer
D. Customer wait time and transportation constraints -
- 34.
When a CIRF ships replacement asset to a deployed unti, who is esponsible for ensuring all appropriate documentation is completed?
- A.
Deployed unit
- B.
CIRF personnel
- C.
Supply squadron
- D.
Transportation squadron
Correct Answer
B. CIRF personnel -
- 35.
What supports base-level technicians by providing technical assistance and performing any repairs beyond their responsibility/capability?
- A.
Field maintenance
- B.
Depot maintenance
- C.
Engine trending and diagnostics
- D.
Engine life-cycle management planning
Correct Answer
B. Depot maintenance -
- 36.
Depot maintenance support base-level technicians by
- A.
Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability
- B.
Ensuring replacement parts are ordered in a timely manner
- C.
Notifying maintenance personnel of upcoming TCTO
- D.
Providing the most current TO updates to the field
Correct Answer
A. Providing technical assistance and performing repairs beyond their capability -
- 37.
The key to making CEMS work is
- A.
Availability of engines and their parts
- B.
Accurate and timely data at the lowest level
- C.
Accurate and timely data at the highest level
- D.
Availability of a storage and analysis computer
Correct Answer
B. Accurate and timely data at the lowest level -
- 38.
You should record the removal and replacement of engine accessories on which one of the following AFTO Forms?
- A.
25
- B.
44
- C.
95
- D.
349
Correct Answer
C. 95 -
- 39.
To document information concerning the status of engine TCTO, use AFTO Form
- A.
25
- B.
95
- C.
98
- D.
349
Correct Answer
B. 95 -
- 40.
What is the purpose of the Lead the Fleet/Pacer program?
- A.
Prevent unscheduled removal of engines
- B.
Identify engines requiring TCTO maintenance.
- C.
Accelerate the flying rate of all unit's installed engines
- D.
Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field
Correct Answer
D. Determine distress modes of an engine and its subsystems in the field -
- 41.
Which is not a Lead the Fleet/Pacer program objective?
- A.
Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets
- B.
Accurately update scheduled maintenance requirements
- C.
Evaluate the engine controls and accessories to include engine monitoring systems
- D.
Detect any unique durability problems that might force special scheduled inspections
Correct Answer
A. Reducing customer wait time for serviceable assets -
- 42.
Carrying a hand tool in your pocket is potentially hazardous because it could cause
- A.
Injury to you
- B.
Torn clothing
- C.
Electrical shock
- D.
Damage to the tool
Correct Answer
A. Injury to you -
- 43.
Whatn would you use to hold your tools when you cannot locate your toolbox within arm's reach?
- A.
Ziplock bag
- B.
Parts bag
- C.
FOD bag
- D.
Toolbag
Correct Answer
D. Toolbag -
- 44.
The length of a torque extension is determined by the distance between the center of the square drive and the center of the square drive and the center of the
- A.
Lock
- B.
Grip
- C.
Shaft index line
- D.
Broached opening
Correct Answer
D. Broached opening -
- 45.
What type of fule should you use for measuring an inside diameter?
- A.
Hook
- B.
Narrow
- C.
6-inch steel
- D.
Slide caliper
Correct Answer
D. Slide caliper -
- 46.
The lomgest calibrated movement between the spindle and anvil of an outside micrometer is
- A.
1 inch
- B.
2 inches
- C.
3inches
- D.
4inches
Correct Answer
A. 1 inch -
- 47.
You adjust a micrometer by turning the
- A.
Barrel
- B.
Frame
- C.
Spindle
- D.
Thimble
Correct Answer
D. Thimble -
- 48.
The vernier scale on a micrometer is used to read measurements in
- A.
Hundredths of an inch
- B.
Thousandths of an inch
- C.
Ten-thousandths of an inch
- D.
Hundred-thousandths of an inch
Correct Answer
C. Ten-thousandths of an inch -
- 49.
Where is the contact point on a dial indicator located?
- A.
On the dial face
- B.
At the end of the anvil
- C.
At the end of the thimble
- D.
At the end of a pivoted lever
Correct Answer
D. At the end of a pivoted lever -
- 50.
To avoid rust, measuring tools should never be stored where the relative humidity exceeds what percentage?
- A.
10
- B.
20
- C.
40
- D.
50
Correct Answer
D. 50 -
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
-
Mar 21, 2022Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Aug 27, 2009Quiz Created by
Zack19
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