Usaf CDC Quiz 2F071 Volume 1

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  • 1/95 Questions

    Which type of measurement may be used to express pressure?

    • Kilograms.
    • Pounds.
    • Tons.
    • Pounds per square inch.
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About This Quiz


Quiz for POL 7-level to help with promotion testing, and EOC preparation.

Usaf CDC Quiz 2F071 Volume 1 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of

    • Protons, neutrons, and electrons.

    • Neutrons, elements, and protons.

    • Electrons, molecules, and elements.

    • Electrons, neutrons, and matter.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protons, neutrons, and electrons.
    Explanation
    According to the electron theory, atoms are composed of protons, neutrons, and electrons. This theory states that protons and neutrons are located in the nucleus of an atom, while electrons orbit around the nucleus. Protons have a positive charge, neutrons have no charge, and electrons have a negative charge. This combination of particles forms the basic structure of an atom, with protons and neutrons providing the mass and electrons providing the charge. Therefore, the correct answer is protons, neutrons, and electrons.

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  • 3. 

    During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?

    • No action is required.

    • Increase engine RPMs.

    • Decrease the engine RPMs.

    • Stop the operation immediately.

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the operation immediately.
    Explanation
    If backflow is detected during multiple source refueling, it is necessary to stop the operation immediately. Backflow can occur when fuel flows in the opposite direction, which can lead to contamination or damage to the fuel system. Stopping the operation prevents any further backflow and potential harm to the fuel system.

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  • 4. 

    What is the lifting force of a liquid called?

    • Laminar.

    • Interface.

    • Buoyance.

    • Dynamic pressure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Buoyance.
    Explanation
    Buoyancy is the correct answer for the lifting force of a liquid. Buoyancy refers to the upward force exerted on an object immersed in a fluid, such as a liquid. It is caused by the difference in pressure between the top and bottom of the object, with the pressure being greater at the bottom. This pressure difference results in a net upward force, which is known as buoyancy. It is this force that allows objects to float in liquids and is essential in understanding the behavior of submerged and floating objects.

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  • 5. 

    The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is equal to how many pounds per square inch?

    • 13.1 psi.

    • 14.7 psi.

    • 15.2 psi.

    • 17.9 psi.

    Correct Answer
    A. 14.7 psi.
    Explanation
    The standard measure for atmospheric pressure is 14.7 psi. Atmospheric pressure is the force exerted by the weight of the air above a given point. It is commonly measured in pounds per square inch (psi). This value is considered standard because it represents the average atmospheric pressure at sea level.

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  • 6. 

    How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?

    • Monthly.

    • Quarterly.

    • Semiannually.

    • Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually.
    Explanation
    Hot refueling personnel should undergo certification for hot refueling operations annually. This means that they need to renew their certification once every year. This ensures that they stay updated with the latest safety protocols and procedures related to hot refueling operations. Regular certification helps to maintain the highest level of safety standards and ensures that personnel are competent and knowledgeable in their roles.

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  • 7. 

    Which shell of the valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity?

    • The outermost shell.

    • The middle shell.

    • The second shell.

    • The first shell.

    Correct Answer
    A. The outermost shell.
    Explanation
    The outermost shell of valence electrons determines whether a material is a good or a poor conductor of electricity because it is the shell that is involved in bonding and interacting with other atoms. If the outermost shell is full or nearly full, the material is likely a poor conductor because the electrons are tightly held and not easily free to move and carry an electric current. On the other hand, if the outermost shell is not full, the material is likely a good conductor because the electrons are more loosely held and can easily move and carry an electric current.

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  • 8. 

    What term is used to define the process that takes place when water forms into droplets after passing through filter elements?

    • Separation.

    • Integration.

    • Coalescing.

    • Commingling.

    Correct Answer
    A. Coalescing.
    Explanation
    Coalescing is the term used to define the process that takes place when water forms into droplets after passing through filter elements. Coalescing refers to the merging or coming together of smaller droplets into larger ones. In the context of filtration, coalescing filters are designed to remove small water droplets from a gas or liquid stream by causing them to combine and form larger droplets that can be easily separated. This process is commonly used in various industries, such as oil and gas, to remove water and other contaminants from fluids.

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  • 9. 

    What happens when the type III hydrant system product recovery tank is 70 percent full?

    • Float assembly closes the inlet valve.

    • Switch assembly automatically turns the pump on.

    • Float assembly closes the high-level shut-off valve.

    • Switch assembly senses an emergency condition and shuts down the system.

    Correct Answer
    A. Switch assembly automatically turns the pump on.
    Explanation
    When the type III hydrant system product recovery tank is 70 percent full, the float assembly closes the inlet valve, which prevents more product from entering the tank. At the same time, the switch assembly automatically turns the pump on. This is because the tank is nearing its maximum capacity, and the pump needs to start transferring the product to another location for storage or processing. The switch assembly senses the level of the tank and activates the pump to ensure that the tank does not overflow.

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  • 10. 

    When configuring the automated data collection (ADC) system, what maximum number of dial retries can you configure the user interface terminal’s (UIT) to attempt?

    • 30.

    • 49.

    • 60.

    • 99.

    Correct Answer
    A. 99.
    Explanation
    The maximum number of dial retries that can be configured on the user interface terminal (UIT) when configuring the automated data collection (ADC) system is 99.

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  • 11. 

    How often should a filter separator vessel be cleaned?

    • Every year, or when high concentrations of water detected.

    • Every two years, or when sediment levels exceed tolerances.

    • Every three years, or when coalescer elements are changed.

    • Every five years, or when fiber sample fails.

    Correct Answer
    A. Every three years, or when coalescer elements are changed.
    Explanation
    A filter separator vessel should be cleaned every three years or when the coalescer elements are changed. This is because the coalescer elements are responsible for removing water and other contaminants from the fluid being filtered. Over time, these elements can become clogged or less effective, leading to a decrease in filtration efficiency. Therefore, it is necessary to clean the vessel and replace the coalescer elements periodically to maintain optimal performance.

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  • 12. 

    When personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system, who is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the hot pad?

    • Fuels operator.

    • Fuels operations supervisor.

    • Hot refueling crewman

    • Hot refueling supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Hot refueling supervisor
    Explanation
    The hot refueling supervisor is responsible for positioning the aircraft on the hot pad when personnel are servicing aircraft with the type IV hydrant system. This role is specifically assigned to the supervisor, as they oversee the hot refueling process and ensure that all safety protocols are followed. The supervisor's responsibility includes coordinating the positioning of the aircraft on the hot pad to ensure efficient and safe refueling operations.

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  • 13. 

    The uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction is called

    • Electrical potential.

    • Free electrons.

    • Electric current.

    • Ionization.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electric current.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is electric current. Electric current refers to the uniform movement of electrons in a specific direction. It is the flow of electric charge through a conductor, such as a wire. This movement of electrons creates a flow of energy, which can be harnessed for various purposes. Electrical potential refers to the potential energy per unit charge at a specific point in an electric field. Free electrons are electrons that are not bound to an atom or molecule. Ionization refers to the process of creating ions by adding or removing electrons from atoms or molecules.

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  • 14. 

    How many tanks are used with the type IV hydrant system, and what is the capacity of each?

    • Two; 10,000 gallons.

    • Four; 10,000 gallons.

    • Two; 50,000 gallons.

    • Four; 50,000 gallons.

    Correct Answer
    A. Four; 50,000 gallons.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is four; 50,000 gallons. The type IV hydrant system uses four tanks, each with a capacity of 50,000 gallons.

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  • 15. 

    Which temperature scale is commonly used for scientific measurements?

    • Kelvin scale.

    • Rankine scale.

    • Réaumur scale.

    • Fahrenheit scale.

    Correct Answer
    A. Kelvin scale.
    Explanation
    The Kelvin scale is commonly used for scientific measurements because it is an absolute temperature scale that starts at absolute zero, the point at which all molecular motion ceases. This makes it ideal for scientific calculations and experiments, as it allows for precise measurements and comparisons. The other options, such as the Rankine, Réaumur, and Fahrenheit scales, are not commonly used in scientific measurements due to their relative nature or limited usage in specific regions.

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  • 16. 

    Two or more atoms combined is called a

    • A compound.

    • An element.

    • A molecule.

    • A mixture.

    Correct Answer
    A. A molecule.
    Explanation
    When two or more atoms are chemically bonded together, they form a molecule. A molecule is the smallest unit of a compound that retains all the chemical properties of that compound. Compounds are made up of molecules, so while a compound is a combination of atoms, a molecule specifically refers to the bonded atoms. An element, on the other hand, consists of only one type of atom and cannot be broken down into simpler substances. A mixture is a combination of different substances that are not chemically bonded together.

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  • 17. 

    How do the charges of protons and electrons differ?

    • Protons have positive charges, and electrons have neutral charges.

    • Protons have neutral charges, and electrons have positive charges.

    • Protons have negative charges, and electrons have positive charges.

    • Protons have positive charges, and electrons have negative charges.

    Correct Answer
    A. Protons have positive charges, and electrons have negative charges.
    Explanation
    Protons and electrons have opposite charges. Protons have a positive charge, while electrons have a negative charge. This is a fundamental property of these subatomic particles in an atom.

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  • 18. 

    What happens if the tank outlet manual valve on the type III hydrant system is open during an emergency stop situation?

    • A horn will sound.

    • The upstream butterfly valve closes.

    • The downstream butterfly valve closes.

    • The tank outlet valve will close automatically.

    Correct Answer
    A. A horn will sound.
    Explanation
    If the tank outlet manual valve on the type III hydrant system is open during an emergency stop situation, a horn will sound. This is likely a safety measure to alert individuals that the valve is open during an emergency stop, which could potentially cause further issues or hazards.

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  • 19. 

    During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come closer than how many feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet?

    • 10 feet.

    • 20 feet.

    • 25 feet.

    • 50 feet.

    Correct Answer
    A. 25 feet.
    Explanation
    During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come closer than 25 feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet. This distance is necessary to ensure the safety of personnel and prevent any potential accidents or incidents related to fuel vent outlets. Being too close to these outlets can pose a fire hazard, and maintaining a safe distance minimizes the risk of fuel ignition or other dangerous situations.

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  • 20. 

    When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank’s Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition?

    • No action is required.

    • Do not fill the receiving tank.

    • Inform the FMT and await further instructions.

    • Notify the FSC and request line expediter assistance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Do not fill the receiving tank.
    Explanation
    If a receiving tank's Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition, it means that there is a critical issue with the tank that needs to be addressed before filling it with liquid nitrogen (LIN). Filling the tank in this condition can pose a safety risk or cause further damage. Therefore, the correct action to take is to not fill the receiving tank until the issue is resolved.

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  • 21. 

    Which best describes immiscible liquids?

    • They mix well together.

    • One liquid will float on the other.

    • They will become an intrained solution.

    • They will repel each other and react violently.

    Correct Answer
    A. One liquid will float on the other.
    Explanation
    Immiscible liquids are those that do not mix well together. Instead, one liquid will float on top of the other, forming distinct layers. This occurs because the intermolecular forces between the molecules of the two liquids are not strong enough to overcome the forces of attraction within each liquid. As a result, the liquids remain separate and do not form a homogeneous solution.

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  • 22. 

    Which statement best describes a positive ion?

    • An atom that lost a proton and has more electrons.

    • An atom that lost an electron and has more protons.

    • An atom that has an equal number of electrons and protons.

    • An atom that cannot throw off any protons.

    Correct Answer
    A. An atom that lost an electron and has more protons.
    Explanation
    A positive ion is formed when an atom loses one or more electrons. This results in the atom having more protons than electrons, giving it a positive charge. Therefore, the statement "An atom that lost an electron and has more protons" best describes a positive ion.

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  • 23. 

    What type of material is used to construct the fuel tank on the R–11?

    • Titanium.

    • Stainless steel.

    • Sheet aluminum alloy.

    • Steel-reinforced carbon fiber.

    Correct Answer
    A. Sheet aluminum alloy.
    Explanation
    The fuel tank on the R-11 is constructed using a sheet aluminum alloy. This material is commonly used in aerospace applications due to its lightweight yet strong properties. Aluminum alloys offer a good balance between weight reduction and structural integrity, making them an ideal choice for fuel tanks where both durability and weight savings are important factors.

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  • 24. 

    What type of lubricant is used to lubricate the power takeoff (PTO) on a fuel dispensing system?

    • Thirty-weight motor oil.

    • Ninety-weight gear oil.

    • Synthetic gear lube.

    • Silicone grease.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ninety-weight gear oil.
    Explanation
    Ninety-weight gear oil is the correct answer because it is specifically designed for lubricating gears and other heavy-duty components. The power takeoff (PTO) on a fuel dispensing system is a mechanical device that transfers power from the engine to operate the fuel pump. Since the PTO involves gears, it requires a lubricant that can withstand high pressure and provide adequate protection. Ninety-weight gear oil, also known as 90W oil, has the viscosity and additives necessary to ensure smooth operation and prevent wear and tear on the gears.

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  • 25. 

    When should Bourdon gauges be calibrated?

    • Quarterly.

    • Semiannually.

    • Annually.

    • Biennially.

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually.
    Explanation
    Bourdon gauges should be calibrated annually. Calibrating them on a yearly basis ensures that they maintain their accuracy and reliability. Regular calibration helps to identify any deviations or inaccuracies in the gauge's measurements, allowing for necessary adjustments or repairs to be made. This ensures that the gauge continues to provide accurate readings and helps prevent any potential errors or safety hazards.

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  • 26. 

    On the type IV hydrant system, how is fuel prevented from spilling onto the hot pad if a hose separates from the nozzle during a hot refueling operation?

    • A dry break coupler inside the hose closes automatically.

    • The flow switch senses a sudden surge in fuel flow, and shuts down the pumps.

    • The pressure switch senses a sudden drop in pressure, and shuts down the pumps.

    • The fusible link melts and falls out, causing the spring-loaded butterfly part of the valve to close.

    Correct Answer
    A. A dry break coupler inside the hose closes automatically.
    Explanation
    During a hot refueling operation, if a hose separates from the nozzle on a type IV hydrant system, a dry break coupler inside the hose closes automatically. This mechanism prevents fuel from spilling onto the hot pad.

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  • 27. 

    A 3-horsepower motor consumes how much power?

    • 755 W.

    • 1,534 W.

    • 2,023 W.

    • 2,238 W.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2,238 W.
    Explanation
    A 3-horsepower motor consumes 2,238 watts of power. This can be calculated by converting horsepower to watts using the conversion factor of 746 watts per horsepower. Therefore, 3 horsepower is equal to 3 * 746 = 2,238 watts.

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  • 28. 

    When performing a semiannual inspection of fillstand bonding receptacles for proper tension, you obtain a pull measurement of five pounds. This indicates a

    • Corroded bond plug.

    • Corroded bonding receptacle.

    • Weak or damaged bond plug.

    • Weak or damaged bonding receptacle.

    Correct Answer
    A. Weak or damaged bonding receptacle.
    Explanation
    A pull measurement of five pounds during a semiannual inspection indicates a weak or damaged bonding receptacle. This means that the receptacle is not securely bonded, which can lead to poor electrical conductivity and potential safety hazards. A corroded bond plug would likely result in a higher pull measurement, while a corroded bonding receptacle would also show signs of degradation. However, in this case, the low pull measurement suggests that the bonding receptacle itself is weak or damaged.

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  • 29. 

    What component found on R–11s and R–12s prevents the auxiliary throttle from operating unless the power takeoff (PTO) is engaged?

    • PTO interlock system.

    • Throttle interlock system.

    • Emergency shutdown switch.

    • Emergency engine kill switch.

    Correct Answer
    A. Throttle interlock system.
    Explanation
    The throttle interlock system is a component found on R-11s and R-12s that prevents the auxiliary throttle from operating unless the power takeoff (PTO) is engaged. This system ensures that the auxiliary throttle can only be activated when the PTO is in use, providing an added layer of safety and preventing accidental throttle activation.

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  • 30. 

    What may a filter separator differential pressure reading below 3 pounds per square inch (psi) indicate?

    • Clean coalescer elements.

    • Damaged coalescer screens.

    • Clogged or dirty coalescers.

    • A defective O-ring or ruptured coalescers.

    Correct Answer
    A. A defective O-ring or ruptured coalescers.
    Explanation
    A filter separator differential pressure reading below 3 psi may indicate a defective O-ring or ruptured coalescers. This is because a low differential pressure suggests that there is not enough resistance in the system, which could be caused by a leak or rupture in the coalescer elements. The O-ring is a common component that can become defective and cause a decrease in pressure.

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  • 31. 

    Which publication is a memorandum issued by commercial manufacturers advising maintainers of minor defects with a product?

    • TCTO.

    • Service bulletin.

    • Technical manual.

    • Manufacturer’s recall.

    Correct Answer
    A. Service bulletin.
    Explanation
    A service bulletin is a publication issued by commercial manufacturers to inform maintainers about minor defects with a product. It provides guidance on how to address these issues and ensure the product's proper functioning. Unlike a TCTO (Time Compliance Technical Order) which deals with mandatory modifications or inspections, a service bulletin focuses on non-mandatory repairs or updates. A technical manual is a comprehensive guide for operating and maintaining a product, while a manufacturer's recall is a formal action taken to address safety or performance issues that may pose a risk to users.

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  • 32. 

    What type of inspection is performed to determine the condition of a vehicle or piece of equipment?

    • Annual inspection.

    • Special inspection.

    • Limited technical inspection.

    • Preventative maintenance and inspection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Limited technical inspection.
    Explanation
    A limited technical inspection is performed to determine the condition of a vehicle or piece of equipment. This type of inspection focuses on specific technical aspects of the vehicle or equipment and is usually conducted to identify any potential issues or problems. It may involve checking the functionality of various components, assessing the overall condition, and ensuring compliance with safety standards. Unlike an annual inspection, which is a comprehensive examination, a limited technical inspection is more targeted and specific in nature.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following may direct shipment of a vehicle with less than 50 percent life expectancy to satisfy mission requirements?

    • LRS commander.

    • Wing commander.

    • MAJCOM.

    • HQ USAF.

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM.
    Explanation
    MAJCOM stands for Major Command, which is a level of command in the United States Air Force. This level of command has the authority to direct the shipment of a vehicle with less than 50 percent life expectancy to satisfy mission requirements. The LRS commander, wing commander, and HQ USAF may have authority over other aspects of operations, but it is the MAJCOM that has the specific authority mentioned in the question.

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  • 34. 

    What size mesh screen is used in the type III hydrant system receiving strainer?

    • 20.

    • 40.

    • 60.

    • 80.

    Correct Answer
    A. 60.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 60. In a type III hydrant system, a mesh screen is used in the receiving strainer to prevent debris from entering the system. The size of the mesh screen is important because it determines the size of particles that can be filtered out. A smaller mesh size would allow for finer filtration, but it may also restrict the flow of water. On the other hand, a larger mesh size may allow larger particles to pass through, potentially causing blockages in the system. Therefore, a mesh screen size of 60 is likely the most appropriate choice for balancing filtration and water flow in a type III hydrant system.

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  • 35. 

    Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling?

    • FMFC.

    • HQ USAF/A4.

    • MAJCOM commander.

    • Air Force Petroleum Agency.

    Correct Answer
    A. MAJCOM commander.
    Explanation
    In combat or emergency situations that necessitate the use of hot refueling, the authority to approve deviations from hot refueling policies lies with the MAJCOM commander. This individual holds the highest level of command within a major command and has the authority to make decisions and override policies in critical situations. The FMFC, HQ USAF/A4, and Air Force Petroleum Agency may have roles and responsibilities related to fuel management, but the ultimate approval for deviations from hot refueling policies rests with the MAJCOM commander.

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  • 36. 

    When do the magnetic lines of force in a magnet cross?

    • When the north pole of a magnet is placed near the north pole of another magnet.

    • When the south pole of a magnet is placed near the north pole of another magnet.

    • When a permanent magnet and a temporary magnet are put together.

    • Magnetic lines of force never cross each other.

    Correct Answer
    A. Magnetic lines of force never cross each other.
    Explanation
    Magnetic lines of force never cross each other because they represent the direction of the magnetic field. If the lines were to cross, it would indicate that the magnetic field has two different directions at the same point, which is not possible. The lines always follow a continuous path from the north pole to the south pole of a magnet, or from a higher magnetic field strength to a lower magnetic field strength.

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  • 37. 

    Which is not a type of positive displacement pump?

    • Gear.

    • Piston.

    • Rotary.

    • Centrifugal.

    Correct Answer
    A. Centrifugal.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Centrifugal because it is not a type of positive displacement pump. Positive displacement pumps operate by trapping a fixed amount of fluid and then forcing it into the discharge pipe, while centrifugal pumps use centrifugal force to move the fluid. Therefore, centrifugal pumps do not fall under the category of positive displacement pumps.

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  • 38. 

    During bottom loading operations, what occurs when the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is lost?

    • The bottom loading valve modulates to prevent deadheading.

    • The electronic control module cuts power to the fillstand pump.

    • The bottom loading valve cuts power to the electronic control module.

    • The electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid.

    Correct Answer
    A. The electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid.
    Explanation
    During bottom loading operations, the signal to the bottom loading optic probe is used to determine the fill level of the tank. If this signal is lost, it indicates a potential issue with the loading process. In order to prevent any further problems, the electronic control module cuts power to the bottom loading electric air solenoid. This action stops the flow of air and prevents any further loading until the issue is resolved.

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  • 39. 

    When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure enough fuel velocity is generated to remove water and sediment by flushing the system

    • Every 90 days.

    • With all issue pumps operating.

    • With at least two issue pumps operating.

    • At 50 percent of the rated system capacity.

    Correct Answer
    A. With all issue pumps operating.
    Explanation
    When performing a hydrant flushing operation, it is important to ensure that enough fuel velocity is generated to remove water and sediment by flushing the system. This can be achieved by operating all issue pumps. By using all issue pumps, a higher flow rate can be achieved, which will help in effectively removing water and sediment from the system.

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  • 40. 

    What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment?

    • No action is required.

    • Notify the FMT and obtain an odor sample.

    • Contact AFPET for disposition instructions.

    • Inform the FSC and await further guidance.

    Correct Answer
    A. Inform the FSC and await further guidance.
    Explanation
    If a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment, the correct action to take is to inform the FSC (Fire Support Coordinator) and await further guidance. This is necessary because the DD Form 250 is a crucial document for tracking and verifying shipments, and its absence may indicate a potential issue or error in the delivery. By informing the FSC, the appropriate authorities can be notified and necessary steps can be taken to address the situation and ensure proper handling and disposition of the shipment.

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  • 41. 

    What filter separator component prevents pressure surges from damaging dispensing pressure control systems?

    • Air eliminator.

    • Water slug valve.

    • Float control valve.

    • Mainline control valve.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air eliminator.
    Explanation
    An air eliminator is a filter separator component that prevents pressure surges from damaging dispensing pressure control systems. It is designed to remove air or gas bubbles from the fluid being dispensed, ensuring a smooth and consistent flow of the liquid. By eliminating air, the air eliminator helps to maintain a stable pressure and prevents any sudden surges that could potentially damage the dispensing system.

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  • 42. 

    When performing a monthly inspection on emergency switches, check to ensure

    • The switches are not damaged.

    • Proper lubrication of the switches.

    • The switches are mechanically functional.

    • Proper operation while the system control panel/operation circuit is energized .

    Correct Answer
    A. Proper operation while the system control panel/operation circuit is energized .
    Explanation
    During a monthly inspection of emergency switches, it is important to check for proper operation while the system control panel/operation circuit is energized. This ensures that the switches are functioning correctly when they are needed in an emergency situation. Checking for proper operation while the system is energized helps to identify any potential issues or malfunctions that could affect the switches' performance. It is crucial to ensure that the switches are in good working condition to guarantee the safety and effectiveness of the emergency system.

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  • 43. 

    When, if ever, is a particulate test on a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart required?

    • Never.

    • Once every 90 days.

    • After a LOX cart has been filled.

    • When particulate contamination is suspected.

    Correct Answer
    A. When particulate contamination is suspected.
    Explanation
    A particulate test on a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart is required when there is suspicion of particulate contamination. This means that if there are any concerns or indications that the LOX cart may have been contaminated with particles, a test must be conducted to confirm and address the issue. This is necessary to ensure the purity and safety of the liquid oxygen being stored or transported in the cart.

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  • 44. 

    On the type III hydrant system, where is the ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve located on an aboveground operating storage tank?

    • On the top of the tank in the float well.

    • On the top of the tank in the gauging well.

    • On the interior of the tank at the required shut-off height.

    • On the exterior of the tank at the required shut-off height.

    Correct Answer
    A. On the exterior of the tank at the required shut-off height.
    Explanation
    The ball float assembly for the high-level shutoff valve is located on the exterior of the tank at the required shut-off height. This means that the assembly is positioned outside of the tank, at the specific height where the valve needs to close to prevent overflow. Placing it on the exterior allows for easier access and maintenance of the assembly without the need to enter the tank.

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  • 45. 

    Since manning is not required for the type V hydrant system, how often must inspections be performed when it is operating?

    • Every hour.

    • Every 2 hours.

    • Every 3 hours.

    • Every 4 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. Every 3 hours.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Every 3 hours. This is because, according to the given information, the type V hydrant system does not require manning. Therefore, regular inspections are necessary to ensure its proper functioning and to address any potential issues. Performing inspections every 3 hours allows for timely identification of any problems or malfunctions, ensuring the system's reliability and effectiveness.

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  • 46. 

    All of the following conditions would prevent a remote terminal workstation (RTW) from receiving data except

    • The remote terminal unit being turned off.

    • An inoperative remote terminal unit modem .

    • The remote terminal workstation being turned on.

    • An inoperative remote terminal workstation modem.

    Correct Answer
    A. The remote terminal workstation being turned on.
    Explanation
    The remote terminal workstation being turned on would not prevent it from receiving data. The other options all involve issues with either the remote terminal unit or the modem, which could cause a disruption in data transmission. However, as long as the remote terminal workstation is turned on, it should be able to receive data.

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  • 47. 

    Which physical factor affects the behavior of liquids in both rest and motion?

    • Friction, applied forces, and gravity.

    • Friction, inertia, and atmospheric pressure.

    • Gravity, atmospheric pressure, and inertia.

    • Gravity, atmospheric pressure, and applied forces.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gravity, atmospheric pressure, and applied forces.
    Explanation
    The behavior of liquids in both rest and motion is affected by gravity, atmospheric pressure, and applied forces. Gravity causes liquids to flow downwards and affects their density. Atmospheric pressure affects the boiling point and evaporation rate of liquids. Applied forces can cause liquids to move or change shape.

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  • 48. 

    When documenting a significant maintenance action on an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 95, what information should you enter in block 1?

    • The appropriate page number.

    • The serial number of the item.

    • The name of the equipment manufacturer.

    • The mission, design, series (MDS) of the equipment.

    Correct Answer
    A. The mission, design, series (MDS) of the equipment.
    Explanation
    In block 1 of an Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 95, you should enter the mission, design, series (MDS) of the equipment. This information is important for accurately documenting the maintenance action and ensuring that it is properly recorded and tracked. It helps in identifying the specific equipment involved and provides necessary details for reference and analysis.

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  • 49. 

    What determines the intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave?

    • The size of the pipe.

    • The specific gravity of the fuel.

    • The change in gallons per minute.

    • The amount of extinguished velocity.

    Correct Answer
    A. The amount of extinguished velocity.
    Explanation
    The intensity of the excess pressure in a water-hammer wave is determined by the amount of extinguished velocity. Water hammer occurs when there is a sudden change in the flow rate of a fluid in a pipe, causing a pressure wave to travel through the pipe. The intensity of this pressure wave is directly related to the velocity of the fluid before it is suddenly stopped or slowed down. The greater the extinguished velocity, the higher the intensity of the excess pressure in the water-hammer wave.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Dec 8, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Dec 08, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 02, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Brandon_tate_198
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