UPSC Prelims Test Series 2019 - Test 17

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1. The Union Government has recently launched the ‘Seva Bhoj Yojana’ What is it related to?

Explanation

Union Ministry of Culture launched the ‘Seva Bhoj Yojana’ scheme to reimburse the central government’s share of CGST and IGST on purchase of raw items for the preparation of food, which is offered free of cost by religious institutions. Objective of the scheme is to lessen the financial burden of such charitable religious institutions, which provide free of cost without any discrimination to the general public and devotees.
Eligibility to avail this scheme:
● The charitable religious institution must have been in existence for at least five years before applying for financial assistance/grant.
● The institutions must serve free food to at least 5000 people in a month.
● The institutions should be covered under Section 10(23BBA) of the Income Tax Act or those registered as ‘society’ under Societies Registration Act (XXI of 1860) or as a Public Trust under any law for the time being in force of statuary religious bodies constituted under any Act or institutions registered.

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UPSC Prelims Test Series 2019 - Test 17 - Quiz

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2. Consider the following statements: 1. On the advice of the Chief minister, Governor can remove a minister at a time when the council of ministers enjoys the confidence of the legislative assembly. 2. Article 164 states that the council of ministers are collectively responsible to the legislative assembly of the state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Article 164 states that the council of ministers are collectively responsible to the legislative assembly of the state.
Article 164 also contains the principle of individual responsibility. It states that the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the governor. This means that the governor can remove a minister at a time when the council of ministers enjoys the confidence of the legislative assembly. But, the governor can remove a minister only on the advice of the chief minister.

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3. Which of the following can be called the identity card of the constitution :

Explanation

The term ‘preamble’ refers to the introduction or preface to the Constitution. It contains the summary or essence of the Constitution. N A Palkhivala, an eminent jurist and constitutional expert, called the Preamble as the ‘identity card of the Constitution.’

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4. The “Internal and Extra Budgetary Resources” of Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs) include which of the following: 1. Profit of CPSUs 2. Domestic and foreign loans raised by CPSUs Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation

The investment by Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs) is financed through the following two modes:
• Budgetary support provided by the Central Government
• IEBR raised by CPSUs on their own.
Internal and Extra Budgetary Resources (IEBR) comprises of internal resources, and extra-budgetary resources. Broadly, the internal resources comprise of retained profits – net of dividend to Government and carry forward of reserves and surpluses. And extra-budgetary resources are the sum of domestic and foreign loans raised directly by the CPSUs

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5. Consider the following statements regarding dead zones. 1. Hypoxic zones in oceans lead to the formation of dead Zones. 2. These zones are reversible if its causes are reduced or eliminated. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Hypoxic zones or Oxygen minimum zones (OMZ) are areas in the ocean of such low oxygen concentration that animal life suffocates and dies or leaves the area, and as a result are sometimes called "dead zones." Hence, habitats that would normally be teeming with life become, essentially, biological deserts. These zones are reversible if its causes are reduced or eliminated. One of the largest dead zones forms in the Gulf of Mexico every spring. Nutrients such as nitrogen flow from North America's Corn Belt through streams and rivers and end up in the Gulf. The dead zones in the Arabian Sea have also been growing in size. It is the thickest and the most intense OMZ among the world‘s oceans and covers an area of around two million sq km

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6. Which of the following statements are correct? 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections. 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

Explanation

Election commission has three election commissioners.
Election commission decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
It also decides the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

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7. Taj Mahal Declaration recently seen in news is related to ?

Explanation

Taj Declaration to Beat Plastic Pollution was adopted as part of which efforts would be made to make the 500-metre area around the historic ivory-white marble monument litter-free and phase out single-use plastic.

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8. The term “Shanghai Spirit” is associated With

Explanation

The Shanghai Spirit is the core value of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO). It emphasises harmony, working by consensus, respect for other cultures, non-alignment and noninterference in the internal matters of the member states and non-member states

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9. Which of the following are true regarding the National Common Mobility Card (NCMC)? 1. It allows the holders to pay for their bus travel, toll taxes, parking charges, retail shopping and even withdraw money. 2. It runs on RuPay. Codes:

Explanation

Dubbed as ‘One Nation One Card’, the inter-operable transport card would allow the holders to pay for their bus travel, toll taxes, parking charges, retail shopping and even withdraw money.
● This card runs on RuPay card. With the advent of this indigenously-developed and one-of-its-kind card, the country is no longer required to be dependent on foreign technology.
● The stored value on card supports offline transaction across all travel needs with minimal financial risk to involved stakeholders.
● Ministry of housing & urban affairs brought to the fore the National Common Mobility Card (NCMC) to enable seamless travel by different metros and other transport systems across the country besides retail shopping and purchases.

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10. Which of the following regarding the Minimum Support Price are incorrect?

Explanation

According to M S Swaminathan committee the 1.5-times MSP formula should be applied on “C2 costs”.

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11. “New York Declaration” of UN General Assembly relates to which of the following:

Explanation

In 2016, UNGA adopted “New York Declaration” for refugees and migrants

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12. In the Constitution of India Division of powers is envisaged in which of the following :

Explanation

Seventh Schedule deals with the Division of powers - Union List (for central Govt) 97 Subjects; States List (for State Govt) 66 subjects and Concurrent List (for both Union and States) 47 subjects.

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13. The All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) is the oldest trade union federations in India. Who among the following is the First President if the All India Trade Union Congress ?

Explanation

Lala Lajpat Rai was the first President of All India Trade Union Congress.

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14. Which of the following are imposed in case a country’s government is subsidizing its exporters?

Explanation

when a government gives export subsidy then such subsidies are actionable by way of levying countervailing duty. Safeguard duty are applied when there is a surge in imports of a particular product irrespective of a particular country/ies. Dumping is said to occur when the goods are exported by a country to another country at a price lower than its normal value. This is an unfair trade practice which can have a distortive effect on international trade. Anti-dumping is a measure to rectify the situation arising out of the dumping of goods and its trade distortive effect.

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15. What is ‘IPrism”, sometimes seen in the news?

Explanation

● The Cell for IPR Promotion and Management (CIPAM), Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, in collaboration with ASSOCHAM and ERICSSON India, has launched the second edition of ‘IPrism’, an Intellectual Property (IP) competition for students of schools, polytechnic institutes, colleges and universities.
● Aiming to foster a culture of innovation and creativity in the younger generation, the competition will provide young creators an opportunity to see their creations recognized on a national platform.

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16. K.S. Puttaswamy case is related to

Explanation

K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India — ‘the right to privacy case’ where Supreme court said that Fundamental right to privacy isflowing from Articles 19 and 21 of the Constitution.

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17. Operation Greens scheme was announced in the Union Budget 2018-19 on the lines of ‘Operation Flood’. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about it? 1. It aims for holistic development of the bamboo sector by adopting area-based approach. 2. The scheme has an outlay of Rs.5000 lakh crore 3. The scheme will focus on promoting Farmer Producers Organizations (FPOs), agri-logistics, processing facilities and professional management. Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Explanation

Operation Greens In the budget speech of Union Budget 2018-19, a new Scheme “Operation Greens” was announced on the line of “Operation Flood”, with an outlay of Rs.500 crore to promote Farmer Producers Organizations (FPOs), agri-logistics, processing facilities and professional management. Accordingly, the Ministry has formulated a scheme for integrated development of Tomato, Onion and Potato (TOP) value chain

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18. Consider the following statements regarding Goods and Services Tax? 1. It will lead to harmonization of taxes 2. Supplies to exports are zero rated Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation

GST has lead to reduction in number of taxes and now the same tax rate is across all the country on all goods and services. This is called harmonization of taxes. On exports, Govt credits back the GST paid to suppliers and hence effectively there is no GST on exports which is also called zero rated.

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19. Which of the following is/are correctly matched? Folk Music/Dance State 1. Gotipua Odisha 2. Siddhi Dhamal Gujarat 3. Bhad Pather Himachal Pradesh

Explanation

Bhand Pather of Kashmir, Gotipua from Odisha and Siddhi Dhamal from Gujarat

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20. The Global Cyber Security Index is given by:

Explanation

The Global Cyber Security Index has been released by the UN telecommunications agency International Telecommunication Union (ITU).

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21. Which of the following categories are covered under Priority Sector Lending? 1. Social Infrastructure 2. Renewable Energy 3. Housing 4. Export Credit Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation

Categories under priority sector are:
1. Agriculture
2. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
3. Export Credit
4. Education
5. Housing
6. Social Infrastructure
7. Renewable Energy
8. Others

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22. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding Serious Fraud Investigation Office?

Explanation

The SFIO is a fraud investigating agency in India, under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. The SFIO is involved in major fraud probes and is the co-ordinating agency with the Income Tax Department and the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). It is headquartered in New Delhi.

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23. Identify correct statements from the following regarding the India State of Forest Reports. 1. India State of Forest Report provides state wise and district wise forest cover. 2. This report is published by the Forest Survey of India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Forest Survey of India under The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has released India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2017. It provides state wise and district wise forest cover.

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24. Consider the following statements about Laboratory for the Conservation of Endangered Species (LaCONES). 1. It is India’s only facility for conservation of endangered species. 2. It is a facility of CSIR’s Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB). 3. It has helped to increase the population of mouse deer in Telangana forests. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

The Laboratory for the Conservation of Endangered Species (LaCONES), a dedicated facility of CSIR’s Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) in Hyderabad uses modern biotechnologies for conservation of endangered wildlife. India’s only facility for conservation of endangered species.
Achievements of Laboratory for the Conservation of Endangered Species (LaCONES):
● LaCONES has helped the Mouse Deer Conservation Breeding Centre at Nehru Zoological Park to increase the population of mouse deer in Telangana forests. Amrabad forest, for instance, ran out of mouse deer and through the efforts of LaCONES, the animal is now reintroduced in Amrabad Tiger Reserve.
● Earlier, LaCONES has developed universal DNA based marker for identification of wild animals from parts and remains. It has a DNA banking of more than 250 species of mammals, birds and reptiles.

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25. National Mission on Government eMarketplace (GeM) was launched by

Explanation

The Ministry of Commerce & Industry launched National Mission on GeM (NMG) in September 2018. The objective of the Mission was to accelerate the adoption and use of Procurement by Major Central Ministries, States and UTs and their agencies (including CPSUs/PSUs, Local Bodies) on the GeM platform.

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26. While travelling in the Himalayas, you passed through the following passes. 1. Bidil pass 2. Golabghar pass 3. Banihal pass In which of the following ranges are you travelling ?

Explanation

The best known passes of the Pir Panjal Range are the Pir panjal pass, the Bidil pass, Golabghar pass and Banihal pass. The Banihal pass is used by the Jammu-Srinagar Highway.

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27. Consider the following statements: 1. A Fast breeder reactor generates more fissile material than it consumes. 2. Moderator is not used in this reactor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

A Fast breeder reactor is a nuclear reactor that generates more fissile material than it consumes. Fast Breeder reactors achieve this because their neutron economy is high enough to create more fissile fuel than they use, by irradiation of a fertile material, such as uranium-238 or thorium-232 that is loaded into the reactor along with fissile fuel.
Moderator slows down the speed of neutrons in a reactor. Fast breeder reactor (FBR) is unmoderated as it uses fast neutrons to breed fissile plutonium.

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28. Lot of research work is done in collaboration rather than isolation. In this context ISMEX and MONEX are terms related to?

Explanation

India and former USSR conducted 2 experiments with limited participation from other countries. These experiments are known as the Indo Soviet Monsoon experiment (ISMEX) and Monsoon -77 respectively. It was observed from these experiments that there is a specific zone off the coast of Kenya where the monsoons from the southern hemisphere crossed the equator on their way to India. It was also observed that the fluctuations in the intensity of low level across the equator resulted in the fluctuations of rainfall over Maharashtra. Upper air observations over the Bay of Bengal were also made in 1977.
More data intensive data collection effort was made under the aegis of another international experiment - The Monsoon Experiment in 1977. It is popularly known as MONEX 1979. The Great MONNEX was designed to have three components considering the seasonal characteristics of monsoon.

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29. Election Commission of India conducts elections to which of the following offices : 1. Vice-President of India 2. President of India. 3. Speaker of Lok Sabha and Speaker State Legislative Assembly 4. Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Chairman of State Legislative Council 5. Elections to Members of Upper House of the Parliament and Members of State Legislative Council.

Explanation

Election Commission of India conducts elections to President of India, Vice-President of India, Members of Upper House of the Parliament and Members of State Legislative Council.
Election for Speaker of Lok Sabha, Chairman of State Legislative Council and Speaker State Legislative Assembly is not conducted by Election Commission of India.

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30. Anak Krakatoa is located between

Explanation

Anak Krakatoa is an island in a caldera in the Sunda Strait situated between the islands of Java and Sumatra in the Indonesia.

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31. The latitudes that pass through Sikkim also pass through:
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32. If a University has been accorded 12 (b) status, what does it signify?

Explanation

12 (b) status will able to obtain various grants from UGC and also will enable the varsity to apply for international collaboration programmes and start innovative programmes with the support of UGC.

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33. Following is a list of activities. 1. Burning of biofuels. 2. Using Jatropha oil as Automobile fuel. 3. Using wind to generate power. Which of the above activities improve India’s emission profile?

Explanation

Biofuels are carbon-neutral because the amount of carbon dioxide released when the fuel is burned is believed to be the same as the amount of carbon dioxide the plants absorbed when they grew. So replacing fossil fuels with biofuels should therefore reduce the amount of carbon dioxide released into the atmosphere.Using wind to generate power is a carbon negative activity. Hence, all of these are expected to improve India’s emission profile.

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34. Consider the following statements regarding the “Price Stabilization Fund” launched under Ministry of Agriculture: 1. It will promote direct purchase of produce from farmers 2. It will maintain a strategic buffer stock 3. It will protect consumers by supplying commodities at reasonable prices 4. It is a kind of market intervention scheme Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation

Ministry/Department: Department of Agriculture Cooperation& Farmers Welfare, Ministry of
Agriculture
Objective: Objective of the PSF was to safeguard the interest of the growers and provide them financial relief when prices fall below a specified level. It is a Central Sector Scheme launched in 2003.
• To support market interventions for price control of perishable agri horticultural commodities.
• PSF will be used to advance interest free loan to State Governments and Central agencies to support their working capital and other expenses on procurement and distribution interventions for such commodities
• Procurement of the commodities will be undertaken directly from farmers or farmers’ organizations at farm gate/mandi and made available at a more reasonable price to the consumers.
• Initially the fund is proposed to be used for onion and potato only. Losses incurred, if any, in the operations will be shared between the Centre and the States.
Framework and Funding:
• States will set up a revolving fund to which the Centre and State will contribute equally.
• The ratio of Centre-State contribution to the State-level corpus in respect of northeast States will, however, be 75:25

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35. Which of the following regions is known as ‘Molassis Basin’?

Explanation

Mizoram is known as Land of rolling mountains, it has huge number of mountains. Formation of most mountains is accompanied by formation of foreland basin or in simple terms valley type depression which runs parallel to mountains. These depression get accumulated with unconsolidated deposits known as molasses basin.

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36. Which of the following statements are true regarding SAMPADA scheme? 1. It is implemented by Ministry of Agriculture 2. It will focus on agro-marine processing Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation

The objective of SAMPADA scheme is to supplement agriculture, modernize processing (of marine and agri-produce) and decrease agri-waste. It is implemented by ministry of Food Processing Industries.

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37. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding legislative procedures in the State Legislature with regard to Ordinary Bills.

Explanation

With Regard to Ordinary Bills, the state legislature has following procedures:
It can be introduced in either House of the state legislature.
It can be introduced either by a minister or by private member.
It passes through first reading, second reading and third reading in the originating House.
It is deemed to have been passed by the state legislature only when both the Houses have agreed to it, either with or without amendments.
A deadlock between the two Houses takes place when the legislative council, after receiving a bill passed by the legislative assembly, rejects the bill or proposes amendments that are not acceptable to the legislative assembly or does not pass the bill within three months.
The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses of the state legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a bill.

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38. In India, Judicial Review implies

Explanation

Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void.

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39. Identify correct statements from the following. 1. National Biodiversity Authority is constituted under the Provisions of Biological Diversity Act, 2002. 2. National Biodiversity Authority checks biopiracy. 3. The Headquarters of National Biodiversity Authority is at Chennai. Codes:

Explanation

The Biological Diversity Act (2002) mandates implementation of the Act through decentralized system with the NBA focusing on advising the Central Government. The NBA with its headquarters in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, delivers its mandate through a structure that comprises of the Authority, Secretariat, SBBs, BMC. National Biodiversity Authority also checks biopiracy.

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40. Climate change is one of the factors attributed to extinction of organisms. Which among the following is the first mammal species to get extinct due to anthropogenic climate change?

Explanation

● Australia officially declared a great barrier reef rodent extinct on Feb 19th, 2019, making it the first mammal believed to have been killed off by human induced climate change.
● The rodent, which built furrows in herd fields and among strandline plants, had been feared to be extinct for some time. The Australian government’s decision to list the species as extinct comes after the Queensland state government made an identical determination in 2016.
● The rat like Bramble Cay melomys whose only known habitat was a small sandy island in far northern Australia had not been spotted in a decade.

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41. Consider the following statements about National Agricultural Market: 1. It is a common e-market platform for different regulated wholesale markets in States/UTs. 2. It is not mandatory for the markets to join the platform. 3. Central Government will meet expenses on software and its customization for the States and provide it free of cost to the States and UTs. Which of the statements given above is/are true?

Explanation

The revised scheme envisages implementation of the National Agriculture Market (NAM) by setting up of an appropriate common e-market platform that would be deployable in selected 585 regulated wholesale markets in States/UTs desirous of joining the e-platform. Small Farmers Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC) will implement the national e-platform and will cover 250, 200 and 135 mandis during 2015- 16, 2016-17 and 2017-18 respectively.
Department of Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare (DAC&FW) will meet expenses on software and its customization for the States and provide it free of cost to the States and UTs DAC&FW will also give grant as one-time fixed cost subject to the ceiling of Rs.30.00 lakh per Mandi (other than to the private mandis) for related equipment / infrastructure in 585 regulated mandis, for installation of the e-market platform. State Governments will suggest names of APMCs where this project would be initiated.

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42. With reference to Jal Marg Vikas Project, consider the following statements: 1. Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is the implementing agency for this project. 2. The project is being implemented with financial and technical support from Asian Development Bank (ADB). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Jal Marg Vikas Project seeks to facilitate plying of vessels with capacity of 1,500-2,000 tonnes in the Haldia-Varanasi stretch of the River Ganga. The major works being taken up under JMVP are development of fairway, Multi-Modal Terminals, strengthening of river navigation system, conservancy works, modern River Information System (RIS), Digital Global Positioning System (DGPS), night navigation facilities, modern methods of channel marking etc. JMVP, which is expected to be completed by March, 2023, is being implemented with the financial and technical support of World Bank. The project will enable commercial navigation of vessels with the capacity of 1500-2,000 tons on NW-1. Its objective is to promote inland waterways as a cheap and environment-friendly means of transportation, especially for cargo movement. The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) is the project implementing agency.

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43. UN Global Media Compact is related to:

Explanation

The United Nations launched the SDG Media Compact, an initiative marking a new drive to advance awareness of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). The Compact seeks to inspire media and entertainment companies around the world to leverage their resources and creative talent to advance the Goals.

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44. Consider the following statements about Atmospheric Water Generator (AWG) unveiled by Bharat Electronics Ltd (BEL). 1. The Atmospheric Water Generator is being manufactured by BEL in collaboration with Israel. 2. It extracts water from the humidity present in the atmosphere. 3. The water extracted is Non–potable. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Explanation

● The Atmospheric Water Generator is being manufactured by BEL in collaboration with CSIR-IICT and MAITHRI, a start-up company based in Hyderabad.
● BEL’s Atmospheric Water Generator employs a novel technology to extract water from the humidity present in the atmosphere and purify it.
● It uses heat exchange for condensing the atmospheric moisture to produce pure, safe and clean potable water.

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45. Which of the following is related to Israel-Palestine Conflict? 1. Madrid Conference of 1991 2. Saudi Initiative 3. Oslo Accords 4. The Quartet

Explanation

The Madrid Conference of 1991 was a peace conference, held from 30 October to 1 November 1991 in Madrid, hosted by Spain and co-sponsored by the United States and the Soviet Union. It was an attempt by the international community to revive the Israeli– Palestinian peace process through negotiations, involving Israel and the Palestinians as well as Arab countries, including Jordan, Lebanon and Syria.
The Arab Peace Initiative, also known as the "Saudi Initiative", is a 10 sentence proposal for an end to the Arab–Israeli conflict that was endorsed by the Arab League in 2002 at the Beirut Summit and re-endorsed at the 2007 Arab League summit and at the 2017 Arab League summit. The initiative calls for normalizing relations between the Arab region and Israel, in exchange for a full withdrawal by Israel from the occupied territories (including East Jerusalem) and a "just settlement" of the Palestinian refugee problem based on UN Resolution 194.
The Oslo Accords are a set of agreements between the Government of Israel and the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO): the Oslo I Accord, signed in Washington, D.C., in 1993; and the Oslo II Accord, signed in Taba, Egypt, in 1995. The Oslo Accords marked the start of the Oslo process, a peace process aimed at achieving a peace treaty based on United Nations Security Council Resolutions 242 and 338, and at fulfilling the "right of the Palestinian people to self-determination." The Oslo process started after secret negotiations in Oslo, resulting in the recognition by the PLO of the State of Israel and the recognition by Israel of the PLO as the representative of the Palestinian people and as a partner in negotiations.

The Oslo Accords created a Palestinian Authority tasked with limited self-governance of parts of the West Bank and Gaza Strip; and acknowledged the PLO as Israel's partner in permanent-status negotiations about remaining questions. The Oslo Accords did not create a Palestinian state.
The Quartet on the Middle East or Middle East Quartet, sometimes called the Diplomatic Quartet or Madrid Quartet or simply the Quartet, is a foursome of nations and international and supranational entities involved in mediating the Israeli–Palestinian peace process. The Quartet comprises the United Nations, the United States, the European Union, and Russia. The group was established in Madrid in 2002, recalling Madrid Conference of 1991, as a result of the escalating conflict in the Middle East.

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46. Following are statements related to the National Digital Communications Policy 2018. 1. National Digital Communications Policy - 2018 replaces the National Telecom Policy 2012. 2. It focuses on providing Broadband connectivity for all. 3. It also focuses on increasing the contribution of ICT based services. Identify the correct statements:

Explanation

National Digital Communications Policy 2018 envisions supporting India’s transition to digitally empowered economy and society by fulfilling information and communications needs of citizens and enterprises. It strives to achieve this by establishing ubiquitous, resilient and affordable digital communications infrastructure and services. It is customer focused and application driven. It will help lead to new ideas and innovations after launch of advanced technology such as 5G, IOT, M2M, etc. which shall govern India’s telecom sector.
Key Objectives: Broadband for all; Creating four million additional jobs in Digital Communications sector; Enhancing contribution of Digital Communications sector to 8% of India’s GDP from ~ 6% in 2017; Propelling India to Top 50 Nations in ICT Development Index of ITU from 134 in 2017 and Enhancing India’s contribution to Global Value Chains and Ensuring Digital Sovereignty. These objectives are to be achieved by 2022.

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47. Consider the following statements: 1. The phrase "unity and integrity of the nation" from preamble refers to only territorial dimensions of national integration. 2. Article 1 of the Constitution aims at overcoming hindrances to national integration like communalism, regionalism, casteism, linguism and secessionism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Explanation

The phrase ‘unity and integrity of the nation’ embraces both the psychological and territorial dimensions of national integration.
Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a ‘Union of States’ to make it clear that the states have no right to secede from the Union, implying the indestructible nature of the Indian Union. It aims at overcoming hindrances to national integration like communalism, regionalism, casteism, linguism, secessionism and so on.

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48. Consider the following statements regarding office of the Governor : 1. It is an independent constitutional office. 2. Governor office is under the control of the Central government Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Explanation

Governor is appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal. In a way, he is a nominee of the Central government. But, as held by the Supreme Court in 1979, the office of governor of a state is not an employment under the Central government. It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or subordinate to the Central government.

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49. Consider the following statements about Scheme for Promotion of Academic and Research Collaboration (SPARC) 1. It facilitates research collaboration between Indian research groups with research groups in the leading universities of the world in areas that are at the cutting edge of science. 2. It is an initiative of Ministry of Science and Technology. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

● Union Minister of Human Resource Development launched the web portal of the Scheme for Promotion of Academic and Research Collaboration (SPARC).
● Under this Scheme, 600 joint research proposals will be awarded for 2 years to facilitate strong research collaboration between Indian research groups with the best in class faculty and renowned research groups in the leading universities of the world, in areas that are at the cutting edge of science or with direct social relevance to the mankind, specifically India.

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50. Consider the following statements: 1. Right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right 2. Co-operatives are granted Constitutional status under the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave a constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies. In this context, it made the following three changes in the Constitution:
1. It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right (Article 19).
2. It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of cooperative societies (Article 43-B).
3. It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled as “The Cooperative Societies” (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT).
The new Part IX-B contains various provisions to ensure that the cooperative societies in the country function in a democratic, professional, autonomous and economically sound manner. It empowers the Parliament in respect of multi-state cooperative societies and the state legislatures in respect of other co-operative societies to make the appropriate law.

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51. Consider the following countries: 1. Kazakhstan 2. Japan 3. Vietnam 4. South Korea 5. Namibia With which of the above countries India have Civil Nuclear Agreement signed?

Explanation

India has signed Civil Nuclear Agreements with more than 14 countries which include USA, UK, France, Kazakhstan, Japan, Argentina, Vietnam, South Korea, Namibia etc.

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52. United States has withdrawn from implementing its commitments under the Paris agreement. Which of the following is true in this regard ?

Explanation

According to Article 28 of the Paris agreement, after joining the agreement, a country can’t leave for three years, after which there is a one-year waiting period for the leave to be fully in effect. That means that the agreement itself legally entered into force on Nov. 4, 2016. So that’s the day when the clock starts ticking for any possible U.S. withdrawal, under the terms of the agreement.

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53. Which of the following are the members of OPEC? 1. Saudi Arabia 2. Iran 3. Iraq 4. Qatar 5. Nigeria 6. Indonesia Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Explanation

The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) was founded in Baghdad, Iraq, with the signing of an agreement in September 1960 by five countries namely Islamic Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela. They were to become the Founder Members of the Organization.
These countries were later joined by Qatar, Indonesia, Libya, the United Arab Emirates, Algeria, Nigeria, Ecuador, Gabon, and Angola. The latest to join OPEC are Equatorial Guinea which joined in 2017 and Congo in 2018.
Ecuador suspended its membership in December 1992, but rejoined OPEC in October 2007.
Indonesia suspended its membership in January 2009, reactivated it again in January 2016, but decided to suspend its membership once more at the 171st Meeting of the OPEC Conference on 30 November 2016. Gabon terminated its membership in January 1995. However, it rejoined the Organization in July 2016. Qatar terminated its membership on 1 January 2019. This means that, currently, the Organization has a total of 14 Member Countries

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54. Preamble declares to constitute India into a republic. In this context republic means 1. The President of India is elected. 2. Political sovereignty is vested in the people 3. All public offices are opened to every citizen without any discrimination. 4. Head of the state has immunity from civil and criminal proceedings during his term of office.

Explanation

The term ‘republic’ in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head called the president. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years.
A republic also means two more things: one, vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual like a king; second, the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices being opened to every citizen without any discrimination.

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55. Which of the following bills lapsed with dissolution of 16th Lok Sabha : 1. The Aadhaar and Other Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2019 2. Whistle Blowers Protection (Amendment) Bill, 2015 3. Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition 4. The Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill 2018, 5. The muslim women (protection of rights on marriage) bill, 2018.
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56. Consider the following statements about Small Farmers’ Agri-Business Consortium (SFAC) 1. SFAC has pioneered the formation of Farmer Producer Organizations/Farmer Producer Companies. 2. It offers Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme to FPCs to improve availability of working capital. 3. It implements e-Nam Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

● SFAC is an exclusive Society focused on increasing incomes of small and marginal farmers through aggregation and development of agribusiness.
● SFAC has pioneered the formation and growth of Farmer Producer Organizations/Farmer Producer Companies.
● SFAC offers Schemes like Equity Grant and Credit Guarantee Fund Scheme to FPCs to improve availability of working capital and development of business activities.
● SFAC is also implementing the National Agriculture Market Electronic Trading (e-Nam) platform.

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57. Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana has been launched in 2017 for supplementing agriculture, modernizing processing and decreasing agri-waste. Which of the following schemes are a part of umbrella scheme? 1. Mega Food Parks 2. Integrated Cold Chain 3. Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana Select the correct answer(s) from the codes given below:

Explanation

Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana
It is an umbrella scheme incorporating ongoing schemes of the Ministry like Mega Food Parks, Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure, Food Safety and Quality Assurance Infrastructure, etc. and also new schemes like Infrastructure for Agro-processing Clusters, Creation of Backward and Forward Linkages, Creation / Expansion of Food Processing & Preservation Capacities.

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58. Consider the following statements regarding social life during Gupta period 1. During the Gupta period, the caste system became rigid. 2. The practice of untouchability had slowly begun during this period 3. The position of women had also become miserable during the Gupta period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

During the Gupta period, the caste system became rigid. The Brahmins occupied the top ladder of the society. They were given enormous gifts by the rulers as well as other wealthy people. The practice of untouchability had slowly begun during this period. Fahien mentions that Chandalas were segregated from the society. Their miserable condition was elaborated by the Chinese traveler. The position of women had also become miserable during the Gupta period. They were prohibited from studying the religious texts like the Puranas. The subjection of women to men was thoroughly regularized. But it was insisted that they should be protected and generously treated by men. The practice of Swayamvara was given up and the Manusmriti suggested the early marriage for girls

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59. Which of the following are correctly matched with respect to the Indian Constitution : 1. Part V - Union Government 2. Part II - Citizenship 3. Part-IX A - Panchayats 4. Part-IX B - Municipalities

Explanation

With respect to the Indian Constitution
1) Part V (i) Union Government
2) Part II (ii) Citizenship
3) Part-IX A (iii)Municipalities
4) Part-IX B (iv) Cooperatives

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60. Consider the following statements: 1. The soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall. 2. They are generally poor in nitrogen, phosphorous and humus. 3. They are fertile when fine-grained and are poor in fertility when they are coarse-grained. The above statements refer to:

Explanation

Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the eastern and southern part of the Deccan Plateau. Along the piedmont zone of the Western Ghat, long stretch of area is occupied by red loamy soil. Yellow and red soils are also found in parts of Odisha and Chhattisgarh and in the southern parts of the middle Ganga plain. The soil develops a reddish colour due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form. The fine-grained red and yellow soils are normally fertile, whereas coarse-grained soils found in dry upland areas are poor in fertility. They are generally poor in nitrogen, phosphorous and humus.

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61. Sovereign Patent Fund, sometimes seen in news is related to promoting the development and acquisition of intellectual property in which of the following sectors ?

Explanation

Sovereign Patent Fund (SPF) to promote the development and acquisition of IPs (Intellectual Property) in ESDM sector, according to the national electronics policy.

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62. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the DNA?

Explanation

DNA is present in Chloroplast, mitochondria and Nucleus.

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63. Consider the following statements regarding Constituent Assembly: 1. Under Indian independence Act 1947, the Assembly also became a legislative body. 2. Constituent Assembly held its final session on January 24, 1950 and thereafter, it ceased its activities. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Explanation

Statement I:
The Indian Independence Act of 1947 made the following three changes in the position of the Assembly:
1. The Assembly was made a fully sovereign body, which could frame any Constitution it pleased. The act empowered the Assembly to abrogate or alter any law made by the British Parliament in relation to India.
2. The Assembly also became a legislative body. In other words, two separate functions were assigned to the Assembly that is, making of a constitution for free India and enacting of ordinary laws for the country. These two tasks were to be performed on separate days. Thus, the Assembly became the first Parliament of free India (Dominion Legislature). Whenever the Assembly met as the Constituent body it was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad and when it met as the legislative body, it was chaired by G V Mavlankar. These two functions continued till November 26, 1949, when the task of making the Constitution was over.
3. The Muslim League members (hailing from the areas included in the Pakistan) withdrew from the Constituent Assembly for India. Consequently, the total strength of the Assembly came down to 299 as against 389 originally fixed in 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan. The strength of the Indian provinces (formerly British Provinces) was reduced from 296 to 229 and those of the princely states from 93 to 70
Statement II:
On January 24, 1950, the Constituent Assembly held its final session. It, however, did not end, and continued as the provisional parliament of India From January 26, 1950 till the formation of new Parliament after the first general elections in 1951–52.

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64. Constitution envisages which of the following as the bulwarks of the democratic system of Government in India : 1. Election Commission 2. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India 3. Union Public Service Commission 4. State Public Service Commission

Explanation

They are envisaged by the Constitution as the bulworks of the democratic system of Government in India.
These are:
(a) Election Commission to ensure free and fair elections to the Parliament, the state legislatures, the office of President of India and the office of Vice-president of India.
(b) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India to audit the accounts of the Central and state governments. He acts as the guardian of public purse and comments on the legality and propriety of government expenditure.
(c) Union Public Service Commission to conduct examinations for recruitment to all-India services and higher Central services and to advise the President on disciplinary matters.
(d) State Public Service Commission in every state to conduct examinations for recruitment to state services and to advice the governor on disciplinary matters

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65. Consider the following statements 1. Black soils are rich in Iron, magnesia and alumina. 2. Laterite soils are rich in lime, iron oxide and aluminium compounds. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

● Chemically, the black soils are rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina. They also contain potash. But they lack in phosphorus, nitrogen and organic matter.
● Laterite soil – With rain, lime and silica are leached away, and soils rich in iron oxide and aluminium compound are left behind. These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess.

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66. Government has launched a new umbrella scheme “Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan’ (PM-AASHA). Consider the following statements with regards to it. 1. It provides crop insurance at very low rates to the farmers. 2. It also provides for a pension to the farmers above the age of 60 years. Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Explanation

Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan’ (PM-AASHA) The Scheme is aimed at ensuring remunerative prices to the farmers for their produce as announced in the Union Budget for 2018.
Components of PM-AASHA: The new Umbrella Scheme includes the mechanism of ensuring remunerative prices to the farmers and is comprised of
1. Price Support Scheme (PSS),
2. Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS)
3. Pilot of Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPPS)
The other existing schemes of Department of Food and Public Distribution (DFPD) for procurement of paddy, wheat and nutri-cereals/coarse grains and of Ministry of Textile for cotton and jute will be continued for providing MSP to farmers for these crops

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67. Consider the following statements: 1. Writ Jurisdiction of Supreme court is wider than writ jurisdiction of High Court. 2. Supreme court can issue writs with respect to ordinary laws. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

The high courts are also empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights.
The Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights and not for other purposes. The high court, on the other hand, can issue writs not only for the enforcement of the fundamental rights but also for other purposes.

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68. Indian constitution protects " dignity of individual " through which of the following : 1. Fundamental rights 2. Directive principles of state policy. 3. Fundamental Duties. 4. Provision of placing laws in in Ninth Schedule of the Constitution

Explanation

Dignity of individual is highlighted through some of the provisions of the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy, which ensure the dignity of individuals. Further, the Fundamental Duties (Article 51A) also protect the dignity of women by stating that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women, and also makes it the duty of every citizen of India to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
Laws in Ninth Schedule are placed to evade judicial review, which therefore indirectly limits the fundamental rights through legislative action of the state.

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69. The states which require the Inner Line Permit are 1. Arunachal Pradesh 2. Meghalaya 3. Mizoram 4. Jammu and Kashmir 5. Nagaland Select the correct code:

Explanation

The states which require the Inner Line Permit are Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Nagaland. Indian citizens also need a Nagaland-issued ILP if entering Manipur by road via Dimapur or Kohima. An ILP was previously required for certain parts of the Leh district in Jammu and Kashmir. This requirement was abolished by a circular issued by district magistrate which took effect from 1 May 2014, although foreign nationals are required to get Protected Area Permit for this region.

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70. Following are the pairs of parallel governments and the leaders/ organizations that led them. Identify the incorrectly matched pair(s). 1. Ballia - Chittu Pandey. 2. Satara - YB Chavan. 3. Tamluk-Bidyut Bahinis. Codes:
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71. Chirala anti-tax agitation is one of the major agitations that took place at the time of the Non Cooperation Movement. Which of the following is true regarding the movement? 1. The movement was directed against the policies of the Viceroy of India. 2. The objective of the movement remained unfulfilled till 1937. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

The satyagraha had its roots in the decision of the colonial government of the Madras Presidency to combine the villages of Chirala and Perala in Guntur district into a municipality, not against the policies of the viceroy of India.The objective of the movement was realized only in 1937 with Bezawada Gopal Reddy dissolving the Municipality.

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72. Consider the following statements regarding polymetallic nodules 1. India has obtained the technology of exploiting these mineral nodules from the ocean beds. 2. India is the first country to obtain the right (granted by the UN) to exploit polymetallic nodules in the Indian Ocean. 3. Seafloor phosphorite contains phosphate mineral which is used to manufacture fertilizers and certain other chemicals. Which among the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Several investigations in the mid 1960’s reported finding enrichment of manganese and iron in the sediments of wide areas of the ocean floor also, especially along the mid-Indian rise. India has obtained the technology of exploiting these mineral nodules form the ocean beds. The United Nations has granted permission to India to exploit the polymetallic nodules over an area of 1,50,000 sq km in the Indian Ocean. India is the first country to obtain such a right.
Seafloor phosphorite contain phosphate mineral which is used for the manufacture of phosphate fertilizers and certain phosphate based chemicals. In the Indian Ocean phosphorites deposits occur along the coast of Arabian Peninsula, east coast of India in the Bay of Bengal, near Andaman and Nicobar Islands and in the south of Sri Lanka.

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73. Recently, the Supreme Court of India has ruled that no Bharat Stage IV vehicle shall be sold across the country with effect from April 1, 2020. Instead, the Bharat Stage VI (or BS-VI) emission norm would come into force from April 1, 2020 across the country. Which of the following are true regarding BS - VI standards ? 1. In BS-VI engines, the harmful NOx (nitrogen oxides) from diesel cars can be brought down by nearly 70%. 2. BS VI engines will bring the cancer causing particulate matter in diesel cars by 80%. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

The major difference between the existing BS-IV and forthcoming BS-VI norms is the presence of sulphur in the fuel. While the BS-IV fuels contain 50 parts per million (ppm) sulphur, the BS-VI grade fuel only has 10 ppm sulphur content. Also, the harmful NOx (nitrogen oxides) from diesel cars can be brought down by nearly 70%. In the petrol cars, they can be reduced by 25%. However, when we talk air pollution, particulate matter like PM 2.5 and PM 10 are the most harmful components and the BS VI will bring the cancer causing particulate matter in diesel cars by a phenomenal 80%.

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74. Which of the following rivers originating in the Sahyadris are west flowing? 1. Zauri 2. Rachol 3. Netravati 4. Kalinadi 5. Bharathapuzha Choose the correct code from the following

Explanation

About six hundred small streams originate form the Western ghats (the Sahyadris) and flow westwards to fall into the Arabian Sea. The western slopes of the western ghats receive heavy rainfall from the southwest monsoons and are able to feed such a large number of streams. Although only about the 3% of the ariel extent of the basins of India is drained by these rivers, they contain about 18% of the countries water resources. The important rivers falling in this category are Mandovi, Zuari and Rachol in Goa; Kalinadi, Gangavalli-Bedti , Sharavati, Tadri and Netravati in Karnataka and Beypore, Pannam, Bharathapuzha, Periyar and Pamba in Kerala. Most of the streams flow swiftly down the steep flow and some of them make waterfalls. The famous Jog falls or Garsoppa falls made by the Sharavati river is the highest in India.

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75. The term ‘Care Economy’ has been in the news recently. What is it related to?

Explanation

Care Economy includes the production and consumption of goods and services necessary for the physical, social, mental and emotional well-being of care-dependent groups, such as children, the elderly, the ill and people with disabilities, as well as healthy, prime working-age adults.
Care work consists of-
● direct, personal and relational care activities, such as feeding a baby or nursing an ill partner; and
● indirect care activities, such as cooking and cleaning.
Unpaid care work is care work provided without a monetary reward by unpaid careers. Paid care work is performed for pay or profit by care workers such as nurses, teachers, doctors and personal care workers

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76. Consider the following statements: 1. All Fundamental Rights are directly enforceable(self-executory). 2. State legislature is empowered to make a law to enforce Fundamental Rights. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Most of the Fundamental Rights are directly enforceable (self-executory) while a few of them can be enforced on the basis of a law made for giving effect to them. Such a law can be made only by the Parliament and not by state legislatures so that uniformity throughout the country is maintained (Article 35).

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77. Consider the following statements 1. This type of forests are found bordering the areas of tropical wet evergreen forests 2. At places they represent a transition from wet evergreen to deciduous forests 3. These forests are found on the Western coast, Assam, lower slopes of the Eastern Himalayas, Orissa and the Andamans The above statements most appropriately describe which kind of forest from the given option

Explanation

Tropical semi evergreen forests: Bordering the areas of tropical wet evergreen forests are comparatively drier areas of the tropical semi evergreen forests. Here the annual rainfall is 200-250 cm. These forests are found on the Western coast, Assam, lower slopes of the eastern Himalayas, Orissa and Andamans.
The semi-evergreen forests are less dense but more gregarious (especially in Assam) than the wet evergreen forests. At places these forests represent a transition from wet evergreen to deciduous forests. Further these forests are characterized by many species, frequently buttressed trunks, rougher and thicker bark, heavy climbers, \less bamboos and abundant epiphytes. The important species of these forests are aini, semul, getal, mundani, hopea, benteak, kadam, irul, laurel, rosewood, mesua, haldu, kanju, byasal, kusum, thorny bamboo etc on the Western ghats, and bonsum, white cedar, Indian chestnut, lista, hollock, champa, mango etc in the Himalayan region.

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78. Identify the correct statements with respect to the Price Deficiency Payments schemes.

Explanation

Under Price Deficiency Payment, farmers are proposed to be compensated for the difference between the government-announced MSPs for select crops and their actual market prices. For crops such as rice and wheat where it is effective now, MSP announcements will continue. For other targeted crops, price deficiency payments will be made. However, it has to be noted that there may be a cap on the extent to which the Centre will bridge the gap between MSP and market price.

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79. Consider the following statements about Operation Digital Board (ODB) 1. Union Human Resource Development Ministry has launched Operation Digital Board. 2. It aims to provide e-resources at any time and at any place to students. 3. The digital board will be introduced in the Aspirational Districts. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

● Operation Digital Board (ODB) aims at converting a classroom into a digital classroom and provide e-resources at any time and at any place to students.
● The digital board will be introduced all over the country in government and government aided schools from class 9th onwards as well as in higher education institutions.
● The Operation Digital Board (ODB) will be implemented in the Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) by the University Grants Commission (UGC).

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80. Consider the following Indian states. 1. Andhra Pradesh. 2. Telangana. 3. Maharashtra. 4. Karnataka. 5. Chattisgarh . Which of the above states had territories that fell under the rule of the Nizam of Hyderabad?

Explanation

Hyderabad State also known as Hyderabad Deccan was an Indian princely state located in the south-central region of India with its capital at the city of Hyderabad. It is now divided into Telangana state, Hyderabad-Karnataka region of Karnataka and Marathwada region of Maharashtra. Paritala village in the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh was a Nizam enclave in Andhra Pradesh.

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81. Which of the following is a law under Article 13: 1. Subordinate legislations. 2. Statutory laws 3. Constitutional Amendment law 4. Ordinances 5. Customary norms

Explanation

The term ‘law’ in Article 13 has been given a wide connotation so as to include the following:
(a) Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament or the state legislatures;
(b) Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the president or the state governors;
(c) Statutory instruments in the nature of delegated legislation (executive legislation) like order, bye-law, rule, regulation or notification; and
(d) Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law.
Article 13 declares that a constitutional amendment is not a law and hence cannot be challenged. However, the Supreme Court held in the Kesavananda Bharati case2 (1973) that a Constitutional amendment can be challenged on the ground that it violates a fundamental right that forms a part of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution and hence, can be declared as void.

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82. Consider the following statements regarding "Warehouse Receipts": 1. They are issued as per the Warehousing (Development & Regulation) Act 2007 2. Warehousing Development & Regulatory Authority (WDRA) is under ministry of Commerce and Industry 3. Warehouse receipts are negotiable 4. These receipts are govt. Recognized and can be used for taking loan Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation

“Electronic Negotiable Warehouse Receipt (e-NWR) System” is a initiative taken by the Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA) in simplifying the Warehouse Registration Rules, digitizing the entire process of registration, monitoring and surveillance as well as creation and management of Negotiable Warehouse Receipts (NWRs) in electronic form through two repositories.
The e-NWRs have no chances of any tempering, mutilation, fudging, loss or damage and with no possibility of any multiple financing. Hence, these NWRs will not only facilitate an easy pledge financing by banks and other financial institutions but also smooth trading on various trading centres like commodity exchanges, electronic National Agriculture Markets (e-NAM) and other electronic platforms. These e-NWRs will save expenditure in logistics as the stocks could be traded through multiple buyers without physical movement and can be even split for partial transfer or withdrawal.

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83. Which are the two partners under the Strategic Partnership (SP) Model of the Ministry of Defence?

Explanation

Under the SP model, one company would be selected for each area based on its competence, which would then tie up with the foreign Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) selected through the procurement process, to build the platform in India with significant technology transfer. The model is intended to enhance competition, increase efficiencies, facilitate faster and more significant absorption of technology, create a tiered industrial ecosystem, ensure development of a wider skill base, trigger innovation and enable participation in global value chains as well as promote exports

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84. Following are the statements regarding the tragic Jallianwala bagh Massacre. 1. After the massacre, General Michael O’Dwyer was presented with a siropa at the Golden Temple.. 2. After the massacre,the Sikh clergy officially declared , General Michael O’Dwyer to be a Sikh. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

After the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, the Chief Khalsa Diwan and other official priests of the Golden Temple at Amritsar had honoured General Dyer with a Saropa (robe of honour). The clergy officially declared him to be a Sikh, and initiated him into the brotherhood of the Khalsa by investing him with the five K's. He was also let off from keeping Keshas (long hairs) and smoking.This outraged Indians, especially Sikhs. The outrage soon developed into popular agitation during late 1920, when jathas of Sikh reformers and volunteers came out on streets and demanded that the control of the Gurdwara must be taken away from these mahants and other government-appointed managers. The agitation resulted in the formation of a committee known as Shiromani Gurudwara Prabandhak Committee (SGPC), which was given the control and management of the Golden Temple, the Akal Takht, and other Gurudwaras.

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85. Following are the statements related to Corporate Social Responsibility . 1. Corporate Social Responsibility norms are applicable for all the companies registered under the Companies act. 2. Funds spent on maintaining a monument under adopt a Heritage scheme is counted under CSR. Identify the correct statements.

Explanation

CSR is applicable only to companies with net worth of 500 crores or turnover of 1000 crore or net profit of 5 crores have to utilize 2 % of the average net profit of the preceding 3 years. Funds spent on maintaining a monument under adopt a Heritage scheme is counted under CSR.

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86. Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Minor Forest Produce (MFP) scheme 1. MSP for MFP scheme was started in 2016 to ensure fair and remunerative prices to MFP gatherers. 2. The scheme is applicable in all States. 3. Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the Nodal Ministry for implementation of the scheme. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

The MSP for MFP scheme was started by the Centre in 2013 to ensure fair and remunerative prices to MFP gatherers. From November 2016, the scheme is applicable in all States.
Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India is the Nodal Ministry for implementation of the scheme which will announce Minimum Support Price (MSP) for the selected MFPs with the technical support from TRIFED.
● TRIFED will act as the Central Nodal Agency for implementation and monitoring of the scheme through State level implementing agencies.
● State designated agencies will undertake procurement of notified MFPs directly from MFP gatherers (individual or collectives) at haats notified procurement centers at grass root level at prefixed Minimum Support Price and ensure full & timely on the spot payment to MFP gatherers.

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87. Read the following statements regarding the Himalayan mountain system 1. It is the plate boundary where folded mountains were built up 2. The Himalayas are the product of convergence of the Asiatic plate in the north and the Indian plate in the south 3. The Asian plate is made up of denser material than the Indian plate, the former began to subduct under the latter Which among the above statements is/are incorrect?

Explanation

It is the converging boundary of the plates where folded mountains like Himalayas build up. When two convergent plates composed of continental crust collide against each other, the denser plate is subducted under the lighter plate. The resultant lateral compression squeezes the folds and sediments deposited on the continental plate margins or sediments of the geosynclines lying between the two.
The HImalayas are the product of such a process on the conveyance zone of the Asiatic plate in the north and the Indian plate in the south. Some 70 million years ago, the Indian plate started moving towards the Asian plate and the Tethys sea began to contract due to the movement of Indian and Asian plates towards each other. Since the Indian plate was made of denser material than the Asian plate, the former began to subduct under the latter causing lateral compression of the marine sediment in the bed of the Tethys. Geologists believe that the sediment got folded in three successive phases giving rise to 3 important ranges of the Himalayas.

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88. Consider the following statements: 1. Constitution of India only identifies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement (i.e., on January 26, 1950). 2. Constitution deals with loss of citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. However, it contains neither any permanent nor any elaborate provisions in this regard. It only identifies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement (i.e., on January 26, 1950). It does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955.
The Citizenship Act (1955) provides for acquisition and loss of citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution.

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89. With reference to the the ‘National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture’ (NMSA), which of the following is/are correct? 1. NMSA seeks to promote enhanced water use efficiency and soil health management. 2. NMSA seeks to eliminate the use of chemical fertilizers.

Explanation

NMSA derives its mandate from Sustainable Agriculture Mission which is one of the eight
Missions outlined under National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC).
It aims at promoting sustainable agriculture through a series of adaptation measures focusing on ten key dimensions encompassing Indian agriculture namely:
1. Improved crop seeds
2. Livestock and fish cultures
3. Water Use Efficiency
4. Pest Management
5. Improved Farm Practices
6. Nutrient Management
7. Agricultural insurance
8. Credit support
9. Markets
10. Access to Information and Livelihood diversification’. Besides, NMSA aims at promoting location specific improved agronomic practices through soil health management, enhanced water use efficiency, judicious use of chemicals (not elimination of chemical fertilizers), crop diversification, progressive adoption of crop-livestock farming systems and integrated approaches like crop-sericulture, agro-forestry, fish farming, etc.

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90. Consider the following statements with respect to Green Ratings. 1. Bombay House is the first heritage building in India to get Green Rating. 2. The Green Rating has been provided by the The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) 3. TERI also comes up with Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) for construction of green buildings. Select the correct statements using the codes given below.

Explanation

The Green Rating has been provided by the India Green Building Council. Bureau of Energy Efficiency had launched Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) 2007 to establish minimum energy performance standards for buildings.

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91. Which of the following statements is/are true about Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojna? 1. The objective of the scheme is more crops per drop. 2. It will be run as a parallel scheme to Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme. 3. It is jointly implemented by Ministry of Agriculture and Ministry of Water Resources only. Choose the correct answer from below given options:

Explanation

The scheme wants to derive maximum irrigation benefits out of the available water resources. It thus promotes water saving technologies too.
It is the amalgamation of Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme, Integrated Watershed Management Programme and On Farm Water Management. It is jointly implemented by Ministry of Agriculture, Ministry of Water Resources and Ministry of Rural Development.

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92. Developed countries generally dump their waste on developing countries. This is regulated by conventions preventing the dumping and Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal. Which of the following is/are the conventions in this regard? 1. Stockholm Convention. 2. Bamako Convention. 3. Montreal Convention 4. Basel Convention. Codes:

Explanation

The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal, usually known as the Basel Convention, is an international treaty that was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous waste between nations, and specifically to prevent transfer of hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries (LDCs). The Bamako Convention (in full: Bamako Convention on the ban on the Import into Africa and the Control of Transboundary Movement and Management of Hazardous Wastes within Africa) is a treaty of African nations prohibiting the import of any hazardous (including radioactive) waste. The Convention was negotiated by twelve nations of the Organisation of African Unity at Bamako, Mali in January, 1991, and came into force in 1998.

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93. Consider the following statements regarding science and technology during Gupta period 1. Aryabhatta was a great mathematician and astronomer. He wrote the book Aryabhatiya 2. The book deals with the subject of Mathematics and Physics. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

The Gupta period witnessed a brilliant activity in the sphere of mathematics, astronomy, astrology and medicine. Aryabhatta was a great mathematician and astronomer. He wrote the book Aryabhatiya in 499 A.D. It deals with mathematics and astronomy. It explains scientifically the occurrence of solar and lunar eclipses. Aryabhatta was the first to declare that the earth was spherical in shape and that it rotates on its own axis.

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94. Which of the following are true regarding the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company (SSNC)? 1. It was started in 1906 by V. O. Chidambaram Pillai during the Swadeshi movement. 2. This company was a successful business enterprise. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

The Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company (SSNC) was one of the first indigenous Indian shipping companies set up during the Indian independence movement. It was started in 1906 by V. O. Chidambaram Pillai to compete against the monopoly of the British India Steam Navigation Company (BISNC). It sailed ships between Tuticorin and Colombo until it was liquidated in 1911, hence it can’t be said that it was a successful business enterprise.

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95. During the rainy season, particularly, in July and July, there are certain periods when the monsoons become weak which is known as break in Monsoon. Which of the following statement is correct with respect to the break in monsoon?

Explanation

During the rainy season particularly in July and August there are certain periods when monsoons become weak. The clouding decreases and rainfall practically ceases over the country outside the Himalayan belt and South east peninsula. This is known as break in the monsoon. The latest studies have revealed that the breaks are likely to occur more frequently during the second week of August. The normal duration of the break is about a week but on some occasions this could be longer. The longest breaks have been known to persist for 2 or 3 weeks. But such occasions are rare. The breaks are believed to be brought about by the collapse of the TIbetan high. This results in the northward shifting of the monsoon trough. The axis of the trough lies at the foothills of the Himalayas during the break period. Even when most parts of the country have to be content without rainfall during the break period, heavy rainfall occurs over the Sub-Himalayan regions and the southern slopes of the Himalayas. This leads to high flooding of the rivers having their catchment areas in the Himalayas. On an average 1 or 2 breaks do occur during the rainy season. Statistical studies of the monsoon show that in 85 out of 100 years there is a break in the monsoons.

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96. Which of the following are the characteristics of Submergent coastlines 1. Drowned river valleys 2. Wave cut platform 3. Presence of fjords Select the correct code:

Explanation

● Submergent Coasts are those that have been flooded by ocean waters because of a relative rise in the elevation of sea level at that location. The rise in sea level can be either the result of an increase in the volume of water in the ocean basins or the result of the land surface sinking, both of which create an apparent rise in the elevation of sea level. Features of a submergent coastline are drowned river valleys or rias and drowned glaciated valleys or fjords.
● Estuaries are often the drowned mouths of rivers. The Western Coastal Plains of the Indian subcontinent are examples of submergent coastline. Emergent coasts are a result of local tectonic uplift of the land surface or a fall in the elevation of sea level because of a reduction in the water volume of ocean basins. Quite often, emergent coasts have rocky coastlines with cliffs and nearly flat platforms that extend inland where older coastal plains have been tectonically raised and are now elevated above the modern land and water interface.
● The emergent coastline may have several specific landforms: Raised beach, Wave cut platform and Sea caves.

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97. Following are the statements regarding the recently launched LADIS portal. 1. This portal is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Shipping. 2. LADIS will provide real-time data on least available depths for ships so that they can undertake transportation on global shipping routes. Identify the incorrect statements:

Explanation

Ensuring optimum use of National Waterways, the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI), Ministry of Shipping launched a new portal LADIS – Least Available Depth Information System.LADIS will ensure that real-time data on least available depths is disseminated for ship/barge and cargo owners so that they can undertake transportation on National Waterways in a more planned way. An assured depth of waterway is required for seamless movement of vessels. If real time information is made available regarding LADs in stretches of various NWs, it will help transporters by guiding them on the suitability of time of movement.

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98. Consider the following statements regarding art and Architecture of Chalukyan 1. Chalukyas developed the vesara style in the building of structural temples 2. The best specimens of Chalukya paintings can be seen in the Badami cave temple and in the Ajanta caves Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Explanation

The Chalukyas were great patrons of art. They developed the vesara style in the building of structural temples. However, the vesara style reached its culmination only under the Rashtrakutas and the Hoysalas. The structural temples of the Chalukyas exist at Aihole, Badami and Pattadakal. Cave temple architecture was also famous under the Chalukyas. Their cave temples are found in Ajanta, Ellora and Nasik. The best specimens of Chalukya paintings can be seen in the Badami cave temple and in the Ajanta caves. The reception given to a Persian embassy by Pulakesin II is depicted in a painting at Ajanta.

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99. Consider the following statements 1. Agro Forestry involves the raising of trees and agricultural crops either on the same land or in close association 2. Community Forestry involves the raising of trees on private or community lands aimed at providing benefit to the community as a whole 3. Commercial farm forestry involves growing of trees in the fields in place of food and other agricultural crops Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

● Agro Forestry involves the raising of trees and agricultural crops either on the same land or in close association in such a way that all land including the waste patches is put to good use.
● Community Forestry involves the raising of trees on public or community lands aimed at providing benefit to the community as a whole
● Commercial farm forestry involves growing of trees in the fields in place of food and other agricultural crops
● Non Commercial farm forestry involves tree planting by farmers on their own land for their own use and not for sale

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100. Arrange the following hill ranges in the order of their location from North to South 1. Rajmahal hills 2. Mahadeo hills 3. Aravali range 4. Kaimur range Choose from the following codes
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