UPSC Prelims Test Series 2019 - Test 10(Economic And Social Development-2)

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1. Consider the following statements 1. In a primary market, the instruments of security are procured between the capital-raiser and the instrument purchaser 2. In a secondary market, the participants are primary instrument holders Select the correct code from the following

Explanation

Every security market has two complementary markets—Primary and the Secondary. The market in which the instruments of security market are traded (procured) directly between the capital-raiser and the instrument purchaser is known as the primary market.
The market where the instruments of security market are traded among primary instrument holders is known as the secondary market.

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UPSC Prelims Test Series 2019 - Test 10(Economic And Social Development-2) - Quiz

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2. JIMEX is a bilateral maritime exercise between India and which of the following countries?

Explanation

JIMEX-18: It is a bilateral maritime exercise between India and Japan held at Visakhapatnam. It was conducted after five years. It will comprise of harbour phase (professional and social interactions between the crews of ships) and a sea phase (warfare exercises) of four days each.

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3. What is meant by the term Informalization of Workers in India?
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4. Consider the following functions 1. Formulation of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Policy and promotion. 2. Formulation of policies relating to Intellectual Property Rights in the fields of Patents, Trademarks, Industrial Designs and Geographical Indications of Goods and administration of regulations, rules made there under. The functions above mentioned are exercised by which of the following agency in India now?

Explanation

The role and functions of the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) primarily include:
● Formulation and implementation of industrial policy and strategies for industrial development in conformity with the development needs and national objectives;
● Monitoring the industrial growth, in general, and performance of industries specifically assigned to it, in particular, including advice on all industrial and technical matters;
● Formulation of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Policy and promotion, approval and facilitation of FDI;
● Encouragement to foreign technology collaborations at enterprise level and formulating policy parameters for the same;
● Formulation of policies relating to Intellectual Property Rights in the fields of Patents, Trademarks, Industrial Designs and Geographical Indications of Goods and administration of regulations, rules made there under;
● Administration of Industries (Development & Regulation) Act, 1951
DIPP has been changed as Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade(DPIIT) on 27th January 2019.

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5. SA-21 Growler seen in news is related to:

Explanation

S-400 - The Russian-built S-400 Triumf — identified by NATO as the SA-21 Growler — is the world’s most dangerous operationally deployed modern long-range surface-to-air missile system. It is considered much more effective than the Terminal High Altitude Area Defense system developed by the US.

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6. India can realise the potential of its demographic dividend by :
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7. Consider the following statements with reference to Fiscal Consolidation. 1. Fiscal consolidation is a policy aimed at reducing government deficits and 2. Fiscal consolidation is a policy aimed at reducing government’s debt accumulation. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Fiscal Consolidation refers to the policies undertaken by Governments (national and sub-national levels) to reduce their deficits and accumulation of debt stock. In order to run the country effectively, the government has to use the Finances at its disposal with due diligence, over dependence on either debt will lead to debt trap which will scare away the investors and will harm the country’s reputation. The government must be able to generate sufficient revenue to run the economy without having to resort to loans.

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8. Poverty and Shared Prosperity 2018: Piecing Together the Poverty Puzzle’ is released by?
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9. Identify the correct statements from the following. 1. Bepi Colombo Mission is a mission to Planet Mercury. 2. It is a joint mission between ESA and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA). Options:
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10. Which of the following will improve Ease of doing business rankings for India? 1. Implementation of Insolvency and Bankruptcy code. 2. GST implementation. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
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11. Asian premium seen in news is related to:

Explanation

Asian Premium is extra charge being collected by OPEC countries from Asian countries when selling oil in comparison to western countries.

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12. Which of the following is correct about Global Depository Receipts? 1. It is an instrument to raise money from abroad. 2. These receipts are in the form of foreign currency. Select the correct statements using the codes given below:

Explanation

A global depositary receipt or GDR is a bank certificate issued in more than one country for shares in a foreign company.It is a type of bank certificate that represents shares in a foreign company, such that a foreign branch of an international bank then holds the shares. The shares themselves trade as domestic shares, but globally, various bank branches offer the shares for sale. Private markets use GDRs to raise capital denominated in either U.S. dollars or euros. When private markets attempt to obtain euros instead of U.S. dollars we call GDRs EDRs.
Investors trade GDRs in multiple markets, which they generally refer to as capital markets as they are considered to be negotiable certificates. Investors use capital markets to facilitate the trade of long-term debt instruments, and for the purpose of generating capital. GDR transactions in the international market tend to have lower associated costs than some other mechanisms that investors use to trade in foreign securities.

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13. With reference to negotiable warehousing receipts, consider the following statements: 1. Warehouse receipts were made negotiable under the Warehouse (Development and Regulation) Act, 2007. 2. The receipts allow for the transfer of ownership of a commodity stored in a warehouse without having to physically deliver the commodity. 3. These receipts can be used as collateral for loans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

• Negotiable' refers to the fact that the receipt in question can be transferred or assigned to another party. Non-negotiable describes one that is firmly established and cannot be adjusted or amended.
• Warehouse receipts are made negotiable under the Warehouse (Development and Regulation) Act, 2007, and regulated by the Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority (WDRA).

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14. Identify the correct statements from the following. 1. Indian Institute of Toxicology Research is located in Lucknow. 2. Recently, it has developed an innovative technology for “Drinking Water Disinfection System”. Options:

Explanation

Council of Scientific and Industrial Research, Indian Institute of Toxicology Research (CSIR-IITR), Lucknow has developed an innovative technology for “Drinking Water Disinfection System” with Trade name “Oneer”.

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15. Ashok Dalwai Committee seen in news is related to:

Explanation

Ashok Dalwai committee is a committee on doubling farmers income.

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16. Following are the statement regarding Inflation. 1. Wholesale Price Index (WPI) includes services. 2. WPI accounts for changes in general price level of goods at wholesale level. 3. WPI is the primary measure that is used by the Indian central government for ascertaining inflation Identify the correct statements:

Explanation

The wholesale price index (WPI) does not includes the cost of services. Further, as WPI accounts for changes in general price level of goods at wholesale level, it fails to communicate actual burden borne by the end consumer. WPI is the primary measure that is used by the Indian central government for ascertaining inflation as WPI in contrast to CPI accounts for changes in price at an early distribution stage.

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17. Longitude 82°30′E passes through which of the following states in India: 1. Uttarakhand 2. Uttar Pradesh 3. Madhya Pradesh 4. Chhattisgarh 5. Odisha 6. Tamil Nadu

Explanation

India observes a single time zone based on the longitude passing through 82°30′E. This longitude passes through Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

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18. Which of the following sectors have been conferred with the status of Priority Sector in order to ensure adequate institutional credit? 1. Renewable Energy 2. Export Credit 3. Social Infrastructure 4. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation

Priority Sector includes the following categories:
(i) Agriculture
(ii) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
(iii) Export Credit
(iv) Education
(v) Housing
(vi) Social Infrastructure
(vii) Renewable Energy
(viii) Others

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19. “X is usually an HNI (high net worth individual) who provides financial backing for startups and entrepreneurs. Usually, X seeks to invest in the early stages of startups. Which of the following term is used for X?

Explanation

• Angel investors provide more favorable terms compared to other lenders since they usually invest in the entrepreneur starting the business rather than the viability of the business.
• Angel investors are focused on helping startups take their first steps, rather than the possible profit they may get from the business. Essentially, angel investors are the opposite of venture capitalists.

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20. Which one of the following groups of items is included in India’s foreign exchange reserves?

Explanation

Forex reserves are foreign currency assets held by the central banks of countries.
These assets include foreign marketable securities, monetary gold, special drawing rights (SDRs) and reserve position in the IMF. The main purpose of holding foreign exchange reserves is to make international payments and hedge against exchange rate risks.

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21. Which of the following is the reason for jobless growth in India?

Explanation

In India, growth is attributed to service sector, whereby both employment and wages have seen a rise. But as figures say, the biggest employing sector in India is the Agriculture sector, employing 45% of the population but contributing 15% to the GDP, whereas Service sector is the biggest contributor to the GDP but employs less than 30%. IT and Financial services are drivers of service sector growth in last 2 decades however both of these sectors are not employment intensive. Thus contributing to jobless growth in India.

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22. Consider the following statements regarding Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC). 1. The Debt Recovery Tribunal act as adjudicating authorities for individuals and unlimited partnership firms under IBC, and National Company Law Tribunal would deal with companies and limited liability entities. 2. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India will be the overall regulator for insolvency in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Debt Recovery Tribunal and National Company Law Tribunal to act as Adjudicating Authority and deal with the cases related to insolvency, liquidation and bankruptcy process in respect of individuals and unlimited partnership firms and in respect of companies and limited liabilities entities respectively.
Establishment of an Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India to exercise regulatory oversight over insolvency professionals, insolvency professional agencies and information utilities.

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23. Money market where debt and stocks are traded and the maturity period is more than a year is classified as
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24. Consider the following statements regarding Public Finance Management System (PFMS): 1. It will help to borrow loans from foreign countries on behalf of the Union Government 2. It will help to monitor the flow of funds to beneficiaries of different government welfare schemes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Public Finance Management System (PFMS) will help monitor the flow of funds to beneficiaries of different government welfare schemes. With the capability of providing real time information, the web-based software app PFMS has tremendous potential to improve programme/financial management, reduce the float in the financial systems by enabling "just in time" releases and also the government borrowings with direct impact on interest cost.

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25. Logistics performance index is released by:
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26. If there is Current Account Deficit (CAD) and fiscal deficit in an economy, then ideally

Explanation

A current account deficit occurs when more money is being paid out than brought into a country. As a result saving will be lesser.

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27. Consider the following statements regarding Sovereign Gold Bond ( SGB) scheme 1. The limit for individuals has been recently increased to 5 kilograms. 2. The SGBs are issued by RBI on behalf of Government of India. 3. SGBs are not exempt under capital gains tax 4. Investments in such bonds by banks will be counted in the calculation of Statutory Liquidity Ratio. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

• The Government announced a few changes in its Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) Scheme recently.
• It increased the limit from 0.5 kgs to 4 kgs for individuals and for trusts and HUF to 20 kgs. Thus, Statement 1 is wrong.
• Statement 2 is correct as RBI issues SGB on behalf of GoI.
• Statement 3 is incorrect as SGB are exempt under CGT on redemption. In this sense, they are different from Gold ETF.
• Statement 4 is correct as the investment will be considered in the calculation of SLR.

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28. Which among the following are the transactions under the current account of Balance of Payments (BoP)? 1. Goods 2. Services 3. Assets Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation

The Balance of Payments record the transaction in goods, services and assets between the residents of the country and the rest of the world. The BoP has two components-- the current account and the capital account.
The current account records transactions in the goods and services and transfer payments. Trade in services is recorded as invisible trade and includes both factor income components and non-factor income components. Trade in goods is recorded as the balance of the exports and imports that is the trade balance. Transfer payments are receipts which the residents of the country receive for free in the form of remittances, gifts and grants. The capital account records the sale and purchase of assets.

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29. Which of the following policies aims to reduce the Current Account Deficit (CAD)? 1. Reducing import duties 2. Currency devaluation 3. Providing export subsidies 4. Tightening of fiscal and monetary policy Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation

Reducing import duties will facilitate more imports widening the Current Account Deficit. Hence, policy (1) will not be able to address concerns of current account deficit. A current account surplus indicates that the value of a country's net foreign assets (i.e. assets less liabilities) grew over the period in question, and a current account deficit indicates that it shrank. Both government and private payments are included in the calculation. It is called the current account because goods and services are generally consumed in the current period.

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30. Which of the following is/are measures to address the deficit in Balance of Trade (BoT) of India? 1. Licensing imports 2. Income Tax concessions given to exporters 3. Setting up of export processing zones 4. Devaluation of rupee Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation

All are among the measures suggested to address the deficit in Balance of Trade (BoT) of India.

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31. Which of the following are instruments of the money market? 1. Call Money 2. Notice Money 3. Bills Rediscounting Select the correct answer

Explanation

• Money market instruments are usually below one year.
• Call money, notice money, Certificate deposits, Commercial Papers, Interest rate swaps etc., are part of money market instruments.

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32. When a government spends more than it collects by way of revenue, it incurs a budget deficit. Consider the following statements in this regard: 1. A fiscal deficit occurs when a government's total expenditures exceed the revenue that it generates, excluding money from borrowings. 2. The Revenue deficit refers to the financial position wherein the government’s revenue expenditure exceeds its total revenue receipts. 3. Primary deficit refers to difference between fiscal deficit of the current year and interest payments on the previous borrowings. Which of the statement is/are correct?

Explanation

Self Explanatory.

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33. Which among the following statement is true?

Explanation

• The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 on the initiative of the G7. The FATF Secretariat is housed at the OECD headquarters in Paris.
• FATF maintains two different lists of countries: those that have deficiencies in their AML/CTF regimes, but they commit to an action plan to address these loopholes and those that do not end up doing enough. The former is commonly known as grey list and latter as the blacklist.

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34. Which of the following are Non- tariff barrier(s)? 1. Quotas 2. Embargoes 3. Sanctions 4. Levies Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation

A nontariff barrier is a way to restrict trade using trade barriers in a form other than a tariff. Nontariff barriers include quotas, embargoes, sanctions, and levies. As part of their political or economic strategy, large developed countries frequently use nontariff barriers to control the amount of trade they conduct with other countries.

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35. Living Planet Report, 2018 is released by?
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36. The price of any currency in international market is decided by: 1. Demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned. 2. Stability of the government of the concerned country. 3. World Bank 4. Economic potential of the country in question. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation

World Bank provides financial help for development projects. It has nothing to do with the price of any currency. Economic potential of the country in question is a long-term factor that may affect the flow of capital but it will not affect price of the currency which is a short-term Phenomenon.

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37. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding Serious Fraud Investigation Office?

Explanation

The SFIO is a fraud investigating agency in India, under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. The SFIO is involved in major fraud probes and is the coordinating agency with the Income Tax Department and the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). It is headquartered in New Delhi.

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38. With reference to the affairs of World Trade Organization, the Most Favoured Nation (MFN) status implies: 1. Granting a higher status to one country with respect to the other trading partners. 2. Lowering the custom duties for that country as a special privilege. 3. Non-discriminatory treatment by one country towards the other country with regard to trade in goods and services. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation

Most favoured nation: The term means the country which is the recipient of this treatment must, normally, receive equal advantages as the ‘most favoured nation’ by the country granting such treatment. In effect, a country that has been accorded MFN status may not be treated less advantageously than any other country with MFN status by the promising country.

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39. A situation where high inflation and high unemployment co-exist is called as

Explanation

A stagflation is a situation where high inflation and high unemployment rates co-exist. This is contrary to the Phillips law which says that higher inflation will lead to low unemployment rates.

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40. Financial Stability Report is released by:
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41. Which of the following are incorrect regarding the Indian National Army (INA)?

Explanation

The idea of INA was first conceived in Malaya by Mohan Singh.

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42. Which of the following is the characteristic of ‘Round Tripping’?

Explanation

• The term ‘round-tripping’ is self-explanatory. It denotes a trip where a person or thing returns to the place from where the journey began. In the context of black money, it leaves the country through various channels such as inflated invoices, payments to shell companies overseas, the hawala route and so on. This money returns in a freshly laundered form; thus completing a round-trip.
• Those indulging in this make the money flow through multiple layers consisting of many entities and companies. How does the money return to India? It could be invested in offshore funds that in turn invest in Indian assets. The Global Depository Receipts (GDR) and Participatory Notes (P-Notes) are some of the other routes that have been used in the past.

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43. Which of the following can be beneficial to the problems faced by the Indian farmer?

Explanation

• Commodity futures serve a great purpose in any economy. In agriculture one of the main risks is the large degree of fluctuation in prices.
• By using Commodity futures, the price fluctuation can be decreased and the farmers and other players would be able to decrease their risk and hedge against vagaries of the market.

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44. With reference to the recent panel setup by RBI on the economic capital framework, consider the following statements 1. The panel is to be headed by Parthasarathi Shome 2. The panel would look into the RBI reserves i.e., whether RBI is holding reserves in surplus of required levels. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

• The panel will be headed by former RBI governor, Bimal Jalan and not Shome. So statement 1 is wrong.
• Terms of Reference of the Panel
• The panel will decide whether RBI is holding provisions, reserves, and buffers in the surplus of the required levels.
• It would propose a suitable profits distribution policy taking into account all the likely situations of the RBI, including the situations of holding more provisions than required and the RBI holding fewer provisions than required.
• The ECF committee will also suggest an adequate level of risk provisioning that the RBI needs to maintain. That apart, any other related matter, including treatment of surplus reserves created out of realized gains, will also come within the ambit of this committee.

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45. Identify the correct statements from the following 1. India’s first international exchange India INX is located in International Financial Services Centre in Bengaluru , Karnataka. 2. The Cabinet has recently approved the establishment of a Unified Authority for regulating all financial services in IFSCs through International Financial Services Centres Authority Bill, 2019. Select the correct code from the following

Explanation

• India’s first International exchange is located in GIFT Gandhinagar Gujarat, not in Bengaluru.
• The Union Cabinet has approved the establishment of a unified authority for regulating all financial services in International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) in India through International Financial Services Centres Authority Bill, 2019.

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46. Which of the following is/are instruments in secondary capital market? 1. Bonds 2. Debentures 3. Initial Public Offering Select the correct answer using the code given below

Explanation

• Secondary Market refers to a market where securities are traded after being initially offered to the public in the primary market and/or listed on the Stock Exchange.
• Majority of the trading is done in the secondary market.
• Secondary market comprises of equity and debt markets.
• IPO on the other hand is an offering of the primary market where a private company decides to sell stocks to the public for the first time.

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47. Which of the following constitute Capital Account? (2013) 1. Foreign Loans 2. Foreign Direct Investment 3. Private Remittances 4. Portfolio Investment Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation

• Private remittances are a part of current account.
• Foreign Loans, FDI , FII , FPI are part of capital account.

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48. Mohamed Bouazizi is associated with which of the following events?

Explanation

Mohamed Bouazizi was a Tunisian street vendor who set himself on fire on 17 December 2010, which became a catalyst for the Tunisian Revolution and the wider Arab Spring against autocratic regimes.

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49. Identify correct statements from the following. 1. Revenue Receipts are the receipts that neither create liabilities nor reduce assets to the government. 2. All capital receipts are exempt from tax, unless there is a specific provision for taxing them. Codes:

Explanation

Government receipts which neither (i) create liabilities nor (ii) reduce assets are called revenue receipts. These are proceeds of taxes, interest and dividend on government investment, cess and other receipts for services rendered by the government. These are current income receipts of the government from all sources. Government revenue is the means for government expenditure. In the same way as production is means for consumption. The general rule under the Income-tax Law is that all revenue receipts are taxable, unless they are specifically granted exemption from tax and all capital receipts are exempt from tax, unless there is a specific provision for taxing them.

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50. Consider the following statements: 1. Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO) is a subordinate office under Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT). 2. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) is a department under Ministry of Commerce which releases Whole sale price Index (WPI). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO) is a subordinate office under Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP).
In India, Office of Economic Advisor (OEA), Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion(DIPP), Ministry of Commerce and Industry calculates the WPI.
DIPP has been changed as Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade(DPIIT) on 27th January 2019.

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51. The effect of inflation on tax revenue results in a situation known as:

Explanation

Situation where inflation pushes income into higher tax brackets-bracket creep. The result is income tax increases but purchasing power remains constant. This problem is in during high inflation periods .Govt gains higher taxes and economy suffers as growth is dragged down due to less demand. In high growth and high inflation economies ,fiscal drag acts as an automatic stabiliser which keeps demand stable.

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52. Consider the following statements regarding the "Most Favoured Nation (MFN)" principle of WTO: 1. MFN is basically a principle of non-discriminatory trade. 2. India has granted MFN status to Pakistan. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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53. Consider the following statements 1. The World’s first stock exchange was established in Antwerp, Belgium. 2. The Bombay stock exchange is Asia’s first stock exchange. Select the correct code from the following

Explanation

World’s first stock exchange was established in Antwerp, Belgium (then part of the Netherlands) in 1631.
Established in 1875, the BSE (formerly known as Bombay Stock Exchange Ltd.)is Asia's first stock exchange.

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54. A GST E- Way bill is not required in which of the following cases? 1. Transit cargo transported to or from Nepal or Bhutan. 2. Goods being transported by rail where the Consignor of goods is the Central Government, State Governments or a local authority. 3. When Unregistered persons( persons without GSTIN) transport goods. Codes

Explanation

In the following cases it is not necessary to generate e-Waybill:
1. The mode of transport is non-motor vehicle.
2. Goods transported from Customs port, airport, air cargo complex or land customs station to Inland Container Depot (ICD) or Container Freight Station (CFS) for clearance by Customs.
3. Goods transported under Customs supervision or under customs seal
4. Goods transported under Customs Bond from ICD to Customs port or from one custom station to another.
5. Transit cargo transported to or from Nepal or Bhutan
6. Movement of goods caused by defence formation under Ministry of defence as a consignor or consignee
7. Empty Cargo containers are being transported
8. Consignor transporting goods to or from between place of business and a weighbridge for weighment at a distance of 20 kms, accompanied by a Delivery challan.
9. Goods being transported by rail where the Consignor of goods is the Central Government, State Governments or a local authority.
10. Goods specified as exempt from E-Waybill requirements in the respective State/Union territory GST Rules.
11. Transport of certain specified goods- Includes the list of exempt supply of goods, Annexure to Rule 138(14), goods treated as no supply as per Schedule III, Certain schedule to Central tax Rate notifications.

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55. With reference to the currency market, the term “Convertibility” is used to denote 1. Freedom to exchange currencies like commodities across the counter. 2. Freedom to invest globally. 3. Freedom to residents to remit outside the country. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation

Currency convertibility is the ease with which a country's currency can be converted into gold or another currency. Convertibility is extremely important for international commerce. When a currency in inconvertible, it poses a risk and barrier to trade with foreigners who have no need for the domestic currency. Freely convertible currencies have immediate value on the foreign exchange market, and few restrictions on the manner and amount that can be traded for another currency. Free convertibility is a major feature of a hard currency

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56. Participatory Note (P-Note) refers to

Explanation

Participatory Notes or P-notes are offshore derivative instruments, used by Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) who are NOT registered with SEBI. The major characteristics of P-notes are: They are offshore derivative instruments they are used by Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs) who are NOT registered with SEBI. They are used on Indian shares, but at a location outside of India.

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57. Demand-pull inflation may be caused by:
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58. Who among the following falls under the ambit of the Foreign Contribution Regulations Act (FCRA)? 1. Citizens of India outside India. 2. Overseas branches of companies registered or incorporated in India. 3. Companies and their branches registered and working in India. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation

As per Section 1(2) of FCRA, 2010, the provisions of the act shall apply to:
1. Whole of India
2. Citizens of India outside India; and
3. Associate Branches or subsidiaries, outside India, of companies or bodies corporate, registered or incorporated in India.

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59. Consider the following points of differences between a share and a debenture: 1. While a share capital is the credit to the company, a debenture is an ownership capital. 2. While the dividend is paid on shares, interest is paid on debentures. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

• The key difference between a share and a debenture is that while share represents part of the ownership of a company, debenture acknowledges loan or debt to the company. Thus, a shareholder is a participant in the profits as well as losses of the company.
• The dividend is paid on share, which is an appropriation of profits, but a debenture holder is paid interest over the lifetime of the debenture and the principal amount at the end of life.

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60. Which of the following policy/ policies can be used to achieve protectionist goals? 1. Tariffs 2. Anti-dumping legislation 3. Import subsidies 4. Exchange rate manipulation Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation

Protectionism refers to government actions and policies that restrict or restrain international trade, often done with the intent of protecting local businesses and jobs from foreign competition. Typical methods of protectionism are tariffs and quotas on imports and subsidies or tax cuts granted to local businesses. The primary objective of protectionism is to make local businesses or industries more competitive by increasing the price or restricting the quantity of imports entering the country.

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61. Which of the following accurately describes the term ‘Tax expenditure’?

Explanation

Tax Expenditures, as the word might indicate, does not relate to the expenditures incurred by the Government in the collection of taxes. Rather it refers to the opportunity cost of taxing at concessional rates, or the opportunity cost of giving exemptions, deductions, rebates, deferrals credits etc. to the tax payers. Tax expenditures indicate how much more revenue could have been collected by the Government if not for such measures. In other words, it shows the extent of indirect subsidy enjoyed by the tax payers in the country.

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62. With reference to ‘Sovereign Credit Rating' given by various credit rating agencies, consider the following statements: 1. Better sovereign ratings can make it cheaper to borrow money when needed. 2. Economic factors alone are considered for preparing sovereign credit rating. 3. More economically-developed countries are less likely to default hence, they will get a good sovereign credit rating. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Better sovereign ratings can reduce inflation risk, ensure political stability, and make it cheaper to borrow money when needed. Better sovereign ratings attract investors. Sovereign ratings represent a useful tool for international investors to determine a country's investment quality.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Sovereign Credit Ratings issued to sovereign entities like national governments take into account political risk, regulatory risk and other unique factors to determine the likelihood of a default. The three most popular issuers of sovereign ratings are S&P, Moody's and Fitch. Statement 3 is correct. More economically-developed countries are seen has less likely to default. On the other hand, countries with a history of defaulting are perceived to have a higher credit risk.

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63. The effects of inflation on the price competitiveness of a country's products may be offset by:

Explanation

A depreciation of the currency will in itself reduce the prices of products abroad; this can offset inflation.

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64. To finance its deficit, government prefers borrowing from public over RBI. The main reason is

Explanation

• To finance its expenditure, government likes to borrow from public rather than withdraw cash balances or borrow from RBI.
• The reason is found on the effects of money supply in the country. Borrowing from public has no effect on money supply in the country.
• When government borrows, money gets transferred from the public to the government. The net effect on total money supply in the country is nil.

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65. The Agreement on Agriculture (AoA) is an International treaty within the World Trade Organization. With reference to this, consider the following statements: 1. The Blue Box subsidy includes measures to support prices like subsidies directly related to production quantities, export subsidies etc. 2. The Amber box contains aid to livestock or land, not linked to prices but to fixed figures for surface and yield. 3. The Green box subsidy includes Research and training services provided to farmers by state. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

Explanation

1. Blue box subsidies are Subsidies that don’t increase with production. For example, subsidies linked with acreage or number of animals. Very few countries use blue box subsidies - Iceland, Norway, Slovenia etc.WTO has put no limit on Blue Box subsidies.
2. Amber box subsidies: Subsidies that disturb trade balance like subsidies on fertilizers, seeds, power and irrigation. They distort trade balance because they encourage excessive production, therefore given country’s product becomes cheaper than others, in the international market. WTO has put certain limits on Amber box subsidies.
3. Green box subsidies: Subsidies that don’t disrupt trade balance or Only cause minimum damage to trade balance. E.g. agriculture research and development, extension services, farmer training programs, pest-disease control program, and flood/drought relief money paid to farmers etc.WTO has put no limit on Green Box subsidies.

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66. Proceeds from which of the following is not credited to the Consolidated Fund of India

Explanation

Under Article 266 (1) of the Constitution of India, all revenues ( example tax revenue from personal income tax, corporate income tax, customs and excise duties as well as non-tax revenue such as licence fees, dividends and profits from public sector undertakings etc. )received by the Union government as well as all loans raised by issue of treasury bills, internal and external loans and all moneys received by the Union Government in repayment of loans shall form a consolidated fund entitled the 'Consolidated Fund of India' for the Union Government.
Except the loans that are credited to the Consolidated Fund, government does not have the liability to pay it back. It is a one-way transaction only. Proceeds from the Small Savings Scheme, Provident Fund etc, where the government acts as the custodian of the money is credited to the Public Fund of India established under the Art 266 (2) of the Indian Constitution.

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67. General Anti-Avoidance Rules (GAAR) are meant for

Explanation

GAAR refers to General Anti -Avoidance Rules. These rules target any transaction or business arrangement that is entered into with the objective of avoiding tax. The objective is to check aggressive tax planning.

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68. Which of the following is likely to cause Demand-Pull inflation? 1. Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit 2. Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deficit 3. Creating new money to finance a budget deficit Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation

Both the borrowing from the Public and from the banks will not lead to increase in the money supply in the economy, on the contrary, the public will have less money in their hands to Spend. On the other hand, creating new money increases the supply of Money which helps in creating aggregate demand. So this is most likely to cause the demand Pull inflation.

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69. A rise in the interest rates in a country will lead to 1. Appreciation in the currency 2. Inflow of foreign funds into the country 3. Depreciation in the currency 4. Outflow of foreign funds from the country Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation

There are huge funds owned by banks, multinational companies and wealthy individuals that circulate in the world economy in search of higher interest rates on them. If a country A offers lower interest rates than country B, these funds would prefer country B over the country A. Also, funds from country B itself would tend to invest in the country itself. This leads in increased demand of the currency of country B and hence, it's appreciation. Hence, rise in interest rates in a country lead to the appreciation in its currency.

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70. With reference to Quantitative Easing consider the following statements: 1. Under this policy, the central bank sells government securities to increase interest rates in the economy. 2. It can lead to inflation in the economy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

• Quantitative Easing is an unconventional monetary policy in which the Central Bank purchases government securities or other securities from the market in order to lower interest rates and increase the money supply by promoting lending and liquidity. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Statement 2 is correct. If central banks increase the money supply too quickly, it can cause inflation. This happens when there is increased money but only a fixed amount of goods available for sale when the money supply increases.

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71. Which of the following can be used for derivatives trading? 1. Interest Rates 2. Currency Rates 3. Bullion Rates Select the correct answer

Explanation

• Derivatives are instruments/products which derive its value from one or more basic variables, called bases in a defined manner.
• The underlying asset can be equity, forex, currency, interest rates, commodity rates etc.,

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72. Consider the following statements with regard to Participatory-Notes (PN): 1. PNs are financial instruments used by investors that are not registered with SEBI to invest in Indian securities. 2. These investors enjoy voting rights in relation to shares invested through route of Participatory Notes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct. The investor in Participatory Note does not own the underlying Indian security, which is actually held by the FII who issues the PN. Thus the investors in PNs derive the economic benefits of investing in the security without actually holding it.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The PN holder also does not enjoy any voting rights in relation to security/shares referenced by the PN.

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73. Which of the following is/are example(s) of Foreign Direct Investment? 1. Portfolio investment 2. Production and manufacturing a product by setting up a plant, industrial unit or a project. 3. Establishment of subsidiaries of a foreign company in India. 4. Providing some services like banking, insurance, shipping etc for which the foreign company sets up a service network in the country. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Explanation

Foreign direct investment (FDI) is an investment made by a company or individual in one country in business interests in another country, in the form of either establishing business operations or acquiring business assets in the other country, such as ownership or controlling interest in a foreign company. Foreign direct investments are distinguished from portfolio investments in which an investor merely purchases equities of foreign-based companies. The key feature of foreign direct investment is that it is an investment made that establishes either effective control of, or at least substantial influence over, the decision making of a foreign business FDI is direct investment in productive assets, while FII is investment in financial securities. FDI can enter only in those sectors in which FDI is allowed while FII enters the financial market which is of general nature and no specific industry or sector is involved. FII is volatile by nature, while FDI is considered more stable.

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74. Identify correct statements from the following. 1. If a country has a currency board, the power of management of the exchange rate and the money supply are taken away from the nation's central bank. 2. Currency boards are normally constituted to control inflation. Codes:

Explanation

Under a currency board, the management of the exchange rate and money supply are given to a monetary authority that makes decisions about the valuation of a nation’s currency, specifically whether to peg the exchange rate of the local currency to a foreign currency, an equal amount of which is held in reserves. Often this monetary authority has express instructions to back all units of domestic currency in circulation with foreign currency. In this way a currency board operates not unlike the gold standard. They are normally constituted to combat hyperinflation.

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75. Consider the following statements with regard to proportional taxation: 1. The rate of taxation does not change as the taxable amount increases or decreases. 2. It makes consumer spending less sensitive to fluctuations in GDP. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

• A proportional tax is a tax in which the rate of taxation is fixed which does not change as the taxable amount increases or decreases. This type of tax increases with increase in income.
• While a regressive tax is a tax imposed in such a manner that the tax rate decreases as the amount subject to taxation increases.
• The proportional income tax acts as an automatic stabiliser - a shock absorber because it makes disposable income less senstitive to fluctuations of GDP. So when GDP rises, disposable incomes rises but less than rise in GDP as it is lessened by the taxation.

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76. Consider the following statements regarding the Intellectual Property Rights (IPR). 1. Under the TRIPS agreement only process patents must be awarded for Pharmaceuticals. 2. Copyright protects expressions and not the ideas. 3. A trademark is the legal version of a brand. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect. TRIPS agreement allows both process and product patents, though only product patents must be awarded for food, pharmaceutical and chemicals. Patents should be valid for 20 years. Statement 2 is correct. Copyright is a legal protection extended to the owner of the rights in an original work of creation. Copyright protects expressions and not the ideas. There is no copyright in an idea. Statement 3 is correct. A trademark is the legal version of a brand. When a brand is registered, and legalized it becomes a trademark. A brand is registered under the Trade and Merchandise Mark Act, 1958. Thus, we can say all trademarks are brand but a brand can be called as a trademark only when it is legally protected and has been appropriated by one seller.

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77. With reference to Incremental Capital Output Ratio (ICOR), consider the following statements: 1. It refers to the additional capital required to generate additional output in the economy. 2. A higher value of ICOR represents higher efficiency of investment in the economy. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct. ICOR is a metric that assesses the marginal amount of investment capital necessary for an entity to generate the next unit of production. Overall, a higher ICOR value is not preferred because it indicates that the entity's production is inefficient.
• Statement 2 is not correct. Higher ICOR signifies that more input investment is required to get same amount of output. It indicates that the efficiency of the firm / economy to produce has come down.

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78. Which of the following industry has the highest weightage among the eight core industries?

Explanation

The Eight Core Industries comprise 40.27 per cent of the weight of items included in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).
Coal production (weight: 10.33 per cent), Crude Oil production (weight: 8.98 per cent), Natural Gas production (weight: 6.88 per cent), Petroleum Refinery production (weight: 28.04 per cent), Fertilizer production (weight: 2.63 per cent), Steel production (weight: 17.92 per cent), Cement production (weight: 5.37 per cent), Electricity generation (weight: 19.85 per cent).

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79. Consider the following statements about India’s approach in dealing with 1991 crisis: 1. India approached the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development popularly known as IMF for loan to manage the crisis. 2. India came up with new economic policies which were based on the conditionality of international institutions. 3. Conditionality of international institutions was not as a punishment but were towards creating more competitive environment in the economy. Which of the above is/are correct?

Explanation

IBRD is a part of the World Bank Group

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80. Consider the following statements regarding Financial Stability and Development Council 1. FSDC is a statutory body 2. A separate fund is allocated to the council for undertaking its activites of maintaining financial stability and financial sector development. Select the correct code from the following

Explanation

• FSDC is not a statutory body. It was established in 2010 , based on the recommedations of Raghuram Rajan committee.
• Also, no separate funds are allocated to the council for undertaking its activites.

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81. Consider the following statements with reference to Fiscal Deficit 1. The extent of fiscal deficit is an indication of how far the government is spending beyond its means. 2. If unaddressed fiscal deficit can lead to lead to debt trap. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

Explanation

Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Receipts excluding borrowings. The extent of fiscal deficit is an indication of how far the government is spending beyond its means.
Fiscal deficit indicates the total borrowing requirements of the government. Borrowings not only involve repayment of principal amount, but also require payment of interest. Interest payments increase the revenue expenditure, which leads to revenue deficit. It creates a vicious circle of fiscal deficit and revenue deficit, wherein government takes more loans to repay the earlier loans. As a result, country is caught in a debt trap.

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82. Consider the following statements regarding Commodities transaction tax: 1. It is a financial transaction tax levied on commodity derivatives exchanges involving agricultural commodities. 2. It is an indirect tax. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Commodities transaction tax (CTT) is a tax similar to Securities Transaction Tax (STT), levied in India, on transactions done on the domestic commodity derivatives exchanges except agricultural commodities. Globally, commodity derivatives are also considered as financial contracts. Hence CTT can also be considered as a type of financial transaction tax.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: It is considered as a direct tax.

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83. Consider the following statements regarding Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN): 1. GSTN is a company governed under the companies Act. 2. Government of India holds 51% equity in GSTN. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) is a not for profit company governed under section 8 of the companies Act.
Currently the centre holds 24.5% equity and the States(including UTs Delhi and Puducherry) hold 24.5% equity in GSTN. The Balance 51% equity is with non-Government financial institutions.

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84. Which among the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Economic Integration Explanation 1. Preferential Trade Agreement Member countries abolish barriers to trade and service among them. And, they also maintain common external tariff against third parties. 2. Free trade Agreement Agreeing parties abolish tariff on most of the goods and services. 3. Custom Union Agreeing parties reduce the level of tariff Imposed on traded goods among themselves. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation

1. Preferential Trade Agreement: Agreeing parties reduce the level of tariff imposed on traded goods among themselves.
2. Custom Union: Member countries abolish barriers to trade and service among them. And, they also maintain common external tariff against third parties.
3. Free trade Agreement: Agreeing parties abolish tariff on most of the goods and services.

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85. Arrange the following sectors in decreasing order of budgetary expenditure, as per the Interim Budget 2019-20: 1. Central Sector Schemes 2. Defence expenditures 3. Payments of interests 4. Subsidies Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Explanation

As per the Interim Budget 2019-20, Expenditure of government in various sectors is as follows:
● Central Sector Schemes -12%
● Interest payments - 18%
● Defence - 8%
● Subsidies - 9%
● Centrally Sponsored Schemes - 9%
● Finance commission & other transfers - 8%
● State's share of taxes and duties - 23%
● Pensions- 5%
● Other expenditures - 8%

Submit
86. Consider the following actions which the Government can take: 1. Devaluing the domestic currency. 2. Reduction in the export subsidy. 3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs. Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit?

Explanation

Reducing export subsidies will affect exports negatively and may further widen the Current Account Deficit.

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87. Identify the correct statements regarding the Budget in Parliament. 1. Normally, budget is laid before both the houses of the Parliament on the same day. 2. The budget needs to be passed by the Parliament within 75 days after its introduction. Codes:

Explanation

At the end of the speech of the Finance Minister in Lok Sabha, the budget is introduced in the Rajya Sabha. The Budget needs to be passed within 75 days of its introduction in the Parliament. The amendments suggested by the Rajya sabha to the budget may or may not be accepted by the Loksabha.In both the cases, the budget is deemed to have been passed by both houses of the Parliament.

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88. Gir sanctuary is habitat of which of the following: 1. Asiatic lion 2. Leopard 3. Chinkara 4. Black buck Choose the correct option:
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89. With reference to the GST collection, which of the following is normally true?
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90. With reference to money markets, consider the following statements: 1. Call money refers to borrowing/lending of funds on an overnight basis. 2. Notice Money refers to borrowing/lending of funds for a period exceeding 14 days. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

• ‘Call money’ is the borrowing or lending of funds for 1 day.
• ‘Notice money’ is the borrowing or lending of funds for a period between 2 and 14 days.

Submit
91. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Quantitative Easing’. 1. It is an unconventional form of monetary easing used to stimulate an economy. 2. This method can be used in place of the interest rate reduction. 3. A central bank purchases government securities or other securities from the market in order to lower interest rates and increase the money supply. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct

Explanation

Statement 2 is incorrect. Quantitative Easing is a method which used only when all other state apparatus like standard monetary policy instruments, Fiscal policy instruments failed to increase the money supply in the market.

Submit
92. Consider the following statements regarding Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP): 1. CACP is an office under Ministry of Finance. 2. It is a statutory body. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) is a decentralised agency of the Government of India. It was established in 1965 as the Agricultural Prices Commission, and was given its present name in 1985.It is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India.
The commission was established to recommend Minimum Support Prices (MSPs), to motivate cultivators and farmers to adopt the latest technology in order to optimise the use of resources and increase productivity.

Submit
93. Consider the following statements regarding South Asia Sub regional Economic Cooperation (SASEC) Program 1. Maldives,Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Thailand, Nepal and Sri Lanka are its members. 2. SAARC serves as the Secretariat for the SASEC member countries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

The South Asia Subregional Economic Cooperation (SASEC) Program, a project-based partnership to promote regional prosperity by improving cross-border connectivity, boosting trade among member countries, and strengthening regional economic cooperation.
Membership: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka.
Philippines-based Asian Development Bank (ADB) serves as the Secretariat for the SASEC member countries.

Submit
94. With reference to Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs), consider the following statements: 1. A foreign investment to acquire more than 10% shares of a company is categorised as Foreign Institutional Investment. 2. FIIs can invest only in companies listed in the stock exchange. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

• Statement 1 is not correct. Where an investor has a stake of 10 percent or less in a company, is treated as FII and, where an investor has a stake of more than 10 percent, is treated as FDI
Statement 2 is not correct. As per Section 15 (1) (a) of the SEBI FII Regulations, 1995, a Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) may invest in the securities in the primary and secondary markets including shares, debentures and warrants of companies unlisted, listed or to be listed on a recognized stock exchange in India.

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95. With reference to the Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs), consider the following statements: 1. These are convertible debentures. 2. These are issued through foreign institutional investors (FII)s. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Explanation

A foreign currency convertible bond (FCCB) is a type of corporate bond issued by an Indian listed company in an overseas market and hence, in a currency different from that of the issuer. The highlight of the FCCB, however, is the option of converting the bonds into equity at a price determined at the time the bond is issued. It also has the benefits of a debt instrument as it includes guaranteed returns or yields which are payable in foreign currency.

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96. Consider the following. 1. Policy cut motion. 2. Economy cut Motion. 3. Token cut Motion. Which of the above motions can be used to reduce the amount of a demand by Rs. 100/-?

Explanation

A Policy cut motion results in the reduction of the amount of the demand to Rs.1. Economy cut motion results in the reduction of an amount by a specified amount (specified amount may be Rs. 100). Token cut motion states that the amount of the demand be reduced by Rs 100/-

Submit
97. SWIFT (Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication) is recently in news. Consider the following statements regarding SWIFT. 1. SWIFT India has appointed Arundhati Bhattacharya as its new Chairman of the Board. 2. SWIFT India is a joint venture of top foreign and Indian private sector banks. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct. Arundhati Bhattacharya was appointed as the Chairman in December 2018.
• Stament 2 is incorrect. SWIFT India is a joint venture of top Indian public and private sector banks and not a joint venture of foreign and Indian private sector banks.

Submit
98. Consider the following statements: 1. Current account deficit and fiscal deficit together are known as twin deficits. 2. High fiscal deficit leads to higher CAD and vice versa. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Explanation

Twin deficits refer to a situation where an economy is running both a fiscal deficit and also a deficit on the current account of the balance of payments.
Even though Fiscal deficit will impact current account deficit in certain ways it still doesn’t reinforce each other i.e., they are not proportional to each other.

Submit
99. With reference to Real Estate Investment Trusts[REIT] consider the following statements 1. REIT are similar to hedge funds. 2. Short-term capital gain tax is applicable for unit holders at the rate of 15%. Select the correct code

Explanation

• REIT are similar to mutual funds and not hedge funds. Mutual funds provide for an opportunity to invest in equity, REIT allows one to invest in income-generating real estate assets.
• Statement 2 is correct. A shorter-term Capital gain tax is applicable for unit holders at the rate of 15%. Long-term capital gains tax is applicable post holding for 12 months.

Submit
100. Identify correct statements from the following? 1. Kisan Credit card scheme can be availed by farmers engaged in Animal husbandry. 2. PM KISAN is a Centrally Sponsored scheme. Codes

Explanation

In the recent budget, the Government extended the KCC scheme to animal husbandry. PM KISAN is a Central Sector scheme with 100% funding from Government of India.

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