CDC B3m051 Services Journeyman - Volume 3. Readiness Mortuary And Protocol

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CDC B3m051 Services Journeyman - Volume 3. Readiness Mortuary And Protocol


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Resources in Part II of the Base Support Plan (BSP) are?
    • A. 

      Allocated.

    • B. 

      Identified.

    • C. 

      Stockpiled.

    • D. 

      Distributed.

  • 2. 
    The Base Support Plan (BSP) is reviewed?
    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Bi-monthly.

    • C. 

      Annually.

    • D. 

      Bi-annually.

  • 3. 
    What document outlines the doctorial concept and planning guidance for worldwide Air Force Services combat support throughout the spectrum of conflict, small scale contingency operations through major regional war?
    • A. 

      Air Force Handbook (AFH), Volume 1, Guide to Services Contingency Planning: Beddown.

    • B. 

      Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-214, Air Force Prime RIBS Program.

    • C. 

      AFI 10-403, Deployment Planning and Execution.

    • D. 

      War and Mobilization Plan 1 (WMP-1).

  • 4. 
    In War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) 1, the Services force is composed of active duty, Air Force (AF) Reserve?
    • A. 

      And Air National Guard (ANG) officers, noncommissioned officers (NCO), and airmen.

    • B. 

      And ANG officers, NCO's, airmen, and civilians in functional areas.

    • C. 

      And ANG officers, NCO's, airmen, and civilians.

    • D. 

      Officers and enlisted airmen.

  • 5. 
    Who must you coordinate with for accountability for deployed personnel when planning lodging operations?
    • A. 

      Security Forces.

    • B. 

      Civil Engineering.

    • C. 

      Major Command (MAJCOM).

    • D. 

      Personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO).

  • 6. 
    In a wartime environment, levels of service increase commensurate with quality of life programs, where possible, after?
    • A. 

      M+15.

    • B. 

      M+30.

    • C. 

      M+45.

    • D. 

      M+60.

  • 7. 
    Where is time-phased force data, non-unit-related cargo and personnel data, and movement data for the operation plan (OPLAN) found?
    • A. 

      Unit line number (ULN).

    • B. 

      Force Requirement Number (FRN).

    • C. 

      Time-Phased Force Development Data (TPFDD).

    • D. 

      Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

  • 8. 
    More than one time-phased force and development data (TPFDD) entry may be required for a force requirement due to?
    • A. 

      Split sourcing.

    • B. 

      Multiple pallets.

    • C. 

      Multiple delivery dates.

    • D. 

      The need for mere than one aircraft.

  • 9. 
    The deployment manning document (DRMD) defines how a unit is structured in?
    • A. 

      Rank and position.

    • B. 

      Rank and time-in-grade.

    • C. 

      Position and time-in-grade.

    • D. 

      Position and time-in-service.

  • 10. 
    Who provides direction to the Unit Control Center (UCC)?
    • A. 

      Base Commander.

    • B. 

      Group Commander.

    • C. 

      Force Support Commander.

    • D. 

      Readiness Officer in Charge.

  • 11. 
    What percent of the wartime feeding population is used to determine Services' support capability?
    • A. 

      100.

    • B. 

      90.

    • C. 

      80.

    • D. 

      75.

  • 12. 
    Deployment beddown planning should be in concert with?
    • A. 

      Force Module.

    • B. 

      Deployment Cycle.

    • C. 

      Command and Control.

    • D. 

      Bare Base Requirements.

  • 13. 
    Who can provide you with a base map or GeoBase Data?
    • A. 

      Civil Engineering.

    • B. 

      Security Forces.

    • C. 

      Logistics Readiness.

    • D. 

      Data Automation Office.

  • 14. 
    Where can you obtain training transcripts as proof that you are ready to deploy?
    • A. 

      Logistics Module (LOGMOD).

    • B. 

      Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS).

    • C. 

      Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

    • D. 

      Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) Reporting Tool (ART).

  • 15. 
    The unit deployment manager (UDM) provides quarterly training status updates to the?
    • A. 

      Flight Chief.

    • B. 

      Major Command (MAJCOM).

    • C. 

      Installation Deployment Officer.

    • D. 

      Force Support Squadron (FSS) Commander.

  • 16. 
    Which type of unit code (UTC) provides Nonappropriated Fund (NAF) management for a population of 1,100? 
    • A. 

      RFSRB.

    • B. 

      RFSRL.

    • C. 

      RFL14.

    • D. 

      RFL05.

  • 17. 
    Which Force Module sets are being phased out?
    • A. 

      Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) and Harvest Eagle.

    • B. 

      Harvest Eagle and Harvest Falcon.

    • C. 

      BEAR and Harvest Falcon.

    • D. 

      Small Shelter Systems.

  • 18. 
    What shelters come in a Basic Expeditionary Airfield Resources (BEAR) asset and are designed for initial beddown and future expansion?
    • A. 

      Alaskan Shelter System.

    • B. 

      Medium Shelter System.

    • C. 

      Small Shelter System.

    • D. 

      TEMPER Tents.

  • 19. 
    Which Force Module (FM) includes unit type codes (UTC) with resources to make the bed down forces operationally capable?
    • A. 

      Open the Base.

    • B. 

      Operate the Base.

    • C. 

      Establish the Base.

    • D. 

      Command and Control (C2).

  • 20. 
    Which Force Module (FM) is only deployed to locations where sustainment operations are expected to continue  for more than 45 days?
    • A. 

      Open the Base.

    • B. 

      Operate the Base.

    • C. 

      Establish the Base.

    • D. 

      Command and Control (C2).

  • 21. 
    Who must complete Home Station and Readiness Training (HSRT)?
    • A. 

      All FSS personnel.

    • B. 

      Subject-to-deploy personnel.

    • C. 

      Personnel in upgrade training.

    • D. 

      Identified-to-deploy personnel.

  • 22. 
    Home Station and Readiness Training (HSRT) has how many tiers?
    • A. 

      2.

    • B. 

      3.

    • C. 

      4.

    • D. 

      5.

  • 23. 
    The mobility A-Bag contains?
    • A. 

      Parka, gloves, boots, socks, and other cold weather items.

    • B. 

      Protective mask, mask filters, gloves, hoods, boots, detection papers.

    • C. 

      An M-9 or M-16, six ammo clips, ammunition, and night vision scope.

    • D. 

      Helmet, web belt, body armor, sleeping bag, canteen kit, and a mess kit.

  • 24. 
    What plays a key role in ensuring that all personnel identified for deployment have their affairs in order at all times?
    • A. 

      Mobility folders.

    • B. 

      Base legal office.

    • C. 

      Squadron readiness office.

    • D. 

      Installation deployment plan.

  • 25. 
    Who is required to develop a written family care plan and document it on an AF Form 357, Family Care Certification?
    • A. 

      All Air Force Members.

    • B. 

      Members with civilian spouses.

    • C. 

      All Air Force contractors and civilians.

    • D. 

      Single parents, dual military couples with dependents, and members with civilian spouses who have unique situations.

  • 26. 
    A fundamental premise of the Statue of Resource and Training System (SORTS) is?
    • A. 

      Integrity.

    • B. 

      Service before self.

    • C. 

      Excellence in all we do.

    • D. 

      Pride in one's self and unit.

  • 27. 
    The War fighting Requirements Review (WFRR) working group makes recommendations on policy, training, and resource allocation issues to?
    • A. 

      The Air Force Institute of Technology (AFIT).

    • B. 

      The United States Air Force Academy (USAFA).

    • C. 

      Air Force Personnel Center/Services Directorate (AFPC/SV).

    • D. 

      The readiness, training, education and manpower team (RTEAM).

  • 28. 
    Who opens a new case file and documents pertinent information when notified of an active duty death?
    • A. 

      Mortuary officer.

    • B. 

      Family liaison officer.

    • C. 

      Base commander of the deceased.

    • D. 

      Person authorized direct disposition.

  • 29. 
    Eligible personnel are provided with professional mortuary services, supplies, and related services during peacetime, contingency, or wartime operations through what program?
    • A. 

      Current Death.

    • B. 

      Mortuary Affairs.

    • C. 

      Veteran Services.

    • D. 

      Survivor Assistance Program.

  • 30. 
    Which program is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict?
    • A. 

      Current Death.

    • B. 

      Mortuary Affairs.

    • C. 

      Concurrent Return.

    • D. 

      Temporary Interment.

  • 31. 
    What program is used as a last resort to protect the health and safety to personnel and is only initiated when the tactical situation precludes the return of remains?
    • A. 

      Current Death.

    • B. 

      Mortuary Affairs.

    • C. 

      Concurrent Return.

    • D. 

      Temporary Interment.

  • 32. 
    The family assistance representative (FAR) should contact the family?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Quarterly.

  • 33. 
    The Air Force Assistance Program (AFSAP) marshals available resources to support the?
    • A. 

      Family.

    • B. 

      Deceased.

    • C. 

      Commander.

    • D. 

      Family Liaison Officer (FLO).

  • 34. 
    What type of flag case is presented to the deceased member's family?
    • A. 

      Pewter and Glass.

    • B. 

      Smooth Plastic.

    • C. 

      Polished Metal.

    • D. 

      Hardwood.

  • 35. 
    How many copies of the death certificate are given to the person authorized direct disposition (PADD)?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      5.

    • C. 

      10.

    • D. 

      15.

  • 36. 
    How many escorts accompany the remains from the shipping facility to the final destination when those two are not located in the same place?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 37. 
    Which is not an authorized method of transporting remains in the continental United States (CONUS)?
    • A. 

      Commercial aircraft.

    • B. 

      Government aircraft.

    • C. 

      Hearse or service car.

    • D. 

      Chartered or private aircraft.

  • 38. 
    Eligible personnel are entitled to how many military funeral honors (MFH), ceremonies, or services?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 39. 
    Taps can be played at a military funeral in all of the following ways except by a?
    • A. 

      Professional bugler.

    • B. 

      High-quality recorded version the family selects.

    • C. 

      Ceremonial bugle if the military service permits.

    • D. 

      Ceremonial bugle if the family grants permission.

  • 40. 
    How often does the Air Force, along with the other Services, submit funeral honors data for inclusion in a report to Congress?
    • A. 

      Quarterly.

    • B. 

      Semi-annually.

    • C. 

      Each fiscal year.

    • D. 

      Each calendar year.

  • 41. 
    The individual in charge of the overall performance, discipline, appearance, and competence of the honor guard members is the honor guard?
    • A. 

      Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

    • B. 

      Officer in charge (OIC).

    • C. 

      Flight commander.

    • D. 

      Flight NCOIC.

  • 42. 
    Which honor guard member selects the flight color guard, firing party, pallbearer elements, and flag-folding teams?
    • A. 

      Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

    • B. 

      Officer in charge (OIC).

    • C. 

      Flight commander.

    • D. 

      Flight NCOIC.

  • 43. 
    Who is required to declare death at the casualty collection point (CCP)?
    • A. 

      The noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

    • B. 

      Survival recovery center (SRC).

    • C. 

      The officer in charge.

    • D. 

      Competent medical authority.

  • 44. 
    When can remains be shipped without processing?
    • A. 

      Never.

    • B. 

      Always.

    • C. 

      When an aircraft leaves within 2 hours.

    • D. 

      When an aircraft leaves within 3 to 5 hours.

  • 45. 
    When do you wash remains?
    • A. 

      Never.

    • B. 

      Always.

    • C. 

      When an aircraft is not leaving within 1 hour.

    • D. 

      When an aircraft is not leaving within 2 hours.

  • 46. 
    The Services Control Center provides higher headquarters with a situation report (SITREP) of the Mortuary Affairs activity at the end of each?
    • A. 

      Hour.

    • B. 

      Day.

    • C. 

      Week.

    • D. 

      Month.

  • 47. 
    Port mortuary services specialty teams receive remains at?
    • A. 

      Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, New Jersey.

    • B. 

      Shaw Air Force Base (AFB), South Carolina.

    • C. 

      Seymour Johnson AFB, North Carolina.

    • D. 

      Dover AFB, Delaware.

  • 48. 
    Given the types of soil and local conditions for the temporary interment site, who determines what equipment available on station is adequate to the task?
    • A. 

      Host nation environmental protection agency.

    • B. 

      Bio environmental flight chief.

    • C. 

      Department of agriculture.

    • D. 

      Civil engineers.

  • 49. 
    What personnel cannot, determine if/when the area is safe to conduct search and recovery (S&R) operations during non-hostile conditions?
    • A. 

      Nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC).

    • B. 

      Explosive ordnance disposal (EOD).

    • C. 

      Temporary interment site members.

    • D. 

      Security Forces.

  • 50. 
    When a fatality mishap occurs what agency is notified in order to make a Fatality Search and Recovery Team (FSRT) determination?
    • A. 

      Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF).

    • B. 

      HQ USAF Directorate of Services (HQ USAF/A1S).

    • C. 

      Major Command Services (MAJCOM/SV).

    • D. 

      Air Force Mortuary Affairs (AFMAO).

  • 51. 
    How many members staff a Fatality Search and Recovery Team (FSRT)?
    • A. 

      4.

    • B. 

      8.

    • C. 

      10.

    • D. 

      12.

  • 52. 
    When selecting peacetime search and recovery team leaders from the Force Support Squadron what criteria does the mortuary officer not use?
    • A. 

      Physical ability.

    • B. 

      Mental attitude.

    • C. 

      Duty position.

    • D. 

      Experience.

  • 53. 
    How many individuals of the 26 person peacetime search and recovery (S&R) team does the mortuary officer ensure are trained as S&R team leaders, flankers, and also in recovered remains and tagging procedures?
    • A. 

      8.

    • B. 

      10.

    • C. 

      12.

    • D. 

      14.

  • 54. 
    Who educates and trains search and recovery (S&R) team members on the use, maintenance, and care of respirators used to protect against the inhalation of harmful atmosphere?
    • A. 

      Medical officer.

    • B. 

      Mortuary officer.

    • C. 

      Bioenvironmental engineer.

    • D. 

      Readiness noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

  • 55. 
    During peacetime search and recovery (S&R) operations, who coordinates with the civil engineers to determine search areas?
    • A. 

      Medical officer.

    • B. 

      Mortuary officer.

    • C. 

      Force support commander.

    • D. 

      Search and recovery team leader.

  • 56. 
    During the recovery phase of a search and recovery (S&R) event how many tags are used for each set of remains found?
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      2.

    • C. 

      3.

    • D. 

      4.

  • 57. 
    Who determines the distinguished visitor (DV) distinction on an individual basis?
    • A. 

      Commander.

    • B. 

      Protocol officer in charge (OIC).

    • C. 

      Air Force Senior Leader Management Office.

    • D. 

      Department of Defense (DOD) Order of Precedence List.

  • 58. 
    Who develops operational guidance to implement protocol policy and support protocol needs in the field?
    • A. 

      Secretary of the Air Force.

    • B. 

      Chief of Staff of the Air Force.

    • C. 

      Air Force Personnel Center/Services Directorate. (AFPC/SV)

    • D. 

      Air Force Institute of Technology Director.

  • 59. 
    Honors and ceremonies are reserved for?
    • A. 

      The President of the United States.

    • B. 

      The force support squadron commander.

    • C. 

      The honor guard commander.

    • D. 

      All commissioned officers.

  • 60. 
    What term of address is used for most high-ranking American civilian officials?
    • A. 

      Your Excellency.

    • B. 

      The Honorable.

    • C. 

      Sir/Ma'am.

    • D. 

      First name.

  • 61. 
    What plays an important role in every military ceremony?
    • A. 

      Flags.

    • B. 

      Policy.

    • C. 

      Protocol.

    • D. 

      Planning and executing.

  • 62. 
    Tradition calls for what at all military ceremonies?
    • A. 

      Flags.

    • B. 

      Formations.

    • C. 

      Honor Guard.

    • D. 

      Military Bearing.

  • 63. 
    The starting point for all that you do with an official function is?
    • A. 

      Sending out invitations.

    • B. 

      Planning seating arrangements.

    • C. 

      Determining the order of precedence.

    • D. 

      Organizing the arrival and departure order.

  • 64. 
    When determining precedence among officers on active duty what is the first factor to consider, if you do not consider position?
    • A. 

      Rank.

    • B. 

      Date of Rank.

    • C. 

      Total active federal military service.

    • D. 

      Position on the permanent promotion list.

  • 65. 
    Who sits to the right of the hostess (or host) at all male event?
    • A. 

      Interpreter.

    • B. 

      Protocol Officer.

    • C. 

      Most junior guest.

    • D. 

      Most senior guest.

  • 66. 
    What type of invitation is very useful when you need to include more than one function?
    • A. 

      Letter.

    • B. 

      Formal.

    • C. 

      Telephone.

    • D. 

      Handwritten.

  • 67. 
    Why do you send out invitations early for a military ceremony?
    • A. 

      To allow sufficient time to respond.

    • B. 

      It's at the discretion of the honoree.

    • C. 

      To ensure maximum attendance.

    • D. 

      It's mandatory.

  • 68. 
    Government funds issued by Congress are known as?
    • A. 

      Special morale and welfare funds (SM&W).

    • B. 

      Operations and maintenance funds (O&M).

    • C. 

      Nonappropriated funds (NAF).

    • D. 

      Appropriated funds (APF).

  • 69. 
    When purchased using Nonappropriated funds (NAF) special morale and welfare (SM&W) expenditures, the spending limit for mementos is?
    • A. 

      $20.

    • B. 

      $22.

    • C. 

      $200.

    • D. 

      $120.

  • 70. 
    What Air Force instruction (AFI) governs Gifts to the Department of the Air Force?
    • A. 

      AFI 51-601.

    • B. 

      AFI 50-501.

    • C. 

      AFI 61-105.

    • D. 

      AFI 65-100.

  • 71. 
    What is the primary rule regarding day-to-day use of government vehicles?
    • A. 

      Must be used for official business only.

    • B. 

      Can be used for transportation to any facility.

    • C. 

      Can be used for both official and personal use.

    • D. 

      Can be used for whatever you need to use it for.

  • 72. 
    Normally an office call is for visitors that are what rank in relation to the host?
    • A. 

      Equal.

    • B. 

      Lower.

    • C. 

      Higher.

    • D. 

      Rank is not a factor.

  • 73. 
    In a deployed environment, the protocol officer works for the?
    • A. 

      Wing commander.

    • B. 

      Theater commander.

    • C. 

      Air Force protocol office.

    • D. 

      Force support commander.

  • 74. 
    If your commander or chief of protocol is not from the United States you are most likely in a?
    • A. 

      Coalition operation.

    • B. 

      Combined operation.

    • C. 

      Deployed operation.

    • D. 

      Combatant operation.

  • 75. 
    What may cause a distinguished visitor's (DV) visit to be postponed or cancelled? 
    • A. 

      The DV's itinerary.

    • B. 

      Operations security (OPSEC).

    • C. 

      Force Protection Condition (FPCON).

    • D. 

      Communications security (COMSEC).

  • 76. 
    Which one do you like?
    • A. 

      Option 1

    • B. 

      Option 2

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4