2a553a 2011 Vol 1

100 Questions

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University Quizzes & Trivia

This is the newest version (2011 Air University)�of the 2A553A COMM/NAV cdc, Vol 1 URE questions.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (001) The Air Force TO numbering system is explained in detail in TO
    • A. 

      0–4–2

    • B. 

      0–1–01

    • C. 

      00–5–1

    • D. 

      00–5–18.

  • 2. 
    (001) The first group of characters in Air Force TO number 33D7–10–1 identifies the
    • A. 

      Kind of TO.

    • B. 

      Equipment’s major system

    • C. 

      Specific item of equipment.

    • D. 

      Section of a sectionalized TO

  • 3. 
    (001) The fourth group of characters in Air Force TO number 1B–1B–2–6 identifies the
    • A. 

      Kind of TO

    • B. 

      Specific item of equipment.

    • C. 

      Section of a sectionalized TO

    • D. 

      Equipment model or part number

  • 4. 
    (001) The JG in Air Force TO number 1C–141B–2–9JG–10 indicates the
    • A. 

      Specific type of equipment

    • B. 

      Section of a sectionalized TO.

    • C. 

      Functional indicator of the TO.

    • D. 

      Specific model or series of TOs.

  • 5. 
    (002) In the Air Force TO system, what TO lists all TO indexes?
    • A. 

      0–1–CD–1

    • B. 

      0–1–CD–01

    • C. 

      0–1–CD–1–1

    • D. 

      0–1–CD–1–2

  • 6. 
    002) In the Air Force TO system, what index TO contains a cross-reference listing of data code numbers assigned to active TCTOs?
    • A. 

      0–4–1

    • B. 

      0–4–2

    • C. 

      00–5–1

    • D. 

      00–5–2

  • 7. 
    (002) What type of Air Force TO do you use to locate all of the TOs pertaining to a certain type of equipment?
    • A. 

      Alphabetical index

    • B. 

      Cross-reference tables

    • C. 

      Cross-utilization index

    • D. 

      List of applicable publications

  • 8. 
    (003) Air Force technical manuals that contain data for the operation and servicing of aircraft equipment are called
    • A. 

      Aircraft TOs

    • B. 

      Other equipment TOs

    • C. 

      Commercial manuals

    • D. 

      Job guides

  • 9. 
    (003) Publications that contain instructions for use of equipment, in addition to data contained in other manuals, are identified as
    • A. 

      COTS manuals

    • B. 

      Other equipment technical orders

    • C. 

      Supplemental manuals

    • D. 

      Replacements

  • 10. 
    (003) In the Air Force, COTS technical manuals are normally identified by an
    • A. 

      Equipment manufacturer ID number

    • B. 

      Assigned technical order number

    • C. 

      Air Force stock number

    • D. 

      Equipment part number

  • 11. 
    (004) What Air Force technical order is not a type of TCTO?
    • A. 

      Record

    • B. 

      Interim

    • C. 

      Urgent action

    • D. 

      Emergency action

  • 12. 
    (004) What type of TCTO is used to correct conditions that could result in fatal or serious injury?
    • A. 

      Urgent

    • B. 

      Routine

    • C. 

      Immediate

    • D. 

      Emergency

  • 13. 
    (004) What types of TCTO can be identified by red Xs or circled red Xs, respectively, alternately spaced around the border?
    • A. 

      Routine and urgent

    • B. 

      Immediate and urgent

    • C. 

      Routine and emergency

    • D. 

      Emergency and immediate

  • 14. 
    (005) The TO that lists all Air Force MPTO is TO
    • A. 

      0–1–1

    • B. 

      0–1–02

    • C. 

      00–1–02

    • D. 

      00–1–20

  • 15. 
    (005) What type of number identifies a preliminary TO?
    • A. 

      Odd number

    • B. 

      Change number

    • C. 

      Supplement number

    • D. 

      Sequential copy number

  • 16. 
    (006) Where are change pages inserted in existing TOs?
    • A. 

      After the last page of the TO

    • B. 

      After the page of the same number

    • C. 

      Before the page of the same number

    • D. 

      In place of the page of the same number

  • 17. 
    (006) The authorized types of TO supplements are
    • A. 

      Routine, safety, and formal

    • B. 

      Routine, safety, and operational

    • C. 

      Safety, operational, and interim

    • D. 

      Interim, safety, and operational

  • 18. 
    (006) Which statement best describes TOPS?
    • A. 

      Like standard TO supplements, TOPS replace outdated TO pages

    • B. 

      TOPS can be issued only when procedural changes could cause personal injury

    • C. 

      TOPS can be issued when the time factor prevents issuing a standard change

    • D. 

      Unlike standard TO supplements, TOPS do not include a title page

  • 19. 
    (006) In a basic TO, how are the pages of an appendix filed?
    • A. 

      After the last page of the TO

    • B. 

      In front of the title page of the TO

    • C. 

      In page number sequence throughout the TO

    • D. 

      In section number sequence throughout the TO

  • 20. 
    (006) TO revisions
    • A. 

      Include an appendix similar to change notices

    • B. 

      Do not include a replacement for the title page

    • C. 

      Are issued when 50 percent of the original TO is affected

    • D. 

      Replace the original TO, including all changes and appendices

  • 21. 
    (007) What is used to submit recommendations for TO improvements?
    • A. 

      TO index

    • B. 

      TO appendix

    • C. 

      AF Form 1000

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 22

  • 22. 
    (007) The Air Force TO that gives detailed instructions for preparing and submitting an AFTO Form 22 is
    • A. 

      00–5–1

    • B. 

      00–5–2

    • C. 

      00–5–15

    • D. 

      00–20 series

  • 23. 
    (007) The types of TO improvement reports are
    • A. 

      Immediate and urgent

    • B. 

      Emergency and urgent

    • C. 

      Emergency, urgent, and routine

    • D. 

      Emergency, immediate, and routine

  • 24. 
    (008) What does the –003 in S/S/SN 34–11–10–003 identify?
    • A. 

      SRU ID

    • B. 

      LRU ID

    • C. 

      Functional procedure

    • D. 

      General procedure

  • 25. 
    (008) When the fifth element of a S/S/SN is –3, the type of component procedure indicated is
    • A. 

      Repair

    • B. 

      Inspection

    • C. 

      Installation

    • D. 

      Adjustment

  • 26. 
    (008) What does the alpha code in reference designator 3231FC01 identify?
    • A. 

      Sub-subsystem

    • B. 

      Component type

    • C. 

      Diagram reference

    • D. 

      LRU ID

  • 27. 
    (009) An OMMS general system manual provides
    • A. 

      A general overview of the aircraft

    • B. 

      Detailed schematics of systems wiring

    • C. 

      Fault descriptions and fault isolation procedures

    • D. 

      Detailed procedures for on-aircraft maintenance

  • 28. 
    (009) An OMMS job guide manual includes
    • A. 

      General systems theory

    • B. 

      Output conditions pages

    • C. 

      Functional maintenance procedures

    • D. 

      A means of identifying and reporting faults

  • 29. 
    (009) In the OMMS job guide, what type of procedure is component adjustment/alignment?
    • A. 

      General maintenance

    • B. 

      General fault isolation

    • C. 

      Functional maintenance

    • D. 

      Functional fault isolation

  • 30. 
    (009) An OMMS fault reporting manual provides
    • A. 

      Detailed schematics of systems wiring

    • B. 

      A means of conveying fault information

    • C. 

      The identity of fault codes at pre-flight briefings

    • D. 

      Fault descriptions and fault isolation procedures

  • 31. 
    (009) In fault code 32–41–19–001–2, the –001 identifies a faulty
    • A. 

      SRU

    • B. 

      LRU

    • C. 

      Sub-subsystem

    • D. 

      Subsystem

  • 32. 
    (010) Section I of the IPB provides information on use of codes and designations found in the TO and
    • A. 

      A list of related TOs

    • B. 

      A table of contents for the IPB

    • C. 

      A list of part numbers cross-referenced to stock numbers

    • D. 

      Cross-reference information on related supply publications

  • 33. 
    (010) The introduction to section I of the IPB provides the user the capability of cross-referencing
    • A. 

      Part numbers and figures

    • B. 

      Part numbers and reference designators

    • C. 

      Reference designators and index numbers

    • D. 

      Reference designators and figure numbers

  • 34. 
    (011) What column of section II of the IPB contains the letters NAS?
    • A. 

      Source, maintenance, and recoverability code

    • B. 

      Federal Supply Code for Manufacturers

    • C. 

      Usable on code

    • D. 

      Part number

  • 35. 
    (011) Section IV of the IPB provides information for cross-referencing
    • A. 

      Figure, index number, and part number

    • B. 

      Figure, index number, and usable-on code.

    • C. 

      Vendors’ code, figure, and IPB index number

    • D. 

      TO page number, and cabinet, shelf, or drawer number of the reference designator

  • 36. 
    (012) The data system used to assign and control computer program identification numbers is the
    • A. 

      IMDS

    • B. 

      CAMS

    • C. 

      ACMS

    • D. 

      ACPINS

  • 37. 
    The ACPINS provides a standardized system that does not
    • A. 

      Manage software

    • B. 

      Develop software

    • C. 

      Identify software

    • D. 

      Distribute software

  • 38. 
    (012) What is not a responsibility of the CPIN system management office?
    • A. 

      Overall maintenance

    • B. 

      Overall management

    • C. 

      Foreign military sales development

    • D. 

      Foreign military sales case verification

  • 39. 
    (013) USAF customers must establish CPIN requirements through
    • A. 

      TO distribution offices

    • B. 

      Administrative contract officers

    • C. 

      Procuring contract officers

    • D. 

      DOD contractors

  • 40. 
    (013) Which ACPINS major function is used to deny unauthorized requests?
    • A. 

      Distribution

    • B. 

      Requirements

    • C. 

      Management products

    • D. 

      Data entry and database maintenance

  • 41. 
    How many separate components may a CPIN have?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 42. 
    A CPIN is composed of how many identifier fields?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Five

    • D. 

      Six

  • 43. 
    (014) In the CPIN identifier, the first field consists of
    • A. 

      Software-type code

    • B. 

      Subsystem and system codes

    • C. 

      Category and major function codes

    • D. 

      Computer software configuration item baseline code

  • 44. 
    (015) There are how many general types of ACPINS compendiums?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Five

    • D. 

      Six

  • 45. 
    (015) An ACPINS cross-reference compendium contains
    • A. 

      Quick references for research aids

    • B. 

      A list of currently published ACPINS compendiums

    • C. 

      Command-managed computer program identification numbers

    • D. 

      Computer software configuration items assigned to major equipment

  • 46. 
    (016) The Air Force Instruction that governs the current wing organization and operation is
    • A. 

      39–1

    • B. 

      53–3

    • C. 

      21–101

    • D. 

      21–166

  • 47. 
    (016) What factor gives Air Force wings, squadrons, and units the capability of fighting from main bases or bare bones forward operating locations at any level of combat?
    • A. 

      Centralization

    • B. 

      Decentralization

    • C. 

      Strategic intelligence

    • D. 

      Dispersed flying units

  • 48. 
    (016) Promoting unit self-sufficiency through the effective use of maintenance resources is the responsibility of the
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      Maintenance group commander

    • C. 

      Maintenance operations officer

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations center

  • 49. 
    (016) Monitoring and supporting the flight line maintenance effort is the responsibility of the
    • A. 

      Wing operations center

    • B. 

      Maintenance group commander

    • C. 

      Maintenance operations officer

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations center

  • 50. 
    (016) What is a responsibility of the maintenance operations center?
    • A. 

      Ensure QA guidelines are being followed

    • B. 

      Notify appropriate agencies of severe weather warnings

    • C. 

      Ensure maintenance training is provided office, classroom, and hangar space

    • D. 

      Review the guidance provided by the LG commander on cross functional areas

  • 51. 
    (017) The MXG exists to
    • A. 

      Manage on-equipment assets

    • B. 

      Support the QA program

    • C. 

      Train and manage all personnel on base

    • D. 

      Create and support the sortie-producing OG

  • 52. 
    (017) Whose primary role is it to increase reliability and maintainability of aircraft and support equipment?
    • A. 

      Wing operations center

    • B. 

      MXG commander

    • C. 

      MXS commander

    • D. 

      QA

  • 53. 
    (017) The QAP is an assessment system used to
    • A. 

      Maintain aircraft sortie rates

    • B. 

      Provide feedback to the OG commander

    • C. 

      Determine aircraft and equipment condition, and personnel proficiency

    • D. 

      Monitor and report the status of electronic countermeasures and sensor pods

  • 54. 
    (017) What flight in the MXS supports the field assistance support team for calibration?
    • A. 

      TMDE

    • B. 

      Armament maintenance

    • C. 

      Accessory maintenance

    • D. 

      Avionics

  • 55. 
    (018) What are AF policy directives?
    • A. 

      Directives that prescribe the mission, area or responsibility, organization, responsibilities, and command relationships of AF units

    • B. 

      Orders of the Secretary of the Air Force approved in the Secretariat or Air Staff and issued as departmental publications

    • C. 

      Orders of the Secretary of the Air Force to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct by AF activities at any level

    • D. 

      Guidance documents consisting of procedures that usually contain examples for performing standard tasks

  • 56. 
    (018) What publication contains broad, enduring guidance for preparing and employing AF resources?
    • A. 

      AF manuals

    • B. 

      Mission directives

    • C. 

      AF policy directives

    • D. 

      AF doctrine documents

  • 57. 
    (018) Statements of the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF used to initiate,govern, or regulate actions are called
    • A. 

      AF manuals

    • B. 

      AF instructions

    • C. 

      Mission directives

    • D. 

      AF policy directives

  • 58. 
    (018) What documents consist of procedures that usually contain examples for performing standard tasks?
    • A. 

      AF manuals

    • B. 

      AF instructions

    • C. 

      Mission directives

    • D. 

      AF policy directives

  • 59. 
    (019) Informational publications that include procedures for implementing AF policies are called
    • A. 

      Indexes

    • B. 

      Pamphlets

    • C. 

      Directories

    • D. 

      Supplements

  • 60. 
    (019) Informational publications that are compilations of systematically arranged information are called
    • A. 

      Supplements

    • B. 

      Directories

    • C. 

      Pamphlets

    • D. 

      Indexes

  • 61. 
    (020) Who uses MDC system information for validating manpower requirements?
    • A. 

      HQ USAF

    • B. 

      HQ ACC

    • C. 

      HQ AETC

    • D. 

      HQ AMC

  • 62. 
    (020) Which type of MDC system data is not used at base level?
    • A. 

      Production credit information

    • B. 

      Configuration status accounting

    • C. 

      Analysis of NRTS actions

    • D. 

      Determination of the cost of military work hours

  • 63. 
    (020) What is the primary source of information for equipment configuration status at base,command, and depot levels?
    • A. 

      Advanced configuration management system

    • B. 

      MDC system

    • C. 

      IMDS

    • D. 

      Maintenance cost system

  • 64. 
    (020) The REMIS is designed to provide information to support AF
    • A. 

      Equipment maintenance program

    • B. 

      Data for the DDN

    • C. 

      Data for the IMDS

    • D. 

      Document production data for the MDC system

  • 65. 
    (021) The MDC system data element used to tie together all maintenance actions on a specific job is the
    • A. 

      WUC

    • B. 

      Work center code

    • C. 

      JCN

    • D. 

      ID number

  • 66. 
    (021) The first five digits of a JCN indicate the
    • A. 

      Year and Julian date

    • B. 

      Last five digits of the equipment serial number

    • C. 

      First five digits of the equipment serial number

    • D. 

      Month and year the maintenance discrepancy was discovered

  • 67. 
    (021) A work center that contributes labor towards a maintenance requirement is called the
    • A. 

      Owning work center

    • B. 

      Reporting work center

    • C. 

      Performing work center

    • D. 

      Nonreporting work center

  • 68. 
    (021) What MDC system data element is published in manuals and REMIS tables for each weapon and support system?
    • A. 

      WUC

    • B. 

      Work center code

    • C. 

      JCN

    • D. 

      ID number

  • 69. 
    (022) What form is used for MDC when the IMDS is not available?
    • A. 

      AF Form 2005

    • B. 

      AF Form 2413

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 110

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 349

  • 70. 
    (022) The number entered in the TAG NUMBER block of an AFTO Form 349 comes from
    • A. 

      The AFTO Form 350

    • B. 

      A WUC manual

    • C. 

      The manufacturer’s data plate

    • D. 

      The IPB

  • 71. 
    (022) Where do you find the code to enter in the TYPE MAINT block of an AFTO Form 349?
    • A. 

      On AF Form 2413

    • B. 

      In the maintenance TO

    • C. 

      In the system WUC manual

    • D. 

      On the manufacturer’s data plate

  • 72. 
    (022) What is entered in column C of an AFTO Form 349 to document a TCTO?
    • A. 

      The WUC

    • B. 

      The TCTO support general code

    • C. 

      The first five characters of the national item identification number

    • D. 

      The first five characters of the TCTO data code or command-assigned data code

  • 73. 
    (022) The entry in the CAT LAB block on an AFTO Form 349 indicates the
    • A. 

      Rank/rating of the technician

    • B. 

      Type of man-hour expenditure

    • C. 

      Type of equipment being repaired

    • D. 

      Number of technicians performing the work

  • 74. 
    (022) An X placed in the SCH CODE block of an AFTO Form 349 indicates
    • A. 

      Additional maintenance must be scheduled

    • B. 

      The maintenance action has been rescheduled

    • C. 

      An unscheduled maintenance action has been performed

    • D. 

      The computer must calculate the next calibration or maintenance due date

  • 75. 
    (022) Which form provides an interface between on- and off-equipment maintenance documentation, and serves as an identification and status tag?
    • A. 

      AF Form 2005

    • B. 

      AF Form 2413

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 349

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 350

  • 76. 
    (022) What AFTO Form is used as an accountability document for items managed under the DIFM program?
    • A. 

      244

    • B. 

      349

    • C. 

      350

    • D. 

      781

  • 77. 
    (022) Dates entered on an AFTO Form 350 that pertain to repair cycle times are used
    • A. 

      To identify time-change requirements

    • B. 

      For establishing equipment need dates

    • C. 

      For determining manpower requirements

    • D. 

      As an aid in determining spares requirements

  • 78. 
    (022) What is entered in block 15 of an AFTO Form 350 if an item is not reparable?
    • A. 

      A description of the malfunction

    • B. 

      A brief description of the repair efforts

    • C. 

      The signature of the performing work center supervisor

    • D. 

      The letters NRTS and the not reparable this station code

  • 79. 
    (023) Who can give authorization for an aircraft to be flown while under a red X condition?
    • A. 

      No one

    • B. 

      Maintenance control supervisor

    • C. 

      Base commander

    • D. 

      Wing commander

  • 80. 
    (023) The symbol you enter on inspection forms when an urgent-action TCTO is received is a
    • A. 

      Red X

    • B. 

      Red dash

    • C. 

      Red diagonal

    • D. 

      Circled red X

  • 81. 
    (024) The IMDS is a
    • A. 

      Base-level computer system used for supply management

    • B. 

      Command-level computer system used for supply management

    • C. 

      Base-level computer system used for maintenance management

    • D. 

      Command-level computer system used for maintenance management

  • 82. 
    (024) Correcting erroneous data in the IMDS is a function of
    • A. 

      Data reporting

    • B. 

      Information retrieval

    • C. 

      Database management

    • D. 

      The error detection subsystem

  • 83. 
    (025) The IMDS is event oriented and user friendly, which means it
    • A. 

      Accepts any input

    • B. 

      Requires no password

    • C. 

      Restricts unauthorized access

    • D. 

      Checks keyboard entries for compatibility

  • 84. 
    (025) The primary purpose of the IMDS screen 380 is to
    • A. 

      Maintain the present data and status of YR/EVENT IDs and work center events

    • B. 

      Provide an up-to-date list of all open JCN

    • C. 

      Generate a new JCN and show time spent against this number

    • D. 

      Provide an opportunity to modify entries found to be in error

  • 85. 
    (025) What IMDS screen displays a maintenance snapshot inquiry?
    • A. 

      054

    • B. 

      122

    • C. 

      142

    • D. 

      380

  • 86. 
    (026) What is not a function of the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System?
    • A. 

      Mission scheduling

    • B. 

      Maintenance scheduling

    • C. 

      Personnel leave scheduling

    • D. 

      Personnel training management

  • 87. 
    (027) Of the four types of programs used in the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System, which is considered to be the “heart” of the system?
    • A. 

      Variable information retrieval

    • B. 

      Data output

    • C. 

      Data input

    • D. 

      Batch

  • 88. 
    (027) Users of the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System know they are logged out when they see on the computer screen the word
    • A. 

      BYE

    • B. 

      END

    • C. 

      MOBILITY

    • D. 

      MAINTENANCE

  • 89. 
    (028) Supply discipline is best described as
    • A. 

      Protection given to AF resources

    • B. 

      Command-directed supply procedures

    • C. 

      Instructions given to protect AF resources

    • D. 

      Extra consideration to get the most from available resources

  • 90. 
    (029) Who is accountable for equipment items?
    • A. 

      Supply personnel and equipment custodians

    • B. 

      Resource advisers and equipment custodians

    • C. 

      Maintenance personnel and resource advisors

    • D. 

      Equipment manufacturers and supply personnel

  • 91. 
    (029) What supply printout provides the user a list of all parts ordered, but not received?
    • A. 

      Custodian authorization and custody receipt listing

    • B. 

      Mission capability status report

    • C. 

      Due-out validation listing

    • D. 

      Daily document register

  • 92. 
    (029) What type of property responsibility requires that directives and instructions be issued?
    • A. 

      Custodial

    • B. 

      Command

    • C. 

      Supervisory

    • D. 

      Administrative

  • 93. 
    (029) What type of property responsibility is applicable when a sergeant takes possession of a box that fell off an AF supply truck?
    • A. 

      Custodial

    • B. 

      Command

    • C. 

      Supervisory

    • D. 

      Administrative

  • 94. 
    (029) One way you can be relieved of property responsibility is to
    • A. 

      Turn the property in to supply

    • B. 

      Have the property declared surplus

    • C. 

      Have the property declared unserviceable

    • D. 

      Call the base equipment management office

  • 95. 
    (029) When a person responsible for property is transferred, and the property remains with the organization, property responsibility
    • A. 

      Is dropped

    • B. 

      Remains with the person

    • C. 

      Stays in the organization

    • D. 

      Is transferred to the supply squadron

  • 96. 
    (030) Unit nonexpendable equipment authorizations are based on
    • A. 

      Requirements and funding

    • B. 

      Funding and number of personnel authorized

    • C. 

      Unit mission and readily available equipment

    • D. 

      Unit mission and number of personnel authorized

  • 97. 
    (031) The on-hand quantity of bench stock items does not normally exceed
    • A. 

      30 days

    • B. 

      60 days

    • C. 

      90 days

    • D. 

      120 days

  • 98. 
    (032) Material deficiency reporting procedures are found in Air Force TO
    • A. 

      00–25D–54

    • B. 

      00–25D–55

    • C. 

      00–35D–54

    • D. 

      00–35D–35

  • 99. 
    (032) The originator sends a draft DR for screening to
    • A. 

      Base supply

    • B. 

      The screening point

    • C. 

      The squadron commander

    • D. 

      The depot from which the item came

  • 100. 
    (032) What type of DR requires submission by message within three workdays after the discovery of the deficiency?
    • A. 

      Category II

    • B. 

      Category I

    • C. 

      Software

    • D. 

      Materiel