Tasc Science Exam 4


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Tasc Science Exam 4 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What metric base unit is used to record mass?

    • A.

      Celsius

    • B.

      Gram

    • C.

      Meter

    • D.

      Volume

    Correct Answer
    B. Gram
    Explanation
    B. Gram is the metric base unit for mass. See Lesson: Designing an Experiment.

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  • 2. 

    A fish in a large fish tank is fed 5 ounces of food once a day. The same type of fish in a second tank is fed 10 ounces of food each day. The same type of fish in a third tank is fed 2 ounces of food four times a day. This study lasts for a four-week period where fish weight is measured weekly. What is the dependent variable?

    • A.

      Weight of the fish

    • B.

      Type of food used

    • C.

      Number of fish tanks

    • D.

      Frequency of feedings

    Correct Answer
    A. Weight of the fish
    Explanation
    A. The weight of fish is the dependent variable because it is dependent on how much food is supplied to each fish tank over the four-week period. See Lesson: Designing an Experiment.

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  • 3. 

    Empirical evidence is

    • A.

      Repeatable by multiple scientists.

    • B.

      Used to explain the placebo effect.

    • C.

      Created using deductive reasoning.

    • D.

      Data that contains metric base units.

    Correct Answer
    A. Repeatable by multiple scientists.
    Explanation
    A. Empirical evidence provides data and experimental setups that are repeatable by other people. See Lesson: Designing an Experiment.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following elements is in the same family as calcium?

    • A.

      Potassium

    • B.

      Scandium

    • C.

      Strontium

    • D.

      Yttrium

    Correct Answer
    C. Strontium
    Explanation
    C. Families in the periodic table are associated with groups (columns). Strontium is the only element listed that is in group 2 with calcium. See Lesson: Scientific Notation.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following parts of an atom has the largest mass?

    • A.

      A proton

    • B.

      A neutron

    • C.

      The nucleus

    • D.

      The electron cloud

    Correct Answer
    C. The nucleus
    Explanation
    C. The nucleus has the largest mass because it contains multiple protons and neutrons, which have much more mass than the electrons in the electron cloud. See Lesson: Scientific Notation.

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  • 6. 

    An atom contains 15 protons, 16 neutrons, and 18 electrons. What element is it?

    • A.

      Argon

    • B.

      Phosphorus

    • C.

      Selenium

    • D.

      Sulfur

    Correct Answer
    B. Phosphorus
    Explanation
    B. The number of protons determines the identity of the element. Regardless of the number of neutrons and electrons, any atom that has 15 protons is phosphorus. See Lesson: Scientific Notation.

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  • 7. 

    How many grams are equivalent to a 25.0 ounce container?

    • A.

      0.883

    • B.

      53.3

    • C.

      226

    • D.

      707

    Correct Answer
    D. 707
    Explanation
    D. One ounce is equal to 28.3 grams. Using this English to metric conversion factor, 28.3 grams multiplied by 25.0 ounces yields 707 grams. See Lesson: Temperature and the Metric System.

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  • 8. 

    One centigram of a substance is equal to how many grams?

    • A.

      0.0001

    • B.

      0.01

    • C.

      10

    • D.

      1000

    Correct Answer
    B. 0.01
    Explanation
    B. There are 1/100, or 0.01 grams, in 1 centigram. A gram is larger than a centigram. See Lesson: Temperature and the Metric System.

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  • 9. 

    The Celsius temperature scale

    • A.

      Belongs to the English system.

    • B.

      Can be converted to Kelvin using 273.

    • C.

      Begins with 32°C as water’s boiling point.

    • D.

      Is recognized as one of five temperature scales.

    Correct Answer
    B. Can be converted to Kelvin using 273.
    Explanation
    B. Celsius is one of three temperature scales and the only one that belongs to the metric system. It can be converted to Kelvin using 273. See Lesson: Temperature and the Metric System.

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  • 10. 

    Which is part of the monomer structure of a nucleic acid?

    • A.

      DNA

    • B.

      Glucose

    • C.

      Thymine

    • D.

      Cellulose

    Correct Answer
    C. Thymine
    Explanation
    C. Adenine and thymine bond with each other to form a nucleotide. This nucleotide is the monomer of the nucleic acid DNA. See Lesson: An Introduction to Biology.

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  • 11. 

    What is a monomer of a carbohydrate?

    • A.

      Oil

    • B.

      RNA

    • C.

      Glycerol

    • D.

      Monosaccharide

    Correct Answer
    D. Monosaccharide
    Explanation
    D. Monosaccharides are monomers used to create larger molecules called carbohydrates. See Lesson: An Introduction to Biology.

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  • 12. 

    Which would benefit from the use of a taxonomic system?

    • A.

      A researcher discovers a new organism while surveying a lake.

    • B.

      A researcher examines the survival of an invasive plant species.

    • C.

      A researcher studies the growth and development of a living thing.

    • D.

      A researcher uses fossils to explain how organisms evolved over time.

    Correct Answer
    A. A researcher discovers a new organism while surveying a lake.
    Explanation
    A. Whenever a new living thing is discovered or identified, it needs to be classified and named. A taxonomic system can be used to do this. See Lesson: An Introduction to Biology.

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  • 13. 

    Which organelles work together to protect a plant cell from the external environment?

    • A.

      Flagella and pili

    • B.

      Cytoplasm and lysosome

    • C.

      Cell wall and cell membrane

    • D.

      Ribosome and Golgi apparatus

    Correct Answer
    C. Cell wall and cell membrane
    Explanation
    C. The cell wall provides structural support and protects the cell from the external environment. The cell membrane is selectively permeable, allowing only certain things from the outside environment to enter. See Lesson: Cell Structure, Function, and Type.

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  • 14. 

    Which organisms are heterotrophs?

    • A.

      Algae

    • B.

      Bears

    • C.

      Bacteria

    • D.

      Flowers

    Correct Answer
    B. Bears
    Explanation
    B. Heterotrophs such as bears are organisms that function as consumers and ingest food as an energy source. See Lesson: Cell Structure, Function, and Type.

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  • 15. 

    Which cell part is associated with both animal and plant cells?

    • A.

      Cell wall

    • B.

      Chloroplast

    • C.

      Large vacuole

    • D.

      Endoplasmic reticulum

    Correct Answer
    D. Endoplasmic reticulum
    Explanation
    D. The endoplasmic reticulum functions as the cell’s transportation system. It helps shuttle proteins and other molecules around the cell. This structure is found in both animal and plant cells. See Lesson: Cell Structure, Function, and Type.

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  • 16. 

    During which phase of meiosis do chiasmata structures form?

    • A.

      Prophase I

    • B.

      Prophase II

    • C.

      Metaphase I

    • D.

      Metaphase II

    Correct Answer
    A. Prophase I
    Explanation
    A. Chiasmata are X-shaped structures that form when chromosomes from the mother and father of an organism undergoing meiosis are physically bound. This happens during prophase I of meiosis. See Lesson: Cellular Reproduction, Cellular Respiration, and Photosynthesis.

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  • 17. 

    Which statement correctly compares cytokinesis in plants and animals?

    • A.

      Cytokinesis in plants involves a new cell wall, but it involves physically deforming the cell in animals.

    • B.

      Cytokinesis in plants relies on formation of microtubules between the new cells, but actin plays this role in animals.

    • C.

      Cytokinesis does not happen in plants, leading to multinucleate plant cells, but it involves forming a cell wall in animals.

    • D.

      Cytokinesis in plants uses a line of mitochondria to separate the two new cells, but the endoplasmic reticulum is used in animals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cytokinesis in plants involves a new cell wall, but it involves physically deforming the cell in animals.
    Explanation
    A. Plant cells build a new cell wall between the two daughter cells, while animal cells split by slowly pinching the cell membrane inward to divide the cell into two daughter cells. See Lesson: Cellular Reproduction, Cellular Respiration, and Photosynthesis.

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  • 18. 

    Someone experiences a cut on the finger. Cell division is used during this situation for the purposes of

    • A.

      Energy.

    • B.

      Growth.

    • C.

      Repair.

    • D.

      Reproduction.

    Correct Answer
    C. Repair.
    Explanation
    C. Cells were killed when they were cut. Thus, cells are needed to replace the damaged or dead cells and facilitate wound healing. See Lesson: Cellular Reproduction, Cellular Respiration, and Photosynthesis.

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  • 19. 

    Right before cell division, a DNA molecule and its associated proteins

    • A.

      Coil tightly.

    • B.

      Stretch out.

    • C.

      Form a double helix.

    • D.

      Wrap around each other.

    Correct Answer
    A. Coil tightly.
    Explanation
    A. A DNA molecule and its associated proteins coil tightly right before cellular division. See Lesson: Genetics and DNA.

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  • 20. 

    What is replication?

    • A.

      Twisting DNA into a double helix

    • B.

      Synthesizing a new strand of DNA

    • C.

      Altering the lagging and leading strands of DNA

    • D.

      Repeating codons needed to manufacture specific proteins

    Correct Answer
    B. Synthesizing a new strand of DNA
    Explanation
    B. Replication is the process of synthesizing a new strand of DNA. See Lesson: Genetics and DNA.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following is a segment of DNA that transmits information from parent to offspring?

    • A.

      Centromere

    • B.

      Chromatid

    • C.

      Chromosome

    • D.

      Gene

    Correct Answer
    D. Gene
    Explanation
    D. A gene is a segment of DNA that transmits information from the parent to the offspring. See Lesson: Genetics and DNA.

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  • 22. 

    In which state of matter do the particles of iron have the lowest amount of cohesion?

    • A.

      Solid iron particles have the lowest amount of cohesion.

    • B.

      Liquid iron particles have the lowest amount of cohesion.

    • C.

      Gaseous iron particles have the lowest amount of cohesion.

    • D.

      The particles have the same amount of cohesion in all states of matter.

    Correct Answer
    C. Gaseous iron particles have the lowest amount of cohesion.
    Explanation
    C. The particles in a sample of gas are farther apart than in solids or liquids and therefore have the lowest amount of cohesion. See Lesson: States of Matter.

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  • 23. 

    What states of matter are found in a sample that is in the process of freezing?

    • A.

      Only solid

    • B.

      Only liquid

    • C.

      Liquid and gas

    • D.

      Solid and liquid

    Correct Answer
    D. Solid and liquid
    Explanation
    D. Freezing is the process of changing from a liquid to a solid. Therefore, these two states of matter will be present as that change occurs. See Lesson: States of Matter.

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  • 24. 

    During which of the following phase changes will a substance absorb energy?

    • A.

      Condensation

    • B.

      Deposition

    • C.

      Freezing

    • D.

      Sublimation

    Correct Answer
    D. Sublimation
    Explanation
    D. During sublimation, a solid turns into a gas. Because solids have less energy than gases, the solid will have to absorb energy to undergo this phase change. See Lesson: States of Matter.

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  • 25. 

    The molecules move around more, and the particles are unable to hold together as tightly. They break apart, and the solid becomes a liquid. Which of the following is being described?

    • A.

      Deposition

    • B.

      Freezing

    • C.

      Melting

    • D.

      Sublimation

    Correct Answer
    C. Melting
    Explanation
    C. Melting is a phase change of a solid to a liquid. See Lesson: Properties of Matter.

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  • 26. 

    A good illustration to differentiate between the two types of properties is that mass and volume are _____ properties, but their ratio (density) is a(n) _____ property of matter.

    • A.

      Chemical, physical

    • B.

      Physical, chemical

    • C.

      Extensive, intensive

    • D.

      Intensive, extensive

    Correct Answer
    C. Extensive, intensive
    Explanation
    C. Extensive properties deal with amounts, while intensive properties do not change based on amounts or other conditions. See Lesson: Properties of Matter.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following properties is independent of the amount of matter in a substance?

    • A.

      Chemical

    • B.

      Extensive

    • C.

      Intensive

    • D.

      Physical

    Correct Answer
    C. Intensive
    Explanation
    C. Intensive properties do not change based on the amount of matter in a substance. See Lesson: Properties of Matter.

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  • 28. 

    In the molecule of chlorine (Cl2) shown below, how is each chlorine atom stable?

    • A.

      Each chlorine atom shares one electron and has six lone-pair electrons.

    • B.

      Each chlorine atom shares six electrons and has one lone-pair electron.

    • C.

      Each chlorine atom shares two electrons and has six lone-pair electrons.

    • D.

      Each chlorine atom shares six electrons and has two lone-pair electrons.

    Correct Answer
    C. Each chlorine atom shares two electrons and has six lone-pair electrons.
    Explanation
    C. In the chlorine molecule, each chlorine atom makes one covalent bond with the other, which means they are sharing two electrons. Each chlorine atom also has six dots around it, indicating it has six lone-pair electrons that are not involved in bonding. See Lesson: Chemical Bonds.

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  • 29. 

    In the Lewis structures below, which element is stable with four shared and four lone-pair electrons?

    • A.

      Chlorine

    • B.

      Oxygen

    • C.

      Phosphorus

    • D.

      Silicon

    Correct Answer
    B. Oxygen
    Explanation
    B. Oxygen forms two bonds, each containing two electrons, for a total of four shared electrons. The four dots around the oxygen atom represent four lone-pair electrons. See Lesson: Chemical Bonds.

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  • 30. 

    Consider the carbon-carbon bonds that exist in the molecules shown below. Which of the compounds below contains the strongest carbon-carbon bond?

    • A.

      Acetylene

    • B.

      Ethane

    • C.

      Ethylene

    • D.

      Methanol

    Correct Answer
    A. Acetylene
    Explanation
    A. The carbon-carbon bond in acetylene is a triple bond, which is stronger than the others because three pairs of electrons are being shared, rather than two or one pair. See Lesson: Chemical Bonds.

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  • 31. 

    When aqueous solutions of Pb(NO3)2 and KI are mixed, the reaction shown in the equation occurs, and a yellow solid appears. What is the identity of the solid? Pb(NO3)2(aq)+ 2KI(aq) ® PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq)

    • A.

      Kl

    • B.

      Pbl2

    • C.

      KNO3

    • D.

      Pb(NO3)2

    Correct Answer
    B. Pbl2
    Explanation
    B. The state of matter for PbI2 is solid, as indicated by the symbol (s) after the formula in the equation. See Lesson: Chemical Solutions.

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  • 32. 

    In which reaction are both the reactants and the products heterogeneous mixtures?

    • A.

      2H2O(g) ® H2(g) + O2(g)

    • B.

      2C2H2(g) + 5O2(g) ® 4CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

    • C.

      2AgNO3(aq) + Cu(s) ® 2Ag(s) + Cu(NO3)2(aq)

    • D.

      CaCl2(aq) + MgSO4(aq) ® CaSO4(s) + MgCl2(aq)

    Correct Answer
    C. 2AgNO3(aq) + Cu(s) ® 2Ag(s) + Cu(NO3)2(aq)
    Explanation
    C. Both the reactants and products include one substance that is an aqueous solution and one solid substance. This means that there is a solution with a solid inside that does not dissolve, making it heterogeneous. See Lesson: Chemical Solutions.

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  • 33. 

    What is the maximum amount of NaCl that will dissolve in 100 grams of water at 90°C?

    • A.

      34 grams

    • B.

      38 grams

    • C.

      40 grams

    • D.

      47 grams

    Correct Answer
    C. 40 grams
    Explanation
    C. At 90°C, the line labeled NaCl crosses the 40-gram line. See Lesson: Chemical Solutions. 

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  • 34. 

    Which product completes the following acid-base reaction? H2SO4 + 2KOH   ?

    • A.

      H3O+

    • B.

      HSO3-

    • C.

      K2SO4

    • D.

      KHSO4

    Correct Answer
    C. K2SO4
    Explanation
    C. This is a neutralization reaction where the acid (H2SO4) reacts with KOH to produce a salt, K2SO4, and water (H2O). See Lesson: Acids and Bases.

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  • 35. 

    What is the conjugate base of sulfuric acid?

    • A.

      HSO4-

    • B.

      HSO2-

    • C.

      HSO3

    • D.

      H2SO3

    Correct Answer
    A. HSO4-
    Explanation
    A. Hydrogen sulfate (HSO4-) is the conjugate base of sulfuric acid (H2SO4) because the acid donates a proton when it dissolves in an aqueous solution. See Lesson: Acids and Bases.

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  • 36. 

    What is formed when nitric acid (HNO3) reacts with barium hydroxide (Ba(OH)2)?

    • A.

      H2O

    • B.

      HNO2

    • C.

      Ba(NO2)2

    • D.

      Ba(NH2)2

    Correct Answer
    A. H2O
    Explanation
    A. During this neutralization reaction, barium hydroxide and nitric acid react to form water and barium nitrate (Ba(NO3)2). See Lesson: Acids and Bases.

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  • 37. 

    A 3.0-kilogram object moving northward experiences a southward force of 75 newtons. What is its acceleration?

    • A.

      25 m/s2 northward

    • B.

      25 m/s2 southward

    • C.

      225 m/s2 northward

    • D.

      225 m/s2 southward

    Correct Answer
    B. 25 m/s2 southward
  • 38. 

    An object undergoing projectile motion has an initial velocity (22.0, 18.0) in meters per second. Which of the following is the unit vector in the direction of the object’s initial velocity?

    • A.

      (0.220, 0.180) m/s

    • B.

      (0.550, 0.450) m/s

    • C.

      (0.775, 0.634) m/s

    • D.

      (1.00, 0.818) m/s

    Correct Answer
    C. (0.775, 0.634) m/s
  • 39. 

    A merry-go-round is spinning counterclockwise. If a child riding the merry-go-round jumps off when he is experiencing centripetal acceleration directed southward, in what direction will he be moving when he hits the ground?

    • A.

      East

    • B.

      North

    • C.

      South

    • D.

      West

    Correct Answer
    D. West
    Explanation
    D. Draw a circle and indicate the direction of motion as counterclockwise. The centripetal acceleration always directed toward the center; it points south at the top (northernmost) point of the circle. At that point, if the child jumps off, he experiences no more acceleration and maintains the horizontal velocity he had when he jumped. That velocity is directed west. See Lesson: Friction.

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  • 40. 

    A student conducting a physics experiment drives a car with a blindfolded passenger and asks that passenger to determine whether the car’s motion is linear or nonlinear. Which experience tells the passenger that the car is moving nonlinearly?

    • A.

      The passenger feels no forces.

    • B.

      The passenger feels a constant backward force.

    • C.

      The passenger feels an increasing forward force.

    • D.

      The passenger feels a decreasing sideways force.

    Correct Answer
    D. The passenger feels a decreasing sideways force.
    Explanation
    D. If the passenger feels a force pushing forward or backward, the car is just decelerating or accelerating along a line, regardless of whether that force is constant or changing in magnitude. That type of motion is linear. If the passenger feels a force to either side, the car is turning in one direction or the other, meaning its motion is nonlinear. Whether the force is increasing or decreasing is unimportant to this experiment. See Lesson: Friction.

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  • 41. 

    A race car moving clockwise on a circular track is subject to friction from air resistance and contact between the tires and the track. If the driver is to maintain uniform circular motion, what must he do?

    • A.

      Hit the brake

    • B.

      Hit the gas pedal

    • C.

      Turn the wheel farther to the left

    • D.

      Turn the wheel farther to the right

    Correct Answer
    B. Hit the gas pedal
    Explanation
    B. If the driver does nothing, his car will lose speed, eventually coming to a stop. Because the friction force is opposite in direction to the velocity, hitting the gas pedal will apply an additional force in the direction of the velocity to cancel the friction. See Lesson: Friction.

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  • 42. 

    What differentiates an electromagnetic wave from a mechanical wave?

    • A.

      Only electromagnetic waves can exist in a vacuum.

    • B.

      Only electromagnetic waves can exhibit refraction.

    • C.

      Only electromagnetic waves can travel through a material.

    • D.

      Only electromagnetic waves obey the wave-speed equation v = λf.

    Correct Answer
    A. Only electromagnetic waves can exist in a vacuum.
    Explanation
    A. Both electromagnetic and mechanical waves can travel through materials and exhibit refraction. They also both obey the wave-speed equation. By elimination, only electromagnetic waves can exist in a vacuum. (As their name indicates, mechanical waves require some material—solid, liquid, or gas—to propagate.) See Lesson: Waves and Sounds.

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  • 43. 

    The maximum speed of light is c. What does this fact imply?

    • A.

      The amplitude of a light wave must be less than 1.

    • B.

      The amplitude of a light wave must be less than the frequency.

    • C.

      The frequency of a light wave must be less than the wavelength.

    • D.

      The refractive index of a material must be greater than or equal to 1.

    Correct Answer
    D. The refractive index of a material must be greater than or equal to 1.
    Explanation
    D. Because c is the maximum speed of light, the wave speed must (under normal conditions) be less than or equal to c. Because the wave speed is related to the index of refraction by v = c/n, n must be greater than or equal to 1 to prevent v from exceeding c. See Lesson: Waves and Sounds.

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  • 44. 

    An ocean wave arrives perpendicularly to the length of a large shipping vessel. At the front and back of the vessel, the wave appears to turn and travel along the opposite side after it passes. Which term best describes this phenomenon?

    • A.

      Diffraction

    • B.

      Extension

    • C.

      Reflection

    • D.

      Refraction

    Correct Answer
    A. Diffraction
    Explanation
    A. When waves pass an object’s edge, part of them can appear to turn or bend around that edge and travel in a different direction. This phenomenon is called diffraction. See Lesson: Waves and Sounds.

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  • 45. 

    According to Newton’s equation for universal gravitation, if the mass of a planet near the sun were tripled,

    • A.

      The force of attraction would be tripled.

    • B.

      The force of attraction would be doubled.

    • C.

      The force of attraction would be quartered.

    • D.

      The force of attraction would be quadrupled.

    Correct Answer
    A. The force of attraction would be tripled.
    Explanation
    A. The mass is directly proportional to the force.See Lesson: Kinetic Energy.

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  • 46. 

    What is the gravitational attraction force between the space shuttle (2,031,000 kg) and the Hubble Space Telescope (11,110 kg) when they are 50.0 m apart?

    • A.

      6.02 x 10-4 N

    • B.

      6.02 N

    • C.

      60.2 N

    • D.

      6.02 x 104 N

    Correct Answer
    A. 6.02 x 10-4 N
    Explanation
    A. Use the universal gravitation formula to solve. Then, plug in all known variables and calculate.

    See Lesson: Kinetic Energy.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following will create an electric force around a wire loop?

    • A.

      Constant current inside the loop

    • B.

      Changing electric flux inside the loop

    • C.

      Changing magnetic flux inside the loop

    • D.

      Constant electric and magnetic flux inside the loop

    Correct Answer
    C. Changing magnetic flux inside the loop
    Explanation
    C. Electromagnetic induction—the creation of an electric force in a conductor (a wire loop, in this case)—is the result of changing magnetic flux inside the loop. See Lesson: Electricity and Magnetism.

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  • 48. 

    A proton has an electron on either side of it such that all three particles lie on a line and each electron is 1 millimeter from the proton. What is the direction of the net electric force on the proton?

    • A.

      No net force acts on the proton.

    • B.

      The force is toward one of the electrons.

    • C.

      Electrons and protons exert no electric force on each other.

    • D.

      The force is perpendicular to the line on which the three particles lie.

    Correct Answer
    A. No net force acts on the proton.
    Explanation
    A. Because the electrons are equidistant from the proton, the forces they exert on the proton are equal in magnitude (both are attractive forces). But because these particles lie on a line, the forces have opposite directions, so they cancel each other out. See Lesson: Electricity and Magnetism.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following represents an electric current?

    • A.

      Electric flux in a vacuum

    • B.

      Electrons moving in a wire

    • C.

      A disconnected voltage source

    • D.

      An electromagnetic wave in a material

    Correct Answer
    B. Electrons moving in a wire
    Explanation
    B. An electric current is moving charge. Because electrons have an electric charge, they create an electric current when they move. See Lesson: Electricity and Magnetism.

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  • 50. 

    If someone drops a stone from a cliff that is 48 meters high, how long will it take the stone to reach the ground? (The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 m/s2.)

    • A.

      3.1 s

    • B.

      4.9 s

    • C.

      9.8 s

    • D.

      15 s

    Correct Answer
    A. 3.1 s

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  • Apr 19, 2019
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  • Apr 19, 2019
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