1.
Common risk factors for prostate cancer include BPH and smoking.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
BPH does not increase the risk, although it may delay diagnosis. Smoking does not increase the risk but it does increase mortality once diagnosed.
2.
Elevated PSA levels show a patient has an increased chance of having prostate cancer. Some drugs decrease these levels by 50% after 6 to 12 months of use. These drugs include:
Correct Answer(s)
A. Finasteride
B. Dutasteride
C. Androgen receptor blockers
D. Saw Palmetto
Explanation
Androgen receptor blocker examples are bicalutamide and flutamide.
3.
According to ACS screening guidelines, African Americans are at higher risk for prostate cancer and should be screened sooner.
Correct Answer
A. True
4.
The American Cancer Society, NCCN, and US Preventative Services Task Force all have similar screening guidelines.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
There is actually a lot of controversy between the guidelines.
5.
Which Gleason grade group has the best prognosis?
Correct Answer
A. Gleason grade group 1
6.
What levels of risk of recurrence have observation as a treatment option?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Very Low
B. Low
C. Intermediate
Explanation
Very low: observation only if life expectancy is less than 20 yrs. Observation, prostatectomy, or radiation if life expectancy is 20+ yrs.
Low: observation only if life expectancy is < 10 yrs. Observation, prostatectomy, or radiation if life expectancy is 10+ yrs.
Intermediate: Observation, prostatectomy, or radiation +/- ADT (4-6 months) if life expectancy is
7.
Active surveillance is use for life expectancy > 10 years and observation is used for life expectancy < 10 years
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
For active surveillance, progression will start curative treatment. For observation, progression will start palliative treatment. Patient must understand that tumor will progress during active surveillance or observation.
8.
What are some advantages to active surveillance or observation?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Avoid side effects of treatment
B. Quality of life maintained
C. Decreased costs
D. Avoid unnecessary treatment of small, indolent cancers
E. 2/3 of men eligible for active surveillance will avoid treatment
Explanation
Biopsies are actually disadvantages. Patient will undergo periodic biopsies and multiple biopsies can make prostatectomy challenging. Other disadvantages: increased anxiety, 1/3 men will require treatment, and missed opportunity for cure.
9.
Prostatectomy is an option for almost any risk for recurrence except for very low risk.
Correct Answer
A. True
10.
Radiation is an option for every risk for recurrence.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Radiation is an option for every risk except for very low.
11.
External Beam Radiation Therapy (EBRT) is the only radiation therapy used for prostate cancer.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
There are actually many types of radiation for prostate cancer. She said we didn't have to memorize them all, just know that there are many types.
12.
Adnroge Deprivation Therapy (ADT) is indicated for use in which risk of recurrence levels? (select all that apply)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Intermediate
B. High
C. Very High
Explanation
Used with radiation therapy for 2-3 years in high risk of very high risk patients and for 4-6 months in intermediate risk patients.
13.
Antiandrogens can help control tumor flair caused by LH-RH agonists.
Correct Answer
A. True
Explanation
Tumor flair is caused by the initial increase in gonaotropins due to the LH-RH agonist. With the increase in gonadotropins, there is a negative feedback effect and with chronic administration we see sustained suppression of pituitary gonadotropins. The initial increase in gonadotropins leads to increased androgens such as testosterone which is what causes the tumor flair. With antiandrogens on board, the androgen increase has no affect on the tumor.
14.
LHRH antagonists have no effect on tumor flare and castrate levels are achieved within 7 days.
Correct Answer
A. True
15.
Which drugs are LH-RH agonists?
Correct Answer(s)
A. Goserelin
B. Leuprolide
C. Triptorelin
Explanation
Degarelix and abaralix are LHRH antagonists.
16.
How often should PSA be checked to monitor for recurrent prostate cancer?
Correct Answer
A. Every 6-12 months for 5 years then yearly thereafter
Explanation
A rising PSA is an indicator for recurrent cancer.
17.
A patient presents with metastatic prostate cancer, impending spinal cord compression and ureteral obstruction. What is the preferred initial treatment.
Correct Answer
A. Bilateral orchiectomy
Explanation
A bilateral orchiectomy is removal of the testes to create an immediate drop in testosterone within 12 hours. The other options listed above are options to treat metastatic disease but in this emergency situation, the patient's best option was surgery.
18.
Select the drugs that are antiandrogens from the list below: (select all that apply)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Bicalutamide
B. Flutamine
C. Nilutamide
19.
A slight survival benefit has been seen with intermittent use of androgen deprivation therapy in castrate sensitive metastatic disease.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Continuous ADT shows the slight survival benefit. If there are no symptoms from the ADT then it should be continued. If there are symptoms but the patient is low or intermediate risk, then intermediate use should be considered for QoL.
20.
Combined androgen blockade (CAB) is when an LHRH agonist and and antiandrogen are used together.
Correct Answer
A. True
21.
Drugs (combos) used to treat castrate-recurrent (resistant) metastatic disease include
Correct Answer(s)
A. Abiraterone/Prednisone
B. Docetaxel/Prednisone
C. Enzalutamide
D. Sipuleucel-T
22.
Hallmark toxicities of Abiraterone include:
Correct Answer(s)
A. Fatigue
B. Edema
23.
Hallmark toxicities of docetaxel include:
Correct Answer(s)
A. Complete alopecia
B. Edema
24.
Out of the options for metastatic castrate-recurrent prostate cancer, Enzalutamide has the lowest potential for drug-drug interactions.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
Enzalutamide is a strong CYP3A4 inducer and a moderate CYP2C9 and CYP2C19 inducer. Avoid co-administration with CYP2C8 inhibitors. If you can't avoid, then decrease the dose to 80mg.
25.
Sipuleucel-T is the first vaccine approved for treatment in metastatic castrate-recurrent prostate cancer.
Correct Answer
A. True
26.
Docetaxel is used in patients with metastatic castrate-recurrent prostate cancer who previously treated with cabazitaxel.
Correct Answer
B. False
Explanation
False, it is the other way around. Cabazitaxel is used for metastatic prostate cancer previously treated with a docetaxel-containing regimen.
27.
Select the drugs of choice for bone metastases.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Zoledronic Acid
B. Denosumab
Explanation
The two drugs are both bisphosphonates, a drug class used for bone metastases.