Advanced Test: Pre-transfusion Testing And Adverse Reactions

79 Questions | By KimmieG | Updated: Mar 20, 2022 | Attempts: 2339

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Advanced Test: Pre-transfusion Testing And Adverse Reactions - Quiz

Welcome to the advanced test on Pre-transfusion Testing and adverse reactions. In order to perform thorough pre-transfusion testing, all components of testing must come together to give a complete and accurate set of results to render it ready for transfer to a patient. Do take this quiz and see how knowledgeable you are when it comes to the testing procedures.

Questions and Answers

1.

What is/are tests involved in routine pre-transfusion testing?
- A.
  
  ABO/Rh
- B.
  
  Antibody Screen
- C.
  
  Crossmatch
- D.
  
  All of above
2.

The _________ testing will determine what blood type the recipient is and what type the donor unit needs to be to be "compatible" with the recipient.
- A.
  
  ABO/Rh
- B.
  
  Antibody Screen
- C.
  
  Crossmatch
- D.
  
  All of the above
3.

Which phase of pre-transfusion testing is the antibody screen?
- A.
  
  First phase
- B.
  
  Second phase
- C.
  
  Third phase
- D.
  
  None of the above
4.

Which test of pre-transfusion testing is used to detect unexpected antibody (ies)?
- A.
  
  ABO/Rh
- B.
  
  Antibody Screen
- C.
  
  Crossmatch
- D.
  
  None of the above
5.

The second phase is the crossmatch.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
6.

When preforming a crossmatch we use the ________ serum and the _________ red blood cells.
- A.
  
  Donor, recipient
- B.
  
  Frozen, packed
- C.
  
  Recipient, donor
- D.
  
  Packed, frozen
7.

If the first two tests are grouped together it is called a(n) ___________.
- A.
  
  Type and Screen
- B.
  
  Crossmatch
- C.
  
  Type and Crossmatch
- D.
  
  Crossmatch Screening
- E.
  
  None of the above
8.

If all three tests are performed at the same time it is called a(n)________.
- A.
  
  Type and Screen
- B.
  
  Crossmatch
- C.
  
  Type and Crossmatch
- D.
  
  Crossmatch Screening
- E.
  
  None of the above
9.

There are also many pre-analytical as well as post-analytical factors essential in blood banking as well.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
10.

When identifying a patient what do we check? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)
- A.
  
  Comparing requisition to patient ID band
- B.
  
  Comparing sample label to patient ID band
- C.
  
  Asking patient for their name is enough
- D.
  
  If patient is sleeping just use ID band
- E.
  
  Compare requisition to sample label
11.

When labeling what do we make sure to do? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)
- A.
  
  First & last name
- B.
  
  Last name only
- C.
  
  Unique ID
- D.
  
  Date of collection
- E.
  
  Initials of phlebotomist
- F.
  
  Must be legible
- G.
  
  Put what we want as long at patient name matches
12.

Tubes with the red top have what anticoagulant?
- A.
  
  Acid citrate dextrose (ACD), formula B
- B.
  
  EDTA
- C.
  
  Citrate
- D.
  
  Is blood bank sample
- E.
  
  No anticoagulant
13.

Tubes with the yellow top have what anticoagulant?
- A.
  
  Acid citrate dextrose (ACD), formula B
- B.
  
  EDTA
- C.
  
  Citrate
- D.
  
  Is blood bank sample
- E.
  
  No anticoagulant
14.

Tubes with Purple or pink top have what anticoagulant?
- A.
  
  Acid citrate dextrose (ACD), formula B
- B.
  
  EDTA
- C.
  
  Citrate
- D.
  
  No anticoagulant
15.

The pink top tube is the blood bank sample.
- A.
  
  True
- B.
  
  False
16.

With the date of the draw being 0, how many days are samples able to be used?
- A.
  
  1
- B.
  
  2
- C.
  
  3
- D.
  
  4
- E.
  
  None of the above
17.

The antibody screen:
- A.
  
  Detects most clinically significant antibodies
- B.
  
  Detects all low-frequency antibodies
- C.
  
  Helps to distinguish between an alloantibody and autoantibody
- D.
  
  Can be omitted if the patient has no history of antibodies
18.

HTLA antibodies:
- A.
  
  Typically react at room temperature
- B.
  
  Can be enhanced with PEG
- C.
  
  Are usually clinically insignificant
- D.
  
  Are associated with HDFN
19.

Which of the following statements is associated with anti-I?
- A.
  
  It has weaker reactions with stored blood
- B.
  
  It can be neutralized with commercially prepared substance
- C.
  
  It reacts best at 37 degree C
- D.
  
  It does not react with cord blood cells
20.

A multiple antibody problem was resolved using enzymes. One of the antibody reactions was eliminated after treatment. Which of the following antibodies was probably present?
- A.
  
  Anti-c
- B.
  
  Anti-I
- C.
  
  Anti-Jk a
- D.
  
  Anti-Fy a
21.

An antibody demonstrating the dosage would mean that:
- A.
  
  Homozygous cells were stronger
- B.
  
  Heterozygous cells were stronger
- C.
  
  Cells reacted best with PEG
- D.
  
  Cells reacted best at 4 degrees C
22.

A DAT performed on a clotted sample stored at 4 degrees C may demonstrate:
- A.
  
  In vivo complement attachment
- B.
  
  In vivo IgG attachment
- C.
  
  In vitro complement attachment
- D.
  
  In vitro IgM attachment
23.

The prewarm technique may weaken IgG reactions because:
- A.
  
  Samples are not read at the immediate spin phase
- B.
  
  Warm saline washes may detach IgG antibodies
- C.
  
  The 37 degree C readings are omitted
- D.
  
  Polyspecific IgG is not recommended
24.

The procedure that removes intact antibodies from the red cell membranes is:
- A.
  
  Autoadsorption
- B.
  
  Neutralization
- C.
  
  Enzyme pretreatment
- D.
  
  Elution
25.

An antibody was detected in the screen at 37 degrees C and did not react at the AHG phase. Which of the following should be suspected?
- A.
  
  Anti-S
- B.
  
  Anti-E
- C.
  
  Anti-N
- D.
  
  Anti-Jk a