Advanced Test: Pre-transfusion Testing And Adverse Reactions

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Advanced Test: Pre-transfusion Testing And Adverse Reactions - Quiz

Welcome to the advanced test on Pre-transfusion Testing and adverse reactions. In order to perform thorough pre-transfusion testing, all components of testing must come together to give a complete and accurate set of results to render it ready for transfer to a patient. Do take this quiz and see how knowledgeable you are when it comes to the testing procedures.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is/are tests involved in routine pre-transfusion testing?

    • A.

      ABO/Rh

    • B.

      Antibody Screen

    • C.

      Crossmatch

    • D.

      All of above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of above
    Explanation
    Routine pre-transfusion testing involves several tests to ensure compatibility between the blood donor and recipient. The ABO/Rh test determines the blood type and Rh factor of both the donor and recipient. The antibody screen identifies any unexpected antibodies in the recipient's blood that could cause a reaction. The crossmatch test is performed to check for compatibility between the donor and recipient's blood, specifically checking for any reactions. Therefore, all of the above tests are involved in routine pre-transfusion testing.

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  • 2. 

    The _________ testing will determine what blood type the recipient is and what type the donor unit needs to be to be "compatible" with the recipient.

    • A.

      ABO/Rh

    • B.

      Antibody Screen

    • C.

      Crossmatch

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. ABO/Rh
    Explanation
    The ABO/Rh testing is used to determine the blood type of the recipient and the blood type that the donor unit needs to be compatible with the recipient. This testing is important to ensure that the recipient receives the correct blood type and to prevent any potential adverse reactions or complications during a blood transfusion.

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  • 3. 

    Which phase of pre-transfusion testing is the antibody screen?

    • A.

      First phase

    • B.

      Second phase

    • C.

      Third phase

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Second phase
    Explanation
    The antibody screen is conducted during the second phase of pre-transfusion testing. This phase involves testing the recipient's serum against a panel of known antibodies to identify any unexpected antibodies present. By doing this, potential transfusion reactions can be prevented by ensuring compatibility between the recipient's antibodies and the donor's antigens.

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  • 4. 

    Which test of pre-transfusion testing is used to detect unexpected antibody (ies)?

    • A.

      ABO/Rh

    • B.

      Antibody Screen

    • C.

      Crossmatch

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Antibody Screen
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Antibody Screen. Antibody screen is a test performed during pre-transfusion testing to detect unexpected antibodies in a patient's blood. These unexpected antibodies can cause adverse reactions during blood transfusions, so it is important to identify them beforehand. ABO/Rh test is used to determine the blood type and Rh factor, while crossmatch is a test performed to ensure compatibility between the donor's blood and the recipient's blood. Therefore, neither ABO/Rh nor crossmatch are used specifically to detect unexpected antibodies.

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  • 5. 

    The second phase is the crossmatch.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Crossmatch is the THIRD phase testing

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  • 6. 

    When preforming a crossmatch we use the ________ serum and the _________ red blood cells.

    • A.

      Donor, recipient

    • B.

      Frozen, packed

    • C.

      Recipient, donor

    • D.

      Packed, frozen

    Correct Answer
    C. Recipient, donor
    Explanation
    When performing a crossmatch, we use the recipient's serum and the donor's red blood cells. This is because the purpose of a crossmatch is to determine if there are any antibodies in the recipient's serum that could react with the donor's red blood cells. By mixing the recipient's serum with the donor's red blood cells, we can observe if there is any agglutination or clumping, indicating an incompatible match. Therefore, the correct answer is recipient, donor.

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  • 7. 

    If the first two tests are grouped together it is called a(n) ___________.

    • A.

      Type and Screen

    • B.

      Crossmatch

    • C.

      Type and Crossmatch

    • D.

      Crossmatch Screening

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Type and Screen
    Explanation
    When the first two tests, which are the type test and the screen test, are grouped together, it is called a Type and Screen. This is a common practice in blood banking and transfusion medicine. The type test determines the blood type of the patient, while the screen test checks for the presence of antibodies in the patient's blood that could potentially react with donor blood. By combining these two tests, healthcare professionals can determine the patient's blood type and screen for any potential compatibility issues before transfusing blood products.

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  • 8. 

    If all three tests are performed at the same time it is called a(n)________.

    • A.

      Type and Screen

    • B.

      Crossmatch

    • C.

      Type and Crossmatch

    • D.

      Crossmatch Screening

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Type and Crossmatch
    Explanation
    When all three tests (Type, Screen, and Crossmatch) are performed simultaneously, it is referred to as a "Type and Crossmatch." This process involves determining the patient's blood type, screening for any antibodies present in the blood, and then crossmatching the patient's blood with the donor blood to ensure compatibility before a transfusion.

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  • 9. 

    There are also many pre-analytical as well as post-analytical factors essential in blood banking as well.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because in blood banking, there are various factors that need to be considered both before and after analyzing the blood. Pre-analytical factors include proper collection, labeling, and transportation of blood samples to ensure accurate results. Post-analytical factors involve the storage, processing, and distribution of blood components to ensure their safety and efficacy. These factors are crucial in maintaining the quality and integrity of blood products, making the statement true.

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  • 10. 

    When identifying a patient what do we check? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)

    • A.

      Comparing requisition to patient ID band

    • B.

      Comparing sample label to patient ID band

    • C.

      Asking patient for their name is enough

    • D.

      If patient is sleeping just use ID band

    • E.

      Compare requisition to sample label

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Comparing requisition to patient ID band
    B. Comparing sample label to patient ID band
    E. Compare requisition to sample label
    Explanation
    When identifying a patient, it is important to check multiple factors to ensure accuracy. This includes comparing the requisition to the patient ID band, comparing the sample label to the patient ID band, and comparing the requisition to the sample label. By cross-referencing these different elements, healthcare professionals can verify the correct patient and ensure that the right tests and procedures are being performed. Simply asking the patient for their name may not be enough, as there could be cases of mistaken identity or confusion. Using the ID band when the patient is sleeping can also help confirm their identity.

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  • 11. 

    When labeling what do we make sure to do? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)

    • A.

      First & last name

    • B.

      Last name only

    • C.

      Unique ID

    • D.

      Date of collection

    • E.

      Initials of phlebotomist

    • F.

      Must be legible

    • G.

      Put what we want as long at patient name matches

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. First & last name
    C. Unique ID
    D. Date of collection
    E. Initials of phlebotomist
    F. Must be legible
    Explanation
    When labeling, we make sure to include the first and last name, unique ID, date of collection, initials of the phlebotomist, and ensure that the label is legible.

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  • 12. 

    Tubes with the red top have what anticoagulant?

    • A.

      Acid citrate dextrose (ACD), formula B

    • B.

      EDTA

    • C.

      Citrate

    • D.

      Is blood bank sample

    • E.

      No anticoagulant

    Correct Answer
    E. No anticoagulant
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "No anticoagulant." This means that tubes with the red top do not contain any anticoagulant. Anticoagulants are substances that prevent blood from clotting, and in this case, the red top tubes do not have any anticoagulant added to them.

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  • 13. 

    Tubes with the yellow top have what anticoagulant?

    • A.

      Acid citrate dextrose (ACD), formula B

    • B.

      EDTA

    • C.

      Citrate

    • D.

      Is blood bank sample

    • E.

      No anticoagulant

    Correct Answer
    A. Acid citrate dextrose (ACD), formula B
    Explanation
    Tubes with the yellow top have acid citrate dextrose (ACD), formula B as the anticoagulant.

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  • 14. 

    Tubes with Purple or pink top have what anticoagulant?

    • A.

      Acid citrate dextrose (ACD), formula B

    • B.

      EDTA

    • C.

      Citrate

    • D.

      No anticoagulant

    Correct Answer
    B. EDTA
    Explanation
    Tubes with a purple or pink top contain EDTA as an anticoagulant. EDTA stands for ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid, which binds to calcium ions and prevents blood clotting by inhibiting coagulation factors. This anticoagulant is commonly used for hematology tests, as it preserves the blood sample by preventing clotting and maintaining the integrity of the formed elements.

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  • 15. 

    The pink top tube is the blood bank sample.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The pink top tube is typically used for blood banking, but it's not the blood bank sample itself. The blood bank sample is usually collected in a separate container, often an EDTA (lavender top) tube, and then processed and stored accordingly for compatibility testing and other blood banking procedures.

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  • 16. 

    With the date of the draw being 0, how many days are samples able to be used?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. 3
    Explanation
    The question states that the date of the draw is 0, which means that the draw has not yet taken place. Therefore, the samples can be used for 3 days because they will be valid until the draw occurs.

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  • 17. 

    The antibody screen:

    • A.

      Detects most clinically significant antibodies

    • B.

      Detects all low-frequency antibodies

    • C.

      Helps to distinguish between an alloantibody and autoantibody

    • D.

      Can be omitted if the patient has no history of antibodies

    Correct Answer
    A. Detects most clinically significant antibodies
    Explanation
    The antibody screen is a test that is used to detect antibodies in a patient's blood. It is designed to identify antibodies that are clinically significant, meaning they are likely to cause problems for the patient. While it is not able to detect all low-frequency antibodies, it is still an important tool in identifying antibodies that could potentially harm the patient. Additionally, the antibody screen helps to differentiate between alloantibodies, which are antibodies produced in response to foreign antigens, and autoantibodies, which are antibodies that mistakenly target the body's own cells. Therefore, it is not advisable to omit the antibody screen even if the patient has no history of antibodies, as it can still provide valuable information.

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  • 18. 

    HTLA antibodies:

    • A.

      Typically react at room temperature

    • B.

      Can be enhanced with PEG

    • C.

      Are usually clinically insignificant

    • D.

      Are associated with HDFN

    Correct Answer
    C. Are usually clinically insignificant
    Explanation
    HTLA antibodies are typically clinically insignificant. This means that they usually do not cause any significant health issues or complications in patients. While HTLA antibodies may react at room temperature and can be enhanced with PEG, they are not typically associated with any clinically significant conditions such as Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn (HDFN). Therefore, the presence of HTLA antibodies is usually not a cause for concern in a clinical setting.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following statements is associated with anti-I?

    • A.

      It has weaker reactions with stored blood

    • B.

      It can be neutralized with commercially prepared substance

    • C.

      It reacts best at 37 degree C

    • D.

      It does not react with cord blood cells

    Correct Answer
    D. It does not react with cord blood cells
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "it does not react with cord blood cells." This statement suggests that anti-I, a type of antibody, does not have any reaction or interaction with cord blood cells. This implies that it is safe to use cord blood for transfusions or other medical procedures where anti-I antibodies may be present.

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  • 20. 

    A multiple antibody problem was resolved using enzymes. One of the antibody reactions was eliminated after treatment. Which of the following antibodies was probably present?

    • A.

      Anti-c

    • B.

      Anti-I

    • C.

      Anti-Jk a

    • D.

      Anti-Fy a

    Correct Answer
    D. Anti-Fy a
    Explanation
    The correct answer is anti-Fy a because it was the only antibody that was eliminated after treatment. This suggests that the treatment specifically targeted and resolved the issue caused by anti-Fy a, indicating that it was probably present in the multiple antibody problem.

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  • 21. 

    An antibody demonstrating the dosage would mean that:

    • A.

      Homozygous cells were stronger

    • B.

      Heterozygous cells were stronger

    • C.

      Cells reacted best with PEG

    • D.

      Cells reacted best at 4 degrees C

    Correct Answer
    A. Homozygous cells were stronger
    Explanation
    In this context, the term "dosage" refers to the strength or effectiveness of the antibody. The correct answer suggests that homozygous cells, which have two identical copies of a particular gene, were stronger. This implies that having two identical copies of the gene resulted in a more potent or efficient antibody response compared to heterozygous cells, which have two different copies of the gene. The other options, such as cells reacting best with PEG or at 4 degrees C, are not directly related to the concept of dosage in this context.

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  • 22. 

    A DAT performed on a clotted sample stored at 4 degrees C may demonstrate:

    • A.

      In vivo complement attachment

    • B.

      In vivo IgG attachment

    • C.

      In vitro complement attachment

    • D.

      In vitro IgM attachment

    Correct Answer
    C. In vitro complement attachment
    Explanation
    When a clotted sample is stored at 4 degrees Celsius, it is outside of the body and therefore cannot demonstrate in vivo (inside the body) complement or IgG attachment. However, it is possible for the sample to demonstrate in vitro (outside the body) complement attachment, as complement proteins can still interact with the sample in a laboratory setting. Therefore, the correct answer is in vitro complement attachment.

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  • 23. 

    The prewarm technique may weaken IgG reactions because:

    • A.

      Samples are not read at the immediate spin phase

    • B.

      Warm saline washes may detach IgG antibodies

    • C.

      The 37 degree C readings are omitted

    • D.

      Polyspecific IgG is not recommended

    Correct Answer
    B. Warm saline washes may detach IgG antibodies
    Explanation
    The prewarm technique involves washing the patient's red blood cells with warm saline before performing the antibody detection test. This is done to enhance the reaction between the patient's antibodies and the red blood cells. However, warm saline washes may also detach IgG antibodies from the red blood cells, leading to a weaker reaction. This is why the prewarm technique may weaken IgG reactions.

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  • 24. 

    The procedure that removes intact antibodies from the red cell membranes is:

    • A.

      Autoadsorption

    • B.

      Neutralization

    • C.

      Enzyme pretreatment

    • D.

      Elution

    Correct Answer
    D. Elution
    Explanation
    Elution is the process of removing intact antibodies from the red cell membranes. This procedure involves washing the red cells with a solution that breaks the antigen-antibody bond, allowing the antibodies to be released and separated from the cells. This method is commonly used in blood banking and immunohematology to remove unwanted antibodies from donor blood or to isolate specific antibodies for diagnostic purposes.

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  • 25. 

    An antibody was detected in the screen at 37 degrees C and did not react at the AHG phase. Which of the following should be suspected?

    • A.

      Anti-S

    • B.

      Anti-E

    • C.

      Anti-N

    • D.

      Anti-Jk a

    Correct Answer
    C. Anti-N
    Explanation
    The antibody being detected at 37 degrees C and not reacting at the AHG phase suggests that it is an antibody of the IgM class. This is because IgM antibodies typically react at colder temperatures (such as 37 degrees C) and do not require the AHG phase for detection. Therefore, the correct answer is anti-N, as it is the only option that fits this pattern.

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  • 26. 

    Antigen typing on red cells should not be performed if the patient has been transfused within the following:

    • A.

      30 days

    • B.

      2 months

    • C.

      3 months

    • D.

      6 months

    Correct Answer
    C. 3 months
    Explanation
    Antigen typing on red cells should not be performed if the patient has been transfused within the last 3 months. This is because transfusions can introduce new antigens into the patient's bloodstream, which can lead to inaccurate results when typing for specific antigens on red cells. Waiting at least 3 months after a transfusion allows enough time for any newly introduced antigens to clear from the patient's system, ensuring more accurate typing results.

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  • 27. 

    DTT is useful in evaluating a sample when which antibody is suspected?

    • A.

      Anti-Js b

    • B.

      Anti-Kp b

    • C.

      Anti-k

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    DTT (Dithiothreitol) is a reducing agent commonly used in laboratory settings to break disulfide bonds in proteins. In this context, DTT can be used to evaluate a sample when any of the mentioned antibodies (anti-Js b, anti-Kp b, and anti-k) are suspected. By using DTT, the disulfide bonds in these antibodies can be disrupted, allowing for further analysis and characterization of the sample. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above."

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  • 28. 

    The purpose of additional procedures when working up a warm autoantibody is to:

    • A.

      Identify the warm autoantibody specificity in the serum

    • B.

      Locate RBC units that are compatible with autoantibody

    • C.

      Identify potential underlying allantibodies

    • D.

      Identify the antibodies coating the red cells

    Correct Answer
    C. Identify potential underlying allantibodies
    Explanation
    The purpose of additional procedures when working up a warm autoantibody is to identify potential underlying alloantibodies. This is important because warm autoantibodies can mask the presence of other antibodies that may be present in the serum. By identifying potential underlying alloantibodies, healthcare professionals can ensure that compatible red blood cell units are selected for transfusion, reducing the risk of adverse reactions in the patient.

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  • 29. 

    Detection of serologic incompatibility between donor RBC's and recipient serum is performed in the:

    • A.

      Antibody screen

    • B.

      Crossmatch

    • C.

      DAT

    • D.

      Autologous control

    Correct Answer
    B. Crossmatch
    Explanation
    The crossmatch is performed to detect serologic incompatibility between donor RBC's and recipient serum. This test is crucial before a blood transfusion to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions. It involves mixing a sample of the recipient's serum with the donor's red blood cells to check for any antibodies that may react and cause harm. If compatibility issues are detected, the crossmatch will help identify and prevent potential transfusion reactions.

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  • 30. 

    What incompatibilities are detected in the antiglobulin phase of a crossmatch?

    • A.

      IgM alloantibodies in recipients serum

    • B.

      ABO incompatibilities

    • C.

      IgG alloantibodies in recipients serum

    • D.

      Room temperature incompatibilities

    Correct Answer
    C. IgG alloantibodies in recipients serum
    Explanation
    In the antiglobulin phase of a crossmatch, the presence of IgG alloantibodies in the recipient's serum is detected. This means that the recipient has developed antibodies against certain antigens on the donor's red blood cells. These IgG alloantibodies can cause a reaction when they come into contact with the donor's blood during a transfusion, leading to a transfusion reaction. Therefore, it is important to detect these incompatibilities in order to ensure a safe transfusion.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following statements is true regarding compatibility testing for infants younger than 4 months of age?

    • A.

      A DAT is required

    • B.

      A crossmatch is needed when the antibody screen is negative

    • C.

      Maternal serum can be used for the crossmatch

    • D.

      Testing for ABO antibodies is required for the infant

    Correct Answer
    C. Maternal serum can be used for the crossmatch
    Explanation
    Maternal serum can be used for the crossmatch in compatibility testing for infants younger than 4 months of age. This means that the mother's blood can be used to determine if there are any compatibility issues between the mother and the infant. This is important because it helps ensure that the infant receives compatible blood if a transfusion is needed. Using the mother's serum for the crossmatch is a common practice in these cases as it provides valuable information about potential antibodies that may be present in the infant's blood.

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  • 32. 

    What test(s) are included in compatibility testing?

    • A.

      Blood typing of the recipient

    • B.

      Antibody screening of recipient

    • C.

      Crossmatch

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Compatibility testing in the context of blood transfusion involves multiple tests to ensure that the blood being transfused is compatible with the recipient's blood. Blood typing of the recipient is done to determine their blood type, while antibody screening of the recipient is performed to detect any antibodies present in their blood that could react with the donor blood. The crossmatch test is conducted to mix a sample of the recipient's blood with the donor blood and observe for any adverse reactions. Therefore, all of the mentioned tests (blood typing, antibody screening, and crossmatch) are included in compatibility testing.

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  • 33. 

    One group B, D-positive unit of RBC's is received in the transfusion service. What repeat testing is required on this donor unit?

    • A.

      ABO typing only

    • B.

      ABO and D typing

    • C.

      ABO, D, and weak D typing

    • D.

      ABO and D typing; antibody screen

    Correct Answer
    A. ABO typing only
    Explanation
    When a group B, D-positive unit of RBC's is received in the transfusion service, repeat testing is required to confirm the ABO typing of the unit. ABO typing determines the blood group of the unit, which is important for compatibility with the recipient. Since the unit is D-positive, it means it has the D antigen of the Rh system. Therefore, additional testing for D typing is not necessary. Testing for weak D typing is also not required in this case as the unit is D-positive. Antibody screen testing is not needed unless there is a specific indication for it.

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  • 34. 

    What ABO and D types are selected for RBC units issued to a patient in an emergency release?

    • A.

      Group O, D-positive

    • B.

      Group O, D-negative

    • C.

      Group A, D-positive

    • D.

      Group AB, D-negative

    Correct Answer
    B. Group O, D-negative
    Explanation
    In emergency situations, when there is no time for cross-matching blood, group O, D-negative blood is selected for RBC units issued to a patient. Group O blood is considered the universal donor as it lacks both A and B antigens, reducing the risk of an adverse reaction. D-negative blood is chosen to avoid potential complications from the Rh factor. This combination ensures compatibility and minimizes the risk of transfusion reactions in emergency situations.

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  • 35. 

    What antibodies are detected in the immediate spin crossmatch?

    • A.

      Rh antibodies

    • B.

      High-titer, low-avidity antibodies

    • C.

      ABO antibodies

    • D.

      Kell antibodies

    Correct Answer
    C. ABO antibodies
    Explanation
    ABO antibodies are detected in the immediate spin crossmatch. The immediate spin crossmatch is a blood test that is performed to determine compatibility between the donor and recipient blood for a transfusion. ABO antibodies are naturally occurring antibodies that are present in the plasma of individuals who do not possess a particular blood type antigen on their red blood cells. These antibodies can cause a transfusion reaction if incompatible blood types are mixed together. Therefore, it is important to detect and match ABO antibodies during the immediate spin crossmatch to ensure a safe transfusion.

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  • 36. 

    Current pretransfusion testing on John Smith reveals a negative antibody screen with a previous history of anti-K. He is group A, D-positive.......... Which of the following crossmatch procedures is performed to identify compatible units?

    • A.

      Immediate spin crossmatch

    • B.

      Electronic crossmatch

    • C.

      Antiglobulin crossmatch

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Antiglobulin crossmatch
    Explanation
    The antiglobulin crossmatch procedure is performed to identify compatible units. This procedure involves mixing the patient's serum with donor red blood cells, followed by the addition of antiglobulin reagent. If agglutination or hemolysis occurs, it indicates incompatibility between the patient's serum and the donor red blood cells. This test is used to detect antibodies that may not be detected in the immediate spin crossmatch or electronic crossmatch procedures.

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  • 37. 

    Current pretransfusion testing on John Smith reveals a negative antibody screen with a previous history of anti-K. He is group A, D-positive.............. Given the following inventory, which donor unit should be selected to use for crossmatching?

    • A.

      Group A, D-positive, K+k+

    • B.

      Group A, D-negative, K-k+

    • C.

      Group O, D-positive, K+k-

    • D.

      Group O, D-negative, K+k-

    Correct Answer
    B. Group A, D-negative, K-k+
  • 38. 

    Current pretransfusion testing on John Smith reveals a negative antibody screen with a previous history of anti-K. He is group A, D-positive.......... What information is sufficient for a properly labeled blood sample for the blood bank?

    • A.

      Name, unique identification number

    • B.

      Name, unique identification number, date of collection

    • C.

      Name, unique identification number, date of collection, physicians name

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. None of the above
    Explanation
    Must have all the information plus tech's initials or signature.

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  • 39. 

    The computer crossmatch is easily implemented in the blood bank and does not require validation.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is incorrect because the computer crossmatch, like any other procedure, requires validation in the blood bank. Validation is necessary to ensure that the computer crossmatch accurately and reliably detects any incompatibilities or adverse reactions between the donor and recipient blood samples. Validation also helps to establish the effectiveness and safety of the computer crossmatch procedure before it is implemented in the blood bank. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 40. 

    A crossmatch detects most errors in the identification of antigens on patients red cells.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    A crossmatch does not detect errors in the identification of antigens on patients red cells. Instead, it is a test that is performed to determine compatibility between the donor's blood and the recipient's blood before a blood transfusion. It helps to prevent transfusion reactions by checking for the presence of antibodies in the recipient's plasma that may react with the donor's red blood cells. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 41. 

    A crossmatch demonstrating a 2+ agglutination is interpreted as compatible.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    A crossmatch demonstrating a 2+ agglutination indicates that there is a strong reaction between the donor and recipient blood, suggesting incompatibility. Therefore, the correct interpretation would be that the crossmatch is not compatible.

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  • 42. 

    An immediate spin crossmatch of a D-positive recipient with a D-negative donor unit is incompatible.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    An immediate spin crossmatch of a D-positive recipient with a D-negative donor unit is compatible. This is because the immediate spin crossmatch is a rapid test that detects the presence of red blood cell antibodies in the recipient's plasma. In this case, since the recipient is D-positive and the donor unit is D-negative, there will be no D antigen on the donor's red blood cells to react with the recipient's antibodies. Therefore, the crossmatch will be compatible and the answer is false.

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  • 43. 

    The computer crossmatch requires two ABO and D phenotypes on the recipient.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The computer crossmatch, a method used in blood transfusion, indeed requires two ABO and D phenotypes on the recipient. This is because ABO and D phenotypes are critical in determining blood compatibility between the donor and recipient. By ensuring that the recipient's blood type matches with the donor's blood type, the risk of transfusion reactions, such as hemolysis, can be minimized. Therefore, it is essential to have two ABO and D phenotypes on the recipient for accurate and safe blood transfusion.

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  • 44. 

    A crossmatch prevents the immunization of the recipient to blood group antigens.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    A crossmatch is a test performed before a blood transfusion to ensure compatibility between the donor's blood and the recipient's blood. It helps to identify any potential antibodies in the recipient's blood that could react with the donor's blood and cause a transfusion reaction. However, a crossmatch does not prevent the immunization of the recipient to blood group antigens. Immunization can occur if the recipient is exposed to blood group antigens through previous transfusions or pregnancies. Therefore, the given statement is false.

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  • 45. 

    A type and screen protocol provides a mechanism to increase the number of uncrossing matched donor units in inventory.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A type and screen protocol is a process that involves testing a patient's blood type and screening for antibodies. By implementing this protocol, healthcare facilities can identify compatible donor units with the patient's blood type and minimize the risk of transfusion reactions. This increases the number of available donor units that can be safely used for transfusions, therefore increasing the number of uncrossmatched donor units in inventory. Hence, the statement is true.

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  • 46. 

    The only component that requires crossmatching is a unit of RBC's.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Crossmatching is a process used to determine compatibility between the donor's blood and the recipient's blood before a blood transfusion. It involves mixing a small sample of the donor's blood with the recipient's blood to check for any reactions. In this case, the statement suggests that only a unit of RBC's requires crossmatching. However, this is incorrect as crossmatching is necessary for all blood components, including platelets and plasma, to ensure a safe and compatible transfusion. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 47. 

    Group O plasma is considered the universal donor of plasma products.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Group O plasma is not considered the universal donor of plasma products. The correct answer is False. Group AB plasma is actually considered the universal donor of plasma products because it lacks both A and B antigens, making it compatible with all other blood types. Group O plasma, on the other hand, contains both A and B antigens, so it is not compatible with all blood types.

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  • 48. 

    The recipient sample must be labeled with full name, unique identifying number, date, and some means of identifying the phlebotomist.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In order to ensure proper identification and tracking of recipient samples, it is necessary to label them with essential information. The full name of the recipient helps in avoiding any confusion or mix-up with other samples. A unique identifying number is important for accurate record-keeping and tracking purposes. The date of collection provides a reference point for analysis and monitoring. Additionally, including some means of identifying the phlebotomist allows for accountability and traceability in case of any issues or concerns. Therefore, it is true that the recipient sample must be labeled with full name, unique identifying number, date, and some means of identifying the phlebotomist.

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  • 49. 

    A patient experiences chills and fever, nausea, flushing, and lower back pain following the infusion of 350 mL of blood. To rule out a transfusion reaction because of acute hemolysis, one should immediately:

    • A.

      Perform a DAT and observe serum on posttransfusion sample

    • B.

      Measure serum haptoglobin on prereaction and postreaction samples

    • C.

      Repeat crossmatches on prereaction and postreaction samples

    • D.

      Gram stain and culture the unit

    Correct Answer
    A. Perform a DAT and observe serum on posttransfusion sample
    Explanation
    To rule out a transfusion reaction because of acute hemolysis, performing a Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) and observing the serum on a posttransfusion sample is the best course of action. The DAT can detect the presence of antibodies or complement proteins on the patient's red blood cells, which could indicate an immune-mediated hemolytic reaction. By observing the serum, any signs of hemolysis, such as the presence of free hemoglobin, can be identified. This test is crucial in determining if a transfusion reaction has occurred and if further investigation or treatment is necessary.

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  • 50. 

    Dyspnea, severe headache, and peripheral edema occurring soon after transfusion is indicative of which type of transfusion reaction?

    • A.

      Hemolytic

    • B.

      Febrile

    • C.

      Circulatory overload

    • D.

      Anaphylactic

    Correct Answer
    C. Circulatory overload
    Explanation
    Dyspnea, severe headache, and peripheral edema occurring soon after transfusion are symptoms that suggest circulatory overload. This type of transfusion reaction occurs when the patient receives too much fluid during the transfusion, leading to an overload of the circulatory system. The symptoms are a result of the excess fluid putting strain on the heart and blood vessels. It is important to monitor the patient's fluid balance and adjust the transfusion rate accordingly to prevent circulatory overload.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 08, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 24, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    KimmieG
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