Advanced Test: Pre-transfusion Testing And Adverse Reactions

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1. There are also many pre-analytical as well as post-analytical factors essential in blood banking as well.

Explanation

The statement is true because in blood banking, there are various factors that need to be considered both before and after analyzing the blood. Pre-analytical factors include proper collection, labeling, and transportation of blood samples to ensure accurate results. Post-analytical factors involve the storage, processing, and distribution of blood components to ensure their safety and efficacy. These factors are crucial in maintaining the quality and integrity of blood products, making the statement true.

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About This Quiz
Advanced Test: Pre-transfusion Testing And Adverse Reactions - Quiz

Welcome to the advanced test on Pre-transfusion Testing and adverse reactions. In order to perform thorough pre-transfusion testing, all components of testing must come together to give a complete and accurate set of results to render it ready for transfer to a patient. Do take this quiz and see how... see moreknowledgeable you are when it comes to the testing procedures.
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2. The recipient sample must be labeled with full name, unique identifying number, date, and some means of identifying the phlebotomist.

Explanation

In order to ensure proper identification and tracking of recipient samples, it is necessary to label them with essential information. The full name of the recipient helps in avoiding any confusion or mix-up with other samples. A unique identifying number is important for accurate record-keeping and tracking purposes. The date of collection provides a reference point for analysis and monitoring. Additionally, including some means of identifying the phlebotomist allows for accountability and traceability in case of any issues or concerns. Therefore, it is true that the recipient sample must be labeled with full name, unique identifying number, date, and some means of identifying the phlebotomist.

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3. Tubes with Purple or pink top have what anticoagulant?

Explanation

Tubes with a purple or pink top contain EDTA as an anticoagulant. EDTA stands for ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid, which binds to calcium ions and prevents blood clotting by inhibiting coagulation factors. This anticoagulant is commonly used for hematology tests, as it preserves the blood sample by preventing clotting and maintaining the integrity of the formed elements.

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4. What is/are tests involved in routine pre-transfusion testing?

Explanation

Routine pre-transfusion testing involves several tests to ensure compatibility between the blood donor and recipient. The ABO/Rh test determines the blood type and Rh factor of both the donor and recipient. The antibody screen identifies any unexpected antibodies in the recipient's blood that could cause a reaction. The crossmatch test is performed to check for compatibility between the donor and recipient's blood, specifically checking for any reactions. Therefore, all of the above tests are involved in routine pre-transfusion testing.

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5. ________________ occurs outside of the vessels by removal of the Ag:Ab complexes by the liver, spleen and other RES sites.

Explanation

Extravascular hemolysis refers to the process where the removal of antigen-antibody (Ag:Ab) complexes occurs outside of the blood vessels. This process takes place in organs such as the liver, spleen, and other reticuloendothelial system (RES) sites. It involves the breakdown and clearance of damaged or old red blood cells, which helps maintain the balance of red blood cells in the body. In contrast, intravascular hemolysis occurs within the blood vessels, while in vivo hemolysis is a more general term that encompasses both intravascular and extravascular hemolysis.

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6. What test(s) are included in compatibility testing?

Explanation

Compatibility testing in the context of blood transfusion involves multiple tests to ensure that the blood being transfused is compatible with the recipient's blood. Blood typing of the recipient is done to determine their blood type, while antibody screening of the recipient is performed to detect any antibodies present in their blood that could react with the donor blood. The crossmatch test is conducted to mix a sample of the recipient's blood with the donor blood and observe for any adverse reactions. Therefore, all of the mentioned tests (blood typing, antibody screening, and crossmatch) are included in compatibility testing.

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7. Which test of pre-transfusion testing is used to detect unexpected antibody (ies)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Antibody Screen. Antibody screen is a test performed during pre-transfusion testing to detect unexpected antibodies in a patient's blood. These unexpected antibodies can cause adverse reactions during blood transfusions, so it is important to identify them beforehand. ABO/Rh test is used to determine the blood type and Rh factor, while crossmatch is a test performed to ensure compatibility between the donor's blood and the recipient's blood. Therefore, neither ABO/Rh nor crossmatch are used specifically to detect unexpected antibodies.

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8. When preforming a crossmatch we use the ________ serum and the _________ red blood cells.

Explanation

When performing a crossmatch, we use the recipient's serum and the donor's red blood cells. This is because the purpose of a crossmatch is to determine if there are any antibodies in the recipient's serum that could react with the donor's red blood cells. By mixing the recipient's serum with the donor's red blood cells, we can observe if there is any agglutination or clumping, indicating an incompatible match. Therefore, the correct answer is recipient, donor.

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9. The antibody screen:

Explanation

The antibody screen is a test that is used to detect antibodies in a patient's blood. It is designed to identify antibodies that are clinically significant, meaning they are likely to cause problems for the patient. While it is not able to detect all low-frequency antibodies, it is still an important tool in identifying antibodies that could potentially harm the patient. Additionally, the antibody screen helps to differentiate between alloantibodies, which are antibodies produced in response to foreign antigens, and autoantibodies, which are antibodies that mistakenly target the body's own cells. Therefore, it is not advisable to omit the antibody screen even if the patient has no history of antibodies, as it can still provide valuable information.

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10. What ABO and D types are selected for RBC units issued to a patient in an emergency release?

Explanation

In emergency situations, when there is no time for cross-matching blood, group O, D-negative blood is selected for RBC units issued to a patient. Group O blood is considered the universal donor as it lacks both A and B antigens, reducing the risk of an adverse reaction. D-negative blood is chosen to avoid potential complications from the Rh factor. This combination ensures compatibility and minimizes the risk of transfusion reactions in emergency situations.

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11. The second phase is the crossmatch.

Explanation

Crossmatch is the THIRD phase testing

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12. A crossmatch demonstrating a 2+ agglutination is interpreted as compatible.

Explanation

A crossmatch demonstrating a 2+ agglutination indicates that there is a strong reaction between the donor and recipient blood, suggesting incompatibility. Therefore, the correct interpretation would be that the crossmatch is not compatible.

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13. If the first two tests are grouped together it is called a(n) ___________.

Explanation

When the first two tests, which are the type test and the screen test, are grouped together, it is called a Type and Screen. This is a common practice in blood banking and transfusion medicine. The type test determines the blood type of the patient, while the screen test checks for the presence of antibodies in the patient's blood that could potentially react with donor blood. By combining these two tests, healthcare professionals can determine the patient's blood type and screen for any potential compatibility issues before transfusing blood products.

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14. Detection of serologic incompatibility between donor RBC's and recipient serum is performed in the:

Explanation

The crossmatch is performed to detect serologic incompatibility between donor RBC's and recipient serum. This test is crucial before a blood transfusion to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions. It involves mixing a sample of the recipient's serum with the donor's red blood cells to check for any antibodies that may react and cause harm. If compatibility issues are detected, the crossmatch will help identify and prevent potential transfusion reactions.

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15. The computer crossmatch is easily implemented in the blood bank and does not require validation.

Explanation

The statement is incorrect because the computer crossmatch, like any other procedure, requires validation in the blood bank. Validation is necessary to ensure that the computer crossmatch accurately and reliably detects any incompatibilities or adverse reactions between the donor and recipient blood samples. Validation also helps to establish the effectiveness and safety of the computer crossmatch procedure before it is implemented in the blood bank. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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16. The computer crossmatch requires two ABO and D phenotypes on the recipient.

Explanation

The computer crossmatch, a method used in blood transfusion, indeed requires two ABO and D phenotypes on the recipient. This is because ABO and D phenotypes are critical in determining blood compatibility between the donor and recipient. By ensuring that the recipient's blood type matches with the donor's blood type, the risk of transfusion reactions, such as hemolysis, can be minimized. Therefore, it is essential to have two ABO and D phenotypes on the recipient for accurate and safe blood transfusion.

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17. The pink top tube is the blood bank sample.

Explanation



The pink top tube is typically used for blood banking, but it's not the blood bank sample itself. The blood bank sample is usually collected in a separate container, often an EDTA (lavender top) tube, and then processed and stored accordingly for compatibility testing and other blood banking procedures.
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18. Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions are known as HTR's and are broken down by:

Explanation

Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions, also known as HTR's, can be categorized into two types: immediate reactions and delayed reactions. Immediate reactions occur shortly after a blood transfusion and can be life-threatening, causing symptoms such as fever, chills, and difficulty breathing. Delayed reactions, on the other hand, occur days to weeks after a transfusion and are characterized by symptoms like fever, jaundice, and anemia. Therefore, the correct answer is both A & B, as HTR's can manifest as both immediate and delayed reactions.

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19. An antibody demonstrating the dosage would mean that:

Explanation

In this context, the term "dosage" refers to the strength or effectiveness of the antibody. The correct answer suggests that homozygous cells, which have two identical copies of a particular gene, were stronger. This implies that having two identical copies of the gene resulted in a more potent or efficient antibody response compared to heterozygous cells, which have two different copies of the gene. The other options, such as cells reacting best with PEG or at 4 degrees C, are not directly related to the concept of dosage in this context.

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20. The procedure that removes intact antibodies from the red cell membranes is:

Explanation

Elution is the process of removing intact antibodies from the red cell membranes. This procedure involves washing the red cells with a solution that breaks the antigen-antibody bond, allowing the antibodies to be released and separated from the cells. This method is commonly used in blood banking and immunohematology to remove unwanted antibodies from donor blood or to isolate specific antibodies for diagnostic purposes.

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21. It is the job of the packed cell components to ______________ the RBC mass to ______________ oxygen carrying capacity.

Explanation

The packed cell components, which include red blood cells (RBCs), are responsible for increasing the RBC mass in order to increase the oxygen carrying capacity. This means that an increase in packed cell components will lead to an increase in both RBC mass and the ability to carry oxygen.

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22. Which phase of pre-transfusion testing is the antibody screen?

Explanation

The antibody screen is conducted during the second phase of pre-transfusion testing. This phase involves testing the recipient's serum against a panel of known antibodies to identify any unexpected antibodies present. By doing this, potential transfusion reactions can be prevented by ensuring compatibility between the recipient's antibodies and the donor's antigens.

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23. What is the cause of transfusion-induced hemosiderosis?

Explanation

Transfusion-induced hemosiderosis is caused by iron overload. This occurs when excessive iron is present in the body due to repeated blood transfusions. The iron from the transfused blood accumulates in the tissues and organs, leading to the deposition of hemosiderin, a form of iron storage. Over time, this can result in damage to various organs, such as the liver, heart, and endocrine glands. Therefore, iron overload is the underlying cause of transfusion-induced hemosiderosis.

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24. What disorder has a deficiency of factor VIII?

Explanation

Hemophilia A is a disorder characterized by a deficiency of factor VIII, a protein necessary for normal blood clotting. This condition is inherited and primarily affects males. Individuals with Hemophilia A may experience prolonged bleeding, easy bruising, and excessive bleeding after injuries or surgeries. Treatment typically involves replacing the missing factor VIII through intravenous infusions. Hemophilia B, on the other hand, is caused by a deficiency of factor IX. Vitamin K deficiency is unrelated to these clotting disorders.

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25. Tubes with the red top have what anticoagulant?

Explanation

The correct answer is "No anticoagulant." This means that tubes with the red top do not contain any anticoagulant. Anticoagulants are substances that prevent blood from clotting, and in this case, the red top tubes do not have any anticoagulant added to them.

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26. Which of the following statements is true regarding compatibility testing for infants younger than 4 months of age?

Explanation

Maternal serum can be used for the crossmatch in compatibility testing for infants younger than 4 months of age. This means that the mother's blood can be used to determine if there are any compatibility issues between the mother and the infant. This is important because it helps ensure that the infant receives compatible blood if a transfusion is needed. Using the mother's serum for the crossmatch is a common practice in these cases as it provides valuable information about potential antibodies that may be present in the infant's blood.

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27. The prewarm technique may weaken IgG reactions because:

Explanation

The prewarm technique involves washing the patient's red blood cells with warm saline before performing the antibody detection test. This is done to enhance the reaction between the patient's antibodies and the red blood cells. However, warm saline washes may also detach IgG antibodies from the red blood cells, leading to a weaker reaction. This is why the prewarm technique may weaken IgG reactions.

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28. Any cold IgM antibody group can interfere with patient blood typing.

Explanation

Cold IgM antibodies are known to cause interference in blood typing tests. These antibodies can agglutinate red blood cells at lower temperatures, leading to false positive results or difficulty in accurately determining the patient's blood type. Therefore, any cold IgM antibody group has the potential to interfere with patient blood typing.

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29. With the date of the draw being 0, how many days are samples able to be used?

Explanation

The question states that the date of the draw is 0, which means that the draw has not yet taken place. Therefore, the samples can be used for 3 days because they will be valid until the draw occurs.

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30. An immediate spin crossmatch of a D-positive recipient with a D-negative donor unit is incompatible.

Explanation

An immediate spin crossmatch of a D-positive recipient with a D-negative donor unit is compatible. This is because the immediate spin crossmatch is a rapid test that detects the presence of red blood cell antibodies in the recipient's plasma. In this case, since the recipient is D-positive and the donor unit is D-negative, there will be no D antigen on the donor's red blood cells to react with the recipient's antibodies. Therefore, the crossmatch will be compatible and the answer is false.

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31. Why do we transfuse platelets?

Explanation

Platelets are transfused for various reasons, including a low platelet count (thrombocytopenia), which can be caused by various conditions such as bleeding disorders, chemotherapy, or certain medications. Platelet transfusion can also be given as prophylaxis to prevent bleeding in individuals with a high risk of bleeding, such as those undergoing surgery or with severe trauma. Additionally, platelet transfusion may be necessary in cases of pH malfunction, where the pH levels in the body are imbalanced. Therefore, all of the above reasons are valid explanations for why we transfuse platelets.

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32. ________________ occurs due to the binding of complement, and the lysis releases free hemoglobin.

Explanation

Intravascular hemolysis occurs when complement binds to red blood cells, causing their destruction and the release of free hemoglobin into the bloodstream. This process takes place within the blood vessels, leading to the breakdown of red blood cells and the subsequent release of hemoglobin. This is different from extravascular hemolysis, which occurs outside of the blood vessels, and in vitro hemolysis, which refers to the artificial breakdown of red blood cells in a laboratory setting. Therefore, the correct answer is intravascular hemolysis.

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33. Febrile reactions are caused by ______________ antibodies.

Explanation

Febrile reactions are caused by leukocyte antibodies. These antibodies are produced by the immune system in response to the presence of leukocytes, which are white blood cells. When these antibodies react with leukocytes, it can lead to a febrile reaction, which is characterized by the development of a fever. The other options, Kell and leukopoor, are not related to the cause of febrile reactions.

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34. The _________ testing will determine what blood type the recipient is and what type the donor unit needs to be to be "compatible" with the recipient.

Explanation

The ABO/Rh testing is used to determine the blood type of the recipient and the blood type that the donor unit needs to be compatible with the recipient. This testing is important to ensure that the recipient receives the correct blood type and to prevent any potential adverse reactions or complications during a blood transfusion.

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35. What incompatibilities are detected in the antiglobulin phase of a crossmatch?

Explanation

In the antiglobulin phase of a crossmatch, the presence of IgG alloantibodies in the recipient's serum is detected. This means that the recipient has developed antibodies against certain antigens on the donor's red blood cells. These IgG alloantibodies can cause a reaction when they come into contact with the donor's blood during a transfusion, leading to a transfusion reaction. Therefore, it is important to detect these incompatibilities in order to ensure a safe transfusion.

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36. What coag factors are in FFP (fresh frozen plasma)?

Explanation

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) contains all coagulation factors. FFP is a blood product that is rich in clotting factors and is used to treat bleeding disorders or replace blood loss. It is prepared by separating plasma from donated blood and freezing it at a very low temperature to preserve the clotting factors. By containing all coagulation factors, FFP can help replenish these factors in patients with deficiencies or abnormalities in their clotting system, promoting blood clot formation and preventing excessive bleeding.

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37. A patient has expierenced two febrile reactions following transfusion.  What is the preferred blood component if future transfusions are necessary?

Explanation

The preferred blood component if future transfusions are necessary is leukocyte-reduced RBCs. This is because febrile reactions following transfusion are often caused by white blood cell (leukocyte) antibodies in the recipient's plasma. By using leukocyte-reduced RBCs, the number of leukocytes in the blood component is reduced, minimizing the risk of febrile reactions in future transfusions.

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38. DTT is useful in evaluating a sample when which antibody is suspected?

Explanation

DTT (Dithiothreitol) is a reducing agent commonly used in laboratory settings to break disulfide bonds in proteins. In this context, DTT can be used to evaluate a sample when any of the mentioned antibodies (anti-Js b, anti-Kp b, and anti-k) are suspected. By using DTT, the disulfide bonds in these antibodies can be disrupted, allowing for further analysis and characterization of the sample. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above."

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39. The only component that requires crossmatching is a unit of RBC's.

Explanation

Crossmatching is a process used to determine compatibility between the donor's blood and the recipient's blood before a blood transfusion. It involves mixing a small sample of the donor's blood with the recipient's blood to check for any reactions. In this case, the statement suggests that only a unit of RBC's requires crossmatching. However, this is incorrect as crossmatching is necessary for all blood components, including platelets and plasma, to ensure a safe and compatible transfusion. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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40. Group O plasma is considered the universal donor of plasma products.

Explanation

Group O plasma is not considered the universal donor of plasma products. The correct answer is False. Group AB plasma is actually considered the universal donor of plasma products because it lacks both A and B antigens, making it compatible with all other blood types. Group O plasma, on the other hand, contains both A and B antigens, so it is not compatible with all blood types.

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41. The most common nonhemolytic reactions are the ____________ and allergic reactions.

Explanation

Febrile reactions are a common type of nonhemolytic reaction, characterized by an increase in body temperature or fever. These reactions can occur in response to blood transfusions and are typically caused by the release of pyrogens from white blood cells. Febrile reactions are not related to anamnestic or sensitized reactions, which involve a memory response or an immune response to a specific antigen. Therefore, the correct answer is febrile.

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42. What antibodies are detected in the immediate spin crossmatch?

Explanation

ABO antibodies are detected in the immediate spin crossmatch. The immediate spin crossmatch is a blood test that is performed to determine compatibility between the donor and recipient blood for a transfusion. ABO antibodies are naturally occurring antibodies that are present in the plasma of individuals who do not possess a particular blood type antigen on their red blood cells. These antibodies can cause a transfusion reaction if incompatible blood types are mixed together. Therefore, it is important to detect and match ABO antibodies during the immediate spin crossmatch to ensure a safe transfusion.

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43. A patient experiences chills and fever, nausea, flushing, and lower back pain following the infusion of 350 mL of blood. To rule out a transfusion reaction because of acute hemolysis, one should immediately:

Explanation

To rule out a transfusion reaction because of acute hemolysis, performing a Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) and observing the serum on a posttransfusion sample is the best course of action. The DAT can detect the presence of antibodies or complement proteins on the patient's red blood cells, which could indicate an immune-mediated hemolytic reaction. By observing the serum, any signs of hemolysis, such as the presence of free hemoglobin, can be identified. This test is crucial in determining if a transfusion reaction has occurred and if further investigation or treatment is necessary.

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44. Current pretransfusion testing on John Smith reveals a negative antibody screen with a previous history of anti-K. He is group A, D-positive.......... Which of the following crossmatch procedures is performed to identify compatible units?

Explanation

The antiglobulin crossmatch procedure is performed to identify compatible units. This procedure involves mixing the patient's serum with donor red blood cells, followed by the addition of antiglobulin reagent. If agglutination or hemolysis occurs, it indicates incompatibility between the patient's serum and the donor red blood cells. This test is used to detect antibodies that may not be detected in the immediate spin crossmatch or electronic crossmatch procedures.

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45. Current pretransfusion testing on John Smith reveals a negative antibody screen with a previous history of anti-K. He is group A, D-positive.............. Given the following inventory, which donor unit should be selected to use for crossmatching?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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46. What laboratory test is useful to detect clerical errors of sample identification in a transfusion reaction investigation?

Explanation

ABO and Rh typing is the correct answer because it is a laboratory test that helps detect clerical errors of sample identification in a transfusion reaction investigation. ABO and Rh typing involves determining the blood type and Rh factor of the patient and the blood product, and comparing them to ensure compatibility. This test is crucial in preventing transfusion reactions caused by mismatched blood types, which can lead to severe complications or even death. By confirming the correct identification of the samples, ABO and Rh typing helps ensure the safety and effectiveness of blood transfusions.

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47. Antigen typing on red cells should not be performed if the patient has been transfused within the following:

Explanation

Antigen typing on red cells should not be performed if the patient has been transfused within the last 3 months. This is because transfusions can introduce new antigens into the patient's bloodstream, which can lead to inaccurate results when typing for specific antigens on red cells. Waiting at least 3 months after a transfusion allows enough time for any newly introduced antigens to clear from the patient's system, ensuring more accurate typing results.

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48. What plasma protein functions to bind hemoglobin following intravascular hemolysis?

Explanation

Haptoglobin is a plasma protein that functions to bind hemoglobin following intravascular hemolysis. Hemolysis is the breakdown of red blood cells, and when this occurs within blood vessels, free hemoglobin is released. Haptoglobin binds to this free hemoglobin to prevent its toxic effects and facilitate its removal from circulation. This helps to protect tissues from damage and allows for the recycling of iron from hemoglobin.

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49. Which of the following adverse complications of transfusion is prevented by the irradiation of blood components.

Explanation

TA-GVHD stands for transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease. It is a rare but serious complication that can occur when immunocompromised patients receive blood transfusions containing viable T cells. Irradiation of blood components is used to prevent this complication by inactivating the T cells present in the transfused blood, thus reducing the risk of the donor's immune cells attacking the recipient's tissues. This measure is particularly important for patients with weakened immune systems, such as those undergoing stem cell transplants or receiving treatment for certain cancers.

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50. What component is used today in surgical procedures as a fibrin sealant or glue?

Explanation

Cryoprecipitate is used today in surgical procedures as a fibrin sealant or glue. It is derived from plasma and contains high levels of fibrinogen, which is a protein involved in blood clotting. When applied to a surgical site, cryoprecipitate forms a clot, helping to control bleeding and promote wound healing. Platelets and FFP (fresh frozen plasma) are not typically used as fibrin sealants or glues in surgical procedures. Therefore, the correct answer is Cryoprecipitate.

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51. If all three tests are performed at the same time it is called a(n)________.

Explanation

When all three tests (Type, Screen, and Crossmatch) are performed simultaneously, it is referred to as a "Type and Crossmatch." This process involves determining the patient's blood type, screening for any antibodies present in the blood, and then crossmatching the patient's blood with the donor blood to ensure compatibility before a transfusion.

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52. Tubes with the yellow top have what anticoagulant?

Explanation

Tubes with the yellow top have acid citrate dextrose (ACD), formula B as the anticoagulant.

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53. A type and screen protocol provides a mechanism to increase the number of uncrossing matched donor units in inventory.

Explanation

A type and screen protocol is a process that involves testing a patient's blood type and screening for antibodies. By implementing this protocol, healthcare facilities can identify compatible donor units with the patient's blood type and minimize the risk of transfusion reactions. This increases the number of available donor units that can be safely used for transfusions, therefore increasing the number of uncrossmatched donor units in inventory. Hence, the statement is true.

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54. When identifying a patient what do we check? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)

Explanation

When identifying a patient, it is important to check multiple factors to ensure accuracy. This includes comparing the requisition to the patient ID band, comparing the sample label to the patient ID band, and comparing the requisition to the sample label. By cross-referencing these different elements, healthcare professionals can verify the correct patient and ensure that the right tests and procedures are being performed. Simply asking the patient for their name may not be enough, as there could be cases of mistaken identity or confusion. Using the ID band when the patient is sleeping can also help confirm their identity.

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55. Which of the following statements is associated with anti-I?

Explanation

The correct answer is "it does not react with cord blood cells." This statement suggests that anti-I, a type of antibody, does not have any reaction or interaction with cord blood cells. This implies that it is safe to use cord blood for transfusions or other medical procedures where anti-I antibodies may be present.

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56. What component is used to treat liver failure, DIC, vitamin K deficiency, coumadin overdose, and massive transfusions?

Explanation

FFP (Fresh frozen plasma) is used to treat liver failure, DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation), vitamin K deficiency, coumadin overdose, and massive transfusions. FFP contains various clotting factors, including fibrinogen, which helps in blood clotting. In liver failure, DIC, and vitamin K deficiency, there is a lack of clotting factors, and FFP can provide these factors to restore normal clotting function. Coumadin overdose and massive transfusions can also lead to a deficiency of clotting factors, and FFP can help replenish them. Therefore, FFP is the appropriate component to treat these conditions.

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57. When labeling what do we make sure to do? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)

Explanation

When labeling, we make sure to include the first and last name, unique ID, date of collection, initials of the phlebotomist, and ensure that the label is legible.

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58. HTLA antibodies:

Explanation

HTLA antibodies are typically clinically insignificant. This means that they usually do not cause any significant health issues or complications in patients. While HTLA antibodies may react at room temperature and can be enhanced with PEG, they are not typically associated with any clinically significant conditions such as Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn (HDFN). Therefore, the presence of HTLA antibodies is usually not a cause for concern in a clinical setting.

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59. A multiple antibody problem was resolved using enzymes. One of the antibody reactions was eliminated after treatment. Which of the following antibodies was probably present?

Explanation

The correct answer is anti-Fy a because it was the only antibody that was eliminated after treatment. This suggests that the treatment specifically targeted and resolved the issue caused by anti-Fy a, indicating that it was probably present in the multiple antibody problem.

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60. What blood group systems antibodies are commonly associated with delayed HTRs?

Explanation

Antibodies associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions (HTRs) are commonly found in the Kidd blood group system. The Kidd system consists of antigens Jka and Jkb, and antibodies against these antigens can cause HTRs. These reactions are delayed because the antibodies take time to build up in the recipient's system and cause destruction of transfused red blood cells. Therefore, the correct answer is Kidd.

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61. A precipitous fall in a recipients platelet count following a transfusion is associated with:

Explanation

PTP stands for Post-Transfusion Purpura, which is a rare condition characterized by a sudden drop in platelet count after a blood transfusion. This condition is caused by the development of antibodies against platelets in the recipient's blood, leading to their destruction. Symptoms include easy bruising, petechiae, and mucosal bleeding. It is important to recognize PTP as it requires specific treatment and management to prevent complications.

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62. A crossmatch prevents the immunization of the recipient to blood group antigens.

Explanation

A crossmatch is a test performed before a blood transfusion to ensure compatibility between the donor's blood and the recipient's blood. It helps to identify any potential antibodies in the recipient's blood that could react with the donor's blood and cause a transfusion reaction. However, a crossmatch does not prevent the immunization of the recipient to blood group antigens. Immunization can occur if the recipient is exposed to blood group antigens through previous transfusions or pregnancies. Therefore, the given statement is false.

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63. What microorganisms grow well at 4 degrees C and may result in transfusion-transmitted sepsis?

Explanation

Yersinia enterocolitica is a microorganism that can grow well at 4 degrees C and can cause transfusion-transmitted sepsis. This bacterium is known to cause gastrointestinal infections and can survive and multiply in cold temperatures, making it a potential risk in blood transfusions. Staphylococcus aureus, Staphylococcus epidermidis, and Bacillus cereus are also pathogenic bacteria, but they do not thrive at low temperatures and are less likely to cause transfusion-transmitted sepsis.

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64. Anaphylactic reactions to transfusion are usually caused by:

Explanation

Anaphylactic reactions to transfusion are usually caused by anti-IgA in IgA-deficient recipients. IgA deficiency is a condition where the individual lacks the immunoglobulin A (IgA) antibody. When blood or blood products containing IgA are transfused into an IgA-deficient recipient, the recipient's immune system recognizes the IgA as foreign and produces anti-IgA antibodies. These antibodies can then trigger an anaphylactic reaction when subsequent transfusions containing IgA are given. Therefore, the presence of anti-IgA antibodies in an IgA-deficient recipient is the most likely cause of anaphylactic reactions to transfusion.

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65. Dyspnea, severe headache, and peripheral edema occurring soon after transfusion is indicative of which type of transfusion reaction?

Explanation

Dyspnea, severe headache, and peripheral edema occurring soon after transfusion are symptoms that suggest circulatory overload. This type of transfusion reaction occurs when the patient receives too much fluid during the transfusion, leading to an overload of the circulatory system. The symptoms are a result of the excess fluid putting strain on the heart and blood vessels. It is important to monitor the patient's fluid balance and adjust the transfusion rate accordingly to prevent circulatory overload.

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66. A crossmatch detects most errors in the identification of antigens on patients red cells.

Explanation

A crossmatch does not detect errors in the identification of antigens on patients red cells. Instead, it is a test that is performed to determine compatibility between the donor's blood and the recipient's blood before a blood transfusion. It helps to prevent transfusion reactions by checking for the presence of antibodies in the recipient's plasma that may react with the donor's red blood cells. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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67. What is a common cause of a febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction?

Explanation

A febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction is a common adverse reaction to blood transfusions. It is often caused by the recipient having antibodies to the donors HLA (human leukocyte antigen) antigens. HLA antigens are proteins found on the surface of white blood cells and are responsible for immune system regulation. When the recipient's antibodies recognize and react with the donor's HLA antigens, it can trigger an immune response, leading to fever and other symptoms associated with the reaction. This is a common cause of febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions.

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68. What is the expected therapeutic effect in the recipients' hematocrit following the transfusion of 1 unit of RBC's?

Explanation

The expected therapeutic effect in the recipients' hematocrit following the transfusion of 1 unit of RBC's is an increase of 3%. This means that the hematocrit level, which represents the percentage of red blood cells in the blood, will rise by 3% after the transfusion. This increase in red blood cells can help improve oxygen-carrying capacity and overall blood volume, which is beneficial for individuals with conditions such as anemia or blood loss.

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69. Which of the following characteristics is associated with a delayed HTR?

Explanation

A delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction (HTR) is characterized by the presence of antibodies in the recipient's blood that react with antigens on the transfused red blood cells. These antibodies are not detected in the pre-transfusion antibody screen but are detected in the post-reaction sample. This delayed response is different from an immediate HTR, which is characterized by hives and wheals, and occurs within 24 hours of transfusion. Hemosiderosis refers to the accumulation of iron in tissues, and ABO incompatibility between donor and recipient can lead to an immediate HTR.

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70. Immediate HTR's occur at the time of the transfusion of incompatible donor RBC's. Signs and symptoms occur:

Explanation

Immediate HTRs (hemolytic transfusion reactions) occur within the first few minutes of transfusing incompatible donor RBCs. This means that signs and symptoms of the reaction, such as fever, chills, nausea, chest or back pain, and hemoglobinuria, will manifest shortly after the transfusion begins. It is important to monitor patients closely during this time to detect and manage any potential HTRs promptly.

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71. An antibody was detected in the screen at 37 degrees C and did not react at the AHG phase. Which of the following should be suspected?

Explanation

The antibody being detected at 37 degrees C and not reacting at the AHG phase suggests that it is an antibody of the IgM class. This is because IgM antibodies typically react at colder temperatures (such as 37 degrees C) and do not require the AHG phase for detection. Therefore, the correct answer is anti-N, as it is the only option that fits this pattern.

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72. A DAT performed on a clotted sample stored at 4 degrees C may demonstrate:

Explanation

When a clotted sample is stored at 4 degrees Celsius, it is outside of the body and therefore cannot demonstrate in vivo (inside the body) complement or IgG attachment. However, it is possible for the sample to demonstrate in vitro (outside the body) complement attachment, as complement proteins can still interact with the sample in a laboratory setting. Therefore, the correct answer is in vitro complement attachment.

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73. Which of the following patient histories might suggest future transfusions with saline-washed RBCs?

Explanation

A history of multiple urticarial reactions suggests future transfusions with saline-washed RBCs because urticarial reactions are often caused by antibodies in the plasma. By washing the RBCs with saline, the plasma and any antibodies present can be removed, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction during transfusion.

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74. The purpose of additional procedures when working up a warm autoantibody is to:

Explanation

The purpose of additional procedures when working up a warm autoantibody is to identify potential underlying alloantibodies. This is important because warm autoantibodies can mask the presence of other antibodies that may be present in the serum. By identifying potential underlying alloantibodies, healthcare professionals can ensure that compatible red blood cell units are selected for transfusion, reducing the risk of adverse reactions in the patient.

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75. One group B, D-positive unit of RBC's is received in the transfusion service. What repeat testing is required on this donor unit?

Explanation

When a group B, D-positive unit of RBC's is received in the transfusion service, repeat testing is required to confirm the ABO typing of the unit. ABO typing determines the blood group of the unit, which is important for compatibility with the recipient. Since the unit is D-positive, it means it has the D antigen of the Rh system. Therefore, additional testing for D typing is not necessary. Testing for weak D typing is also not required in this case as the unit is D-positive. Antibody screen testing is not needed unless there is a specific indication for it.

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76. Which factor is involved in Cryoprecipitate component? 

Explanation

Cryoprecipitate is a blood component that contains high levels of Factor I, also known as fibrinogen. Factor I plays a crucial role in blood clotting and is involved in the formation of fibrin, which helps to stop bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is Factor I.

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77. __________________is the mechanism of lysis and is most often linked to antibodies such as anti-Jk a, anti-E, -D, -C, anti-K, anti-Fy a, and anti-M.

Explanation

Extravascular hemolysis is the mechanism of lysis that is most often linked to antibodies such as anti-Jk a, anti-E, -D, -C, anti-K, anti-Fy a, and anti-M. This type of hemolysis occurs outside of the blood vessels, typically in the spleen or liver, where macrophages phagocytize and break down the damaged red blood cells. This process is different from intravascular hemolysis, which occurs within the blood vessels, and in vivo hemolysis, which is a general term for any type of hemolysis that occurs inside the body.

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78. Current pretransfusion testing on John Smith reveals a negative antibody screen with a previous history of anti-K. He is group A, D-positive.......... What information is sufficient for a properly labeled blood sample for the blood bank?

Explanation

Must have all the information plus tech's initials or signature.

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79. Which of the following are the four (4) most commonly identified antibodies associated with causing HTR?

Explanation

The four most commonly identified antibodies associated with causing Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions (HTR) are anti-A, anti-K, anti-Jk a, and anti-Fy a. These antibodies can bind to antigens on red blood cells, leading to the destruction of the cells and causing a transfusion reaction.

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There are also many pre-analytical as well as post-analytical factors...
The recipient sample must be labeled with full name, unique...
Tubes with Purple or pink top have what anticoagulant?
What is/are tests involved in routine pre-transfusion testing?
________________ occurs outside of the vessels by removal of the Ag:Ab...
What test(s) are included in compatibility testing?
Which test of pre-transfusion testing is used to detect unexpected...
When preforming a crossmatch we use the ________ serum and the...
The antibody screen:
What ABO and D types are selected for RBC units issued to a patient in...
The second phase is the crossmatch.
A crossmatch demonstrating a 2+ agglutination is interpreted as...
If the first two tests are grouped together it is called a(n)...
Detection of serologic incompatibility between donor RBC's and...
The computer crossmatch is easily implemented in the blood bank and...
The computer crossmatch requires two ABO and D phenotypes on the...
The pink top tube is the blood bank sample.
Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions are known as HTR's and are broken...
An antibody demonstrating the dosage would mean that:
The procedure that removes intact antibodies from the red cell...
It is the job of the packed cell components to ______________ the RBC...
Which phase of pre-transfusion testing is the antibody screen?
What is the cause of transfusion-induced hemosiderosis?
What disorder has a deficiency of factor VIII?
Tubes with the red top have what anticoagulant?
Which of the following statements is true regarding compatibility...
The prewarm technique may weaken IgG reactions because:
Any cold IgM antibody group can interfere with patient blood typing.
With the date of the draw being 0, how many days are samples able to...
An immediate spin crossmatch of a D-positive recipient with a...
Why do we transfuse platelets?
________________ occurs due to the binding of complement, and the...
Febrile reactions are caused by ______________ antibodies.
The _________ testing will determine what blood type the recipient is...
What incompatibilities are detected in the antiglobulin phase of a...
What coag factors are in FFP (fresh frozen plasma)?
A patient has expierenced two febrile reactions following transfusion....
DTT is useful in evaluating a sample when which antibody is suspected?
The only component that requires crossmatching is a unit of RBC's.
Group O plasma is considered the universal donor of plasma products.
The most common nonhemolytic reactions are the ____________ and...
What antibodies are detected in the immediate spin crossmatch?
A patient experiences chills and fever, nausea, flushing, and lower...
Current pretransfusion testing on John Smith reveals a negative...
Current pretransfusion testing on John Smith reveals a negative...
What laboratory test is useful to detect clerical errors of sample...
Antigen typing on red cells should not be performed if the patient has...
What plasma protein functions to bind hemoglobin following...
Which of the following adverse complications of transfusion is...
What component is used today in surgical procedures as a fibrin...
If all three tests are performed at the same time it is called...
Tubes with the yellow top have what anticoagulant?
A type and screen protocol provides a mechanism to increase the number...
When identifying a patient what do we check? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)
Which of the following statements is associated with anti-I?
What component is used to treat liver failure, DIC, vitamin K...
When labeling what do we make sure to do? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)
HTLA antibodies:
A multiple antibody problem was resolved using enzymes. One of the...
What blood group systems antibodies are commonly associated with...
A precipitous fall in a recipients platelet count following a...
A crossmatch prevents the immunization of the recipient to blood group...
What microorganisms grow well at 4 degrees C and may result in...
Anaphylactic reactions to transfusion are usually caused by:
Dyspnea, severe headache, and peripheral edema occurring soon after...
A crossmatch detects most errors in the identification of antigens on...
What is a common cause of a febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction?
What is the expected therapeutic effect in the recipients'...
Which of the following characteristics is associated with a delayed...
Immediate HTR's occur at the time of the transfusion of...
An antibody was detected in the screen at 37 degrees C and did not...
A DAT performed on a clotted sample stored at 4 degrees C may...
Which of the following patient histories might suggest future...
The purpose of additional procedures when working up a warm...
One group B, D-positive unit of RBC's is received in the...
Which factor is involved in Cryoprecipitate component? 
__________________is the mechanism of lysis and is most often linked...
Current pretransfusion testing on John Smith reveals a negative...
Which of the following are the four (4) most commonly identified...
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