An IT Test For Your Brain - Networks And Servers

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1. Which UNIX command deletes files from within a directory?

Explanation

The UNIX command "rm" is used to delete files from within a directory. This command allows users to remove one or multiple files at once. It can also be used with different options to specify how the files should be deleted, such as recursively deleting directories and their contents. Therefore, "rm" is the correct command for deleting files in UNIX.

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About This Quiz
An IT Test For Your Brain - Networks And Servers - Quiz

A computer network is a group of computers that use a set of common communication protocols over digital interconnections for the purpose of sharing resources
A server is a... see morepiece of hardware or software that provides functionality for other programs or devices, called "clients". This architecture is called the client–server model.
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2. Which type of lists uses pointers to connect each element together?

Explanation

Linked lists use pointers to connect each element together. In a linked list, each element contains a reference to the next element in the list. This allows for efficient insertion and deletion of elements, as only the pointers need to be updated. Linked lists are commonly used in data structures and algorithms to implement dynamic data structures. They are particularly useful when the size of the list is unknown or constantly changing, as they can easily accommodate new elements without requiring contiguous memory allocation.

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3. What is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Basic input/output system (BIOS)". BIOS is a form of firmware that contains the computer's startup instructions. It is responsible for initializing and testing hardware components, loading the operating system, and providing a platform for low-level software to interact with the hardware. It is stored in a non-volatile memory chip on the motherboard and is the first software that runs when a computer is powered on.

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4. Which type of interface is friendlier for the average user to use?

Explanation

A graphical user interface (GUI) is friendlier for the average user to use compared to other types of interfaces. GUI allows users to interact with the computer system through visual elements such as icons, menus, and buttons, making it easier for users to navigate and perform tasks. It provides a more intuitive and user-friendly experience, as users can simply click or drag items on the screen instead of having to remember and type complex commands like in a command line interface. GUIs are widely used in modern operating systems and software applications to enhance user accessibility and usability.

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5. What type of service allows network administrators to install upgrades on any number of client computers at one time from a centralized location?

Explanation

Remote installation services (RIS) is the correct answer because it allows network administrators to install upgrades on multiple client computers simultaneously from a centralized location. This service simplifies the process of updating software or installing new applications across a network, saving time and effort for administrators. DNS, IIS, and Web are not relevant to this question as they do not provide the same functionality as RIS.

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6. Which UNIX operating system component interacts directly with the system hardware?

Explanation

The kernel is the correct answer because it is the component of the UNIX operating system that interacts directly with the system hardware. The kernel is responsible for managing the system's resources, such as memory and CPU, and it provides an interface for other software components to interact with the hardware. The kernel also handles tasks such as device drivers, process scheduling, and memory management.

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7. How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?

Explanation

A multi-server high-speed backbone network typically consists of a large number of users due to its capacity and capabilities. The range of 250-1000 users indicates that the network can support a significant number of users simultaneously. This range suggests that the network is designed to handle a substantial amount of traffic and can accommodate a medium to large-sized organization or institution with numerous users connected to it.

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8. What is the basic unit for storing and manipulating a collection of logically related information known as data?

Explanation

Files are the basic unit for storing and manipulating a collection of logically related information known as data. A file is a named collection of data that is stored on a computer's storage device. It can contain text, images, videos, or any other type of data. Files allow for organization and easy access to data, making them the fundamental unit for managing and working with information. Directories, partitions, and slices are all related to the organization and storage of files, but files themselves are the actual containers for data.

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9. Which UNIX command changes the ownership of one or more files to a new owner?

Explanation

The correct answer is "chown". The chown command in UNIX is used to change the ownership of one or more files to a new owner. It allows the system administrator to transfer ownership of files to different users or groups. This command is particularly useful in multi-user environments where file permissions and ownership need to be managed efficiently.

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10. Which is a term used to describe that data is whole or complete?

Explanation

Data integrity refers to the accuracy, consistency, and reliability of data throughout its lifecycle. It ensures that the data is complete, accurate, and unchanged from its original state. This term is used to describe that the data is whole or complete, without any errors or inconsistencies. Data integrity is crucial in maintaining the quality and trustworthiness of data, especially in databases and information systems.

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11. What is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory?

Explanation

Read only memory (ROM) is considered as nonvolatile permanent memory because it retains its data even when the power is turned off. ROM is a type of computer memory that stores data that cannot be modified or erased by normal computer operations. It contains pre-programmed instructions or data that are permanently written during manufacturing. This makes ROM an ideal choice for storing important system instructions, firmware, and software that need to be permanently stored and accessed by the computer system.

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12. Which UNIX command allows you to move to different directories within a file system using absolute or relative pathnames?

Explanation

The correct answer is "cd" because the "cd" command in UNIX allows the user to change directories within the file system. It can be used with both absolute pathnames (specifying the complete path from the root directory) or relative pathnames (specifying the path relative to the current directory). The "cd" command is essential for navigating through the file system and accessing different directories.

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13. Which UNIX command takes any characters from standard input and then echoes them to standard output?

Explanation

The UNIX command "cat" is used to concatenate and display the contents of files. In this case, when no file is specified, it takes characters from standard input and echoes them to standard output. Therefore, "cat" is the correct answer as it performs the required action mentioned in the question.

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14. What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

Explanation

A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. This means that the network includes devices and software from various manufacturers, each with their own unique specifications and requirements. In such an environment, interoperability and compatibility between the different systems can be a challenge, requiring specialized solutions and protocols to ensure effective communication and functionality across the network.

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15. What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?

Explanation

A homogeneous network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that all the devices and software in the network are from the same source, ensuring compatibility and seamless integration. This type of network is often easier to manage and troubleshoot since the components are designed to work together. It also allows for better control and security since the network can be standardized and managed more effectively.

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16. What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?

Explanation

A local area network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It is typically limited to a single building or a group of nearby buildings. LANs are commonly used in homes, offices, and schools, allowing users to share resources such as printers, files, and internet connections. They are characterized by high data transfer rates and low latency, making them suitable for applications that require fast and reliable communication within a small area.

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17. How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?

Explanation

In a peer-to-peer network, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This means that there are usually only a small number of users connected and sharing resources directly with each other. This range is common for small-scale networks, such as home networks or small businesses, where a limited number of devices need to communicate and share files or services.

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18. How many users are in a multi-server network?

Explanation

The correct answer is 50-250. This range suggests that a multi-server network typically consists of a moderate number of users. Having too few users (2-10) may not require multiple servers, while having too many users (250-1000) may require a more complex network infrastructure. The 50-250 range strikes a balance between scalability and efficiency, making it a suitable range for a multi-server network.

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19. What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Set." In SNMP, the "Set" message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information. This message allows the network management system to update and configure parameters on network devices remotely. By sending a "Set" message, the management system can change the values of variables in the managed devices, enabling the administrator to control and manage the network effectively.

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20. Which program can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule?

Explanation

The program that can be used to automatically launch programs on a preset schedule is the Task Scheduler. This program allows users to schedule tasks, such as launching programs, at specific times or intervals. By using the Task Scheduler, users can automate the execution of programs without manual intervention, making it a convenient tool for managing and organizing tasks on a computer system.

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21. What component of windows unifies and simplifies day to day system management tasks?

Explanation

The Microsoft Management Console (MMC) is a component of Windows that unifies and simplifies day-to-day system management tasks. It provides a centralized platform for managing various aspects of the operating system, such as device management, user accounts, network configuration, and system performance. With the MMC, administrators can easily access and control different management tools and snap-ins, making it an essential tool for system administration.

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22. What is the most common type of operation in sequential query language (SQL)?

Explanation

In SQL, the most common type of operation is queries. Queries are used to retrieve specific data from a database by specifying conditions and criteria. They allow users to search, filter, and sort data based on their requirements. Queries are essential in SQL as they provide a way to interact with the database and retrieve the desired information.

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23. What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties

Explanation

A centralized network architecture refers to a structure where all network management duties are handled by a single computer system located at a specific location. This means that all network management tasks, such as monitoring, troubleshooting, and configuration, are controlled and managed from this central system. This setup allows for a more efficient and streamlined management process as all network operations are centralized and can be easily controlled from one location.

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24. What is the minimum number of scopes a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server can have?

Explanation

A DHCP server can have a minimum of one scope. A scope is a range of IP addresses that the DHCP server can assign to clients. By having at least one scope, the DHCP server can allocate IP addresses to devices on the network, allowing them to communicate and access network resources.

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25. According to Air Force Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) policies, how long is the lease that a noncritical workstation will have applied to them?

Explanation

According to Air Force Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) policies, a noncritical workstation will have a lease of 30 days applied to them. This means that the workstation will be assigned an IP address and other network configuration settings for a period of 30 days before it needs to renew the lease. This lease duration allows for a reasonable amount of time for the workstation to remain connected to the network without requiring frequent renewal of the lease.

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26.  What type of communications network links different interconnected works over an unlimited geographical region?

Explanation

A global area network (GAN) is a type of communications network that connects different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. Unlike a local area network (LAN) which is limited to a small area, a GAN covers a larger and more expansive region. Similarly, a metropolitan area network (MAN) is limited to a specific metropolitan area. On the other hand, a wide area network (WAN) covers a larger area than a LAN or MAN but is still limited in comparison to a GAN. Therefore, a GAN is the correct answer as it accurately describes a network that links different interconnected works over an unlimited geographical region.

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27. How many users are in a single-server network?

Explanation

In a single-server network, the number of users typically falls within the range of 10-50. This means that there are between 10 to 50 individuals who are connected to and utilizing the services of the server. This range is considered manageable for a single server to handle the network traffic and meet the users' needs effectively. It strikes a balance between having enough users to make the network worthwhile and not overwhelming the server's capabilities.

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28. What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information?

Explanation

Authentication is the measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and their ability to access certain information. It involves the process of confirming the identity of an individual or entity, typically through the use of credentials such as usernames and passwords, biometric data, or security tokens. By successfully authenticating, the subject is granted access to the desired information or resources, ensuring that only authorized individuals or entities can gain entry.

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29. What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?

Explanation

A wide area network (WAN) is a type of communications network that connects a broad geographical region. Unlike a local area network (LAN) which is limited to a small area like a home or office, a WAN covers a larger area such as multiple cities or even countries. A WAN is designed to facilitate communication and data transfer between different locations, allowing for the sharing of resources and information over long distances. Therefore, a WAN is the correct answer for a network that links a broad geographical region.

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30. What documentation signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global information grid (GIG)?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Denial of authorization to operation (DATO)". This documentation signifies that a system is not allowed to connect to the global information grid (GIG). It indicates that the system has been denied authorization to operate, meaning it does not meet the necessary security requirements or has failed to pass the necessary assessments and certifications. As a result, the system is not permitted to connect to the GIG and access its resources.

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31. Which type of group manages user's rights assignments and access permissions?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Security." Security groups are responsible for managing user's rights assignments and access permissions. These groups are used to grant or deny access to resources such as files, folders, and applications based on the user's role or responsibilities within an organization. By assigning users to security groups, administrators can easily control and manage access to sensitive information and ensure that only authorized individuals have the necessary permissions.

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32. Which is the most commonly used sequential query language (SQL) data statement?

Explanation

The most commonly used sequential query language (SQL) data statement is "Select." This statement is used to retrieve data from a database table. It allows users to specify the columns they want to retrieve and the conditions for filtering the data. The "Select" statement is fundamental in SQL and is widely used in various database management systems to query and retrieve data.

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33. What is a file that is kept with you and will allow you to decrypt files encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code?

Explanation

A private key is a file that is kept with you and allows you to decrypt files encrypted specifically for you using your openly available encryption code. Unlike a public key, which is shared openly, a private key is kept confidential and is used for decrypting messages that have been encrypted using your public key. It is an essential component of asymmetric encryption systems, where different keys are used for encryption and decryption.

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34. Sustained communications support becomes a part of the deployment if it exceeds

Explanation

If the deployment exceeds 30 days, sustained communications support becomes a part of it. This means that if the deployment lasts for more than a month, there is a need for continuous and ongoing communication support. This could be due to the extended duration of the deployment, which may require constant communication between different parties involved in the deployment to ensure smooth operations and coordination.

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35. A feature of networking that enables individuals to designate resources they want other users to be able to access through the network is called?

Explanation

The feature described in the question allows individuals to designate resources they want other users to be able to access through the network. This feature is commonly referred to as "sharing" in networking.

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36. Which UNIX ability can run on different types of hardware with few relatively minor changes?

Explanation

Portability refers to the ability of a program or system to run on different types of hardware with minimal modifications. It allows the software to be easily transferred or adapted to different operating systems or platforms. This means that the same program can be used on different devices or machines without significant changes, making it convenient and cost-effective. Portability is an important characteristic of UNIX, as it was designed to be compatible with various hardware architectures, making it highly versatile and widely used.

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37. Which Unix mechanism enables programs to communicate with one another through the file system?

Explanation

Named pipes, also known as FIFOs (First In First Out), are a Unix mechanism that enables programs to communicate with each other through the file system. They provide a way for processes to send data between each other by reading and writing to a special type of file. Unlike regular pipes, named pipes have a persistent connection and can be accessed by multiple processes simultaneously. This makes them useful for inter-process communication, allowing different programs to exchange data and coordinate their actions.

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38. A set of data elements (Values) organized using a model of horizontal rows and vertical columns whose data is calculated in response to a query is called a?

Explanation

A set of data elements organized using a model of horizontal rows and vertical columns is called a table. Tables are commonly used in databases to store and organize data. Data within a table can be easily accessed and manipulated by querying the table.

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39. Which error checking took allows you to monitor the file system for errors?

Explanation

Check disk is a utility in the Windows operating system that allows users to monitor the file system for errors. It scans the file system for any issues such as bad sectors, lost clusters, and cross-linked files. Check disk also has the ability to fix these errors, ensuring the integrity and stability of the file system. By regularly running check disk, users can proactively identify and resolve any potential issues with the file system, preventing data loss and improving system performance.

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40. Sitting at a computer and loading a software patch onto it is an example of what type of software patch?

Explanation

Loading a software patch onto a computer requires the user to be physically present and actively involved in the process. This type of software patch is known as an "attended" patch, as it cannot be executed automatically or remotely without user intervention.

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41. Which components of domain name service (DNS) contain a database of associated names and IP Addresses?

Explanation

Name servers in the domain name service (DNS) contain a database of associated names and IP addresses. They are responsible for storing and managing the mapping between domain names and their corresponding IP addresses. When a user requests a website by its domain name, the name servers are queried to find the corresponding IP address for that domain name. This information is then used to establish a connection and retrieve the requested content from the server hosting that website.

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42. Which UNIX capability can execute numerous programs at the same time?

Explanation

Multitasking is the correct answer because it refers to the capability of executing numerous programs simultaneously on a UNIX system. It allows the operating system to switch between tasks quickly, giving the illusion that multiple programs are running concurrently. This feature enhances the efficiency and productivity of the system by maximizing the utilization of system resources.

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43. Which UNIX component provides a logical way to organize, store, retrieve, manipulate, and manage data?

Explanation

The file system in UNIX provides a logical way to organize, store, retrieve, manipulate, and manage data. It is responsible for managing the organization and storage of files and directories on the system. The file system allows users to create, delete, modify, and access files and directories, providing a structured and efficient way to handle data. It also handles file permissions, file metadata, and file access control, ensuring the security and integrity of the data. Overall, the file system plays a crucial role in managing data in UNIX systems.

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44. Which UNIX vi character represents the end of the file?

Explanation

The UNIX vi character that represents the end of the file is the "$" symbol. This symbol is used to indicate the end of the file in the vi editor. When the cursor is placed at the end of the file, pressing the "$" symbol will move the cursor to the last character of the last line in the file.

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45. What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?

Explanation

A computer network requires a minimum of two computers to establish a connection and communicate with each other. With only one computer, there is no network as there is no other device to connect to. Therefore, two computers are necessary to form a basic computer network.

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46. What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

Explanation

The media access control address, also known as MAC address, is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. It is a unique identifier assigned to the network interface card of a device. The MAC address is used by the data link layer of the network protocol to ensure that data is sent to the correct destination. It is different from the network server name, subnet mask address, and node serial number, which serve different purposes in a network.

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47. How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

Explanation

The standard internet protocol is broken down into 4 octets. Each octet consists of 8 bits, allowing for a total of 32 bits in the internet protocol. This division of the protocol into 4 octets helps in organizing and managing the addressing system of IP addresses, making it easier to allocate and route network traffic efficiently.

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48. What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?

Explanation

The network id of an IP address is obtained by setting all the host bits to 0. In this case, the IP address is 131.10.230.120 with a subnet mask of /24, which means the first 24 bits are the network bits and the remaining 8 bits are the host bits. By setting the host bits to 0, we get the network id of 131.10.230.0.

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49. What is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity?

Explanation

Parity is considered as a technique or method of checking data integrity. It involves adding an extra bit to a binary code to ensure that the total number of 1s in the code is always either even or odd. By checking the parity bit, errors in the data can be detected, such as if an odd number of bits have been flipped. This helps in ensuring the accuracy and integrity of the transmitted or stored data.

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50. Which selection is a set of markup symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for display on a web browser page?

Explanation

HTML is a set of markup symbols or codes that are inserted in a file intended for display on a web browser page. It is the standard markup language used for creating web pages and is responsible for structuring the content and defining the layout of a webpage. HTML tags are used to mark up elements such as headings, paragraphs, images, links, and other elements to define their structure and presentation on a web page.

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51. An information system on your network that is not set to require the use of a common access card (CAC) or password would be considered a?

Explanation

An information system on a network that is not set to require the use of a common access card (CAC) or password would be considered a vulnerability. This means that there is a weakness or flaw in the system's security measures, making it easier for unauthorized individuals to gain access to sensitive information or carry out malicious activities.

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52. What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG)?

Explanation

AFI 33-115v1 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force instruction that provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG). This instruction outlines the guidelines and procedures for managing and securing the AF-GIG, which is the Air Force's network infrastructure. It ensures that the AF-GIG is properly maintained, protected, and utilized to support Air Force operations and communications.

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53. What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

Explanation

The network management area concerned with controlling access points to information is security. Security in network management involves implementing measures to protect the network from unauthorized access, ensuring data confidentiality, integrity, and availability. It includes setting up firewalls, implementing encryption, authentication mechanisms, access controls, and monitoring network traffic for any suspicious activities. By focusing on security, organizations can prevent unauthorized users from gaining access to sensitive information and ensure the overall safety of the network.

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54. Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something you ?

Explanation

Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide something they "know." This means that the user needs to provide information that only they should know, such as a password, PIN, or answer to a security question. This method is commonly used in online accounts and systems to verify the user's identity and grant them access.

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55. What defines the rules by which operations can be performed on a particular resource?

Explanation

Permissions are the rules that define what actions can be performed on a particular resource. They determine who can access the resource and what operations they can perform on it. Permissions are typically set by the owner or administrator of the resource and are used to control and manage access to the resource. Access control lists and rights are related concepts that are often used in conjunction with permissions to further define and enforce the rules for accessing and using a resource. Hardware configuration, on the other hand, refers to the physical setup and settings of the hardware device and is not directly related to defining the rules for resource operations.

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56. What level of network management activity are you working at when the automated monitoring components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?

Explanation

When the automated monitoring components provide problem analysis and give a root cause alarm for the problem at hand, it indicates that the network management activity is at a proactive level. This means that the monitoring system is actively identifying and addressing potential issues before they become major problems. By detecting and analyzing problems in advance, proactive network management helps to prevent downtime and minimize disruptions to the network.

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57. What is the process of physically damaging the media to render it unusable in a computer and render the data on the media irretrievable by any known exploitation methods?

Explanation

Destroying is the correct answer because it refers to the process of physically damaging the media to the extent that it becomes unusable in a computer and the data on it becomes irretrievable. This can be done through methods such as shredding, incinerating, or pulverizing the media, ensuring that the information cannot be accessed or recovered by any known exploitation methods.

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58. What is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field?

Explanation

Degaussing is the process of erasing magnetic media by reducing the magnetic flux to virtual zero by applying a reverse magnetizing field. This process effectively neutralizes the magnetic data stored on the media, making it unreadable and ensuring the complete erasure of sensitive information.

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59. What do you call a current and perceived capability, intention, or attack, directed to cause denial of service?

Explanation

A threat refers to a current and perceived capability, intention, or attack that is directed to cause denial of service. It represents a potential danger or harm to a system or network, and can come in various forms such as malware, hackers, or other malicious activities. Threats can exploit vulnerabilities in a system or network to compromise its security and disrupt its normal functioning.

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60. What is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that makes possible secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers?

Explanation

Public key infrastructure (PKI) is a cryptographic key and certificate delivery system that enables secure electronic transactions and exchanges of sensitive information between relative strangers. PKI uses a pair of keys, a public key and a private key, for encryption and decryption. The public key is used to encrypt information, while the private key is used to decrypt it. PKI also involves the use of digital certificates, which verify the authenticity and integrity of the public key. This system ensures that only authorized parties can access and exchange sensitive information securely.

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61. When a new folder or file is created on a new technology file system (NTFS) partition, what permissions are automatically assigned?

Explanation

When a new folder or file is created on a new technology file system (NTFS) partition, the permissions that are automatically assigned are the inherited permissions of the folder it's contained in. This means that the new folder or file will inherit the same permissions as its parent folder.

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62. Normally, when you create a file with a text editor, the file is set up with?

Explanation

When you create a file with a text editor, it is typically set up with read and write permission for you, the creator of the file. This means that you can both view and modify the contents of the file. However, others who do not have ownership of the file are usually given read-only permission. This means that they can only view the contents of the file but cannot make any changes to it. This setup ensures that you have full control over the file while others can only read its contents.

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63. Which UNIX command looks at an individual file and finds a specified pattern (string)?

Explanation

The UNIX command "grep" is used to search for a specified pattern or string within an individual file. It allows users to find and display lines that match the given pattern, making it a powerful tool for text searching and filtering. The "find" command, on the other hand, is used to search for files and directories based on various criteria such as name, size, or modification time. The "crypt" command is used for encryption and decryption of files, while the "group" command is used to manage user groups in UNIX systems.

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64. Which UNIX command sets access and modification times for each file to the current time?

Explanation

The correct answer is "touch." The touch command in UNIX is used to update the access and modification times of a file to the current time. It can also be used to create new empty files. Therefore, by using the touch command, you can modify the timestamps of files to reflect the current time.

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65. Which UNIX default command starts the X windows system?

Explanation

The correct answer is xinit. xinit is a default command in UNIX that starts the X windows system. It is used to initialize the X server and launch the X client applications.

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66. Which UNIX command from the menu bar moves a window to the bottom of the stack of windows?

Explanation

The UNIX command "Lower" moves a window to the bottom of the stack of windows. This means that the window will be placed behind all other windows, making it appear as if it is at the bottom of the stack. This command is useful when you want to hide a window or prioritize other windows over it.

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67. What is considered to be a computer's main storage?

Explanation

Random access memory (RAM) is considered to be a computer's main storage because it is the primary location where data and instructions are stored temporarily while the computer is running. Unlike other types of memory, RAM allows for random access, meaning that any piece of data can be retrieved and processed quickly, regardless of its location. This makes RAM essential for the smooth and efficient operation of a computer, as it provides fast access to the data and programs that the computer needs to perform tasks in real-time.

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68. What permission always overrides all other permissions assigned to a user or group to which the user belongs?

Explanation

No access permission always overrides all other permissions assigned to a user or group to which the user belongs. This means that even if a user has been granted other permissions such as full control, change, or write, if they also have the no access permission, they will be denied access to the resource. No access takes precedence over all other permissions, effectively blocking any access to the resource for the user or group.

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69. Which UNIX shell is the most compact and is often used for writing shell scripts?

Explanation

The Bourne shell is the most compact UNIX shell and is often used for writing shell scripts. It was the original UNIX shell and is known for its simplicity and efficiency. It provides a basic set of commands and features, making it a popular choice for scripting tasks. The C shell, Korn shell, and D shell are also commonly used UNIX shells, but they are not as compact as the Bourne shell.

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70. The/dev/dsk and /dev/rdsk directories are sub directories of which directory?

Explanation

The /dev/dsk and /dev/rdsk directories are subdirectories of the root directory. The root directory is the top-level directory in a file system hierarchy and is represented by a forward slash (/) in Unix-like operating systems. The /dev directory contains device files that represent hardware devices, and the /dev/dsk and /dev/rdsk directories specifically contain device files for disk devices. Therefore, the correct answer is Root.

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71. What does the 0 following the c in the device name c0t6d0s7 represent?

Explanation

The 0 following the c in the device name c0t6d0s7 represents the controller. In this naming convention, the letter c refers to the controller, and the number 0 indicates the specific controller being referred to. The controller is responsible for managing and controlling the communication between the device and the computer system.

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72. Hard links are created using which UNIX command?

Explanation

Hard links are created using the UNIX command "ln". The "ln" command is used to create links between files, allowing multiple filenames to refer to the same file on the file system. Hard links are essentially additional names for the same file, and they share the same inode, which contains the file's metadata. This means that changes made to the file through one hard link will be reflected in all other hard links pointing to the same file.

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73. Which UNIX command displays the current working directory?

Explanation

The UNIX command "pwd" stands for "print working directory" and is used to display the current working directory. It is commonly used to verify the location in the file system where a user is currently working.

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74. What provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?

Explanation

Connection statistics provide information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes. This data helps in analyzing the performance and efficiency of the network by tracking the number of active connections and the amount of bandwidth being used by each connection. It allows network administrators to identify any bottlenecks or congestion in the network and take appropriate measures to optimize the network's performance.

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75. A base web-server that interfaces with the public must be placed in what area of a base network?

Explanation

A base web-server that interfaces with the public must be placed in a De-militarized zone (DMZ). A DMZ is a separate network segment that sits between the internal network and the external network (typically the internet). Placing the web-server in the DMZ provides an additional layer of security by isolating it from the internal network. This way, if the web-server is compromised, the attacker will have limited access to the internal network, reducing the potential damage that can be done.

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76. What is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information?

Explanation

A domain is a group of users, servers, and other resources that share a centralized database of account and security information. In a domain, all user accounts, passwords, and security policies are stored and managed centrally. This allows for easier administration and control over user access to resources within the domain.

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77. Which of the following is not one of the elements that most graphical user interfaces are composed of?

Explanation

Most graphical user interfaces are composed of windows, icons, and menus. However, programs are not considered as one of the elements of a graphical user interface. Programs are the applications or software that run within the graphical user interface, but they are not a fundamental component of the interface itself.

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78. Which type of patch would utilize a remote installation services (RSI)?

Explanation

Unattended patches are typically used in situations where a remote installation is required. This means that the patch can be installed on a computer without any user interaction or manual intervention. Remote Installation Services (RSI) allow for the remote deployment of software, including patches, to multiple computers simultaneously. Therefore, an unattended patch would utilize RSI to remotely install itself on multiple computers without requiring any user input.

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79. What is defined as a bundle of applications software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?

Explanation

A network management server is a bundle of applications software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. It is responsible for monitoring and controlling network devices, analyzing network performance, and managing network configurations. By providing centralized management and control, a network management server helps administrators detect and resolve network issues, optimize network performance, and enhance overall productivity.

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80. What are the three primary ways to authenticate one-self?

Explanation

The three primary ways to authenticate oneself are through something you know (such as a password), something you have (such as an identification card), or something you are (such as a fingerprint or voiceprint). These methods ensure that the person trying to access a system or information is indeed who they claim to be. Using a combination of these authentication factors provides a higher level of security and reduces the risk of unauthorized access.

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81. Which controller component interprets an electronic signal, prioritizes it, and requests the attention of the central process unit (CPU)?

Explanation

A priority interrupt is a controller component that interprets an electronic signal, prioritizes it, and requests the attention of the CPU. When an interrupt occurs, the priority interrupt controller determines the importance of the interrupt and interrupts the CPU if the interrupt has a higher priority than the current task being executed. This allows the CPU to handle critical tasks first, ensuring efficient utilization of system resources.

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82. What type of sequential query language (SQL) statement would you use to make the changes you were working on permanent?

Explanation

To make the changes permanent in a sequential query language (SQL), you would use a transaction statement. A transaction allows you to group multiple SQL statements together and ensures that either all of them are executed successfully or none of them are. It provides the ability to rollback or commit the changes made, making it possible to make the changes permanent or revert them if needed.

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83. Which sequential query language (SQL) server feature tracks changes and is used to ensure data integrity?

Explanation

Logging is the correct answer because it is a sequential query language (SQL) server feature that tracks changes and is used to ensure data integrity. Logging involves recording all modifications made to the database, such as insertions, updates, and deletions, in a log file. This log file can be used for various purposes, including recovery in case of system failures, auditing, and maintaining data consistency. By tracking changes through logging, SQL servers can ensure that data remains accurate and consistent, even in the event of unexpected events or failures.

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84. What do you type to quit a UNIX shell?

Explanation

To quit a UNIX shell, you would type "exit". This command is used to terminate the current shell session and return to the parent shell or close the terminal window. It is a commonly used command to gracefully exit the shell and end any running processes or tasks.

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85. UNIX disks are divided into logical sections called?

Explanation

UNIX disks are divided into logical sections called partitions. A partition is a separate section of a disk that can be formatted and used as a separate storage unit. By dividing a disk into partitions, different file systems can be used on each partition, allowing for better organization and management of data. Partitions also provide a level of data protection, as issues on one partition are less likely to affect the others.

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86. Which UNIX command changes the group ownership of one or more files?

Explanation

The correct answer is chgrp. The chgrp command in UNIX is used to change the group ownership of one or more files. It allows the user to specify the desired group and the files that need to be changed. This command is useful in scenarios where the group ownership of files needs to be modified, such as when granting access permissions to a specific group of users.

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87. How many primary groups can a user be a member of?

Explanation

A user can only be a member of one primary group. Primary groups are used to assign permissions and access rights to users, and each user can only have one primary group. This ensures that the user's permissions and access are consistent across the system.

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88. What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?

Explanation

An intranetwork is a privately-owned network that is restricted to authorized personnel. It is a network that is specifically designed for internal use within an organization and is not accessible to the public or external users. This type of network allows for secure communication and data sharing among employees, departments, and locations within the organization.

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89. Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?

Explanation

The correct answer is Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. These three network management architectures are commonly used in different network environments. In a centralized architecture, all management functions are performed by a central entity or system. In a hierarchical architecture, management functions are divided into different levels or tiers, with each level having its own responsibilities. In a distributed architecture, management functions are distributed across multiple entities or systems, allowing for greater scalability and fault tolerance.

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90. What is a formal declaration approving official (DAA) that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk?

Explanation

Accreditation is the correct answer because it refers to the formal declaration approving official (DAA) that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk. Accreditation is a process that involves evaluating and assessing the security controls and safeguards implemented in an information system to determine if it meets the necessary requirements for operation. Once the system is accredited, it is deemed to be compliant with the security standards and can be authorized to operate.

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91. Which software program manages an IP address allocation for a network?

Explanation

DHCP is the correct answer because it is a software program that manages the allocation of IP addresses for a network. It automatically assigns IP addresses to devices connected to the network, eliminating the need for manual configuration. DHCP ensures efficient and centralized management of IP address allocation, making it easier to maintain and troubleshoot network connections. DNS is responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses, AD is a directory service for Windows networks, and a DHCP server is the specific implementation of the DHCP software program.

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92. Which special identity can represent users currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer?

Explanation

The special identity "Interactive" represents users who are currently logged on to a particular computer and accessing a given resource located on that computer. This identity is used to differentiate users who are physically present and actively interacting with the computer from other types of logins such as network or anonymous logins.

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93. While using UNIX vi to edit a file, what would you enter to save the buffer contents and stay in same file?

Explanation

To save the buffer contents and stay in the same file while using UNIX vi, you would enter "w". This command saves the changes made to the file without exiting the vi editor.

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94. What is the most common UNIX windows system?

Explanation

X windows is the most common UNIX windows system. X windows, also known as X11 or X, is a windowing system that allows graphical user interfaces (GUIs) to be displayed on UNIX-like operating systems. It provides a framework for managing windows, handling input devices, and rendering graphics. X windows is widely used in UNIX-based systems and has become the de facto standard for GUI applications in the UNIX environment.

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95. The key to shutting down an xterm window is to know which of your programs is the

Explanation

The key to shutting down an xterm window is to know which of your programs is the controlling program. The controlling program is responsible for managing the window and its processes. By identifying the controlling program, you can properly terminate it, which will subsequently close the xterm window.

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96. What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?

Explanation

Hierarchical network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients. This architecture is structured in a hierarchical manner, where the central server has control and authority over the client systems. This allows for efficient management and control of the network, with the central server being responsible for tasks such as monitoring, security, and resource allocation. The client systems rely on the central server for guidance and coordination, creating a hierarchical relationship within the network.

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97. What level of network management activity are you working for at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?

Explanation

When you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause, you are working at the level of network management activity known as "Interactive." This level involves actively monitoring and troubleshooting the network, responding to alarms and issues as they arise, and taking necessary actions to resolve problems and maintain network performance.

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98. The Air Force requires a network password to be at least how many characters long?

Explanation

The Air Force requires a network password to be at least 9 characters long. This is likely because longer passwords are generally more secure and harder to guess or crack. A longer password provides a larger number of possible combinations, making it more difficult for attackers to gain unauthorized access to the network. By setting a minimum length of 9 characters, the Air Force aims to enhance the security of their network and protect sensitive information.

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99. What documentation is required to permanently connect to the global information grid (GIG) system?

Explanation

To permanently connect to the global information grid (GIG) system, one needs an Authorization to Operate (ATO). This documentation is necessary to ensure that the individual or organization has met all the necessary security requirements and has been granted permission to access and use the GIG system. The ATO signifies that the entity has undergone the necessary assessments, evaluations, and testing to demonstrate their compliance with security standards and protocols. It is a crucial step in establishing a secure and reliable connection to the GIG system.

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100. What do you call the consolidated list of requirements that a program office must adhere to when fielding a system?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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101. What is a collection of computing environments connected by one or more internal networks under the control of a single approval authority and security policy?

Explanation

An enclave refers to a collection of computing environments that are interconnected by one or more internal networks. These environments are all under the control of a single approval authority and adhere to a common security policy. In other words, an enclave represents a secure and controlled network of interconnected systems that operate within a specific authority and security framework.

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102. What best describes programming machine code?

Explanation

Programming machine code refers to instructions that are written in a format that can be understood and executed by a computer. These instructions are written in a low-level language that directly corresponds to the hardware of the computer. Machine code is the most basic form of programming and is typically represented as a series of binary numbers. It is the closest representation of how a computer actually processes instructions, making it the most efficient and direct way to communicate with the computer's hardware.

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103. Which numbering system characteristic is the leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value?

Explanation

The leftmost non-zero digit of a numeric value represents the most significant digit (MSD). In a numbering system, the MSD carries the most weight or value. It determines the overall magnitude or size of the number. For example, in the decimal system, the leftmost non-zero digit is the MSD, which represents the highest place value.

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104. What kind of server contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest?

Explanation

The correct answer is Global Catalog. The Global Catalog server contains the master listing of all active directory objects in the forest. It stores a partial replica of all objects in the directory for faster searching and querying. This allows users to search for objects across the entire forest without having to contact multiple domain controllers.

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105. The group of IP Addresses that a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server manages is known as a?

Explanation

A DHCP server manages a group of IP addresses, which is known as a scope. A scope defines the range of IP addresses that the DHCP server can assign to client devices on a network. It includes the starting and ending IP addresses of the range, as well as other configuration settings such as subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server addresses.

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106. Which exchange service is the first service launched when Microsoft Exchange starts and the last to stop when it is shut down?

Explanation

The System Attendant service is the first service launched when Microsoft Exchange starts and the last to stop when it is shut down. The System Attendant service is responsible for several important tasks such as managing the Exchange server's directory service, generating email addresses, and performing various maintenance tasks. It plays a crucial role in the overall functioning of Microsoft Exchange.

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107. In Exchange System Manager, which container holds configuration objects such as Queues, Mailbox stores and Public Folder stores and protocols information?

Explanation

In Exchange System Manager, the container that holds configuration objects such as Queues, Mailbox stores, Public Folder stores, and protocols information is the "Servers" container. This container allows administrators to manage and configure various server-related settings and properties within the Exchange environment.

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108. To change permissions on a shell script, you use the UNIX command

Explanation

The correct answer is "chmod." The "chmod" command in UNIX is used to change the permissions of a file or directory. It allows the user to set the read, write, and execute permissions for the owner, group, and others. This command is commonly used to restrict or grant access to a shell script, ensuring that only authorized users can execute or modify it.

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109. The simplest place to put your function definitions is in your

Explanation

The correct answer is "Profile". This is because the question is asking where the simplest place to put function definitions is. A profile is a commonly used term in programming to refer to a set of functions or methods that are associated with a specific task or purpose. Therefore, putting function definitions in a profile would make it easier to organize and manage the code.

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110. Which UNIX mechanism provides for communication with system device drivers through the file system one character at a time?

Explanation

Character devices in UNIX provide a mechanism for communication with system device drivers through the file system one character at a time. They allow for direct access to devices such as terminals, printers, and serial ports, treating them as if they were regular files. This allows programs to read and write data to these devices using standard file I/O operations, making it convenient and consistent to interact with different types of devices. Named pipes, block devices, and sockets are not specifically designed for communicating with system device drivers in this manner.

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111. What component of the systems management report tracking system (SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers?

Explanation

The component of the SMARTS application that contains knowledge of available domain managers is the Broker. The Broker acts as a mediator between the clients and the domain managers, allowing the clients to access and interact with the domain managers. It maintains information about the availability and status of the domain managers, enabling efficient communication and coordination within the system.

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112. Which standard form is used to annotate storage media has been sanitized

Explanation

The standard form used to annotate storage media that has been sanitized is 711.

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113. What is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media?

Explanation

Degaussing is the preferred method of sanitizing magnetic media. Degaussing involves using a strong magnetic field to erase the data stored on the media. This method ensures that the data is completely destroyed and cannot be recovered. Overwriting, formatting, and deleting do not completely remove the data and can leave traces behind that can potentially be recovered. Therefore, degaussing is the most effective and secure method for sanitizing magnetic media.

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114. Which is a very simple example of an error detecting code?

Explanation

A parity bit is a simple example of an error detecting code. It is a single bit that is added to a binary code to ensure that the total number of 1s in the code is either even or odd. By checking the parity bit, errors in transmission can be detected. If the number of 1s in the received code does not match the expected parity, it indicates that an error has occurred. This method is simple and easy to implement, making it a commonly used error detection technique.

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115. Which is not a characteristic of high-order languages?

Explanation

The characteristic that is not a characteristic of high-order languages is that they use source codes that are written closest to machine language. High-order languages are designed to be more user-friendly and abstracted from the machine language, making them easier to read and write for programmers. They use English-like statements and are nearly self-documenting. Additionally, high-order languages allow for programs to be easily transported between computers with minimal changes, further enhancing their portability and versatility.

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116. Which type of backup will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours?

Explanation

The daily backup type will backup all files that have been altered in the last 24 hours. This means that every day, the backup system will create a copy of all the files that have been modified since the previous backup. This ensures that the most recent versions of the files are always backed up and can be restored if needed.

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117. Which is not a component of Internet Information Services (IIS)?

Explanation

The correct answer is Simple network management protocol (SNMP). SNMP is not a component of Internet Information Services (IIS). IIS is a web server software package developed by Microsoft that includes various components such as FTP server, Internet services manager, and Simple mail transport protocol (SMTP). SNMP, on the other hand, is a protocol used for managing and monitoring network devices. It is not directly related to IIS and its components.

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118. How many characters do most UNIX system administrators and users tend to user for filenames?

Explanation

Most UNIX system administrators and users tend to use 14 characters for filenames. This is because UNIX systems typically have a maximum filename length of 14 characters. This limit is based on historical reasons and compatibility with older systems. It is important to note that some modern UNIX systems may have increased this limit, but the majority of administrators and users still adhere to the traditional 14-character limit.

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119. What does the 7 in the device name c0t6d0s7 represent?

Explanation

The 7 in the device name c0t6d0s7 represents the partition. In device naming conventions, c0t6d0s7 indicates that the device is connected to controller 0, target 6, drive 0, and partition 7. Each partition represents a logical division of the drive and allows for the organization and allocation of storage space.

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120. Which UNIX vi mode allows users to execute set commands?

Explanation

The command mode in UNIX vi allows users to execute set commands. In this mode, users can enter various commands to edit the text, such as searching for specific words, copying, pasting, deleting, and saving the file. It is a powerful mode that enables users to perform various operations efficiently.

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121. Which UNIX command does the system administrator need to use to create the manual database prior to users being able to access the man -K command?

Explanation

The system administrator needs to use the "CATMAN" command to create the manual database before users can access the "man -K" command.

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122. What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?

Explanation

An enterprise network is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe. It is designed to support the communication and information sharing needs of a large organization. Unlike a local area network (LAN) which is limited to a single location, an enterprise network provides connectivity and intercommunication between multiple locations. A metropolitan area network (MAN) typically covers a larger geographical area than an enterprise network, and a multi-server high-speed backbone network refers to the infrastructure that supports the enterprise network. Therefore, the most appropriate answer is an enterprise network.

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123. What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?

Explanation

The host id of an IP address is the portion of the address that identifies the specific device or host on a network. In this case, the IP address is 131.10.230.120/24, which means that the first 24 bits are the network portion and the remaining 8 bits are the host portion. Therefore, the host id is 0.0.0.120, as it represents the specific device within the network.

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124. What operational simple network network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?

Explanation

A Trap message in SNMP is an unsolicited message sent from an agent to the manager. It is used to notify the manager about specific events or conditions that occur on the network device being monitored. Unlike other SNMP messages like Get, Set, and GetNext, which are initiated by the manager to gather information or make changes, a Trap message is sent by the agent without any request from the manager. It allows the agent to proactively inform the manager about important events or issues that require attention.

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125. What is the database of record for registering all systems and applications?

Explanation

The correct answer is Enterprise information technology repository (EITDR). This is the database of record for registering all systems and applications. It serves as a central repository for storing information about the various systems and applications used within an organization. It helps in maintaining a comprehensive inventory of all technology assets and allows for better management, security, and supportability of these assets.

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126. What are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall?

Explanation

Tunneling and application-based attacks are examples of network attacks that can bypass the firewall. Tunneling involves encapsulating one protocol within another to bypass network security measures. Application-based attacks target vulnerabilities in specific applications or services to gain unauthorized access. Both of these techniques allow attackers to bypass the firewall and gain access to the network or exploit vulnerabilities in the system.

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127. What type of firewall consists of a screening router and a set of rules that accept or reject a message based on information in the message's header (a packet): the source address, the destination address, and the port?

Explanation

Packet filtering is a type of firewall that uses a screening router and a set of rules to accept or reject messages based on information in the message's header. This includes the source address, destination address, and port. Packet filtering examines each packet individually and makes decisions on whether to allow or block it based on the defined rules. It is a common method used to protect networks by filtering out unwanted traffic and preventing unauthorized access.

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128. A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is a?

Explanation

A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is classified as a virus. Viruses are malicious software that can self-replicate and spread by attaching themselves to other programs or files. Once the infected program or file is executed, the virus can carry out its intended actions, which may include damaging or corrupting data, stealing information, or causing other harmful effects. Unlike Trojan Horses, worms, and bots, viruses specifically rely on attaching themselves to other programs for replication.

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129. What type of malicious logic can form large networks that can be used to launch a variety of attacks without an information system owner's knowledge?

Explanation

A bot is a type of malicious logic that can form large networks, known as botnets, which can be used to launch a variety of attacks without the knowledge of the information system owner. Botnets are created by infecting multiple computers with bot malware, allowing a remote attacker to control them and use them for various nefarious activities, such as distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks, spamming, or stealing sensitive information. Bots can spread through various means, including email attachments, malicious downloads, or exploiting vulnerabilities in computer systems.

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130. What type of malicious logic can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file?

Explanation

A worm is a type of malicious logic that can become active on an information system without the need to infect a file. Unlike viruses or Trojan horses, worms do not require a host file to attach themselves to. Instead, they are standalone programs that can replicate and spread across a network, exploiting vulnerabilities in computer systems to infect other machines. This allows worms to rapidly propagate and cause widespread damage, such as consuming network bandwidth or deleting files.

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131. What is an electronic document that officially links together a user's identity with his public key?

Explanation

A Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) certificate is an electronic document that officially links together a user's identity with his public key. This certificate is issued by a trusted third-party certificate authority and is used to verify the authenticity and integrity of electronic communications. It ensures that the public key being used belongs to the intended user and provides a secure way to exchange encrypted information.

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132. Which storage device can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive?

Explanation

Network attached storage (NAS) is the correct answer because it is a storage device that can be easily connected to a network and appears as a network drive. NAS devices are designed to provide file-level data storage and allow multiple users and client devices to access and share files over a network. They typically have their own operating system and management interface, and can be accessed using standard network protocols such as NFS or SMB. NAS devices are commonly used in homes and small businesses to centralize storage and provide convenient access to files from multiple devices.

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133. Which storage device has the means of providing data storage reliability using multiple hard drives?

Explanation

RAID is a storage technology that uses multiple hard drives to provide data storage reliability. It distributes data across multiple drives, allowing for redundancy and improved performance. If one drive fails, the data can still be accessed from the remaining drives. RAID also offers various levels of redundancy and performance, depending on the configuration used. SAN, NAS, and SCSI are all storage technologies but do not specifically provide data storage reliability using multiple hard drives like RAID does.

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134. What should each organization have that spells out which systems are prioritized in what order for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters?

Explanation

Each organization should have a list of critical devices that spells out which systems are prioritized in what order for the basis of protecting those systems from disasters. This list helps identify the most important devices that need to be protected and ensures that appropriate preventive controls, recovery strategies, and emergency action plans are put in place to safeguard them. By prioritizing the protection of critical devices, organizations can effectively mitigate the impact of disasters and ensure the continuity of their operations.

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135. What is hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Management information base." The management information base (MIB) is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices. It provides a standardized way to organize and access information about the devices on a network, such as their configuration, performance, and status. The MIB is used by network management systems to monitor and control network devices, allowing administrators to efficiently manage and troubleshoot the network.

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136. Which protocol is commonly used for managing the security of a message transmission on the Internet?

Explanation

SSL (Secure Socket Layer) is commonly used for managing the security of a message transmission on the Internet. SSL provides a secure and encrypted connection between a client and a server, ensuring that the data transmitted between them remains confidential and cannot be intercepted or tampered with by unauthorized parties. SSL uses cryptographic protocols to establish a secure connection, authenticate the server, and encrypt the data being transmitted. It is widely used for secure online transactions, such as e-commerce websites, online banking, and email services.

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137. What is based around a central directory database containing information about all the domain controllers in the network?

Explanation

Active Directory is based around a central directory database containing information about all the domain controllers in the network. It is a directory service that allows administrators to manage and control access to resources in a network. It provides a centralized location for storing and organizing information about users, computers, and other network resources. With Active Directory, administrators can easily manage user accounts, assign permissions, and enforce security policies across the network.

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138. What action puts unneeded windows out of the way without quitting the program inside them?

Explanation

Iconifying is the action that puts unneeded windows out of the way without quitting the program inside them. When a window is iconified, it is minimized to a small icon or thumbnail on the taskbar or desktop, allowing the user to easily access it later when needed. This helps in managing multiple open windows and keeps the workspace organized by reducing clutter.

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139. The first step in quitting an xterm session is to

Explanation

To quit an xterm session, the first step is to quit all non-controlling programs. This means closing any programs or processes that are running within the xterm session but are not essential for its functioning. This step ensures that all unnecessary programs are terminated before proceeding with the rest of the quitting process.

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140. What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?

Explanation

The binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96 is 01100000. This is because in binary, the number 96 is represented as 01100000.

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141. How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?

Explanation

An internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask typically covers 64 bits. IPv6 uses a 128-bit address space, and the subnet mask is used to divide this address space into network and host portions. A subnet mask of 64 bits indicates that the first 64 bits of the address are used to identify the network, while the remaining 64 bits are used for host identification. This allows for a large number of unique network addresses and a vast number of hosts within each network.

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142. What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information?

Explanation

The Get SNMP message is used to request a specific instance of management information from a network device. This message is sent by the network management system to retrieve the value of a specific object or variable in the device's MIB (Management Information Base). The Get message allows the management system to obtain the current value of a specific parameter or statistic from the device.

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143. What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information base (MIB)?

Explanation

A neighbor probe is a type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information base (MIB). This probe is specifically designed to gather information about neighboring devices in a network, such as their IP addresses, MAC addresses, and connectivity status. By collecting this information, the neighbor probe helps in monitoring and managing the network's connectivity and identifying any potential issues or faults in the network topology.

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144. What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

Explanation

Media access control (MAC) node statistics report errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. The MAC layer is responsible for controlling access to the physical medium and ensuring the integrity of data transmission. By monitoring MAC node statistics, errors at the physical layer can be detected and analyzed, allowing for troubleshooting and corrective actions to be taken.

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145. What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?

Explanation

When the protocol analyzer application is activated, the process of node discovery automatically runs in the background. Node discovery refers to the identification and mapping of network devices or nodes within a network. This process helps in determining the devices present on the network and their respective addresses. By running node discovery, the protocol analyzer can gather information about the network topology and assist in troubleshooting network issues.

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146. What regulation covers remanence security?

Explanation

AFSSI 8580 is the correct answer because it is a regulation that specifically covers remanence security. Remanence security refers to the process of ensuring that residual data is properly erased or destroyed from storage media, such as hard drives or memory devices, to prevent unauthorized access or retrieval of sensitive information. AFSSI 8580 provides guidelines and procedures for remanence security within the U.S. Air Force, making it the appropriate regulation for this topic.

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147. What is a comprehensive evaluation and validation of an Air Force information system (IS) to establish the degree to which it compiles with assigned information assurance (IA) controls based on standardized procedures?

Explanation

Certification refers to the comprehensive evaluation and validation of an Air Force information system (IS) to determine the extent to which it complies with assigned information assurance (IA) controls based on standardized procedures. It involves a thorough assessment of the system's security measures and controls to ensure that it meets the necessary requirements for safeguarding sensitive information and protecting against potential threats. Certification is an essential step in the process of ensuring the security and effectiveness of an Air Force information system.

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148. What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall?

Explanation

Tunneling is the practice of encapsulating a message that would be rejected by the firewall inside a second message that will pass through the firewall. This technique allows the unauthorized message to bypass the firewall by hiding it within an authorized message. By using tunneling, attackers can gain access to a network or system without detection.

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149. What is the simplest and least expensive way to stop inappropriate network addresses?

Explanation

Packet filtering is the simplest and least expensive way to stop inappropriate network addresses. It involves examining the packets of data that are sent across a network and determining whether to allow or block them based on predefined rules. By filtering out packets with inappropriate or suspicious addresses, packet filtering helps to prevent unauthorized access and potential security breaches. It is a basic form of network security that can be implemented using hardware or software firewalls, providing a cost-effective solution for protecting a network from unwanted traffic.

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150. What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events?

Explanation

Purple color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events. This color is used to highlight and draw attention to events that have occurred within the systems management automated report tracking system. It signifies that there have been certain activities or incidents that need to be addressed or investigated.

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151. What is the connection type of choice for Storage area networks (SAN)?

Explanation

The connection type of choice for Storage area networks (SAN) is Fibre channel. Fibre channel is a high-speed network technology that provides fast and reliable data transfer between servers and storage devices. It is specifically designed for storage networking and offers high bandwidth, low latency, and scalability, making it ideal for SAN environments. Fibre channel uses optical fiber cables to connect servers and storage devices, allowing for long-distance connectivity and high data transfer rates. It also provides features like zoning and masking for secure data access and supports multiple protocols for different storage devices.

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152. A standard Web application used to pass a Web user's request to a server's application program and to exchange data back to the user is called a?

Explanation

A standard Web application used to pass a Web user's request to a server's application program and to exchange data back to the user is called a Common Gateway Interface (CGI). CGI is a protocol that allows interaction between the web server and the application program. It enables the server to process user input and generate dynamic content. Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a cryptographic protocol used to secure communication over a network. Data Encryption Standard (DES) is a symmetric encryption algorithm. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a system that manages the creation, distribution, and revocation of digital certificates.

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153. What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware device indication the need for attention from a central processing unit (CPU) or a synchronous event?

Explanation

An interrupt is a signal from a computer hardware device that indicates the need for attention from the CPU. It can be either asynchronous or synchronous. Asynchronous means that the interrupt can occur at any time, regardless of the CPU's current state, while synchronous means that the interrupt occurs at a specific point in the CPU's execution. Interrupts are used to handle events that require immediate attention, such as input/output operations or errors. They allow the CPU to temporarily suspend its current task and handle the interrupt before returning to the previous task.

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154. Which technology is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array that can be daisy chained?

Explanation

SCSI technology is often used in redundant array of independent disks (RAID) arrays that can be daisy chained. SCSI allows multiple devices, including hard drives, to be connected in a chain or bus, allowing for easy expansion and management of the RAID array. This technology is commonly used in enterprise-level storage systems where high performance and reliability are required.

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155. What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?

Explanation

Air Force instruction series 33 covers communications and information.

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156. What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?

Explanation

Tolerance parameters are established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault. These parameters define the acceptable range of errors or deviations from the expected performance. If errors are within the defined tolerance, they are considered normal and do not indicate a fault. However, if errors exceed the tolerance parameters, it suggests that there may be a fault or issue that needs to be addressed.

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157. What device is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks?

Explanation

An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is a device that is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to monitor all attempted attacks. It is designed to detect and respond to any unauthorized activity or potential security threats. IDS analyzes network traffic and system logs to identify any suspicious or malicious behavior, such as unauthorized access attempts or unusual network traffic patterns. By monitoring and alerting on potential attacks, IDS helps to enhance the overall security of a network by providing early detection and prevention of potential threats.

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158. Which component of the public key infrastructure (PKI) is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates?

Explanation

A certificate authority is responsible for establishing, authenticating, maintaining, and revoking certificates in a public key infrastructure (PKI). It is a trusted entity that issues digital certificates to verify the authenticity of public keys. The certificate authority verifies the identity of the certificate holder and signs the certificate with its private key. This ensures that the public key belongs to the claimed identity. The certificate authority also maintains a repository of issued certificates, which can be used for verification purposes.

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159. The two ways keys establishment can occur are key?

Explanation

Keys establishment can occur through the process of transferring the keys from one entity to another and reaching an agreement on the shared keys. This ensures that both entities have the necessary keys to communicate securely. The other options, interchange and generation, do not accurately describe the process of keys establishment.

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160. Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency?

Explanation

Sustained communications support teams are responsible for providing uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to field and in-garrison units for the duration of a contingency. These teams ensure that communication systems are operational and reliable, allowing for effective communication and coordination during missions. They play a crucial role in maintaining connectivity and ensuring that information is continuously transmitted and received, even in challenging and high-pressure situations.

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161. Which original components were very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge?

Explanation

The correct answer is CMOS because CMOS chips are very susceptible to damage from electrostatic discharge. CMOS technology uses very small transistors and delicate circuitry, which can easily be damaged by static electricity. When a person with a static charge touches a CMOS chip, the discharge can cause permanent damage to the chip's components, rendering it non-functional. Therefore, it is crucial to handle CMOS chips with caution and take appropriate measures to prevent electrostatic discharge.

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162. Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the operational system interface (OSI) model?

Explanation

Network management protocols are designed to reside above the Session layer of the OSI model. The Session layer is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between devices. Network management protocols, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), operate at a higher layer to monitor and control network devices, collect performance data, and manage network configurations. By residing above the Session layer, these protocols can effectively manage network resources and ensure smooth operation of the network.

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163. What operational simple network protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?

Explanation

The correct answer is "GetNext". The GetNext message is used in SNMP to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead. It allows the SNMP manager to request the next variable binding in the MIB (Management Information Base) from the agent. This enables efficient retrieval of sequential data without having to send multiple individual requests.

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164. What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) notifications?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events." This is because these three types of notifications are commonly used in systems management automated report tracking systems (SMARTS). Compound events refer to multiple events that occur simultaneously or in a specific sequence. Problems are notifications that indicate an issue or error in the system. Symptomatic events are notifications that indicate a specific symptom or indication of a problem. Together, these three types of notifications help to track and manage system events effectively.

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165. What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software?

Explanation

A protocol analyzer is a device that allows for digital network diagnostics and the development of communications software. It is used to capture and analyze network traffic, helping to identify and troubleshoot issues within a network. By examining the protocol packets, a protocol analyzer can provide insights into the performance and behavior of a network, making it an essential tool for network administrators and developers.

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166. What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?

Explanation

Protocol statistics provide information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol. This means that by analyzing protocol statistics, one can gather data on how efficiently the network is being utilized and identify any errors or issues that are specific to a particular protocol. This information is valuable for troubleshooting and optimizing network performance.

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167. Which team provides a communication link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities?

Explanation

Initial communications support teams provide a communication link between forces securing the area and setting up support facilities. These teams are responsible for establishing and maintaining communication systems and networks in order to facilitate effective communication between different units and support the overall mission. They play a crucial role in ensuring that communication is established and maintained in the early stages of an operation, allowing for coordination and collaboration among the forces involved.

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168. Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?

Explanation

Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves tracking activities on the network and gathering historical data. Monitoring helps to keep a close eye on the network's performance, detect any issues or anomalies, and analyze the data collected to make informed decisions about network optimization and improvement. It is an essential function of performance management as it allows for proactive maintenance and troubleshooting, ensuring the network operates efficiently and effectively.

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169. What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structured is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Private." In the SNMP tree structure, the private area is reserved for vendors to define their own label and leaf objects that are specific to their manufactured equipment. This allows vendors to create custom management information bases (MIBs) for their devices, extending the functionality and monitoring capabilities of SNMP beyond the standard MIBs defined by the SNMP protocol.

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170. What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?

Explanation

An SNMP agent is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system. It acts as the intermediary between the network devices and the management system, gathering information about the devices' performance, status, and configuration. The agent then sends this data to the management system, allowing administrators to monitor and manage the network effectively.

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171. What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?

Explanation

A systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application is a complex system that requires a central component to manage and track all the reports generated. This central component is known as the domain manager. It is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the entire SMARTS application, ensuring that reports are generated, tracked, and managed efficiently. The domain manager acts as the centerpiece of the system, connecting all the different components and ensuring smooth operation. Therefore, the domain manager is the correct answer as it plays a crucial role in the SMARTS application.

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172. What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations?

Explanation

Vulnerability scanners are network devices that perform rigorous examinations of systems to identify weaknesses that might allow security violations. These scanners are designed to scan networks, systems, and applications for known vulnerabilities and provide detailed reports on the identified weaknesses. By conducting these examinations, vulnerability scanners help organizations assess their security posture and take necessary actions to mitigate potential risks and prevent security breaches.

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173. Who can declassify storage media that has been sanitized?

Explanation

The information owner is responsible for declassifying storage media that has been sanitized. As the owner of the information, they have the authority to determine the appropriate level of classification for the media and can make the decision to declassify it. The information owner is typically the individual or organization that has control over the information and is accountable for its protection and management.

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174. What is an advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture?

Explanation

An advantage of using a storage area network (SAN) architecture is the ease of replacing a server. In a SAN, the storage is separated from the server, allowing for quick and easy replacement of servers without affecting the storage infrastructure. This flexibility enables organizations to upgrade or replace servers without disrupting the storage system, resulting in minimal downtime and improved system availability.

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175. Which Web application is most likely to succeed Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)?

Explanation

XHTML is the most likely web application to succeed HTML because it is a stricter and more standardized version of HTML. It combines the syntax of HTML with the stricter rules of XML, making it easier for web developers to create and maintain web pages. XHTML is also compatible with various devices and platforms, making it a more flexible and future-proof option for web development. Additionally, XHTML allows for better accessibility and search engine optimization, making it a preferred choice for modern web applications.

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176. Where does a copy of the active directory database reside?

Explanation

The active directory database resides on domain controllers. Domain controllers are servers that store a copy of the active directory database, which contains information about all the objects in a network, such as users, computers, and groups. The domain controllers are responsible for authenticating users, enforcing security policies, and replicating the active directory database to other domain controllers in the network.

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177. What is a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects to control what can done by a user?

Explanation

Group policy objects are a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf objects to control what can be done by a user. These objects allow administrators to enforce specific configurations and settings on a group of users or computers within a domain. By defining policies such as password requirements, software installations, and access permissions, administrators can centrally manage and control the behavior of users and computers in an Active Directory environment.

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178. Storage media the retains data after power is removed is considered?

Explanation

Storage media that retains data after power is removed is considered sensitive because it poses a risk to data security. This type of storage media, such as hard drives or solid-state drives, can store data even when not powered on, making it susceptible to unauthorized access or data breaches. Therefore, it is important to handle and protect sensitive storage media with appropriate security measures to prevent data loss or unauthorized access.

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179. What is the Department of Defense process for certifying and accrediting information systems to operate on the global information grid (GIG)?

Explanation

The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is the correct answer because it is the specific process used by the Department of Defense to certify and accredit information systems for operation on the global information grid (GIG). DIACAP ensures that these systems meet the necessary security requirements and are able to operate effectively and securely within the Department of Defense's network.

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180. How many non-secure internet protocol router network (NIPRNet) gateways does the Air Force possess?

Explanation

The Air Force possesses 16 non-secure internet protocol router network (NIPRNet) gateways.

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181. Which public key algorithm is exclusively a key establishment protocol?

Explanation

Diffie and Hellman is exclusively a key establishment protocol. It is used to securely establish a shared secret key between two parties over an insecure communication channel. This key can then be used for encryption and decryption of messages. RSA, ECDSA, and ECDH are not exclusively key establishment protocols; they have other applications such as digital signatures and key exchange.

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182. What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?

Explanation

A bastion host is a type of firewall that is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas. It acts as a gateway between two networks and provides an additional layer of security by controlling access to the protected network. The bastion host is specifically designed and hardened to withstand attacks and is often placed in a DMZ (demilitarized zone) to provide an extra barrier of protection. It helps in preventing unauthorized access and protecting sensitive information by monitoring and filtering incoming and outgoing traffic.

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183. What is the primary unclassified public key infrastructure (PKI) token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the Air Force?

Explanation

The Common Access card is the primary unclassified public key infrastructure (PKI) token for individual PKI keys and certificates in the Air Force. This card is used to authenticate and provide secure access to various systems and resources within the Air Force network. It contains a cryptographic chip that stores the user's digital identity and allows them to securely access and sign documents, emails, and other sensitive information. The Common Access card is widely used across the military and is an essential component of the Air Force's PKI infrastructure.

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184. Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?

Explanation

Performance management involves monitoring and analyzing the performance of a system or process. Monitoring refers to the continuous observation and measurement of performance metrics to identify any issues or deviations from desired performance levels. Tuning, on the other hand, involves making adjustments or optimizations to improve the performance based on the insights gained from monitoring and analyzing. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring and tuning, as these two functional categories are essential for effective performance management.

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185. What process, along with AFI 33-210, Air Force Certification and Accreditation (C&A) program (AFCAP), provides the basic framework of the certification & accreditation (C&A)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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186. What is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not?

Explanation

A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were physically connected to a server when they are not. SANs use a dedicated network to connect the storage devices to the server, allowing for centralized storage management and improved performance. This enables multiple servers to access the storage devices simultaneously, providing a scalable and flexible solution for data storage and retrieval.

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187. Which type of backup would you use at the end of the week to save all data that you select on your systems?

Explanation

A normal backup is a type of backup that saves all the selected data on the system. It creates a complete copy of all the selected files and folders, regardless of whether they have been modified or not. This type of backup ensures that all data is saved at the end of the week, providing a comprehensive snapshot of the system's state. Incremental backups only save changes made since the last backup, differential backups save changes made since the last full backup, and daily backups save all selected data on a daily basis.

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188. The act of choosing the window you type is called setting the?

Explanation

The act of choosing the window you type is called setting the "input focus". This means that when you set the input focus on a particular window, it becomes the active window and any keystrokes or inputs will be directed to that window. The input focus determines which window will receive the user's keyboard input at any given time.

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189. How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?

Explanation

The performance monitor provides you with 21 different categories of information about your network. This suggests that the performance monitor offers a comprehensive range of data and insights regarding the network's performance. It implies that users can access detailed information about various aspects of the network, such as bandwidth usage, packet loss, latency, and other performance metrics.

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190. Which agency must approve all information protection tools prior to their use?

Explanation

The correct answer is Headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF). This agency must approve all information protection tools prior to their use. This implies that any information protection tools used within the Air Force need to be approved by the HQ USAF before they can be implemented.

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191. What can be used to encrypt a message so that it can only be decrypted by the recipient?

Explanation

Public Key encryption is a method that uses two different keys, a public key and a private key. The public key is used to encrypt the message, while the private key is kept secret and used by the recipient to decrypt the message. This ensures that only the intended recipient, who possesses the private key, can decrypt and read the message. Therefore, the use of a public key is essential for encrypting a message in a way that only the recipient can decrypt it.

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192. Which interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the floppy disk controller?

Explanation

The correct answer is 6 because IRQ 6 is typically used for the floppy disk controller. The IRQ lines are used to prioritize and handle various hardware interrupts in a computer system. Each device or component is assigned a specific IRQ line for communication with the CPU. In the case of the floppy disk controller, IRQ 6 is commonly used to handle interrupts related to the floppy drive operations.

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193. What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?

Explanation

The network control center (NCC) is responsible for providing reliable and secure networks and network services for base level customers. They ensure that the network infrastructure is functioning properly and that all network services are available to the customers. The NCC monitors the network for any issues or anomalies and takes necessary actions to resolve them. They also implement security measures to protect the network from unauthorized access and cyber threats. Therefore, the NCC is the correct answer for this question.

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194. In UNIX, which package of programs lets a terminal handle many sessions at once?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Multi-session manager". This package of programs in UNIX allows a terminal to handle multiple sessions simultaneously. It enables users to open and manage multiple sessions or connections to the system, allowing them to work on different tasks or programs concurrently. This helps in improving productivity and efficiency by enabling multitasking and facilitating the management of multiple user sessions on a single terminal.

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195. The hard drives in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array are presented to the server as?

Explanation

The hard drives in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array are presented to the server as one single hard drive. In a RAID array, multiple physical hard drives are combined to create a single logical drive. This logical drive appears as a single hard drive to the server, even though it is actually composed of multiple physical drives. The RAID controller manages the data storage and retrieval across the individual drives, providing redundancy and improved performance.

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196. According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?

Explanation

According to the Air Force network structure, the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC) is classified as tier 1.

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197. What program is known as a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base?

Explanation

The program known as Theater deployable communications (TDC) is a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to provide base level full spectrum communications to the commander and all agencies on base. This program is specifically designed for use in theater deployments, allowing for effective and efficient communication between different units and agencies in a military base. It is likely equipped with advanced technology and capabilities to ensure reliable and secure communication in various operational scenarios.

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198. What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes?

Explanation

A bastion host is a type of firewall that generates audit trails of all network-related activity for monitoring and intrusion detection purposes. It acts as a secure gateway between an internal network and an external network, allowing only authorized traffic to pass through while logging all activity. The audit trails generated by a bastion host can be used to analyze and detect any suspicious or unauthorized activity, helping to protect the network from potential intrusions.

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199. What action represents one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks?

Explanation

Network-connected computer systems with modems that make calls to and accept calls from the public-switched network represent one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal networks. This is because these systems provide a potential entry point for attackers to gain unauthorized access to the network. By exploiting the modem connection, attackers can bypass network security measures and gain control over the internal network, potentially causing significant damage or stealing sensitive information. It is essential to secure these systems and closely monitor their usage to prevent unauthorized access and protect the internal network from potential threats.

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200. Which query is made by one name server to another name server?

Explanation

A non-recursive query is made by one name server to another name server. In this type of query, the requesting name server asks the other name server for the specific information it needs, and if the queried name server does not have the information, it will respond with a referral to another name server. This process continues until the requested information is found or until there are no more referrals. Unlike recursive queries, non-recursive queries do not involve the queried name server performing additional lookups on behalf of the requesting name server.

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What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address...
What operational simple network network management protocol (SNMP)...
What is the database of record for registering all systems and...
What are examples of network attacks that bypass the firewall?
What type of firewall consists of a screening router and a set of...
A program that replicates by attaching itself to a program is a?
What type of malicious logic can form large networks that can be used...
What type of malicious logic can become active on an information...
What is an electronic document that officially links together a...
Which storage device can be easily connected to a network and appears...
Which storage device has the means of providing data storage...
What should each organization have that spells out which systems are...
What is hierarchical structured format that defines the network...
Which protocol is commonly used for managing the security of a message...
What is based around a central directory database containing...
What action puts unneeded windows out of the way without quitting the...
The first step in quitting an xterm session is to
What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6...
What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message...
What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity...
What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame...
What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer...
What regulation covers remanence security?
What is a comprehensive evaluation and validation of an Air Force...
What is the intrusion practice of encapsulating a message that would...
What is the simplest and least expensive way to stop inappropriate...
What color on the systems management automated report tracking system...
What is the connection type of choice for Storage area networks (SAN)?
A standard Web application used to pass a Web user's request to a...
What is defined as an asynchronous signal from a computer hardware...
Which technology is often used in redundant array of independent disks...
What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and...
What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within...
What device is placed outside the boundary protection mechanism to...
Which component of the public key infrastructure (PKI) is responsible...
The two ways keys establishment can occur are key?
Who provides uninterrupted flow of mission critical information to...
Which original components were very susceptible to damage from...
Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside...
What operational simple network protocol (SNMP) message is used to...
What are the three types of systems management automated report...
What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and...
What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame...
Which team provides a communication link between forces securing the...
Which function of performance management tracks historical data by...
What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree...
What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for...
What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report...
What network device performs rigorous examinations of systems to...
Who can declassify storage media that has been sanitized?
What is an advantage of using a storage area network (SAN)...
Which Web application is most likely to succeed Hypertext Markup...
Where does a copy of the active directory database reside?
What is a set of rules that can be set to affect active directory leaf...
Storage media the retains data after power is removed is considered?
What is the Department of Defense process for certifying and...
How many non-secure internet protocol router network (NIPRNet)...
Which public key algorithm is exclusively a key establishment...
What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or...
What is the primary unclassified public key infrastructure (PKI) token...
Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional...
What process, along with AFI 33-210, Air Force Certification and...
What is a way of utilizing a group of storage devices as if they were...
Which type of backup would you use at the end of the week to save all...
The act of choosing the window you type is called setting the?
How many different categories of information does the performance...
Which agency must approve all information protection tools prior to...
What can be used to encrypt a message so that it can only be decrypted...
Which interrupt request (IRQ) line number is normally used for the...
What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network...
In UNIX, which package of programs lets a terminal handle many...
The hard drives in a redundant array of independent disks (RAID) array...
According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air...
What program is known as a state of the art ground-to-ground...
What type of firewall generates audit trails of all network-related...
What action represents one of the greatest vulnerabilities to internal...
Which query is made by one name server to another name server?
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