An IT Test For Your Brain - Networks And Servers

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An IT Test For Your Brain - Networks And Servers - Quiz

A computer network is a group of computers that use a set of common communication protocols over digital interconnections for the purpose of sharing resources
A server is a piece of hardware or software that provides functionality for other programs or devices, called "clients". This architecture is called the client–server model.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2
    Explanation
    A computer network requires a minimum of two computers to establish a connection and communicate with each other. With only one computer, there is no network as there is no other device to connect to. Therefore, two computers are necessary to form a basic computer network.

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  • 2. 

    What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel is called?

    • A.

      Homogeneous

    • B.

      Internetwork

    • C.

      Intranetwork

    • D.

      Local area Network

    Correct Answer
    C. Intranetwork
    Explanation
    An intranetwork is a privately-owned network that is restricted to authorized personnel. It is a network that is specifically designed for internal use within an organization and is not accessible to the public or external users. This type of network allows for secure communication and data sharing among employees, departments, and locations within the organization.

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  • 3. 

    What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?

    • A.

      Internetwork

    • B.

      Intranetwork

    • C.

      Homogeneous Network

    • D.

      Hetergeneous Network

    Correct Answer
    D. Hetergeneous Network
    Explanation
    A heterogeneous network consists of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols. This means that the network includes devices and software from various manufacturers, each with their own unique specifications and requirements. In such an environment, interoperability and compatibility between the different systems can be a challenge, requiring specialized solutions and protocols to ensure effective communication and functionality across the network.

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  • 4. 

    What type of network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system?

    • A.

      Internetwork

    • B.

      Intranetwork

    • C.

      Homogeneous Network

    • D.

      Heterogenous Network

    Correct Answer
    C. Homogeneous Network
    Explanation
    A homogeneous network is made up of components from the same vendor or compatible equipment that all run under the same operating system or network operating system. This means that all the devices and software in the network are from the same source, ensuring compatibility and seamless integration. This type of network is often easier to manage and troubleshoot since the components are designed to work together. It also allows for better control and security since the network can be standardized and managed more effectively.

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  • 5. 

    What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?

    • A.

      Global area network (GAN)

    • B.

      Local area network (LAN)

    • C.

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • D.

      Wide are network (WAN)

    Correct Answer
    B. Local area network (LAN)
    Explanation
    A local area network (LAN) is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area. It is typically limited to a single building or a group of nearby buildings. LANs are commonly used in homes, offices, and schools, allowing users to share resources such as printers, files, and internet connections. They are characterized by high data transfer rates and low latency, making them suitable for applications that require fast and reliable communication within a small area.

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  • 6. 

    What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?

    • A.

      Global area network (GAN)

    • B.

      Local area network (LAN) 

    • C.

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • D.

      Wide area network (WAN)

    Correct Answer
    D. Wide area network (WAN)
    Explanation
    A wide area network (WAN) is a type of communications network that connects a broad geographical region. Unlike a local area network (LAN) which is limited to a small area like a home or office, a WAN covers a larger area such as multiple cities or even countries. A WAN is designed to facilitate communication and data transfer between different locations, allowing for the sharing of resources and information over long distances. Therefore, a WAN is the correct answer for a network that links a broad geographical region.

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  • 7. 

     What type of communications network links different interconnected works over an unlimited geographical region?

    • A.

      Global area network (GAN)

    • B.

      Local area network (LAN)

    • C.

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • D.

      Wide area network (WAN)

    Correct Answer
    A. Global area network (GAN)
    Explanation
    A global area network (GAN) is a type of communications network that connects different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region. Unlike a local area network (LAN) which is limited to a small area, a GAN covers a larger and more expansive region. Similarly, a metropolitan area network (MAN) is limited to a specific metropolitan area. On the other hand, a wide area network (WAN) covers a larger area than a LAN or MAN but is still limited in comparison to a GAN. Therefore, a GAN is the correct answer as it accurately describes a network that links different interconnected works over an unlimited geographical region.

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  • 8. 

    How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?

    • A.

      2-10

    • B.

      10-50

    • C.

      50-250

    • D.

      250-1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-10
    Explanation
    In a peer-to-peer network, the number of users typically ranges from 2 to 10. This means that there are usually only a small number of users connected and sharing resources directly with each other. This range is common for small-scale networks, such as home networks or small businesses, where a limited number of devices need to communicate and share files or services.

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  • 9. 

    How many users are in a single-server network?

    • A.

      2-10

    • B.

      10-50

    • C.

      50-250

    • D.

      250-1000

    Correct Answer
    B. 10-50
    Explanation
    In a single-server network, the number of users typically falls within the range of 10-50. This means that there are between 10 to 50 individuals who are connected to and utilizing the services of the server. This range is considered manageable for a single server to handle the network traffic and meet the users' needs effectively. It strikes a balance between having enough users to make the network worthwhile and not overwhelming the server's capabilities.

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  • 10. 

    How many users are in a multi-server network?

    • A.

      2-10

    • B.

      10-50

    • C.

      50-250

    • D.

      250-1000

    Correct Answer
    C. 50-250
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 50-250. This range suggests that a multi-server network typically consists of a moderate number of users. Having too few users (2-10) may not require multiple servers, while having too many users (250-1000) may require a more complex network infrastructure. The 50-250 range strikes a balance between scalability and efficiency, making it a suitable range for a multi-server network.

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  • 11. 

    How many users are in a multi-server high-speed backbone network?

    • A.

      2-10

    • B.

      10-50

    • C.

      50-250

    • D.

      250-1000

    Correct Answer
    D. 250-1000
    Explanation
    A multi-server high-speed backbone network typically consists of a large number of users due to its capacity and capabilities. The range of 250-1000 users indicates that the network can support a significant number of users simultaneously. This range suggests that the network is designed to handle a substantial amount of traffic and can accommodate a medium to large-sized organization or institution with numerous users connected to it.

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  • 12. 

    What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe?

    • A.

      Local area network (LAN)

    • B.

      Metropolitan area network

    • C.

      Multi-server high-speed backbone network

    • D.

      Enterprise network

    Correct Answer
    D. Enterprise network
    Explanation
    An enterprise network is a type of communications network that connects geographically dispersed offices in other cities or around the globe. It is designed to support the communication and information sharing needs of a large organization. Unlike a local area network (LAN) which is limited to a single location, an enterprise network provides connectivity and intercommunication between multiple locations. A metropolitan area network (MAN) typically covers a larger geographical area than an enterprise network, and a multi-server high-speed backbone network refers to the infrastructure that supports the enterprise network. Therefore, the most appropriate answer is an enterprise network.

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  • 13. 

    What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?

    • A.

      Media access control address

    • B.

      Network server name

    • C.

      Subnet mask address

    • D.

      Node serial number

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control address
    Explanation
    The media access control address, also known as MAC address, is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network. It is a unique identifier assigned to the network interface card of a device. The MAC address is used by the data link layer of the network protocol to ensure that data is sent to the correct destination. It is different from the network server name, subnet mask address, and node serial number, which serve different purposes in a network.

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  • 14. 

    How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    B. 4
    Explanation
    The standard internet protocol is broken down into 4 octets. Each octet consists of 8 bits, allowing for a total of 32 bits in the internet protocol. This division of the protocol into 4 octets helps in organizing and managing the addressing system of IP addresses, making it easier to allocate and route network traffic efficiently.

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  • 15. 

    What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?

    • A.

      01100000

    • B.

      01100110

    • C.

      00001100

    • D.

      10000001

    Correct Answer
    A. 01100000
    Explanation
    The binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96 is 01100000. This is because in binary, the number 96 is represented as 01100000.

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  • 16. 

    What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?

    • A.

      0.0.0.120

    • B.

      0.10.230.0

    • C.

      131.10.230.0

    • D.

      255.255.255.0

    Correct Answer
    C. 131.10.230.0
    Explanation
    The network id of an IP address is obtained by setting all the host bits to 0. In this case, the IP address is 131.10.230.120 with a subnet mask of /24, which means the first 24 bits are the network bits and the remaining 8 bits are the host bits. By setting the host bits to 0, we get the network id of 131.10.230.0.

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  • 17. 

    What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?

    • A.

      0.0.0.120

    • B.

      0.10.230.0

    • C.

      131.10.230.0

    • D.

      255.255.255.0

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.0.0.120
    Explanation
    The host id of an IP address is the portion of the address that identifies the specific device or host on a network. In this case, the IP address is 131.10.230.120/24, which means that the first 24 bits are the network portion and the remaining 8 bits are the host portion. Therefore, the host id is 0.0.0.120, as it represents the specific device within the network.

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  • 18. 

    How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?

    • A.

      24

    • B.

      48

    • C.

      64

    • D.

      128

    Correct Answer
    C. 64
    Explanation
    An internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask typically covers 64 bits. IPv6 uses a 128-bit address space, and the subnet mask is used to divide this address space into network and host portions. A subnet mask of 64 bits indicates that the first 64 bits of the address are used to identify the network, while the remaining 64 bits are used for host identification. This allows for a large number of unique network addresses and a vast number of hosts within each network.

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  • 19. 

    What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      29

    • C.

      30

    • D.

      33

    Correct Answer
    D. 33
    Explanation
    Air Force instruction series 33 covers communications and information.

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  • 20. 

    What Air Force instruction provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG)?

    • A.

      AFPD 33-1

    • B.

      AFI 33-112

    • C.

      AFI 33-115v1

    • D.

      AFI 29-2603v2

    Correct Answer
    C. AFI 33-115v1
    Explanation
    AFI 33-115v1 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force instruction that provides policy, direction, and structure for the Air Force global information grid (AF-GIG). This instruction outlines the guidelines and procedures for managing and securing the AF-GIG, which is the Air Force's network infrastructure. It ensures that the AF-GIG is properly maintained, protected, and utilized to support Air Force operations and communications.

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  • 21. 

    According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)?

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      2

    • C.

      3

    • D.

      4

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    According to the Air Force network structure, the Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC) is classified as tier 1.

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  • 22. 

    What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level customers?

    • A.

      Network control center (NCC)

    • B.

      Network control center-deployable (NCC-D)

    • C.

      Network operations center (NOSC)

    • D.

      Air Force network operations center (AFNOSC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Network control center (NCC)
    Explanation
    The network control center (NCC) is responsible for providing reliable and secure networks and network services for base level customers. They ensure that the network infrastructure is functioning properly and that all network services are available to the customers. The NCC monitors the network for any issues or anomalies and takes necessary actions to resolve them. They also implement security measures to protect the network from unauthorized access and cyber threats. Therefore, the NCC is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 23. 

    What is defined as a bundle of applications software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity?

    • A.

      Fault management server

    • B.

      Network management server

    • C.

      Performance management server

    • D.

      Security management server

    Correct Answer
    B. Network management server
    Explanation
    A network management server is a bundle of applications software designed to significantly improve network efficiency and productivity. It is responsible for monitoring and controlling network devices, analyzing network performance, and managing network configurations. By providing centralized management and control, a network management server helps administrators detect and resolve network issues, optimize network performance, and enhance overall productivity.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?

    • A.

      Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed 

    • B.

      Centralized, hybrid, and distributed

    • C.

      Centralized, hierarchical, and hybrid

    • D.

      Hybrid, hierarchical, and distributed

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed 
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed. These three network management architectures are commonly used in different network environments. In a centralized architecture, all management functions are performed by a central entity or system. In a hierarchical architecture, management functions are divided into different levels or tiers, with each level having its own responsibilities. In a distributed architecture, management functions are distributed across multiple entities or systems, allowing for greater scalability and fault tolerance.

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  • 25. 

    What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at a location that is responsible for all network management duties

    • A.

      Centralized

    • B.

      Distributed 

    • C.

      Hierarchical

    • D.

      Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    A. Centralized
    Explanation
    A centralized network architecture refers to a structure where all network management duties are handled by a single computer system located at a specific location. This means that all network management tasks, such as monitoring, troubleshooting, and configuration, are controlled and managed from this central system. This setup allows for a more efficient and streamlined management process as all network operations are centralized and can be easily controlled from one location.

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  • 26. 

    What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients?

    • A.

      Centralized

    • B.

      Distributed

    • C.

      Hierarchical

    • D.

      Hybrid

    Correct Answer
    C. Hierarchical
    Explanation
    Hierarchical network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system acting as a central server and the others working as clients. This architecture is structured in a hierarchical manner, where the central server has control and authority over the client systems. This allows for efficient management and control of the network, with the central server being responsible for tasks such as monitoring, security, and resource allocation. The client systems rely on the central server for guidance and coordination, creating a hierarchical relationship within the network.

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  • 27. 

    What level of network management activity are you working for at when you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?

    • A.

      Inactive

    • B.

      Interactive

    • C.

      Proactive

    • D.

      Reactive

    Correct Answer
    B. Interactive
    Explanation
    When you as the network manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause, you are working at the level of network management activity known as "Interactive." This level involves actively monitoring and troubleshooting the network, responding to alarms and issues as they arise, and taking necessary actions to resolve problems and maintain network performance.

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  • 28. 

    What level of network management activity are you working at when the automated monitoring components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem at-hand?

    • A.

      Inactive

    • B.

      Reactive

    • C.

      Interactive

    • D.

      Proactive

    Correct Answer
    D. Proactive
    Explanation
    When the automated monitoring components provide problem analysis and give a root cause alarm for the problem at hand, it indicates that the network management activity is at a proactive level. This means that the monitoring system is actively identifying and addressing potential issues before they become major problems. By detecting and analyzing problems in advance, proactive network management helps to prevent downtime and minimize disruptions to the network.

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  • 29. 

    Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?

    • A.

      Monitoring and analyzing

    • B.

      Monitoring and replacing

    • C.

      Monitoring and tuning

    • D.

      Analyzing and tuning

    Correct Answer
    C. Monitoring and tuning
    Explanation
    Performance management involves monitoring and analyzing the performance of a system or process. Monitoring refers to the continuous observation and measurement of performance metrics to identify any issues or deviations from desired performance levels. Tuning, on the other hand, involves making adjustments or optimizations to improve the performance based on the insights gained from monitoring and analyzing. Therefore, the correct answer is monitoring and tuning, as these two functional categories are essential for effective performance management.

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  • 30. 

    Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on the network?

    • A.

      Tuning

    • B.

      Analyzing

    • C.

      Gathering

    • D.

      Monitoring

    Correct Answer
    D. Monitoring
    Explanation
    Monitoring is the correct answer because it involves tracking activities on the network and gathering historical data. Monitoring helps to keep a close eye on the network's performance, detect any issues or anomalies, and analyze the data collected to make informed decisions about network optimization and improvement. It is an essential function of performance management as it allows for proactive maintenance and troubleshooting, ensuring the network operates efficiently and effectively.

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  • 31. 

    What network management area is concerned with controlling access points to information?

    • A.

      Configuration

    • B.

      Performance

    • C.

      Accounting

    • D.

      Security

    Correct Answer
    D. Security
    Explanation
    The network management area concerned with controlling access points to information is security. Security in network management involves implementing measures to protect the network from unauthorized access, ensuring data confidentiality, integrity, and availability. It includes setting up firewalls, implementing encryption, authentication mechanisms, access controls, and monitoring network traffic for any suspicious activities. By focusing on security, organizations can prevent unauthorized users from gaining access to sensitive information and ensure the overall safety of the network.

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  • 32. 

    What is the established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault?

    • A.

      Fault parameters

    • B.

      Tolerance parameters

    • C.

      Low-level software alarms

    • D.

      Low-level hardware alarms

    Correct Answer
    B. Tolerance parameters
    Explanation
    Tolerance parameters are established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and excessive errors because of a fault. These parameters define the acceptable range of errors or deviations from the expected performance. If errors are within the defined tolerance, they are considered normal and do not indicate a fault. However, if errors exceed the tolerance parameters, it suggests that there may be a fault or issue that needs to be addressed.

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  • 33. 

    Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of the operational system interface (OSI) model?

    • A.

      Session

    • B.

      Transport

    • C.

      Presentation

    • D.

      Application

    Correct Answer
    A. Session
    Explanation
    Network management protocols are designed to reside above the Session layer of the OSI model. The Session layer is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between devices. Network management protocols, such as SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), operate at a higher layer to monitor and control network devices, collect performance data, and manage network configurations. By residing above the Session layer, these protocols can effectively manage network resources and ensure smooth operation of the network.

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  • 34. 

    What is hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices?

    • A.

      Object identified

    • B.

      Network device map

    • C.

      Network protocol list

    • D.

      Management information base

    Correct Answer
    D. Management information base
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Management information base." The management information base (MIB) is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information available from network devices. It provides a standardized way to organize and access information about the devices on a network, such as their configuration, performance, and status. The MIB is used by network management systems to monitor and control network devices, allowing administrators to efficiently manage and troubleshoot the network.

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  • 35. 

    What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structured is reserved for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?

    • A.

      Management

    • B.

      Private

    • C.

      Directory

    • D.

      Experimental

    Correct Answer
    B. Private
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Private." In the SNMP tree structure, the private area is reserved for vendors to define their own label and leaf objects that are specific to their manufactured equipment. This allows vendors to create custom management information bases (MIBs) for their devices, extending the functionality and monitoring capabilities of SNMP beyond the standard MIBs defined by the SNMP protocol.

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  • 36. 

    What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring, collecting and reporting management data to the management system?

    • A.

      Primary domain controller (PDC)

    • B.

      Backup domain controller

    • C.

      Manager

    • D.

      Agent

    Correct Answer
    D. Agent
    Explanation
    An SNMP agent is responsible for monitoring, collecting, and reporting management data to the management system. It acts as the intermediary between the network devices and the management system, gathering information about the devices' performance, status, and configuration. The agent then sends this data to the management system, allowing administrators to monitor and manage the network effectively.

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  • 37. 

    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a specific instance of management information?

    • A.

      Get

    • B.

      Set

    • C.

      Trap

    • D.

      GetNext

    Correct Answer
    A. Get
    Explanation
    The Get SNMP message is used to request a specific instance of management information from a network device. This message is sent by the network management system to retrieve the value of a specific object or variable in the device's MIB (Management Information Base). The Get message allows the management system to obtain the current value of a specific parameter or statistic from the device.

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  • 38. 

    What operational simple network protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?

    • A.

      Get 

    • B.

      Set

    • C.

      Tra

    • D.

      GetNext

    Correct Answer
    D. GetNext
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "GetNext". The GetNext message is used in SNMP to retrieve multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead. It allows the SNMP manager to request the next variable binding in the MIB (Management Information Base) from the agent. This enables efficient retrieval of sequential data without having to send multiple individual requests.

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  • 39. 

    What operational simple network network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited message from an agent to the manager?

    • A.

      Get

    • B.

      Set

    • C.

      Trap

    • D.

      GetNext

    Correct Answer
    C. Trap
    Explanation
    A Trap message in SNMP is an unsolicited message sent from an agent to the manager. It is used to notify the manager about specific events or conditions that occur on the network device being monitored. Unlike other SNMP messages like Get, Set, and GetNext, which are initiated by the manager to gather information or make changes, a Trap message is sent by the agent without any request from the manager. It allows the agent to proactively inform the manager about important events or issues that require attention.

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  • 40. 

    What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information base (MIB)?

    • A.

      Virtual local area network (VLAN) probe

    • B.

      Neighbor probe

    • C.

      Containment probe

    • D.

      System information probe

    Correct Answer
    B. Neighbor probe
    Explanation
    A neighbor probe is a type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using proprietary topology management information base (MIB). This probe is specifically designed to gather information about neighboring devices in a network, such as their IP addresses, MAC addresses, and connectivity status. By collecting this information, the neighbor probe helps in monitoring and managing the network's connectivity and identifying any potential issues or faults in the network topology.

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  • 41. 

    What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application?

    • A.

      Broker

    • B.

      Clients

    • C.

      Map Console

    • D.

      Domain manager

    Correct Answer
    D. Domain manager
    Explanation
    A systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) application is a complex system that requires a central component to manage and track all the reports generated. This central component is known as the domain manager. It is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the entire SMARTS application, ensuring that reports are generated, tracked, and managed efficiently. The domain manager acts as the centerpiece of the system, connecting all the different components and ensuring smooth operation. Therefore, the domain manager is the correct answer as it plays a crucial role in the SMARTS application.

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  • 42. 

    What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information?

    • A.

      Get

    • B.

      Set

    • C.

      Trap

    • D.

      GetNext

    Correct Answer
    B. Set
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Set." In SNMP, the "Set" message is used to modify the value of one or more instances of management information. This message allows the network management system to update and configure parameters on network devices remotely. By sending a "Set" message, the management system can change the values of variables in the managed devices, enabling the administrator to control and manage the network effectively.

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  • 43. 

    What component of the systems management report tracking system (SMARTS) application contains knowledge of available domain managers?

    • A.

      Broker

    • B.

      Clients

    • C.

      Probes

    • D.

      Consoles

    Correct Answer
    A. Broker
    Explanation
    The component of the SMARTS application that contains knowledge of available domain managers is the Broker. The Broker acts as a mediator between the clients and the domain managers, allowing the clients to access and interact with the domain managers. It maintains information about the availability and status of the domain managers, enabling efficient communication and coordination within the system.

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  • 44. 

    What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) notifications?

    • A.

      Compound events, alarm, and trend

    • B.

      Compound events, problems, and network

    • C.

      Auto discovery, compound, symptomatic events

    • D.

      Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events

    Correct Answer
    D. Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events." This is because these three types of notifications are commonly used in systems management automated report tracking systems (SMARTS). Compound events refer to multiple events that occur simultaneously or in a specific sequence. Problems are notifications that indicate an issue or error in the system. Symptomatic events are notifications that indicate a specific symptom or indication of a problem. Together, these three types of notifications help to track and manage system events effectively.

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  • 45. 

    What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS) alarm log indicates one or more events?

    • A.

      Blue 

    • B.

      Orange

    • C.

      Purple

    • D.

      Yellow

    Correct Answer
    C. Purple
    Explanation
    Purple color on the SMARTS alarm log indicates one or more events. This color is used to highlight and draw attention to events that have occurred within the systems management automated report tracking system. It signifies that there have been certain activities or incidents that need to be addressed or investigated.

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  • 46. 

    How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you about your network?

    • A.

      7

    • B.

      14

    • C.

      19

    • D.

      21

    Correct Answer
    D. 21
    Explanation
    The performance monitor provides you with 21 different categories of information about your network. This suggests that the performance monitor offers a comprehensive range of data and insights regarding the network's performance. It implies that users can access detailed information about various aspects of the network, such as bandwidth usage, packet loss, latency, and other performance metrics.

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  • 47. 

    What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software?

    • A.

      Systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)

    • B.

      Protocol analyzer

    • C.

      Network root router

    • D.

      Windows advanced server

    Correct Answer
    B. Protocol analyzer
    Explanation
    A protocol analyzer is a device that allows for digital network diagnostics and the development of communications software. It is used to capture and analyze network traffic, helping to identify and troubleshoot issues within a network. By examining the protocol packets, a protocol analyzer can provide insights into the performance and behavior of a network, making it an essential tool for network administrators and developers.

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  • 48. 

    What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol?

    • A.

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics

    • B.

      Connection statistics

    • C.

      Protocol statistics 

    • D.

      Node discovery

    Correct Answer
    C. Protocol statistics 
    Explanation
    Protocol statistics provide information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are related to a specific protocol. This means that by analyzing protocol statistics, one can gather data on how efficiently the network is being utilized and identify any errors or issues that are specific to a particular protocol. This information is valuable for troubleshooting and optimizing network performance.

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  • 49. 

    What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?

    • A.

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics 

    • B.

      Connection statistics

    • C.

      Protocol statistics 

    • D.

      Node discovery

    Correct Answer
    A. Media access control (MAC) node statistics 
    Explanation
    Media access control (MAC) node statistics report errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers. The MAC layer is responsible for controlling access to the physical medium and ensuring the integrity of data transmission. By monitoring MAC node statistics, errors at the physical layer can be detected and analyzed, allowing for troubleshooting and corrective actions to be taken.

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  • 50. 

    What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?

    • A.

      Media access control (MAC)

    • B.

      Connection statistics

    • C.

      Protocol statistics

    • D.

      Node  discovery

    Correct Answer
    D. Node  discovery
    Explanation
    When the protocol analyzer application is activated, the process of node discovery automatically runs in the background. Node discovery refers to the identification and mapping of network devices or nodes within a network. This process helps in determining the devices present on the network and their respective addresses. By running node discovery, the protocol analyzer can gather information about the network topology and assist in troubleshooting network issues.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 17, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 26, 2021
    Quiz Created by
    Themes
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