Physical And Chemical Examination Of Urine Quiz

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Physical And Chemical Examination Of Urine Quiz - Quiz

Dive into the intricacies of healthcare with our "Physical and Chemical Examination of Urine Quiz." Test your understanding of the diagnostic processes crucial for assessing health through urine analysis. Explore the fundamentals of physical and chemical examinations, covering aspects like color, pH, and chemical composition.

This quiz challenges your knowledge on interpreting urine test results and their significance in detecting various medical conditions. Whether you're a healthcare professional or curious about the science behind urine analysis, this quiz offers a comprehensive exploration of the vital diagnostic procedures used to gain insights into an individual's health.

Unveil the mysteries of urine Read moreexamination and enhance your awareness of the valuable information it provides in medical assessments. Take the quiz now to assess your proficiency in the physical and chemical examination of urine!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TESTS IS CLIA WAIVED?

    • A.

      QUANTITATIVE URINE BETA HGC TEST

    • B.

      CHEMICAL ANALYSIS OF URINE BY REAGENT STRIP METHOD

    • C.

      MICROSCOPIC EVALUATION OF URINE

    Correct Answer
    B. CHEMICAL ANALYSIS OF URINE BY REAGENT STRIP METHOD
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "CHEMICAL ANALYSIS OF URINE BY REAGENT STRIP METHOD" because this test is considered CLIA waived. CLIA waived tests are simple laboratory examinations and procedures that have been cleared by the FDA for home use and are considered to be simple and accurate enough to be performed without the need for extensive laboratory training or supervision. The other two options, quantitative urine beta HGC test and microscopic evaluation of urine, are not considered CLIA waived tests.

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  • 2. 

    CHOOSE ALL THAT TEST THAT CAN BE FOUND ON A URINE REAGENT STRIP.

    • A.

      PH

    • B.

      GLUCOSE

    • C.

      BILIRUBIN

    • D.

      URIOBILINOGEN

    • E.

      KETONES

    • F.

      BLOOD

    • G.

      PROTEIN

    • H.

      SPECIFIC GRAVITY

    • I.

      NITRITE

    • J.

      LEUKOCYTE ESTERASE

    • K.

      MILK

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. PH
    B. GLUCOSE
    C. BILIRUBIN
    D. URIOBILINOGEN
    E. KETONES
    F. BLOOD
    G. PROTEIN
    H. SPECIFIC GRAVITY
    I. NITRITE
    J. LEUKOCYTE ESTERASE
    Explanation
    A urine reagent strip is used to test various components present in urine. The given answer includes all the components that can be tested using a urine reagent strip. pH, glucose, bilirubin, urobilinogen, ketones, blood, protein, specific gravity, nitrite, and leukocyte esterase are all commonly tested parameters in a urine analysis. However, milk is not a component that is typically tested using a urine reagent strip.

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  • 3. 

    CHECK ALL CONDITIONS THAT THE CHEMICAL ANALYSIS OF URINE CAN PROVIDE INFORMATION FOR:

    • A.

      CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM

    • B.

      KIDNEY FUNCTION

    • C.

      LIVER FUNCTION

    • D.

      PH BALANCE

    • E.

      TEETH FUNCTION

    • F.

      KIDNEY FUNCTION

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. CARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM
    B. KIDNEY FUNCTION
    C. LIVER FUNCTION
    D. PH BALANCE
    F. KIDNEY FUNCTION
    Explanation
    The chemical analysis of urine can provide information for carbohydrate metabolism, kidney function, liver function, and pH balance. The presence of certain substances in urine can indicate abnormalities in carbohydrate metabolism, such as the presence of glucose in cases of diabetes. The levels of certain chemicals and waste products in urine can also indicate how well the kidneys are functioning, as they are responsible for filtering waste from the blood. Similarly, the liver plays a role in detoxification and metabolism, and abnormalities in liver function can be detected through urine analysis. pH balance refers to the acidity or alkalinity of urine, which can be indicative of certain health conditions.

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  • 4. 

    CHECK ALL KETONES.

    • A.

      ACETONE

    • B.

      ACETOACETIC ACID

    • C.

      BETAHYDROXYBUTYRIC ACID

    • D.

      BORIC ACID

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. ACETONE
    B. ACETOACETIC ACID
    C. BETAHYDROXYBUTYRIC ACID
    Explanation
    The correct answer is ACETONE, ACETOACETIC ACID, BETAHYDROXYBUTYRIC ACID because these are all examples of ketones. Ketones are organic compounds that have a carbonyl group (C=O) bonded to two other carbon atoms. Acetone, acetoacetic acid, and betahydroxybutyric acid all have this structure, making them ketones. Boric acid, on the other hand, is not a ketone. It is a weak acid that contains boron, oxygen, and hydrogen atoms but does not have a carbonyl group.

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  • 5. 

    DIRECT LIGHT CAUSES THE DECOMPOSITION OF ___________, SO SPECIMEN SHOULD BE PROTECTED FROM LIGHT UNTIL TESTING IS COMPLETE.

    Correct Answer(s)
    BILIRUBIN
    Explanation
    Bilirubin is a pigment produced by the breakdown of red blood cells. Direct light can cause the decomposition of bilirubin, which means that it can break down and become ineffective. Therefore, to ensure accurate testing results, the specimen should be protected from light until the testing is complete.

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  • 6. 

    THE TWO TYPES OF SERUM PROTEINS ARE:

    • A.

      ALBUMIN

    • B.

      GLOBULIN

    • C.

      HDL

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. ALBUMIN
    B. GLOBULIN
    Explanation
    The two types of serum proteins are albumin and globulin. Albumin is the most abundant protein in the blood and is responsible for maintaining osmotic pressure and transporting various substances such as hormones, drugs, and fatty acids. Globulin is a group of proteins that play a role in immune function, blood clotting, and transport of lipids and metal ions. HDL, which stands for high-density lipoprotein, is not a type of serum protein but rather a type of lipoprotein that helps remove cholesterol from the bloodstream.

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  • 7. 

    MENSTRUATION CAN CAUSE A FALSE  POSITIVE ___________ TEST.

    • A.

      BLOOD

    • B.

      BILIRUBIN

    • C.

      GLUCOSE

    Correct Answer
    A. BLOOD
    Explanation
    During menstruation, there is a presence of blood in the vaginal discharge. This blood can potentially interfere with the results of certain tests, leading to a false positive result. Therefore, in the context of the given question, menstruation can cause a false positive blood test.

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  • 8. 

    THE REFERENCE RANGE OF URINE GLUCOSE IS:

    • A.

      NEGATIVE

    • B.

      5.0 - 8.0

    • C.

      NEGATIVE OR TRACE

    • D.

      SPECIFIC GRAVITY

    • E.

      1.010 - 1.025

    • F.

      0.0 - 1.0mg/dL

    Correct Answer
    A. NEGATIVE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "NEGATIVE" because the reference range for urine glucose is usually negative, meaning that there should be no glucose present in the urine. Glucose is typically filtered out by the kidneys and reabsorbed back into the bloodstream, so its presence in the urine may indicate a problem with glucose regulation, such as diabetes. Therefore, a negative result is considered within the normal range.

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  • 9. 

    THE REFERENCE RANGE OF URINE BILIRUBIN IS:

    • A.

      NEGATIVE

    • B.

      5.0 - 8.0

    • C.

      NEGATIVE OR TRACE

    • D.

      SPECIFIC GRAVITY

    • E.

      1.010 - 1.025

    • F.

      0.0 - 1.0mg/dL

    Correct Answer
    A. NEGATIVE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "NEGATIVE". This is because the reference range for urine bilirubin is negative, meaning that there should be no presence of bilirubin in the urine. Bilirubin is a pigment that is produced when red blood cells are broken down, and its presence in the urine can indicate liver or gallbladder dysfunction. Therefore, a negative result is considered within the normal range.

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  • 10. 

    THE REFERENCE RANGE OF URINE KETONES IS:

    • A.

      NEGATIVE

    • B.

      5.0 - 8.0

    • C.

      NEGATIVE OR TRACE

    • D.

      SPECIFIC GRAVITY

    • E.

      1.010 - 1.025

    • F.

      0.0 - 1.0mg/dL

    Correct Answer
    A. NEGATIVE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is NEGATIVE. This is because the reference range for urine ketones is negative, meaning that there should be no presence of ketones in the urine. Ketones in the urine can be a sign of uncontrolled diabetes or other metabolic disorders. Therefore, a negative result is considered normal and healthy.

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  • 11. 

    THE REFERENCE RANGE OF URINE BLOOD IS:

    • A.

      NEGATIVE

    • B.

      5.0 - 8.0

    • C.

      NEGATIVE OR TRACE

    • D.

      SPECIFIC GRAVITY

    • E.

      1.010 - 1.025

    • F.

      0.0 - 1.0mg/dL

    Correct Answer
    A. NEGATIVE
    Explanation
    The reference range for urine blood is negative. This means that there should be no presence of blood in the urine. If blood is detected in the urine, it may indicate an underlying medical condition such as a urinary tract infection, kidney stones, or bladder cancer. Monitoring the presence of blood in the urine can help in diagnosing and managing these conditions.

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  • 12. 

    THE REFERENCE RANGE OF URINE NITRITES IS:

    • A.

      NEGATIVE

    • B.

      5.0 - 8.0

    • C.

      NEGATIVE OR TRACE

    • D.

      SPECIFIC GRAVITY

    • E.

      1.010 - 1.025

    • F.

      0.0 - 1.0mg/dL

    Correct Answer
    A. NEGATIVE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "NEGATIVE". This means that the reference range for urine nitrates is expected to be negative, indicating the absence of nitrates in the urine sample.

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  • 13. 

    THE REFERENCE RANGE OF URINE LEUKOCYTE ESTERASE IS:

    • A.

      NEGATIVE

    • B.

      5.0 - 8.0

    • C.

      NEGATIVE OR TRACE

    • D.

      SPECIFIC GRAVITY

    • E.

      1.010 - 1.025

    • F.

      0.0 - 1.0mg/dL

    Correct Answer
    A. NEGATIVE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "NEGATIVE" because the reference range for urine leukocyte esterase is negative. This means that if the test result shows a negative value for leukocyte esterase, it indicates the absence of white blood cells in the urine, which is considered normal.

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  • 14. 

    THE REFERENCE RANGE OF URINE pH IS:

    • A.

      NEGATIVE

    • B.

      5.0 - 8.0

    • C.

      NEGATIVE OR TRACE

    • D.

      SPECIFIC GRAVITY

    • E.

      1.010 - 1.025

    • F.

      0.0 - 1.0mg/dL

    Correct Answer
    B. 5.0 - 8.0
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 5.0 - 8.0. The pH of urine is a measure of its acidity or alkalinity. A pH value of 7 is considered neutral, values below 7 are acidic, and values above 7 are alkaline. The normal range for urine pH is 5.0 - 8.0, indicating that urine can be slightly acidic to slightly alkaline. This range is important for maintaining the balance of acids and bases in the body and can be influenced by factors such as diet, hydration, and certain medical conditions.

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  • 15. 

    THE REFERENCE RANGE OF URINE  PROTEIN IS:

    • A.

      NEGATIVE

    • B.

      5.0 - 8.0

    • C.

      NEGATIVE OR TRACE

    • D.

      SPECIFIC GRAVITY

    • E.

      1.010 - 1.025

    • F.

      0.0 - 1.0mg/dL

    Correct Answer
    C. NEGATIVE OR TRACE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "NEGATIVE OR TRACE". This means that the reference range for urine protein is either negative (no protein present) or trace amounts of protein.

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  • 16. 

    THE REFERENCE RANGE OF URINE SPECIFIC GRAVITY IS:

    • A.

      NEGATIVE

    • B.

      5.0 - 8.0

    • C.

      NEGATIVE OR TRACE

    • D.

      SPECIFIC GRAVITY

    • E.

      1.010 - 1.025

    • F.

      0.0 - 1.0mg/dL

    Correct Answer
    E. 1.010 - 1.025
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1.010 - 1.025. The specific gravity of urine refers to the concentration of solutes in the urine compared to pure water. A specific gravity of 1.010 - 1.025 is considered normal for urine, indicating a healthy level of hydration. A lower specific gravity may suggest overhydration, while a higher specific gravity may indicate dehydration or other medical conditions.

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  • 17. 

    THE REFERENCE RANGE OF URINE UROBILINOGEN IS:

    • A.

      NEGATIVE

    • B.

      5.0 - 8.0

    • C.

      NEGATIVE OR TRACE

    • D.

      SPECIFIC GRAVITY

    • E.

      1.010 - 1.025

    • F.

      0.0 - 1.0mg/dL

    Correct Answer
    F. 0.0 - 1.0mg/dL
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0.0 - 1.0mg/dL. This range represents the normal level of urobilinogen in urine. Urobilinogen is a product of the breakdown of bilirubin, which is formed during the breakdown of red blood cells. Normal levels of urobilinogen indicate a healthy liver function, as the liver is responsible for processing bilirubin. Higher levels of urobilinogen may indicate liver disease or other conditions affecting the liver, while lower levels may suggest a blockage in the bile ducts or other issues with bilirubin metabolism.

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  • 18. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ANALYTES RESULT CAN BE AFFECTED BY URINE pH, AND SHOULD THEREFORE BE CHECKED BY ANOTHER METHOD?

    • A.

      SPECIFIC GRAVITY

    • B.

      NITRITE

    • C.

      GLUCOSE

    Correct Answer
    A. SPECIFIC GRAVITY
    Explanation
    Urine pH can affect the specific gravity of urine. Specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in urine, which can be influenced by urine pH. Therefore, when checking for specific gravity, it is important to consider the urine pH and potentially use another method to confirm the results.

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  • 19. 

    CHECK ALL THAT APPLY. GRAM NEGATIVE BACTERIAL UTI (CAUSE BY ORGANISMS LIKE EXAMPLE Escherichia coli, Klebsiella Proteus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa) WILL CAUSE A POSITIVE TEST RESULT IN  ____________

    • A.

      NITRATE

    • B.

      NITRITE

    • C.

      LEUKOCYTE ESTERASE

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. NITRITE
    C. LEUKOCYTE ESTERASE
    Explanation
    In a Gram-negative bacterial urinary tract infection (UTI), the bacteria involved (such as Escherichia coli, Klebsiella Proteus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa) produce an enzyme called nitrate reductase. This enzyme converts nitrate (NO3-) to nitrite (NO2-). Therefore, the presence of nitrite in a urine test indicates the presence of these bacteria. Additionally, a Gram-negative bacterial UTI also causes inflammation and immune response, leading to the presence of white blood cells (leukocytes) in the urine. Therefore, the presence of leukocyte esterase, an enzyme produced by white blood cells, is also indicative of a Gram-negative bacterial UTI.

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  • 20. 

    SOME BACTERIA DO NOT HAVE THE ABILITY TO CONVERT THE NITRATES TO NITRITES. WILL LEUKOCYTE ESTERASE STILL BE POSITIVE?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    If some bacteria do not have the ability to convert nitrates to nitrites, it means that the presence of nitrates will not be converted to nitrites by these bacteria. Leukocyte esterase is a test that detects the presence of white blood cells in urine, indicating an infection. The presence of nitrates in urine can also indicate an infection. Since the bacteria in question cannot convert nitrates to nitrites, the leukocyte esterase test will still be positive even if nitrates are present. Therefore, the correct answer is true.

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  • 21. 

    CHECK THE THREE CONFIRMATORY TESTS.

    • A.

      GLUCOSE

    • B.

      PROTEIN

    • C.

      KETONES

    • D.

      BILIRUBIN

    • E.

      UROBILINOGEN

    • F.

      PH

    • G.

      NITRITE

    Correct Answer(s)
    B. PROTEIN
    C. KETONES
    D. BILIRUBIN
    Explanation
    The correct answer is PROTEIN, KETONES, and BILIRUBIN. These three substances are commonly tested in urine to assess kidney function and detect any abnormalities. Protein in urine may indicate kidney damage or disease, while the presence of ketones can indicate a metabolic disorder or uncontrolled diabetes. Bilirubin in urine can be a sign of liver dysfunction or obstruction of the bile ducts. Therefore, checking for these three substances can provide valuable information about the overall health of the urinary and digestive systems.

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  • 22. 

    NEWBORN BABIES WILL USUALLY NOT HAVE A SPECIFIC GRAVITY VALUE AS HIGH AS AN ADULT.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Newborn babies will usually not have a specific gravity value as high as an adult because their bodies contain a higher percentage of water. Specific gravity is a measure of the density of a substance compared to the density of water. Since newborns have a higher water content in their bodies, their specific gravity will be lower than that of an adult who has a lower water content and a higher density. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 23. 

    THE INDICATOR OF EARLY RENAL DISEASE IS:

    • A.

      GLUCOSE

    • B.

      MICROALBUMIN

    • C.

      BILIRUBIN

    Correct Answer
    B. MICROALBUMIN
    Explanation
    Microalbumin is a protein that is normally found in the blood at very low levels. However, when the kidneys are not functioning properly, small amounts of albumin can leak into the urine. This is known as microalbuminuria and it is an early indicator of renal disease. Monitoring microalbumin levels can help detect kidney damage in its early stages, allowing for timely intervention and treatment to prevent further complications. Glucose and bilirubin are not specific indicators of renal disease and are not commonly used to assess kidney function.

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  • 24. 

    CONFIRMATORY TEST FOR PROTEIN IN THE URINE, IN WHICH DILUTE SULFOSALICYLIC ACID OR ACETIC ACID CAN CAUSE ANY PROTEIN (ALBUMIN AND GLOBULIN) PRESENT IN THE URINE TO PRECIPITATE IS CALLED

    • A.

      ICTOTEST

    • B.

      ACETEST

    • C.

      PROTEIN PRECIPITATION TEST

    • D.

      KETODIASTIX

    • E.

      MICROALBUMIN TEST STRIPS

    • F.

      CLINITEST

    Correct Answer
    C. PROTEIN PRECIPITATION TEST
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "PROTEIN PRECIPITATION TEST". This test is used to confirm the presence of protein in urine. It involves the use of dilute sulfosalicylic acid or acetic acid, which causes any protein present in the urine (such as albumin and globulin) to precipitate. This precipitation can then be observed and confirmed as a positive result for protein in the urine. The other options listed are not specific tests for protein in urine.

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  • 25. 

    CONFIRMATORY TEST FOR BILIRUBIN, WHICH IS FOUR TIMES AS SENSITIVE AS THE REAGENT STRIP METHOD.

    • A.

      ICTOTEST

    • B.

      ACETEST

    • C.

      PROTEIN PRECIPITATION TEST

    • D.

      KETODIASTIX

    • E.

      MICROALBUMIN TEST STRIPS

    • F.

      CLINITEST

    Correct Answer
    A. ICTOTEST
    Explanation
    ICTOTEST is the correct answer because it is a confirmatory test for bilirubin that is four times as sensitive as the reagent strip method. This means that ICTOTEST can detect lower levels of bilirubin in a sample compared to the reagent strip method, making it a more accurate and reliable test for measuring bilirubin levels.

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  • 26. 

    CONFIRMATORY TEST FOR KETONES, WHICH CAN BE USED FOR BOTH URINE AND SERUM IS:

    • A.

      ICTOTEST

    • B.

      ACETEST

    • C.

      PROTEIN PRECIPITATION TEST

    • D.

      KETODIASTIX

    • E.

      MICROALBUMIN TEST STRIPS

    • F.

      CLINITEST

    Correct Answer
    B. ACETEST
    Explanation
    ACETEST is a confirmatory test for ketones that can be used for both urine and serum. It is a reliable and widely used method to detect the presence of ketones in the body. This test involves the use of a reagent strip that changes color in the presence of ketones. By performing the ACETEST, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose ketosis or ketoacidosis, which are conditions characterized by elevated levels of ketones in the body. It is an important test to monitor and manage conditions such as diabetes and other metabolic disorders.

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  • 27. 

    TEST STRIPS USED DETECT AMOUNT OF TEH PROTEIN ALBUMIN TOO LOW TO BE DETECTED WITH ROUTINE CHEMISTRY REAGENT STRIP.

    • A.

      ICTOTEST

    • B.

      ACETEST

    • C.

      PROTEIN PRECIPITATION TEST

    • D.

      KETODIASTIX

    • E.

      MICROALBUMIN TEST STRIPS

    • F.

      CLINITEST

    Correct Answer
    E. MICROALBUMIN TEST STRIPS
  • 28. 

    A COPPER REDUCTION TEST THAT CAN DETECT REDUCING SUGARS LIKE FRUCTOSE, GLUCOSE, AND GALACTOSE.

    • A.

      ICTOTEST

    • B.

      ACETEST

    • C.

      PROTEIN PRECIPITATION TEST

    • D.

      KETODIASTIX

    • E.

      MICROALBUMIN TEST STRIPS

    • F.

      CLINITEST

    Correct Answer
    F. CLINITEST
    Explanation
    Clinitest is the correct answer because it is a copper reduction test that can detect reducing sugars like fructose, glucose, and galactose. This test is commonly used to detect the presence of glucose in urine, which can be an indicator of diabetes. The Clinitest tablets contain copper sulfate and sodium carbonate, and when mixed with a urine sample, any reducing sugars present will cause the blue solution to change color. This color change indicates the presence and concentration of reducing sugars in the urine.

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  • 29. 

    ONE OF THE CONDITIONS THAT THE CLINITEST TEST CAN BE USED FOR IS GALACTOSURIA.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The Clinitest test can be used to detect galactosuria. Galactosuria is a condition characterized by the presence of galactose in the urine. The Clinitest test is a diagnostic tool that measures the presence of reducing substances, including galactose, in the urine. Therefore, it is true that the Clinitest test can be used for the detection of galactosuria.

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  • 30. 

    IS THE CLINITEST TABLET TEST ROUTINELY USED TO DETECT DIABETES MELLITUS?

    • A.

      YES

    • B.

      NO

    Correct Answer
    B. NO
    Explanation
    The Clinitest tablet test is not routinely used to detect diabetes mellitus. This test is primarily used to detect the presence of reducing substances in urine, which can indicate conditions such as liver disease or certain types of metabolic disorders. The diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is typically done through blood tests that measure blood glucose levels. Therefore, the correct answer is NO.

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  • 31. 

    SOME TESTS THAT WERE ONLY POSSIBLE WITH THE 24 HOUR TESTS  LIKE PROTEIN TO CREATININE RATIO CAN BE TESTED FOR BY USING MICROALBUMIN STRIPS WHICH HAVE PADS FOR CREATININE TEST AND MICROALBUMIN?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Microalbumin strips with pads for creatinine test can be used to test for protein to creatinine ratio. This allows for testing that was previously only possible with 24-hour tests to be done more conveniently and quickly. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 32. 

    EARLY DETECTION OF MICROALBUMINURIA ALLOWS KIDNEY DAMAGE TO BE RECOGNIZED IN TIME TO INTERVENE WITH TREATMENT AND SLOW OR PREVENT FURTHER RENAL DAMAGE.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Early detection of microalbuminuria allows kidney damage to be recognized in time to intervene with treatment and slow or prevent further renal damage. This means that if microalbuminuria is detected early, appropriate measures can be taken to manage and treat the condition, potentially preventing or slowing down the progression of kidney damage. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 33. 

    IT IS IMPORTANT TO REMOVE EXCESS URINE FROM THE REAGENT STRIP BY TOUCHING THE EDGE OF THE STRIP TO THE EDGE OF THE URINE CONTAINER AS THE STRIP IS WITHDRAWN FROM THE URINE.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Removing excess urine from the reagent strip by touching the edge of the strip to the edge of the urine container as the strip is withdrawn is important because it helps to ensure accurate test results. If excess urine is not removed, it can interfere with the reaction between the reagents on the strip and the components in the urine, leading to inaccurate results. By removing excess urine, the reagent strip is able to properly react with the urine sample, providing reliable and accurate test results.

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  • 34. 

    THE TIMING OF THE REACTIONS ON A DIP STICK SHOULD START.

    • A.

      AS SOON AS THE STRIP IS WITHDRAWN FROM URINE

    • B.

      5 SECONDS AFTER THE STRIP IS WITHDRAWN FROM URINE

    • C.

      10 SECONDS AFTER THE STRIP IS WITHDRAWN FROM URINE

    Correct Answer
    A. AS SOON AS THE STRIP IS WITHDRAWN FROM URINE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "AS SOON AS THE STRIP IS WITHDRAWN FROM URINE". This is because the timing of the reactions on a dip stick should start immediately after the strip is taken out of the urine. Waiting for 5 or 10 seconds may lead to inaccurate results as the reactions may already be underway. Therefore, it is important to start the timing as soon as the strip is withdrawn to ensure accurate and reliable results.

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  • 35. 

    AFTER REMOVING THE REAGENT STRIP FROM THE URINE,

    • A.

      ALLOW EXCESS URINE TO CARRY REAGENT FROM ONE REAGENT PAD TO THE NEXT

    • B.

      QUICKLY BLOT EXCESS URINE ON ABSORBENT PAPER

    Correct Answer
    B. QUICKLY BLOT EXCESS URINE ON ABSORBENT PAPER
    Explanation
    After removing the reagent strip from the urine, excess urine should be quickly blotted on absorbent paper. This is because allowing excess urine to carry reagent from one reagent pad to the next can lead to inaccurate results. Blotting the excess urine helps to remove any excess liquid that could interfere with the reaction between the reagent and the urine sample, ensuring more accurate and reliable test results.

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  • 36. 

    WHAT IS THE PREFERRED SPECIMEN FOR ROUTINE CHEMICAL EXAMINATION OF URINE?

    • A.

      LATE NIGHT TIMED TEST

    • B.

      24 HOUR SPECIMEN

    • C.

      FIRST MORNING MIDSTREAM SPECIMEN

    Correct Answer
    C. FIRST MORNING MIDSTREAM SPECIMEN
    Explanation
    The preferred specimen for routine chemical examination of urine is the first morning midstream specimen. This is because it is the most concentrated and representative of the overall composition of urine. It is collected after a period of overnight urine accumulation, which allows for the detection of abnormalities such as urinary tract infections or kidney diseases. Additionally, the midstream collection method reduces the risk of contamination from the external genitalia, ensuring accurate test results.

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  • 37. 

    A POSITIVE NITRITE OR LEUKOCYTE ESTERASE SHOULD BE CONFIRMED BY MICROSCOPIC EXAMINATION OF URINE SEDIMENT.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A positive nitrite or leukocyte esterase result in a urine test indicates the presence of bacteria or white blood cells in the urine, which can be indicative of a urinary tract infection. To confirm this result, a microscopic examination of the urine sediment is necessary. This examination allows for a more detailed analysis of the urine sample, including the identification of specific types of bacteria or white blood cells, which can help in diagnosing the underlying cause of the infection. Therefore, the statement that a positive nitrite or leukocyte esterase should be confirmed by microscopic examination of urine sediment is true.

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  • 38. 

    POSITIVE OR ABNORMAL RESULTS SHOULD BE CONFIRMED ACCORDING TO LABORATORY POLICY.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement suggests that when there are positive or abnormal results in a laboratory test, it is important to confirm them according to the laboratory's policy. This implies that the laboratory has specific guidelines and protocols in place to ensure accuracy and reliability of test results. Confirming such results helps to minimize errors, false positives, or false negatives, ensuring that patients receive appropriate diagnosis and treatment based on reliable test results. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 39. 

    SEDIMENTS SHOULD BE ALLOWED TO SETTLE BEFORE TESTING THE REAGENT STRIP.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    It is not necessary to allow sediments to settle before testing the reagent strip. Sediments can interfere with the accuracy of the test results, so it is important to ensure that the sample is properly mixed before testing. Waiting for sediments to settle may cause delays in obtaining the test results and is not a recommended practice. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 40. 

    URINE SHOULD BE CENTRIFUGED BEFORE TESTING THE REAGENT STRIP.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Urine should not be centrifuged before testing the reagent strip. Centrifugation is a process used to separate solid particles from a liquid by spinning it at high speed. However, in the case of testing reagent strips, centrifugation can interfere with the accuracy of the results. The reagent strip is designed to react with the components in the urine sample, and centrifuging the urine can cause the separation of these components, leading to inaccurate results. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 41. 

    URINE SHOULD BE WELL MIXED BEFORE CHEMICAL EXAMINATION BY REAGENT STRIP.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Urine should be well mixed before chemical examination by a reagent strip because it ensures that the sample is homogeneous and any abnormalities or substances present in the urine are evenly distributed. This allows for accurate and consistent results when using the reagent strip to test for various chemical components in the urine, such as pH, protein, glucose, and ketones. Mixing the urine sample helps to avoid any potential bias or variability in the results that could occur if the sample is not thoroughly mixed.

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  • 42. 

    REAGENT STRIP TESTING ON A RECENTLY VOIDED URINE SHOULD BE PERFORMED WITHIN.

    • A.

      1-2 HOURS

    • B.

      5-6 HOURS

    • C.

      24 HOURS

    Correct Answer
    A. 1-2 HOURS
    Explanation
    Reagent strip testing on a recently voided urine should be performed within 1-2 hours because the urine sample starts to degrade and break down over time, which can affect the accuracy of the test results. Waiting for longer than 1-2 hours may lead to inaccurate results as the chemical composition of the urine changes. Therefore, it is important to perform the test as soon as possible after voiding to ensure the most reliable and accurate results.

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  • 43. 

    A REFRIGERATED URINE SPECIMEN SHOULD BE TESTED.

    • A.

      THE SECOND IT IS TAKEN OUT OF THE REFRIGERATOR

    • B.

      AFTER IT COMES TO ROOM TEMPERATURE

    Correct Answer
    B. AFTER IT COMES TO ROOM TEMPERATURE
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "AFTER IT COMES TO ROOM TEMPERATURE". This is because testing a refrigerated urine specimen immediately after taking it out of the refrigerator may lead to inaccurate results. It is important to allow the specimen to reach room temperature before testing to ensure accurate and reliable results.

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  • 44. 

    SPECIMEN CAN BE KEPT REFRIGERATED FOR UP TO.

    • A.

      4 HOURS

    • B.

      8 HOURS

    • C.

      12 HOURS

    • D.

      16 HOURS

    Correct Answer
    A. 4 HOURS
    Explanation
    The specimen can be kept refrigerated for up to 4 hours. This means that after 4 hours, the specimen may no longer be viable or suitable for testing. Keeping the specimen refrigerated helps to slow down the growth of microorganisms and preserve the integrity of the specimen. It is important to adhere to the recommended time limit to ensure accurate and reliable test results.

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  • 45. 

    URINE SHOULD BE KEPT IN THE DARK, TIGHTLY COVERED UNTIL TESTED TO PREVENT ____________

    • A.

      VOLATILE COMPONENTS LIKE KETONES

    • B.

      LIGHT-SENSITIVE LIKE BILIRUBIN

    • C.

      SUGAR TOLERANT LIKE GLUCOSE

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. VOLATILE COMPONENTS LIKE KETONES
    B. LIGHT-SENSITIVE LIKE BILIRUBIN
    Explanation
    Urine should be kept in the dark and tightly covered until tested to prevent the degradation or alteration of volatile components like ketones and light-sensitive substances like bilirubin. Exposure to light and air can cause these components to break down or react, leading to inaccurate test results. By keeping the urine in a dark and tightly covered container, the integrity of these components is preserved, ensuring more reliable test outcomes.

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  • 46. 

     A GOOD COMPREHENSIVE QUALITY ASSESSMENT (MONITORING) PROGRAM IN THE URINALYSIS SHOULD INCLUDE _____________________ 

    • A.

      SPECIMEN COLLECTION

    • B.

      QUALITY CONTROL AND TESTING

    • C.

      REPORTING

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. SPECIMEN COLLECTION
    B. QUALITY CONTROL AND TESTING
    C. REPORTING
    Explanation
    A good comprehensive quality assessment (monitoring) program in urinalysis should include specimen collection, quality control and testing, and reporting. Specimen collection is important to ensure that the sample obtained is representative of the patient's urine and is free from contamination. Quality control and testing involve following standardized procedures, using proper equipment, and ensuring accuracy and precision in the analysis of the urine sample. Reporting involves documenting and communicating the results accurately and in a timely manner to healthcare providers for appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

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  • 47. 

    TECHNICIANS MUST PASS A COLOR BLINDNESS BEFORE BEING ALLOWED TO REPORT MANUAL URINE REAGENT STRIP RESULTS.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Technicians must pass a color blindness test before being allowed to report manual urine reagent strip results. This is because color blindness can affect their ability to accurately interpret the color changes on the strip, which are indicative of different substances present in the urine. By ensuring that technicians are not color blind, the chances of misinterpreting the results and making errors in diagnosis or treatment are minimized. Therefore, it is important for technicians to pass a color blindness test before reporting manual urine reagent strip results.

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  • 48. 

    MANUFACTURER'S INSTRUCTIONS SHOULD BE CONSULTED FOR PROPER.

    • A.

      USE

    • B.

      STORAGE

    • C.

      TIMING OF REACTIONS

    • D.

      INTERPRETATION OF RESULTS

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. USE
    B. STORAGE
    C. TIMING OF REACTIONS
    D. INTERPRETATION OF RESULTS
    Explanation
    The manufacturer's instructions should be consulted for proper use, storage, timing of reactions, and interpretation of results. This means that it is important to refer to the instructions provided by the manufacturer to ensure that the product is used correctly, stored properly, and that the timing of reactions and interpretation of results are done accurately. By following the manufacturer's instructions, one can ensure the best possible outcomes and avoid any potential mistakes or errors.

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  • 49. 

    ONE OF THE FIRST THINGS TO CHECK BEFORE RUNNING A CHEMICAL EXAMINATION OF URINE IS TO CHECK THE _____________ OF THE REAGENT.

    • A.

      MANUFACTURE DATE

    • B.

      EXPIRATION DATE

    Correct Answer
    B. EXPIRATION DATE
    Explanation
    Before running a chemical examination of urine, it is important to check the expiration date of the reagent. This is because reagents have a limited shelf life and can become less effective or even produce inaccurate results after the expiration date. Using an expired reagent can lead to unreliable test results and potentially compromising patient care. Therefore, checking the expiration date ensures the accuracy and reliability of the chemical examination.

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  • 50. 

    THE FOLLOWING TEST ON THE REAGENT STRIP CAN ESTIMATE WHETHER A PATIENTS BLOOD GLUCOSE EXCEEDS THE RENAL THRESHOLD (OF 160-180mg/dL)

    • A.

      GLUCOSE

    • B.

      BILIRUBIN

    • C.

      UROBILINOGEN

    • D.

      PH

    Correct Answer
    A. GLUCOSE
    Explanation
    The reagent strip test mentioned in the question is used to estimate whether a patient's blood glucose exceeds the renal threshold. The presence of glucose on the reagent strip indicates that the patient's blood glucose level is high enough to exceed the renal threshold. This can be an indication of diabetes or other conditions affecting glucose metabolism. The other substances listed (bilirubin, urobilinogen, and pH) are not directly related to estimating blood glucose levels.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Nov 30, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 13, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Lola Agbetunsin
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