Pharmacology Chap 35- Sxs Chap 1&25
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Review mod 4 week 4
- 1.The leading cause of death among women, cardiovascular disease, is not often diagnosed early or correctly because of which factors? Select all that apply
- A.
Women's inability to pay for medical treatment
- B.
Different presentation of the disease
- C.
Ascribing symptoms to other causes
- D.
Shortened duration of disease process before death
- 2.Which of the following have been attributed to the long-term use of marijuana? select all that apply.
- A.
Chromosome breaks
- B.
Increased cognitive ability
- C.
Personality changes
- D.
Anxiety and irritation
- E.
Gynecomastia in males
- 3.For women who do not tolerate the adverse effects of statin drugs, which of the following may be used to lower cholesterol levels?
- A.
Vitamin a (retinol)
- B.
Niacin (nicor)
- C.
Simvastatin (zocor)
- D.
Famotidine (pepsid)
- 4.
- A.
It has a high risk of gastrointestinal bleeding
- B.
It has a high risk of sensitivity or allergic reactions
- C.
It does not have an antiinflammatory effect
- D.
It does not have an analgesic effect
- 5.Compared with cartilage in men, the knee cartilage in women is
- A.
Stronger and thicker
- B.
Less estrogen sensitive
- C.
Thinner and more likely to deteriorate
- D.
Likely to have fewer long-term effects after injury
- 6.What is the most serious and long-lasting effect of postmenopausal estrogen deprivation
- A.
Lack of fertility
- B.
Hot flashes
- C.
Dry and sagging skin
- D.
Osteoporosis
- 7.In contrast with insomnia in men, women's sleep is influenced by
- A.
Fatigue from physical effort
- B.
Increased levels of dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
- C.
Decreases levels of progesterone
- D.
Complex hormonal cycles
- 8.Which of the following drugs have been shown to be effective in treating postpartum depression
- A.
Benzodiazepine agents
- B.
Serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)
- C.
Monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOIs)
- D.
Tricyclic antidepressant agents
- 9.Tolerance to a drug occurs when which of the following happens
- A.
The patient is able to take the drug without any side effects
- B.
The drug does not have any interactions with other drugs
- C.
Higher doses of the drug are required to achieve the desired effect
- D.
The patient is compliant with the prescribed regimen of administration
- 10.Which statement best describes withdrawal from a narcotic
- A.
Symptoms are mild and pass quickly
- B.
The first abstinence symptoms tend to appear 72 hours after the last dose
- C.
The symptoms are often severe and life threatening
- D.
Nonaddictive drugs are available for sustaining patients after withdrawal
- 11.A diabetic patient who is taking oral hypoglycemic agents is started on metronidazole (flagyl) for an infection. the patient education will include which of the following in instructions regarding the prescription
- A.
Be sure to drink plenty of water and avoid grapefruit juice
- B.
Avoid alcohol because it may cause a reaction characterized by nausea, fast heartbeat, and shortness of breath
- C.
Stop taking the flagyl when you start to feel better
- D.
Take some extra doses if the flagyl doesn't seem to be working
- 12.Of the 25,000 accidental deaths of adolescents yearly, what percentage is alcohol related
- A.
10%
- B.
15%
- C.
25%
- D.
40%
- 13.Which of the following are signs of possible drug involvement among adolescents
- A.
Increased family and social contacts
- B.
Avoidance of drug-using friends
- C.
Change in school or work attendance
- D.
Open attitude concerning drug use
- 14.Medical marijuana is thought to have some indication in which of the following
- A.
Nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy
- B.
Cataracts and morning sickness
- C.
Bipolar affective disease and shingles
- D.
Depression and seizures
- 15.During the 60 minutes after the use of cocaine, the risk factor for which of the following is increased by a factor of 24
- A.
Narcosis
- B.
Hypotension
- C.
Myocardial infarction
- D.
Depression
- 16.A patient takin disulfiram (antabuse) for maintenance of sobriety is unlikely to have a reaction to which of the following
- A.
Perfumes and aftershave lotions
- B.
Metronidazole (flagyl)
- C.
NSAIDs
- D.
Aerosol bronchodilator agents
- 17.The coder's responsibility is to ensure that the data are as accurate as possible not only for classification and study purposes but also to obtain appropriate reimbursement
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 18.The federal register is the offical publication for all presidential documents, rules and regulations, proposed rules, and notices
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 19.National unit values have been assigned for each service by medicare (CPT) and HCPCS) and determined on the basis of the resources necessary for the physician's performance of the service
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 20.Fraud is an intentional deception or misrepresentation that an individual knows to be false or does not believe to be true and makes it knowing that the deception could result in some unauthorized benefit to himself/herself or some other person
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 21.Kickbacks from patients are allowed under certain circumstances according to medicare guidelines
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 22.An interactive psychiatric diagnostic interview examination is typically furnished to children
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 23.There are inpatient and outpatient codes for insight-oriented behavior-modifying and supportive psychotherapy
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 24.The use of a hand-held doppler device that does not produce hard copy output, or that produces a record that does not permit analysis of bidirectional vascular flow, is considered to be part of the physical examination of the vascular system and is not separately reported.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 25.Office visit codes may not be reported in addition to allergen immunotherapy codes even if other identifiable evaluation and management services are provided at the time of immunotherapy
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 26.The correct codes to descrive a general evaluation of the complete visual system are 92002 and 92012
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 27.The medicare program was established in
- A.
1955
- B.
1960
- C.
1965
- D.
1970
- 28.Medicare part a pays for
- A.
Professional services and durable medical equipment
- B.
Hospital/facility care
- C.
Physician services and durable medical equipment
- D.
Hospital/facility care and durable medical equipment
- 29.Medicare part b pays for
- A.
Durable medical equipment
- B.
Hospital/facility care
- C.
Physician services and durable medical equipment
- D.
Hospital/facility care and durable medical equipment
- 30.Who handles the day-to-day operation of the medicare program for the CMS
- A.
HCFA
- B.
Peer review organization
- C.
MACs
- D.
IPPS
- 31.Medicare pays for what percentage of covered charges
- A.
70%
- B.
75%
- C.
80%
- D.
85%
- 32.The incentive to medicare participating providers is
- A.
Direct payment is made on all claims
- B.
A 5% higher fee schedule
- C.
Faster processing
- D.
All of the above
- 33.Part b services are billed using
- A.
RBRVS, GPCI, and RUVs
- B.
ICD-9-CM, CPT, HCPCS
- C.
MS-DRGs
- D.
APCs
- 34.Who is the largest third-party payer in the nation
- A.
Blue cross blue shield
- B.
Aetna
- C.
Cigna
- D.
The government
- 35.A major change took place in medicare in _____ with the enactment of the omnibus budget reconciliation act
- A.
1989
- B.
1992
- C.
1997
- D.
2000
- 36.The physician fee schedule is updated each april 15 and is composed of
- A.
The relative value units for each service
- B.
A geographic adjustment factor to adjust for regional variations in the cost of operating a health care facility
- C.
A national conversion factor
- D.
All to the above
- E.
None of the above
- 37.Medicare sets the payment level for assistants at surgery at a percentage of the fee schedule amount for the ____ surgical service
- A.
Global
- B.
United
- C.
Partial
- D.
Subsequent
- 38.What edition of the federal register would hospital facilities be especially interested in
- A.
October
- B.
November or december
- C.
January
- D.
July
- 39.What edition of the federal register would outpatient facilities be especially interested in
- A.
October
- B.
November or december
- C.
January
- D.
July
- 40.What are the three items that the medicare beneficiaries are responsible to pay before medicare will begin to pay for services
- A.
Personal care items
- B.
Deductibles, drug costs, personal care items
- C.
Premiums
- D.
Deductibles, premiums, and coinsurance
- 41.Medicare funds are collected by
- A.
US food and drug administration
- B.
Social security administration
- C.
National centers for health statistics
- D.
Department of the treasury
- 42.CMS handles the daily operation of the medicare program through the use of ___ _______ _______
- A.
Medical adjustment contractor
- B.
Medicare administrative cooperative
- C.
Medicare administrative contractors
- D.
Medical administrative contractors
- 43.Which of the following is not a stated goal of the physician payment reform
- A.
Decrease medicare expenditures
- B.
Assure quality health care at a reasonable cost
- C.
Limit provider liabilities
- D.
Redistribute physician payment more equitably
- 44.If a QIO provider renders a covered service that costs $100 and bills medicare for the service and medicare allowed $58, the provider would bill this amount to the patient
- A.
$42
- B.
$58
- C.
$100
- D.
$0
- 45.The medicare prescription drug, improvement, and modernization act of 2003 established these new benefits available under the medicare program
- A.
Part a
- B.
Part b
- C.
Part c
- D.
Part d
- 46.This program is also known as medicare advantage
- A.
Part a
- B.
Part b
- C.
Part c
- D.
Part d
- 47._________ are activities involving the transfer of health care information and ______ means the movement of electronic data between two entities and the technology that supports the transfer
- A.
Transmission, transactions
- B.
Transactions, transmissions
- C.
Interchange,transmission
- D.
Transmission, interchange
- 48.Psychiatric diagnostic interview examination includes
- A.
History
- B.
Mental status
- C.
Disposition and communication with family or other sources
- D.
All of the above
- 49.If an established patient is given an immunization during an office visit, and the only service provided was the immunization, and what type of codes would you use to report the service
- A.
Only and E/M code
- B.
An E/m code, a medicine section immunization code, and an administration code
- C.
A medicine section immunization code and an administration code
- D.
Neither an E/m code nor a medicine section immunization code
- 50.What word is used to describe the pushing of liquid into the body over a long period of time
- A.
Instillation
- B.
Introduction
- C.
Infusion
- D.
Intrusion
- 51.What must always be documented in the patient record and is the major billing factor for reporting codes in the psychiatric subsection
- A.
Patient status
- B.
Complexity
- C.
Fee
- D.
Time
- 52.Outpatient dialysis services are usually reported on this basis
- A.
Daily
- B.
Weekly
- C.
Monthly
- D.
Quarterly
- 53.What is the name of the process that routes the blood including waste products outside the body through filters
- A.
Purification
- B.
Hemodialysis
- C.
Infiltration
- D.
None of these
- 54.What is the name of the dialysis that involves using a body cavity as a filter
- A.
Peritoneal
- B.
Renal
- C.
Cavitary
- D.
Infusion
- 55.What is the name of the procedure that is performed to assess the intraocular pressure of the eye
- A.
Tomography
- B.
Tonometry
- C.
Ophthalmoscopy
- D.
Tonography
- 56.The cardiovascular subsection contains many diagnostics/therapeutic procedures and services that are primarily divided as to whether the procedures or services are invasive or
- A.
Selective
- B.
Random
- C.
Noninvasive
- D.
Secondary
- 57.What is being measured while the sleep testing is being conducted
- A.
Settings
- B.
Outline
- C.
Baseline
- D.
Parameters
- 58.What does the abbreviation EMG stand for
- A.
Elective myogravis
- B.
Electromagnetic
- C.
Electromyographic
- D.
Electrical magnetics
- 59.On what basis are the dermatology codes usually used by the dermatologist who sees patients in the office
- A.
New or established
- B.
Consultation
- C.
Treatment length
- D.
Patient age
- 60.Level II national codes are not used in which setting
- A.
Outpatient
- B.
Inpatient
- C.
Same-day surgery
- D.
Nursing homes
- 61.Which of the following would be used to code drugs
- A.
B codes
- B.
C codes
- C.
J codes
- D.
K codes
- 62.Codes 90951-90962 are reported _____ to distinguish age-specific services related to the patients end-stage renal disease performed in an outpatient setting depending on the number of visits
- A.
Once per month
- B.
Twice per month
- C.
Once per week
- D.
Twice per week
- 63.An intermediate visual field examination humphrey suprathreshold automatic diagnostic test
- A.
Not reported separately
- B.
92081
- C.
92082
- D.
92083
- 64.A routine ECG with 12 leads, tracing only was performed
- A.
93000
- B.
93005
- C.
93010
- D.
93015
- 65.When doing osteopathic manipulative treatment, which of these body regions is not included in the regions listed within the CPT manual
- A.
Thoracic
- B.
Lumbar
- C.
Sacral
- D.
Caudal
- 66.Prescription drug
- A.
Part a
- B.
Part d
- C.
Part b
- 67.Automatic coverage when age 65
- A.
Part a
- B.
Part d
- C.
Part b
- 68.The ___________ ___________ is a national dollar amount that is applied to all services paid on the basis of the MFS
- 69.For endoscopic procedures medicare allows the full value of the highest valued endoscopy, plus the difference between the next highest endoscopy and the _______________ endoscopy.
- 70.IM
- A.
Intramuscular
- B.
Various routes
- 71.VAR
- A.
Intramuscular
- B.
Various routes
- 72.Hepatitis B immune globulin
- A.
MMRV
- B.
HBIg
- C.
HiB
- 73.Hemophilus influenza b vaccine
- A.
MMRV
- B.
HBIg
- C.
HiB
- 74.Measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella vaccine
- A.
MMRV
- B.
HBIg
- C.
HiB
- 75.Diphtheria and tetanus toxoids < 7 years vaccine
- A.
IPV
- B.
DtaP
- C.
DT
- 76.Poliovirus vaccine, inactivated vaccine
- A.
IPV
- B.
DtaP
- C.
DT
- 77.Diphtheria, tetanus toxoids, acellular pertussis vaccine
- A.
IPV
- B.
DtaP
- C.
DT
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