Security Force Journeyman Volume 4. Ure

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Quizzes Created: 2 | Total Attempts: 543

Questions: 100 | Attempts: 200 | Updated: Mar 20, 2023

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Security Force Journeyman Volume 4. Ure - Quiz

Questions and Answers

1.

Which principle of war is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective and is the means by which a military force seizes and holds the initiative while maintaining freedom of action and achieving decisive results?
- A.
  
  Mass
- B.
  
  Offensive
- C.
  
  Maneuver
- D.
  
  Economy of force
Correct Answer
B. Offensive

Explanation
The principle of war that is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective, seize and hold the initiative, maintain freedom of action, and achieve decisive results is the Offensive principle. This principle involves actively attacking and taking the fight to the enemy, rather than waiting for them to make a move. By being on the offensive, a military force can control the tempo of the battle, exploit weaknesses in the enemy's defenses, and maintain the element of surprise. This principle is essential for achieving victory and accomplishing strategic objectives.

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2.

Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders to protect their forces?
- A.
  
  Simplicity
- B.
  
  Surprise
- C.
  
  Security
- D.
  
  Safety
Correct Answer
C. Security

Explanation
The measures taken by commanders to protect their forces result in security. When commanders implement security measures, they are ensuring the safety and protection of their forces from potential threats and dangers. These measures may include establishing secure communication channels, implementing strict access controls, conducting regular security assessments, and providing training on security protocols. By prioritizing security, commanders can effectively safeguard their forces and mitigate risks, allowing them to focus on their mission and objectives.

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3.

What is achieved by the balanced employment of firepower and patrolling?
- A.
  
  Key terrain
- B.
  
  Defense in depth
- C.
  
  All around defense
- D.
  
  Aggressive defense
Correct Answer
D. Aggressive defense

Explanation
The balanced employment of firepower and patrolling achieves aggressive defense. By combining the use of firepower to suppress enemy attacks and patrolling to gather information and maintain situational awareness, aggressive defense aims to actively disrupt and repel enemy forces. This strategy allows for a proactive approach in defending key terrain and maintaining a strong defensive posture, increasing the chances of successfully repelling enemy attacks and maintaining control over the area.

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4.

After the threat has been neutralized, which integrated defense effect is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore opertations?
- A.
  
  Warn
- B.
  
  Assess
- C.
  
  Recovery
- D.
  
  Anticipate
Correct Answer
C. Recovery

Explanation
After the threat has been neutralized, the integrated defense effect of "Recovery" is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations. This involves recovering any lost ground, equipment, or personnel, and restoring the overall readiness and effectiveness of the friendly forces. It may include medical treatment, repair and maintenance of equipment, replenishment of supplies, and reestablishing communication and coordination among the units. The goal of the recovery phase is to quickly regain the ability to continue operations and be prepared for any future threats.

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5.

A force can dominate an area, place direct or indirect fire on critical resources by capturing?
- A.
  
  Key terrains
- B.
  
  High grounds
- C.
  
  Avenues of approach
- D.
  
  Pockets of resistance
Correct Answer
A. Key terrains

Explanation
The correct answer is "Key terrains" because controlling key terrains allows a force to have a strategic advantage by dominating an area. Key terrains refer to geographic locations that provide tactical advantages, such as commanding views, control over important resources, and control over avenues of approach. By capturing and controlling key terrains, a force can place direct or indirect fire on critical resources and limit the mobility and effectiveness of the enemy.

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6.

Which force is a the AF enterprise leader for integrated defense operations?
- A.
  
  Special forces
- B.
  
  Security forces
- C.
  
  Joint forces
- D.
  
  Air and space forces
Correct Answer
B. Security forces

Explanation
The correct answer is security forces. Security forces are responsible for integrated defense operations within the AF enterprise. They play a crucial role in maintaining the security and protection of Air Force personnel, resources, and installations. They ensure the safety and defense of the Air Force through various operations, including law enforcement, base defense, and combat support.

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7.

Which agency will the base defense operations center up-channel COVERED WAGONS reportable incidents through?
- A.
  
  Site security control
- B.
  
  Security Forces
- C.
  
  High headquarters
- D.
  
  Installation command post
Correct Answer
D. Installation command post

Explanation
The base defense operations center will up-channel COVERED WAGONS reportable incidents through the installation command post. This means that any incidents or reports related to COVERED WAGONS will be reported and communicated to the installation command post for further action and coordination. The installation command post serves as a central hub for command and control functions, ensuring that all relevant information is received and disseminated appropriately.

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8.

The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapons?
- A.
  
  Accident
- B.
  
  Incident
- C.
  
  Mistake
- D.
  
  Mishap
Correct Answer
A. Accident

Explanation
The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component can be considered an accident because it refers to an unintended or unplanned event involving the release or disposal of a nuclear weapon. Accidents can occur due to mechanical failures, human errors, or unforeseen circumstances. In this scenario, the jettisoning of a nuclear weapon would be an accidental occurrence rather than a deliberate act or intentional incident.

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9.

Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?
- A.
  
  2
- B.
  
  4
- C.
  
  12
- D.
  
  24
Correct Answer
D. 24

Explanation
Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within 24 hours. This means that they are not in immediate danger and can be safely evacuated within a day. Evacuation within this timeframe ensures that their safety is prioritized while also allowing for efficient and organized evacuation procedures.

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10.

What may be the most dangerous improvised explosive device?
- A.
  
  Static
- B.
  
  Roadside
- C.
  
  Vehicle-borne
- D.
  
  Remote detonated
Correct Answer
C. Vehicle-borne

Explanation
A vehicle-borne improvised explosive device (VBIED) is considered the most dangerous type of explosive device. This is because it involves the use of a vehicle, which can carry a larger amount of explosives compared to other types. VBIEDs can cause significant damage and casualties due to their ability to penetrate security measures and reach targets with high speed. They can be remotely detonated or driven by a suicide bomber, making them a highly effective and lethal weapon in terrorist attacks.

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11.

Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterally or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort?
- A.
  
  President only
- B.
  
  Secretary of Defense only
- C.
  
  President or Secretary of Defense
- D.
  
  President or Defense Force Commander
Correct Answer
C. President or Secretary of Defense

Explanation
The President or Secretary of Defense directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterally or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort. As the highest-ranking civilian official in the US government, the President has the authority to make decisions regarding military actions. However, the Secretary of Defense, who is appointed by the President, also plays a crucial role in directing military responses and coordinating with other agencies and nations. Therefore, either the President or the Secretary of Defense can provide the necessary directives in such situations.

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12.

Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens?
- A.
  
  Recovery
- B.
  
  Peace
- C.
  
  Peace enforcement
- D.
  
  Noncombat evacuation
Correct Answer
D. Noncombat evacuation

Explanation
Noncombat evacuation is the operation principally conducted to evacuate US citizens. This operation is specifically designed to evacuate civilians from potentially dangerous situations or areas of conflict, without engaging in any combat activities. It focuses on the safe and efficient removal of individuals, ensuring their well-being and protection. This operation is typically carried out in response to natural disasters, political unrest, or military conflicts where the safety of US citizens is at risk.

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13.

Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source of information?
- A.
  
  OSINT
- B.
  
  COMINT
- C.
  
  HUMINT
- D.
  
  INFOMINT
Correct Answer
C. HUMINT

Explanation
HUMINT, which stands for Human Intelligence, often provides the most useful source of information. This is because HUMINT involves gathering intelligence through direct contact and interaction with human sources, such as informants, spies, or undercover agents. Unlike other forms of intelligence collection, HUMINT allows for the collection of information that may not be accessible through other means, such as sensitive or classified information, insider knowledge, or insights into human behavior and intentions. Therefore, HUMINT is often considered a valuable and reliable source of intelligence.

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14.

Which operation may be clandestine, covert, or overt depending on whether the operational environment is hostile, uncertain, or permissive?
- A.
  
  Foreign humanitarian assistance
- B.
  
  Consequence management
- C.
  
  Homeland defense
- D.
  
  Recovery
Correct Answer
D. Recovery

Explanation
Recovery may be clandestine, covert, or overt depending on whether the operational environment is hostile, uncertain, or permissive. In a hostile environment, recovery operations may need to be conducted secretly to avoid detection by hostile forces. In an uncertain environment, recovery operations may be carried out covertly to gather information and assess the situation before taking action. In a permissive environment, recovery operations may be overt, openly conducted without the need for secrecy or concealment. The nature of the operational environment determines the level of secrecy and discretion required for recovery operations.

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15.

Force protection measures will be planned according with?
- A.
  
  Determination of the force
- B.
  
  The risks to the force
- C.
  
  Location of the force
- D.
  
  Size of the force
Correct Answer
B. The risks to the force

Explanation
Force protection measures are planned according to the risks faced by the force. This means that the level of protection and the specific measures taken will be determined by the potential threats and hazards that the force may encounter. By assessing and understanding the risks, appropriate measures can be put in place to mitigate those risks and ensure the safety and security of the force. The determination of the force, location, and size may also be factors considered in the planning process, but ultimately it is the risks to the force that drive the decision-making.

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16.

Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?
- A.
  
  Standoff attack
- B.
  
  Penetration attack
- C.
  
  Information operation
- D.
  
  Chemical, biological attack
Correct Answer
B. Penetration attack

Explanation
A penetration attack is a type of cyber attack where an unauthorized individual gains access to a computer system or network by exploiting vulnerabilities. This can involve an insider threat, which means that the attacker is someone who has legitimate access to the system or network, such as an employee or contractor. They may use their insider knowledge to bypass security measures and gain unauthorized access to sensitive information or cause harm to the system.

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17.

Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?
- A.
  
  Department of State
- B.
  
  Department of Justice
- C.
  
  Department of Defense
- D.
  
  Federal Bureau of Investigation
Correct Answer
A. Department of State

Explanation
The Department of State is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US because it is responsible for the country's foreign policy and diplomatic relations. It works closely with other agencies and foreign governments to gather intelligence, coordinate responses, and develop strategies to prevent and respond to terrorist threats abroad. The Department of State also plays a crucial role in providing support and assistance to US citizens affected by terrorist incidents overseas.

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18.

The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is?
- A.
  
  Arson
- B.
  
  Bombing
- C.
  
  Highjacking
- D.
  
  Kindnapping and hostage taking
Correct Answer
B. Bombing

Explanation
Terrorist groups commonly use bombing as their tactic because it allows them to cause significant destruction, instill fear, and garner media attention. Bombs can be placed in public spaces, targeting civilians and creating chaos. This tactic has been employed by various terrorist organizations worldwide, including the IRA, Al-Qaeda, and ISIS. Bombings are relatively easy to execute and can be carried out with homemade explosives or more sophisticated devices. The high impact and casualties caused by bombings make it an attractive choice for terrorists seeking to achieve their political, ideological, or religious goals.

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19.

Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as?
- A.
  
  5-10
- B.
  
  10-15
- C.
  
  25-30
- D.
  
  35-40
Correct Answer
C. 25-30

Explanation
Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as 25-30. This means that terrorist groups have a flexible structure, allowing them to operate in small, covert units or larger, more complex networks. The size of the cells may vary depending on the specific goals and operations of the group. This flexibility enables them to carry out their activities with a level of secrecy and adaptability, making it challenging for authorities to track and dismantle these organizations.

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20.

Which individuals/groups promote their cause by any means and are ideologically inspired?
- A.
  
  Criminals or Proffesionals
- B.
  
  Emotionally disturbed
- C.
  
  Passive Soldiers
- D.
  
  Crusaders
Correct Answer
D. Crusaders

Explanation
Crusaders are individuals/groups who promote their cause by any means and are ideologically inspired. They are known for their fervent dedication and commitment to their beliefs, often engaging in aggressive or extreme actions to further their cause. The term "crusaders" is typically associated with historical religious campaigns, but it can also be used to describe modern individuals or groups who passionately advocate for a particular cause or ideology.

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21.

What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?
- A.
  
  Moderate
- B.
  
  Significant
- C.
  
  High
- D.
  
  Low
Correct Answer
C. High

Explanation
The threat level assessment of "High" indicates that anti-US terrorists are operationally active and prefer to carry out large casualty-producing attacks. This suggests that there is a significant and immediate threat posed by these terrorists, and heightened security measures should be taken to prevent and respond to such attacks.

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22.

The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use?
- A.
  
  Violence to achieve political goals
- B.
  
  Violence to achieve religious goals
- C.
  
  Non-violence to achieve political goals
- D.
  
  Use violence to achieve ideological goals
Correct Answer
A. Violence to achieve political goals

Explanation
Insurgency is characterized by the deliberate use of violence to achieve political goals. This sets it apart from other types of movements that may use non-violent means or have different objectives such as religious or ideological goals. The use of violence in an insurgency is a strategic choice made by the group to challenge and undermine the existing political order and achieve their desired political outcomes.

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23.

COIN operations require leaders to exhibit?
- A.
  
  A fairness, firmness, and fight
- B.
  
  Logic, loyalty, and leadership
- C.
  
  Patience, persistence, and presence
- D.
  
  Cooperation, cohesiveness, and confidence
Correct Answer
C. Patience, persistence, and presence

Explanation
COIN operations, which refer to counterinsurgency operations, require leaders to exhibit patience, persistence, and presence. Patience is necessary because these operations often involve long-term efforts and require leaders to wait for desired outcomes. Persistence is important because leaders must continue their efforts despite challenges and setbacks. Presence is crucial as leaders need to be actively involved and visible in order to build trust and establish relationships with the local population. These qualities enable leaders to effectively navigate complex and volatile situations in counterinsurgency operations.

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24.

To avoid detection by the government, how will insurgent operate?
- A.
  
  Underground
- B.
  
  In disguise
- C.
  
  In small bands
- D.
  
  During hours of darkness
Correct Answer
C. In small bands

Explanation
Insurgents would operate in small bands to avoid detection by the government. By operating in small groups, they can remain inconspicuous and difficult to track. This strategy allows them to blend into the local population and carry out their activities without drawing too much attention. It also makes it easier for them to move quickly and adapt to changing situations. Operating in small bands provides them with a level of flexibility and agility that would be harder to achieve if they were operating as a large, centralized force.

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25.

Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?
- A.
  
  Multinational corporation
- B.
  
  Government organizarion
- C.
  
  Host nation security council
- D.
  
  Intergovernmental organization
Correct Answer
D. Intergovernmental organization

Explanation
An intergovernmental organization is created through a formal agreement between two or more governments. It serves as a platform for member states to cooperate and address common issues or pursue shared goals. Examples of intergovernmental organizations include the United Nations, World Health Organization, and European Union. These organizations facilitate diplomatic negotiations, promote international cooperation, and provide a forum for member states to discuss and resolve global challenges.

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26.

Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization?
- A.
  
  The United Nations
- B.
  
  The World Hunger League
- C.
  
  United Nations Children Fund
- D.
  
  The American Federation of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations
Correct Answer
A. The United Nations

Explanation
The United Nations is the most notable intergovernmental organization because it is a global organization that aims to maintain international peace and security, promote social progress, and improve human rights. It has a membership of 193 countries and plays a significant role in addressing global issues such as climate change, poverty, and conflict resolution. The United Nations is recognized worldwide for its efforts in fostering cooperation among nations and promoting sustainable development.

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27.

Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key?
- A.
  
  Terrain issues
- B.
  
  Logistical issues
- C.
  
  Sovereignty issues
- D.
  
  Transportation issues
Correct Answer
C. Sovereignty issues

Explanation
Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key sovereignty issues. These locations serve as points of entry and exit for goods, people, and military personnel, and they are typically controlled and regulated by the governing authorities of a particular country. The management and control of these ports are crucial for a nation to exercise its sovereignty and maintain security and control over its borders.

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28.

Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full-scale air base operation?
- A.
  
  Bare base
- B.
  
  Limited Base
- C.
  
  Main operating base
- D.
  
  Forward operating base
Correct Answer
B. Limited Base

Explanation
A limited base is a base that is manned with minimal personnel but has the capability to expand into a full-scale air base operation if needed. This means that it can accommodate additional personnel and equipment as required, allowing for flexibility and scalability in its operations.

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29.

What do peacetime or contingency operations require when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC?
- A.
  
  Time
- B.
  
  Money
- C.
  
  Manning
- D.
  
  Flexibility
Correct Answer
D. Flexibility

Explanation
Peacetime or contingency operations require flexibility when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC. This is because the nature of these operations can change rapidly, requiring the ability to adapt and adjust plans as necessary. Flexibility allows for the allocation of resources and personnel based on the evolving needs of the situation, ensuring that security forces can effectively respond to any challenges or threats that may arise.

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30.

During base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control tools for?
- A.
  
  Control the traffic flow plan
- B.
  
  Ensure all equipment is functioning properly
- C.
  
  Make sure the office is maintained and kept neat and orderly
- D.
  
  Disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan
Correct Answer
D. Disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan

Explanation
The DFC (Director of Force Protection) uses staff control tools during base defense operations to disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan. These tools help the DFC effectively communicate and coordinate with the staff members involved in the defense operations, ensuring that everyone is aware of their roles and responsibilities. By using these tools, the DFC can efficiently distribute orders and information, making sure that the base defense operations are well-organized and executed according to the plan.

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31.

An effective tool to control integrated defense operations is?
- A.
  
  Charts and forms
- B.
  
  Base sectorization
- C.
  
  Staff control tools
- D.
  
  Military symbolofy
Correct Answer
B. Base sectorization

Explanation
Base sectorization is an effective tool to control integrated defense operations. It involves dividing a military base or area of operations into sectors, each assigned to specific units or functions. This allows for better organization and coordination of resources, personnel, and activities. By dividing the base into sectors, commanders can more efficiently allocate resources and direct operations, ensuring that all areas are adequately covered and controlled. Base sectorization enhances situational awareness, facilitates communication and decision-making, and enables effective command and control of integrated defense operations.

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32.

What should a flight sector sketch show?
- A.
  
  Main terrain feature in the sector of fire and the rangers to them
- B.
  
  Flight and Squadron identification
- C.
  
  Squad leader positions
- D.
  
  True South
Correct Answer
B. Flight and Squadron identification

Explanation
A flight sector sketch should show flight and squadron identification. This is important for identifying and tracking different flights and squadrons within the sector. It helps in maintaining communication and coordination among different units during flight operations.

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33.

In what year did the Geneva Conventions become effective?
- A.
  
  1955
- B.
  
  1956
- C.
  
  1957
- D.
  
  1958
Correct Answer
B. 1956

Explanation
The correct answer is 1956. The Geneva Conventions are a set of international treaties that establish the standards of humanitarian law for the treatment of individuals during armed conflicts. They were adopted in 1949, but they became effective in 1956 after being ratified by a sufficient number of countries. The conventions have since been updated and expanded, but the year 1956 marks the initial effectiveness of these important treaties.

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34.

Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners?
- A.
  
  Keeping the prisoners silent is important
- B.
  
  To ensure the safety of defectors and deserters
- C.
  
  The intelligence a CDP brings in is time sensitive
- D.
  
  CDPs must be tagged before evacuating to the rear
Correct Answer
C. The intelligence a CDP brings in is time sensitive

Explanation
Processing captives, detainees, and prisoners involves gathering valuable intelligence from them. This intelligence can be time-sensitive, meaning that it may lose its relevance or effectiveness if not acted upon quickly. Therefore, speed is essential in processing these individuals to extract the information they possess promptly.

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35.

The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is?
- A.
  
  20 meters
- B.
  
  30 meters
- C.
  
  40 meters
- D.
  
  50 meters
Correct Answer
D. 50 meters

Explanation
The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is 50 meters. This distance is necessary to prevent any potential interference or sparks that could ignite flammable fuel vapors during the refueling process. By maintaining this distance, the risk of accidents and fires is minimized, ensuring the safety of both the refueling personnel and the surrounding environment.

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36.

To avoid receiving an electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security systems (ESS)?
- A.
  
  Remove the negative lead first
- B.
  
  Remove the positive lead first
- C.
  
  It doesn't matter which lead you remove first
- D.
  
  Secure the positive lead first and then the negative
Correct Answer
B. Remove the positive lead first

Explanation
When disconnecting the battery from the electronic security systems (ESS), it is recommended to remove the positive lead first. This is because the positive lead is connected to the live electrical current, and removing it first reduces the risk of accidentally creating a short circuit or electrical shock. By removing the positive lead first, the circuit is effectively broken, ensuring a safer disconnection process.

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37.

Which function provides transmissions of data between the TASS sensors and annuciators?
- A.
  
  Power
- B.
  
  Annucaitions
- C.
  
  Communications
- D.
  
  Response frequency
Correct Answer
C. Communications

Explanation
The correct answer is "communications" because this function is responsible for facilitating the transmission of data between the TASS sensors and annuciators. It enables the exchange of information and allows the sensors to send their readings to the annuciators for display or further processing. This function ensures effective communication and integration between the different components of the system.

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38.

What security system consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a hand-held display monitor?
- A.
  
  MILES
- B.
  
  TMS
- C.
  
  ESS
- D.
  
  BISS
Correct Answer
B. TMS

Explanation
The correct answer is TMS. TMS stands for Training and Monitoring System. It is a security system that includes a range of sensors, repeaters, and a hand-held display monitor. This system is commonly used in military training exercises to track and monitor the movements of soldiers and vehicles in real-time. The sensors detect and transmit data to the repeaters, which then transmit the information to the hand-held display monitor, allowing the user to monitor and analyze the situation effectively.

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39.

A scanning method known as the self preservation method of search lasts approximately?
- A.
  
  90 secs
- B.
  
  60 secs
- C.
  
  45 secs
- D.
  
  30 secs
Correct Answer
D. 30 secs

Explanation
The self preservation method of search is a scanning method that aims to quickly identify potential threats or dangers in the environment. This method involves scanning the surroundings for any signs of danger and taking appropriate actions to protect oneself. Since the focus is on quickly assessing the situation, the self preservation method of search typically lasts for a shorter duration, which is approximately 30 seconds.

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40.

When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is?
- A.
  
  Spacing
- B.
  
  Aiming point
- C.
  
  Reference point
- D.
  
  Range determination
Correct Answer
B. Aiming point

Explanation
The more effective means of delivering accurate fire is by using an aiming point. This allows the shooter to focus on a specific target or area, increasing the chances of hitting the intended target. Aiming points provide a clear reference for the shooter and help in aligning the weapon properly. By aiming at a specific point, the shooter can adjust their aim and make necessary corrections to ensure accurate fire.

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41.

What is the greatest limitation in using the 100 meter method of range determination?
- A.
  
  Observer proficiency requires constant practice
- B.
  
  SF member must pace the range to see if his estimation is correct
- C.
  
  Underestimating sloping ground gives the illusion of a greater distance
- D.
  
  Accuracy is directly related to amount of terrain visible to the observer
Correct Answer
D. Accuracy is directly related to amount of terrain visible to the observer

Explanation
The greatest limitation in using the 100 meter method of range determination is that accuracy is directly related to the amount of terrain visible to the observer. This means that if the observer cannot see a large portion of the terrain, their estimation of range may be less accurate. Therefore, the accuracy of the method heavily relies on the observer's ability to have a clear view of the surrounding terrain.

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42.

How does the observer use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility?
- A.
  
  Look 5 degrees above, below, or to either side rather than directly at it
- B.
  
  Look 10 degrees above, below or to either side of it rather than directly at it
- C.
  
  Look 15 degrees above, rather than looking directly at it
- D.
  
  Look 20 degrees to either side only rather than directly at it
Correct Answer
B. Look 10 degrees above, below or to either side of it rather than directly at it

Explanation
During limited visibility, the observer uses off center vision by looking 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of the object rather than directly at it. This technique allows the observer to maximize their peripheral vision and gather more information about their surroundings. By looking slightly off-center, the observer can detect any potential obstacles or hazards that may not be visible when looking directly at the object. This helps to improve situational awareness and ensure safety during limited visibility conditions.

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43.

If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full dark adaption within how many minutes after removing the goggles?
- A.
  
  8
- B.
  
  5
- C.
  
  4
- D.
  
  2
Correct Answer
D. 2

Explanation
If you adapted to the dark before wearing goggles, it means that your eyes have already adjusted to the low light conditions. When you remove the goggles, your eyes will not need much time to readjust to the darkness, as they have already adapted to it. Therefore, it will only take 2 minutes for you to gain full dark adaptation after removing the goggles.

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44.

When burying the TMS magnetic sensor, how deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach must you bury the magnetic sensor head?
- A.
  
  2 to 4 inches
- B.
  
  4 to 6 inches
- C.
  
  6 to 8 inches
- D.
  
  8 to 10 inches
Correct Answer
C. 6 to 8 inches

Explanation
The TMS magnetic sensor needs to be buried 6 to 8 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach. Burying it at this depth ensures that it is properly positioned to detect and measure the magnetic fields of passing vehicles. This depth allows the sensor to accurately capture the necessary data without being too close to the surface or too deep underground.

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45.

The components that make up the tactical miniature sensor active infrared detection sensor are?
- A.
  
  An emitter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter
- B.
  
  A seismic head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter
- C.
  
  A transformer head, infrared sensor head, and transmitter
- D.
  
  An emission head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter
Correct Answer
A. An emitter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter

Explanation
The components that make up the tactical miniature sensor active infrared detection sensor are an emitter head with battery case, sensor head, and transmitter. These components work together to detect and transmit infrared signals. The emitter head emits infrared signals, the sensor head detects the reflected signals, and the transmitter sends the detected signals to a receiving unit. The battery case provides power to the sensor system.

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46.

The Eltec 865M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in?
- A.
  
  Snowy conditions
- B.
  
  Dense fog
- C.
  
  Rainy weather
- D.
  
  Bright sunlight
Correct Answer
B. Dense fog

Explanation
The Eltec 865M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in dense fog. Dense fog can reduce visibility and scatter infrared signals, making it difficult for the sensors to accurately detect objects. The fog particles can absorb or reflect the infrared radiation, leading to a decrease in the sensor's effectiveness. In such conditions, the sensor may struggle to differentiate between objects and background noise, resulting in reduced detection capabilities.

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47.

What is the WSTI used for?
- A.
  
  Alarm annunciation and visual inspection
- B.
  
  Sensor identification and recognition
- C.
  
  To assess the alarms of a sensor activiation
- D.
  
  Boundary protection
Correct Answer
C. To assess the alarms of a sensor activiation

Explanation
The WSTI (Wireless Sensor Test Instrument) is used to assess the alarms of a sensor activation. This means that it is used to evaluate and analyze the alerts or warnings triggered by a sensor when it detects a certain condition or event. The WSTI helps in determining the accuracy and effectiveness of the alarms, ensuring that they are reliable and functioning correctly. It allows for the assessment and validation of sensor activations, helping to identify any issues or malfunctions in the alarm system.

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48.

How many people are required to set up the wide-area surveillance thermal imager tripod?
- A.
  
  1
- B.
  
  2
- C.
  
  3
- D.
  
  4
Correct Answer
B. 2

Explanation
The wide-area surveillance thermal imager tripod requires 2 people to set it up. This suggests that the tripod is heavy or requires coordination between two individuals to assemble properly. Having two people ensures that the setup process is efficient and safe.

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49.

From where do all operational command and controls are performed from?
- A.
  
  DCU
- B.
  
  DCS
- C.
  
  JCU
- D.
  
  BDOC
Correct Answer
C. JCU

Explanation
The correct answer is JCU. JCU stands for Joint Control Unit, which is where all operational command and controls are performed from. This unit is responsible for coordinating and directing military operations, ensuring effective communication and decision-making.

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50.

The primary purpose of the LRTI-CCTV is to?
- A.
  
  Provide full color imagery and video
- B.
  
  Provide communication and data to the base defense operations center
- C.
  
  Allow you to view the enemy from long distances
- D.
  
  Assess alarms annuciating from the TASS system
Correct Answer
D. Assess alarms annuciating from the TASS system

Explanation
The LRTI-CCTV is primarily used to assess alarms annunciated from the TASS system. This means that its main purpose is to monitor and evaluate any alarms or alerts that are being generated by the TASS system. It is not intended for providing full color imagery and video, providing communication and data to the base defense operations center, or allowing long-distance viewing of the enemy. Its main function is to assess alarms from the TASS system.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

Current Version
Mar 20, 2023

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
Sep 21, 2014

Quiz Created by
Skatertrix

Security Force Journeyman Volume 4. Ure

Which principle of war is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective and is the means by which a military force seizes and holds the initiative while maintaining freedom of action and achieving decisive results?

Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders to protect their forces?

What is achieved by the balanced employment of firepower and patrolling?

After the threat has been neutralized, which integrated defense effect is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore opertations?

A force can dominate an area, place direct or indirect fire on critical resources by capturing?

Which force is a the AF enterprise leader for integrated defense operations?

Which agency will the base defense operations center up-channel COVERED WAGONS reportable incidents through?

The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapons?

Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?

What may be the most dangerous improvised explosive device?

Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterally or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort?

Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens?

Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source of information?

Which operation may be clandestine, covert, or overt depending on whether the operational environment is hostile, uncertain, or permissive?

Force protection measures will be planned according with?

Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?

Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?

The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is?

Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as?

Which individuals/groups promote their cause by any means and are ideologically inspired?

What threat level assessment indicates anti-US terrorists are operationally active and use large casualty-producing attacks as their preferred method of operation?

The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use?

COIN operations require leaders to exhibit?

To avoid detection by the government, how will insurgent operate?

Which agency was created by a formal agreement between two or more governments?

Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization?

Aerial ports of debarkation, border crossings, and seaports of debarkation are all examples of key?

Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full-scale air base operation?

What do peacetime or contingency operations require when planning how and where to use security forces unit UTC?

During base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control tools for?

An effective tool to control integrated defense operations is?

What should a flight sector sketch show?

In what year did the Geneva Conventions become effective?

Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners?

The safe operating distance of radio frequency transmitters around refueling locations is?

To avoid receiving an electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security systems (ESS)?

Which function provides transmissions of data between the TASS sensors and annuciators?

What security system consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a hand-held display monitor?

A scanning method known as the self preservation method of search lasts approximately?

When marking targets, the more effective means of delivering accurate fire is?

What is the greatest limitation in using the 100 meter method of range determination?

How does the observer use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility?

If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full dark adaption within how many minutes after removing the goggles?

When burying the TMS magnetic sensor, how deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach must you bury the magnetic sensor head?

The components that make up the tactical miniature sensor active infrared detection sensor are?

The Eltec 865M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in?

What is the WSTI used for?

How many people are required to set up the wide-area surveillance thermal imager tripod?

From where do all operational command and controls are performed from?

The primary purpose of the LRTI-CCTV is to?