Security Force Journeyman Volume 4. Ure

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  • 1/100 Questions

    The tactic terrorist groups use most commonly is?

    • Arson
    • Bombing
    • Highjacking
    • Kindnapping and hostage taking
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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in military strategy and security operations, focusing on principles of war, defensive and offensive tactics, and the role of security forces. It is designed for Security Force Journeyman training, enhancing strategic decision-making and operational effectiveness.

Security Force Journeyman Volume 4. Ure - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which operation is principally conducted to evacuate US citizens?

    • Recovery

    • Peace

    • Peace enforcement

    • Noncombat evacuation

    Correct Answer
    A. Noncombat evacuation
    Explanation
    Noncombat evacuation is the operation principally conducted to evacuate US citizens. This operation is specifically designed to evacuate civilians from potentially dangerous situations or areas of conflict, without engaging in any combat activities. It focuses on the safe and efficient removal of individuals, ensuring their well-being and protection. This operation is typically carried out in response to natural disasters, political unrest, or military conflicts where the safety of US citizens is at risk.

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  • 3. 

    What part of the AN/PVS-7 night vision goggle does the sacrificial window protect?

    • Battery componenet

    • Rubber eye cups

    • Glass lens

    • Sight lens

    Correct Answer
    A. Glass lens
    Explanation
    The sacrificial window on the AN/PVS-7 night vision goggle is designed to protect the glass lens. The glass lens is a crucial component of the night vision goggle as it allows for the amplification of available light to enhance visibility in low-light conditions. The sacrificial window acts as a protective barrier, shielding the glass lens from potential damage or scratches that could impair its performance.

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  • 4. 

    What may be the most dangerous improvised explosive device?

    • Static

    • Roadside

    • Vehicle-borne

    • Remote detonated

    Correct Answer
    A. Vehicle-borne
    Explanation
    A vehicle-borne improvised explosive device (VBIED) is considered the most dangerous type of explosive device. This is because it involves the use of a vehicle, which can carry a larger amount of explosives compared to other types. VBIEDs can cause significant damage and casualties due to their ability to penetrate security measures and reach targets with high speed. They can be remotely detonated or driven by a suicide bomber, making them a highly effective and lethal weapon in terrorist attacks.

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  • 5. 

    Which force is a the AF enterprise leader for integrated defense operations?

    • Special forces

    • Security forces

    • Joint forces

    • Air and space forces

    Correct Answer
    A. Security forces
    Explanation
    The correct answer is security forces. Security forces are responsible for integrated defense operations within the AF enterprise. They play a crucial role in maintaining the security and protection of Air Force personnel, resources, and installations. They ensure the safety and defense of the Air Force through various operations, including law enforcement, base defense, and combat support.

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  • 6. 

    Which type of attack may involve an insider threat?

    • Standoff attack

    • Penetration attack

    • Information operation

    • Chemical, biological attack

    Correct Answer
    A. Penetration attack
    Explanation
    A penetration attack is a type of cyber attack where an unauthorized individual gains access to a computer system or network by exploiting vulnerabilities. This can involve an insider threat, which means that the attacker is someone who has legitimate access to the system or network, such as an employee or contractor. They may use their insider knowledge to bypass security measures and gain unauthorized access to sensitive information or cause harm to the system.

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  • 7. 

    Which agency is the most notable intergovernmental organization?

    • The United Nations

    • The World Hunger League

    • United Nations Children Fund

    • The American Federation of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations

    Correct Answer
    A. The United Nations
    Explanation
    The United Nations is the most notable intergovernmental organization because it is a global organization that aims to maintain international peace and security, promote social progress, and improve human rights. It has a membership of 193 countries and plays a significant role in addressing global issues such as climate change, poverty, and conflict resolution. The United Nations is recognized worldwide for its efforts in fostering cooperation among nations and promoting sustainable development.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following results from the measures taken by commanders to protect their forces?

    • Simplicity

    • Surprise

    • Security

    • Safety

    Correct Answer
    A. Security
    Explanation
    The measures taken by commanders to protect their forces result in security. When commanders implement security measures, they are ensuring the safety and protection of their forces from potential threats and dangers. These measures may include establishing secure communication channels, implementing strict access controls, conducting regular security assessments, and providing training on security protocols. By prioritizing security, commanders can effectively safeguard their forces and mitigate risks, allowing them to focus on their mission and objectives.

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  • 9. 

    Which intelligence collection often may provide the most useful source of information?

    • OSINT

    • COMINT

    • HUMINT

    • INFOMINT

    Correct Answer
    A. HUMINT
    Explanation
    HUMINT, which stands for Human Intelligence, often provides the most useful source of information. This is because HUMINT involves gathering intelligence through direct contact and interaction with human sources, such as informants, spies, or undercover agents. Unlike other forms of intelligence collection, HUMINT allows for the collection of information that may not be accessible through other means, such as sensitive or classified information, insider knowledge, or insights into human behavior and intentions. Therefore, HUMINT is often considered a valuable and reliable source of intelligence.

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  • 10. 

    Where is the best position for a defensive fighting position to avoid enemy detection?

    • A lone building

    • The side of a hill

    • In an open valley

    • At a road junction

    Correct Answer
    A. The side of a hill
    Explanation
    A defensive fighting position is best located on the side of a hill to avoid enemy detection. Being positioned on the side of a hill provides natural cover and camouflage, making it harder for the enemy to spot and target the position. It also offers a tactical advantage as it allows for better observation and control of the surrounding area, enabling the defenders to anticipate and respond to enemy movements effectively. Additionally, the elevation advantage of a hillside position provides better fields of fire and shooting angles, increasing the effectiveness of defensive operations.

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  • 11. 

    Allowing your weapon to extend past the edge of a corner is called?

    • Marking

    • Stabbing

    • Flagging

    • Posting

    Correct Answer
    A. Flagging
    Explanation
    Flagging is the correct answer because when a weapon extends past the edge of a corner, it is known as flagging. This term is commonly used in tactical situations where it is important to maintain proper positioning and avoid exposing oneself unnecessarily. Flagging can be dangerous as it can give away one's position and make them vulnerable to attack. It is crucial to be aware of and avoid flagging in order to maintain a tactical advantage and ensure personal safety.

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  • 12. 

    What do contour lines show you when you look at a map?

    • Relief and elevation on a standard topographic map

    • Location in relation to the water

    • Location anyplace on a map

    • Location on a ridge

    Correct Answer
    A. Relief and elevation on a standard topographic map
    Explanation
    Contour lines on a map indicate relief and elevation. They provide a visual representation of the shape and steepness of the land, allowing the reader to understand the topography of the area. By closely examining the contour lines, one can identify valleys, hills, mountains, and other geographical features. This information is crucial for hikers, geographers, and planners who need to understand the terrain and plan routes accordingly. Contour lines do not show the location in relation to the water, location anywhere on a map, or location on a ridge.

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  • 13. 

    Who directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterally or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort?

    • President only

    • Secretary of Defense only

    • President or Secretary of Defense

    • President or Defense Force Commander

    Correct Answer
    A. President or Secretary of Defense
    Explanation
    The President or Secretary of Defense directs US forces to respond rapidly to certain crises either unilaterally or as part of an interagency and/or multinational effort. As the highest-ranking civilian official in the US government, the President has the authority to make decisions regarding military actions. However, the Secretary of Defense, who is appointed by the President, also plays a crucial role in directing military responses and coordinating with other agencies and nations. Therefore, either the President or the Secretary of Defense can provide the necessary directives in such situations.

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  • 14. 

    Which individuals/groups promote their cause by any means and are ideologically inspired?

    • Criminals or Proffesionals

    • Emotionally disturbed

    • Passive Soldiers

    • Crusaders

    Correct Answer
    A. Crusaders
    Explanation
    Crusaders are individuals/groups who promote their cause by any means and are ideologically inspired. They are known for their fervent dedication and commitment to their beliefs, often engaging in aggressive or extreme actions to further their cause. The term "crusaders" is typically associated with historical religious campaigns, but it can also be used to describe modern individuals or groups who passionately advocate for a particular cause or ideology.

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  • 15. 

    The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends upon the level of?

    • Atmospheric pressure

    • Terrain

    • Light

    • Air

    Correct Answer
    A. Light
    Explanation
    The level of performance for the AN/PVS-14 depends on the level of light. This means that the device's effectiveness and capabilities are directly influenced by the amount of light available in the environment. The AN/PVS-14 is a night vision device, and its performance is optimized in low-light or dark conditions. The more light there is, the better the device will function, allowing for improved visibility and clarity in the user's surroundings.

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  • 16. 

    The easiest method for measuring distance in a straight  line is to use?

    • A ruler

    • A compass

    • A protractor

    • The tick marks

    Correct Answer
    A. A ruler
    Explanation
    A ruler is the easiest method for measuring distance in a straight line because it provides a straight edge and markings in units of measurement, allowing for accurate and precise measurements. A compass is used for drawing circles, a protractor is used for measuring angles, and tick marks alone do not provide a straight edge or units of measurement. Therefore, a ruler is the most suitable tool for measuring distance in a straight line.

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  • 17. 

    When burying the TMS magnetic sensor, how deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach must you bury the magnetic sensor head?

    • 2 to 4 inches

    • 4 to 6 inches

    • 6 to 8 inches

    • 8 to 10 inches

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 to 8 inches
    Explanation
    The TMS magnetic sensor needs to be buried 6 to 8 inches deep perpendicular to the avenue of approach. Burying it at this depth ensures that it is properly positioned to detect and measure the magnetic fields of passing vehicles. This depth allows the sensor to accurately capture the necessary data without being too close to the surface or too deep underground.

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  • 18. 

    What is the proper method of firing from a window?

    • Kneeling and close to the window

    • Kneeling and far back from window

    • Standing and close to window

    • Standing and away from the window

    Correct Answer
    A. Kneeling and far back from window
    Explanation
    The proper method of firing from a window is to kneel and be far back from the window. This position allows for better stability and reduces the risk of being exposed to potential threats outside the window. Being far back from the window also reduces the chances of being seen or targeted by an attacker.

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  • 19. 

    What movement technique do you use when speed is required and you can't use the rush technique?

    • Spider crawl

    • High crawl

    • Low crawl

    • Roll

    Correct Answer
    A. High crawl
    Explanation
    The high crawl is a movement technique used when speed is required and the rush technique cannot be used. It involves moving forward on hands and knees while keeping the body low to the ground. This technique allows for quick movement while maintaining a low profile, making it suitable for situations where speed is necessary but the rush technique, which involves standing and running, cannot be employed.

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  • 20. 

    After the threat has been neutralized, which integrated defense effect is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore opertations?

    • Warn

    • Assess

    • Recovery

    • Anticipate

    Correct Answer
    A. Recovery
    Explanation
    After the threat has been neutralized, the integrated defense effect of "Recovery" is implemented to consolidate and reorganize friendly forces and restore operations. This involves recovering any lost ground, equipment, or personnel, and restoring the overall readiness and effectiveness of the friendly forces. It may include medical treatment, repair and maintenance of equipment, replenishment of supplies, and reestablishing communication and coordination among the units. The goal of the recovery phase is to quickly regain the ability to continue operations and be prepared for any future threats.

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  • 21. 

    Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within how many hours?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 12

    • 24

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    Personnel assigned to the Priority III routine category should be evacuated within 24 hours. This means that they are not in immediate danger and can be safely evacuated within a day. Evacuation within this timeframe ensures that their safety is prioritized while also allowing for efficient and organized evacuation procedures.

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  • 22. 

    Which agency is the lead for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US?

    • Department of State

    • Department of Justice

    • Department of Defense

    • Federal Bureau of Investigation

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of State
    Explanation
    The Department of State is the lead agency for terrorist incidents that occur outside the US because it is responsible for the country's foreign policy and diplomatic relations. It works closely with other agencies and foreign governments to gather intelligence, coordinate responses, and develop strategies to prevent and respond to terrorist threats abroad. The Department of State also plays a crucial role in providing support and assistance to US citizens affected by terrorist incidents overseas.

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  • 23. 

    COIN operations require leaders to exhibit?

    • A fairness, firmness, and fight

    • Logic, loyalty, and leadership

    • Patience, persistence, and presence

    • Cooperation, cohesiveness, and confidence

    Correct Answer
    A. Patience, persistence, and presence
    Explanation
    COIN operations, which refer to counterinsurgency operations, require leaders to exhibit patience, persistence, and presence. Patience is necessary because these operations often involve long-term efforts and require leaders to wait for desired outcomes. Persistence is important because leaders must continue their efforts despite challenges and setbacks. Presence is crucial as leaders need to be actively involved and visible in order to build trust and establish relationships with the local population. These qualities enable leaders to effectively navigate complex and volatile situations in counterinsurgency operations.

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  • 24. 

    Why does camouflage discipline become more important at night?

    • Noises seem amplified and revealing at night

    • Darkness is a disadvantage to the enemy

    • Map reading during the darkness is easier

    • It's not easy to detect troop movement

    Correct Answer
    A. Noises seem amplified and revealing at night
    Explanation
    At night, noises tend to be amplified and more revealing due to the absence of other sounds and distractions. This makes it easier for enemies to detect and locate troops based on the sounds they make. Therefore, camouflage discipline becomes more important to avoid giving away one's position and to remain undetected in the darkness.

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  • 25. 

    One of the simplest way to distort the outline of a weapon is?

    • Put mud on it

    • Pattern painting

    • Place foliage on and in the barrel

    • Wrap it with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth

    Correct Answer
    A. Wrap it with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth
    Explanation
    Wrapping a weapon with burlap garnishing or strips of dyed cloth is a simple way to distort its outline. This method can help to break up the shape and silhouette of the weapon, making it less recognizable and potentially harder to identify. By adding layers and texture to the weapon, it becomes more difficult for observers to determine its true form, which can be advantageous in certain situations.

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  • 26. 

    The most common mistakes when moving past window are exposing the head and?

    • Not moving 12 inches away from the wall

    • Not being aware of basement windows

    • Not crouching while moving

    • Moving too slowly

    Correct Answer
    A. Not being aware of basement windows
    Explanation
    The correct answer is not being aware of basement windows. This means that when moving past a window, one of the most common mistakes is not being aware of the presence of basement windows. This could lead to accidentally exposing oneself to potential dangers or hazards, such as falling into a basement or tripping over the window frame. It is important to be mindful of all windows, including basement windows, when moving past them to ensure safety and avoid any accidents.

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  • 27. 

    You use the bounding overwatch formation when?

    • The heavy left formation cannot be used

    • The wedge formation is not practical

    • Enemy contact is not likely

    • Enemy contact is expected

    Correct Answer
    A. Enemy contact is expected
    Explanation
    The bounding overwatch formation is used when enemy contact is expected. This formation involves one element providing covering fire while the other element moves forward. It allows for a coordinated and controlled advance while maintaining firepower and minimizing exposure to enemy fire. The other options mentioned, such as the heavy left formation and wedge formation, are not relevant to the bounding overwatch formation. Additionally, if enemy contact is not likely, there would be no need to use this formation.

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  • 28. 

    When using the clock technique to defend against counterattacks, where does the squad leader position key weapons?

    • On high ground to avoid weapons fire

    • Along likely avenues of approach

    • Along resupply lines

    • Along rally point

    Correct Answer
    A. Along likely avenues of approach
    Explanation
    In the clock technique, the squad leader positions key weapons along likely avenues of approach. This means that the weapons are placed strategically in areas where the enemy is most likely to advance or attack from. By doing so, the squad leader ensures that the weapons are well-positioned to defend against counterattacks effectively. Placing the weapons along likely avenues of approach allows for better coverage and increases the chances of successfully repelling enemy attacks.

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  • 29. 

    What terrain feature is a stretched out groove in the land usually formed by streams and rivers?

    • Hill

    • Saddle

    • Valley

    • Depression

    Correct Answer
    A. Valley
    Explanation
    A valley is a correct answer because it refers to a stretched out groove in the land that is typically formed by streams and rivers. Valleys are usually found between hills or mountains and can vary in size and shape. They are often characterized by their V-shaped or U-shaped cross-sections and are commonly formed through erosion caused by the flow of water over long periods of time. Valleys can be important features for agriculture, settlement, and transportation due to their fertile soils and relatively flat terrain.

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  • 30. 

    Which principle of war is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective and is the means by which a military force seizes and holds the initiative while maintaining freedom of action and achieving decisive results?

    • Mass

    • Offensive

    • Maneuver

    • Economy of force

    Correct Answer
    A. Offensive
    Explanation
    The principle of war that is the most effective and decisive way to attain a clearly defined objective, seize and hold the initiative, maintain freedom of action, and achieve decisive results is the Offensive principle. This principle involves actively attacking and taking the fight to the enemy, rather than waiting for them to make a move. By being on the offensive, a military force can control the tempo of the battle, exploit weaknesses in the enemy's defenses, and maintain the element of surprise. This principle is essential for achieving victory and accomplishing strategic objectives.

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  • 31. 

    A force can dominate an area, place direct or indirect fire on critical resources by capturing?

    • Key terrains

    • High grounds

    • Avenues of approach

    • Pockets of resistance

    Correct Answer
    A. Key terrains
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Key terrains" because controlling key terrains allows a force to have a strategic advantage by dominating an area. Key terrains refer to geographic locations that provide tactical advantages, such as commanding views, control over important resources, and control over avenues of approach. By capturing and controlling key terrains, a force can place direct or indirect fire on critical resources and limit the mobility and effectiveness of the enemy.

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  • 32. 

    Why is speed essential when processing captives, detainees, and prisoners?

    • Keeping the prisoners silent is important

    • To ensure the safety of defectors and deserters

    • The intelligence a CDP brings in is time sensitive

    • CDPs must be tagged before evacuating to the rear

    Correct Answer
    A. The intelligence a CDP brings in is time sensitive
    Explanation
    Processing captives, detainees, and prisoners involves gathering valuable intelligence from them. This intelligence can be time-sensitive, meaning that it may lose its relevance or effectiveness if not acted upon quickly. Therefore, speed is essential in processing these individuals to extract the information they possess promptly.

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  • 33. 

    The Eltec 865M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in?

    • Snowy conditions

    • Dense fog

    • Rainy weather

    • Bright sunlight

    Correct Answer
    A. Dense fog
    Explanation
    The Eltec 865M1E long-range passive infrared sensors detection capability can be degraded in dense fog. Dense fog can reduce visibility and scatter infrared signals, making it difficult for the sensors to accurately detect objects. The fog particles can absorb or reflect the infrared radiation, leading to a decrease in the sensor's effectiveness. In such conditions, the sensor may struggle to differentiate between objects and background noise, resulting in reduced detection capabilities.

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  • 34. 

    When recovering the M49A1 trip flare, what is the first step using the pull pin method?

    • Remove the pull pin and replace the safety clip

    • Loosen lower wing nut and remove bracket

    • Clean and dry flare and bracket

    • Tighten the wing nut

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove the pull pin and replace the safety clip
    Explanation
    To recover the M49A1 trip flare using the pull pin method, the first step is to remove the pull pin and replace the safety clip. This ensures that the flare is no longer armed and can be safely handled.

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  • 35. 

    Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as?

    • 5-10

    • 10-15

    • 25-30

    • 35-40

    Correct Answer
    A. 25-30
    Explanation
    Active terrorist groups are organized into cells that can be as small as two people or as large as 25-30. This means that terrorist groups have a flexible structure, allowing them to operate in small, covert units or larger, more complex networks. The size of the cells may vary depending on the specific goals and operations of the group. This flexibility enables them to carry out their activities with a level of secrecy and adaptability, making it challenging for authorities to track and dismantle these organizations.

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  • 36. 

    The key distinction between an insurgency and other types of movements is the decision to use?

    • Violence to achieve political goals

    • Violence to achieve religious goals

    • Non-violence to achieve political goals

    • Use violence to achieve ideological goals

    Correct Answer
    A. Violence to achieve political goals
    Explanation
    Insurgency is characterized by the deliberate use of violence to achieve political goals. This sets it apart from other types of movements that may use non-violent means or have different objectives such as religious or ideological goals. The use of violence in an insurgency is a strategic choice made by the group to challenge and undermine the existing political order and achieve their desired political outcomes.

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  • 37. 

    To avoid detection by the government, how will insurgent operate?

    • Underground

    • In disguise

    • In small bands

    • During hours of darkness

    Correct Answer
    A. In small bands
    Explanation
    Insurgents would operate in small bands to avoid detection by the government. By operating in small groups, they can remain inconspicuous and difficult to track. This strategy allows them to blend into the local population and carry out their activities without drawing too much attention. It also makes it easier for them to move quickly and adapt to changing situations. Operating in small bands provides them with a level of flexibility and agility that would be harder to achieve if they were operating as a large, centralized force.

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  • 38. 

    To avoid receiving an electrical shock when disconnecting the battery from the electronic security systems (ESS)?

    • Remove the negative lead first

    • Remove the positive lead first

    • It doesn't matter which lead you remove first

    • Secure the positive lead first and then the negative

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove the positive lead first
    Explanation
    When disconnecting the battery from the electronic security systems (ESS), it is recommended to remove the positive lead first. This is because the positive lead is connected to the live electrical current, and removing it first reduces the risk of accidentally creating a short circuit or electrical shock. By removing the positive lead first, the circuit is effectively broken, ensuring a safer disconnection process.

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  • 39. 

    How does the observer use off center vision when viewing an object during limited visibility?

    • Look 5 degrees above, below, or to either side rather than directly at it

    • Look 10 degrees above, below or to either side of it rather than directly at it

    • Look 15 degrees above, rather than looking directly at it

    • Look 20 degrees to either side only rather than directly at it

    Correct Answer
    A. Look 10 degrees above, below or to either side of it rather than directly at it
    Explanation
    During limited visibility, the observer uses off center vision by looking 10 degrees above, below, or to either side of the object rather than directly at it. This technique allows the observer to maximize their peripheral vision and gather more information about their surroundings. By looking slightly off-center, the observer can detect any potential obstacles or hazards that may not be visible when looking directly at the object. This helps to improve situational awareness and ensure safety during limited visibility conditions.

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  • 40. 

    If you adapted to the dark before donning goggles, you will gain full dark adaption within how many minutes after removing the goggles?

    • 8

    • 5

    • 4

    • 2

    Correct Answer
    A. 2
    Explanation
    If you adapted to the dark before wearing goggles, it means that your eyes have already adjusted to the low light conditions. When you remove the goggles, your eyes will not need much time to readjust to the darkness, as they have already adapted to it. Therefore, it will only take 2 minutes for you to gain full dark adaptation after removing the goggles.

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  • 41. 

    On the AN/PVS-14 night vision device what enables the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular?

    • Compass

    • De-mist shield

    • Tethering cord

    • Sacrificial window

    Correct Answer
    A. Compass
    Explanation
    The correct answer is compass. The compass on the AN/PVS-14 night vision device allows the operator to see azimuth readings in the monocular. This feature is important for navigation and orientation purposes, as it helps the operator determine their direction in low-light or nighttime conditions. The compass provides a convenient and reliable way for the operator to maintain their bearings and navigate effectively while using the night vision device.

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  • 42. 

    Which DAGR mode uses the most power and tracks satellites to produce a continuous PVT solution?

    • Continuous

    • Standby

    • Average

    • Fix

    Correct Answer
    A. Continuous
    Explanation
    Continuous mode uses the most power and tracks satellites to produce a continuous PVT (Position, Velocity, Time) solution. In this mode, the DAGR device constantly receives signals from multiple satellites, allowing it to provide real-time and accurate positioning information. This continuous tracking and processing of satellite signals require a significant amount of power, making it the mode that consumes the most power among the options given.

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  • 43. 

    During base defense operations what does the DFC use staff control tools for?

    • Control the traffic flow plan

    • Ensure all equipment is functioning properly

    • Make sure the office is maintained and kept neat and orderly

    • Disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan
    Explanation
    The DFC (Director of Force Protection) uses staff control tools during base defense operations to disseminate his or her orders and manage the base defense operations plan. These tools help the DFC effectively communicate and coordinate with the staff members involved in the defense operations, ensuring that everyone is aware of their roles and responsibilities. By using these tools, the DFC can efficiently distribute orders and information, making sure that the base defense operations are well-organized and executed according to the plan.

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  • 44. 

    What should a flight sector sketch show?

    • Main terrain feature in the sector of fire and the rangers to them

    • Flight and Squadron identification

    • Squad leader positions

    • True South

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight and Squadron identification
    Explanation
    A flight sector sketch should show flight and squadron identification. This is important for identifying and tracking different flights and squadrons within the sector. It helps in maintaining communication and coordination among different units during flight operations.

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  • 45. 

    Selection of team movement techniques is based on?

    • The ability of the team leader to control the team

    • Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed

    • Patrol objectives

    • The enemy threat

    Correct Answer
    A. Likelihood of enemy contact and need for speed
    Explanation
    The selection of team movement techniques is based on the likelihood of enemy contact and the need for speed. This means that the team leader must consider the probability of encountering the enemy and the urgency to move quickly. By assessing these factors, the team can choose the most appropriate movement techniques to minimize the risk of detection and maximize their efficiency in achieving their objectives. The ability of the team leader to control the team, patrol objectives, and the enemy threat may also be important considerations, but they are not the primary factors in determining the selection of movement techniques.

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  • 46. 

    How many way point can be entered and stored in the AN/PSN-11?

    • 99

    • 500

    • 999

    • 1000

    Correct Answer
    A. 999
    Explanation
    The AN/PSN-11 is capable of entering and storing up to 999 waypoints. This means that the device can store a large number of coordinates or locations that can be used for navigation purposes. With this capability, users can easily access and navigate to a wide range of waypoints, making the AN/PSN-11 a versatile and useful tool for navigation in various contexts.

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  • 47. 

    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component is an example of a nuclear weapons?

    • Accident

    • Incident

    • Mistake

    • Mishap

    Correct Answer
    A. Accident
    Explanation
    The jettisoning of a nuclear weapon or nuclear component can be considered an accident because it refers to an unintended or unplanned event involving the release or disposal of a nuclear weapon. Accidents can occur due to mechanical failures, human errors, or unforeseen circumstances. In this scenario, the jettisoning of a nuclear weapon would be an accidental occurrence rather than a deliberate act or intentional incident.

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  • 48. 

    Which base is austerely manned but is capable of expanding into a full-scale air base operation?

    • Bare base

    • Limited Base

    • Main operating base

    • Forward operating base

    Correct Answer
    A. Limited Base
    Explanation
    A limited base is a base that is manned with minimal personnel but has the capability to expand into a full-scale air base operation if needed. This means that it can accommodate additional personnel and equipment as required, allowing for flexibility and scalability in its operations.

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  • 49. 

    What security system consists of a variety of sensors, repeaters, and a hand-held display monitor?

    • MILES

    • TMS

    • ESS

    • BISS

    Correct Answer
    A. TMS
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TMS. TMS stands for Training and Monitoring System. It is a security system that includes a range of sensors, repeaters, and a hand-held display monitor. This system is commonly used in military training exercises to track and monitor the movements of soldiers and vehicles in real-time. The sensors detect and transmit data to the repeaters, which then transmit the information to the hand-held display monitor, allowing the user to monitor and analyze the situation effectively.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 21, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Skatertrix

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