Biology EOC Practice Questions (Practice Mode)

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Biology EOC Practice Questions (Practice Mode) - Quiz

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which group(s) contain organsims that can be classified as primary producers?

    • A.

      Monerans only

    • B.

      Protists only

    • C.

      Monerans and protists

    • D.

      Viruses and monerans

    Correct Answer
    C. Monerans and protists
    Explanation
    In addition to plants, algae (protists) and some bacteria (monerans) are autotrophs (a.k.a. producers).

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  • 2. 

    Hummingbirds transfer pollen from one flower to another while feeding. What plant structure contains the pollen?

    • A.

      Carpel

    • B.

      Petal

    • C.

      Sepal

    • D.

      Stamen

    Correct Answer
    D. Stamen
    Explanation
    Pistil = female part which produces the ovum
    Stamen = male part which produces the sperm contained in pollen

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  • 3. 

    In addition to the reproductive system, which body system is most directly essential to the production of gametes and offspring?

    • A.

      Circulatory

    • B.

      Endocrine

    • C.

      Immune

    • D.

      Nervous

    Correct Answer
    B. Endocrine
    Explanation
    Endocrine system produces hormones that are needed to produce gametes (ex: testosterone & estrogen).

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  • 4. 

    Which group(s) contain organsims that can be classified as primary producers?

    • A.

      Monerans only

    • B.

      Protists only

    • C.

      Monerans and protists

    • D.

      Viruses and monerans

    Correct Answer
    C. Monerans and protists
    Explanation
    In addition to plants, algae (protists) and some bacteria (monerans) are autotrophs (a.k.a. producers).

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  • 5. 

    Ella told her sister the sun would set at 6:30 p.m. and there would be a full moon on Thursday night. Under which basic assumption of science is she operating?

    • A.

      Nature is orderly.

    • B.

      Knowledge is superior to ignorance.

    • C.

      Nothing is self-evident.

    • D.

      All phenomena have natural causes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Nature is orderly.
    Explanation
    The assumption that Ella is operating under is that nature is orderly. This means that she believes that there is a predictable pattern and regularity in the natural world, such as the timing of the sunset and the occurrence of a full moon. This assumption is a fundamental principle of science, as it allows scientists to make predictions and understand the world based on consistent patterns and laws.

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  • 6. 

    Ming is having trouble sleeping and decides to participate in a study to determine whether a certain medication helps people sleep. There are 30 volunteers, each of whom is assigned to 1 of 2 groups. Volunteers in group 1 are given the medication, and volunters in group 2 are given a placebo (a pill with no medication). Which step is important in order to ensure scientifically valid results?

    • A.

      Assigning the subjects to groups at random

    • B.

      Assigning all of the subjects with sleeping problems to the placebo group

    • C.

      Telling subjects if they are receiving the medicine or the placebo

    • D.

      Ensuring that the researchers can determine which subjects are getting the medicine

    Correct Answer
    A. Assigning the subjects to groups at random
    Explanation
    Assigning the subjects to groups at random is important in order to ensure scientifically valid results because it helps to eliminate bias and ensure that the groups are comparable. Random assignment helps to distribute the potential confounding variables equally among the groups, making the comparison between the medication group and the placebo group more reliable. This increases the internal validity of the study and allows for more accurate conclusions to be drawn about the effectiveness of the medication in helping people sleep.

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  • 7. 

    Edison studies the effects of temperature on starch digestion in a test tube. He adds 2 g of starch and 1 mL of enzyme suspension to a test tube and incubates it at 25oC for 20 min. To accurately test the effects of temperature, Edison should begin a second test with 2 g of starch in a test tube and continue with which set of conditions?

    • A.

      1 mL of enzyme suspension incubated at 25oC for 10 min

    • B.

      1 mL of enzyme suspension incubated at 37oC for 20 min

    • C.

      2 mL of enzyme suspension incubated at 25oC for 20 min

    • D.

      2 mL of enzyme suspension incubated at 37oC for 10 min

    Correct Answer
    B. 1 mL of enzyme suspension incubated at 37oC for 20 min
    Explanation
    In order to accurately test the effects of temperature on starch digestion, Edison should begin a second test with the same amount of starch (2 g) but vary the temperature and enzyme concentration. The given answer suggests using 1 mL of enzyme suspension, which keeps the enzyme concentration constant, but increasing the temperature to 37oC. This allows Edison to compare the effects of different temperatures on starch digestion while keeping other factors constant. The longer incubation time of 20 minutes ensures sufficient time for the reaction to occur.

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  • 8. 

    Sunee and Jamila grow 2 distinct strains of E. coli bacteria following appropriate lab procedures. In Experiment 1, they use a new culture of Strain X and a 30-day old culture of Strain Y. In Experiment 2, they use a new culture of Strain Y and a 30-day old culture of Strain X. Sunee and Jamila measure the number of bacterial colonies and record the data in these graphs. What is the most accurate conclusion about the growth rate of the bacteria?

    • A.

      Strain X grows faster than Strain Y regardless of the culture's age.

    • B.

      Strain Y grows faster that Strain X regardless of the culture's age.

    • C.

      The 30-day old culture grows faster regardless of the strain.

    • D.

      The new culture grows faster regardless of the strain.

    Correct Answer
    C. The 30-day old culture grows faster regardless of the strain.
    Explanation
    The most accurate conclusion about the growth rate of the bacteria is that the 30-day old culture grows faster regardless of the strain. This can be inferred from the information provided in the question, where in both experiments, the 30-day old culture consistently resulted in a higher number of bacterial colonies compared to the new culture. This indicates that the older culture has a higher growth rate, regardless of the specific strain used.

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  • 9. 

    A student wants to determine whether temperature affects the rate at which mold grows on bread. The student puts one piece of bread inside a Petri dish, closes the lid, and places the Petri dish in the refrigerator. Which treatment would be the best comparison for this experiment?

    • A.

      Placing another piece of bread in an open Petri dish in the same refrigerator

    • B.

      Placing another piece of bread in a closed Petri dish in the same refrigerator

    • C.

      Placing another piece of bread in an open Petri dish on the countertop

    • D.

      Placing another piece of bread in a closed Petri dish on the countertop

    Correct Answer
    D. Placing another piece of bread in a closed Petri dish on the countertop
    Explanation
    The best comparison for the experiment would be placing another piece of bread in a closed Petri dish on the countertop. This is because the student wants to determine whether temperature affects the rate of mold growth on bread. By placing another piece of bread in a closed Petri dish on the countertop, the student can compare the mold growth in the refrigerator (low temperature) to the mold growth on the countertop (room temperature). This will allow the student to observe the difference in mold growth rates under different temperature conditions.

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  • 10. 

    These diagrams represent different stages of animal cell division. From start to finish, what is the correct order of the stages?

    • A.

      2, 4, 3, 1

    • B.

      2, 3, 4, 1

    • C.

      3, 2, 1, 4

    • D.

      3, 1, 2, 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 2, 4, 3, 1
    Explanation
    Prophase (chromosomes condense & nuclear membrane disappears)
    Metaphase (chromosomes line up in the MIDDLE)
    Anaphase (chromosomes are pulled APART)
    Telophase (2 nuclear membranes form & cytokinesis occurs

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  • 11. 

    What occurs during metaphase I of meiosis?

    • A.

      Centromeres of replicated chromosomes line up along the cell’s equator.

    • B.

      Centromeres divide as sister chromatids move toward opposite poles of the cell.

    • C.

      Homologous chromosome pairs line up along the cell’s equator.

    • D.

      Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of the cell.

    Correct Answer
    C. Homologous chromosome pairs line up along the cell’s equator.
    Explanation
    Metaphase I = homologous chromosomes are pulled to the middle of the cell

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  • 12. 

    In humans, pigmented skin is dominant to non-pigmented skin (albinism). What is the genotype of an individual with albinism?

    • A.

      Carrier

    • B.

      Heterozygous

    • C.

      Homozygous dominant

    • D.

      Homozygous recessive

    Correct Answer
    D. Homozygous recessive
    Explanation
    An individual with albinism has a genotype of homozygous recessive. This means that both of their alleles for the pigmentation gene are recessive, resulting in the absence of pigmentation in their skin.

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  • 13. 

    Lions and tigers both belong to genus Panthera., Cheetahs belong to the genus Achinonyx. Scientists group these 3 types of cats together at the next taxonomic level. What is the most specific taxonomic level that lions, cheetahs, and tigers share?

    • A.

      Class

    • B.

      Family

    • C.

      Kingdom

    • D.

      Order

    Correct Answer
    B. Family
    Explanation
    Kingdom -> Phylum -> Class -> Order -> FAMILY -> Genus -> Species

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  • 14. 

    In the following food chain, assuming that the producer contains 180,000 J of energy, how much energy would be able to be transferred to the tertiary consumer? Plant --> Mouse --> Snake --> Owl --> Fungus

    • A.

      180 J

    • B.

      18,000 J

    • C.

      1,800 J

    • D.

      18 J

    Correct Answer
    A. 180 J
    Explanation
    10% of energy is stored & transferred to the next trophic level (move the decimal place)
    90% is used or lost as heat

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  • 15. 

    When a new volcanic island forms, the pioneer species is the first species to successfully inhabit the island. Which organism is the most likely candidate for a pioneer species?

    • A.

      A seagull hatched from an egg laid on the island

    • B.

      A palm tree grown from a coconut that washed onto shore

    • C.

      Lichen spores deposited on rocks by the wind

    • D.

      Insect larvae carried on a piece of driftwood

    Correct Answer
    C. Lichen spores deposited on rocks by the wind
    Explanation
    Lichen can live on bare rock so they are a pioneer species for Primary Succession
    Primary Succession = bare rock, no soil
    Secondary Succession = bare soil, no plants

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  • 16. 

    If a football field in the taiga is abandoned, which group of organisms will most likely be part of the resulting climax community?

    • A.

      Apple tree, deer, and wolf

    • B.

      Cactus, snake, and hawk

    • C.

      Grass, mouse, and coyote

    • D.

      Pine tree, moose, and bear

    Correct Answer
    D. Pine tree, moose, and bear
    Explanation
    Taiga = coniferous forest (most of Canada is part of the Taiga)

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  • 17. 

    A flagellated protozoan lives within the intestines of a termite and helps it digest wood. What type of relationship most likely exists between the protozoan and the termite?

    • A.

      Competitive

    • B.

      Mutualistic

    • C.

      Parasitic

    • D.

      Predatory

    Correct Answer
    B. Mutualistic
    Explanation
    Mutualism = both benefit
    Commensalism = one benefits & the other is unaffected
    Parasitisim = one benefits & the other is harmed

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  • 18. 

    In a classic study of population growth, G.F. Gause obtained data on growth rates of 2 species of Paramecium, a common ciliate protozoan. The 2 species grew in separate cultures. The graph shows his results. According to these data, which is the most accurate comparison of the 2 species' growth rates.

    • A.

      Both show exponential growth, but P. caudatum has a higher rate of increase.

    • B.

      Both show logistic growth, but P. caudatum has a higher rate of increase.

    • C.

      P. caudatum shows exponential growth, but P. bursaria shows logistic growth.

    • D.

      P. bursaria shows exponential growth, but P. caudatum shows logistic growth.

    Correct Answer
    B. Both show logistic growth, but P. caudatum has a higher rate of increase.
    Explanation
    Logistic = levels off (shows carrying capacity)
    Exponential = grows at a constant rate of increase (never levels off)

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  • 19. 

    The presence of what cellular structure distinguishes a plant cell from an animal cell?

    • A.

      Cell membrane

    • B.

      Chloroplast

    • C.

      Mitochondrion

    • D.

      Nucleus

    Correct Answer
    B. Chloroplast
    Explanation
    Animal Cells do NOT have = chloroplasts, cell walls, & large central vacuoles
    Both Animal Cells & Plant Cells are Eukaryotes = nucleus & membrane bound organelles

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  • 20. 

    Thylakoid membranes within chloroplasts contain chlorophyll. The Calvin cycle occurs in the stroma of the chloroplasts. How are the processes occurring within the Calvin cycle and the thylakoid membrane connected?

    • A.

      The Calvin cycle uses high-energy molecules formed within the thylakoid membrane to convert carbon dioxide into sugar molecules.

    • B.

      The Calvin cycle uses sugar molecules formed within the thylakoid membrane to generate high-energy molecules.

    • C.

      The processes in the thylakoid membrane use high-energy molecules formed during the Calvin cycle to convert carbon dioxide into sugar molecules.

    • D.

      The processes in the thylakoid membrane use sugar molecules formed during the Calvin cycle to generate high-energy molecules.

    Correct Answer
    A. The Calvin cycle uses high-energy molecules formed within the thylakoid membrane to convert carbon dioxide into sugar molecules.
    Explanation
    Light Dependent Reactions of photosynthesis occur in the thylakoid membranes because the chlorophyll absorbs the light energy & it is converted into energy molecules (ATP & electron carriers) to be used during the Calvin Cycle to make glucose.
    Light Dependent = uses light energy to split water to make oxygen; stores chemical energy
    Calvin Cycle = uses chemical energy to combine CO2 & Hydrogens to make glucose

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  • 21. 

    Plant cells contain both a cell wall and a cell membrane. What is the composition of the cell wall and where is it located in relation to the cell membrane?

    • A.

      Cellulose, inside the cell membrane

    • B.

      Cellulose, outside the cell membrane

    • C.

      Glucose, inside the cell membrane

    • D.

      Glucose, outside the cell membrane

    Correct Answer
    B. Cellulose, outside the cell membrane
    Explanation
    Plant cells have cell walls made of cellulose
    Cell Walls are ALWAYS outside of the cell membrane

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  • 22. 

    In pea plants, purple flowers are dominant to white flowers and tall stems are dominant to short stems. If two heterozygotes for both height and flower color are crossed, what is the probability of having short stemmed pea plants with purple flowers?

    • A.

      9/16

    • B.

      1/4

    • C.

      3/16

    • D.

      1/16

    Correct Answer
    C. 3/16
    Explanation
    PpTt x PpTt (factor using foil or window method)
    set up dyhibrid punett square (16 blocks)
    Phenotypic ratio should be:
    9 = Purple & Tall
    3 = Purple & Short
    3 = White & Tall
    1 = White & Short

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  • 23. 

    Lazzaro Spallanzani and Louis Pasteur both performed experiments hoping to disprove spontaneous generation. What conditions existed in Pasteur's experiment that did not exist in Spallanzani's?

    • A.

      Air could enter the flasks, but no microorganisms could enter.

    • B.

      No air could enter the flasks, but microorganisms could enter.

    • C.

      Neither air nor microorganisms could enter the flasks.

    • D.

      Both air and microorganisms could enter the flasks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air could enter the flasks, but no microorganisms could enter.
    Explanation
    Spallanzani = straight necked flasks
    Pasteur = S-shaped flasks that allowed air in but trapped dust in the neck

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  • 24. 

    Which criterion is NOT necessarily true of a trait that has evolved through natural selection?

    • A.

      It is heritable.

    • B.

      It varies among individuals.

    • C.

      It increases individuals' life spans.

    • D.

      It influences individuals' reproductive success.

    Correct Answer
    C. It increases individuals' life spans.
    Explanation
    Natural Selection = makes organism better able to leave offspring in next generation NOT necessarily a longer life

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  • 25. 

    What accounts for genetic biodiversity existing in modern multicellular organisms?

    • A.

      Mutations in gametes are passed to offspring.

    • B.

      Protein mutations cause DNA changes, creating new species.

    • C.

      Genetic mutations form when similar species mate and reproduce.

    • D.

      Somatic cell DNA mutations create new phenotypes in the population.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mutations in gametes are passed to offspring.
    Explanation
    During Meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair up & crossing over occurs. This increases genetic diversity.

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  • 26. 

    According to fossil evidence, whales evolved from 4-legged ancestors. The modern baleen whale has forelimbs, but inspection of its skeleton reveals only tiny vestigial hind limbs. What is the best explanation for this loss of hind limbs in the baleen whale?

    • A.

      The hind limbs adapted into flippers to help the whale swim faster.

    • B.

      Random chance and genetic drift led to the reduction in size of hind limbs.

    • C.

      Whales with shorter hind limbs swam faster than those with longer hind limbs.

    • D.

      Some whales lost longer hind limbs to predators and passed that trait to their offspring.

    Correct Answer
    C. Whales with shorter hind limbs swam faster than those with longer hind limbs.
    Explanation
    Vestigial structures are structures that have been minimized over time & no longer have a useful function.
    Natural Selection would cause each generation to have slightly shorter hind limbs because the ones with longer hind limbs would DIE because they are not as adapted to the environment SO they would not be able to pass those genes on to the next generation.

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  • 27. 

    What process of natural selection favors the extreme phenotypes of a trait and eliminates intermediate phenotypes?

    • A.

      Directional selection

    • B.

      Disruptive selection

    • C.

      Random selection

    • D.

      Stabilizing selection

    Correct Answer
    B. Disruptive selection
    Explanation
    Disruptive = intermediates die out
    Stabilizing = extremes die out
    Directional = one phenotype preferred

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  • 28. 

    Keisha passes a local dairy farm that has many brown cows, but only a few white cows. A dominant allele produces brown hair in cows and a recessive allele produces white hair. Which characteristic of any brown cow can Keisha identify?

    • A.

      The genotype of both of the cow's parents.

    • B.

      The genotype of the cow's hair color.

    • C.

      The phenotype of both of the cow's parents.

    • D.

      The phenotype of the cow's hair color.

    Correct Answer
    D. The phenotype of the cow's hair color.
    Explanation
    Phenotype = physical characteristic (observable)
    Genotype can only be determined through tracing traits through generations (pedigree or punnett squares)

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  • 29. 

    Which event of meiosis reveals the mechanism for understanding Mendel's laws of segregation and independent assortment?

    • A.

      Chromosome number is reduced during telophase I so gametes have half the standard number of chromosomes.

    • B.

      The arrangement of homologous chromosomes during metaphase I varies from cell to cell.

    • C.

      Centromeres break apart during anaphase II so that sister chromatids can move to opposite poles of the cell.

    • D.

      DNA is replicated during interphase before chromosomes condense and become attached to kinetochores.

    Correct Answer
    B. The arrangement of homologous chromosomes during metaphase I varies from cell to cell.
    Explanation
    Homologous chromosomes pair up during Prophase I of Meioisis but how they line up on the spindle is RANDOM (during Metaphase I)

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  • 30. 

    During what phase of meiosis does nondisjunction occur?

    • A.

      Metaphase I

    • B.

      Anaphase I

    • C.

      Prophase II

    • D.

      Metaphase II

    Correct Answer
    B. Anaphase I
    Explanation
    Nondisjunction = can occur when chromosomes SEPARATE (anaphase I or II)

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  • 31. 

    Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease in which mucus accumulates in the lungs and digestive system of affected individuals. Males and females must inherit 2 alleles with this mutation to have the disease. What is the mode of inheritance of cystic fibrosis?

    • A.

      Autosomal dominant

    • B.

      Autosomal recessive

    • C.

      Sex-linked dominant

    • D.

      Sex-linked recessive

    Correct Answer
    B. Autosomal recessive
    Explanation
    Autosomal = NOT on sex chromosomes (X or Y) so the chance of males and females getting it would be the same
    Recessive = MUST have 2 alleles for the disorder in order for it to be expressed
    Dominant = would have disorder if heterozygous (2 different alleles)

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  • 32. 

    What combine with sugar and a phosphate group to form a nucleotide?

    • A.

      Amino acid

    • B.

      Deoxyribose

    • C.

      Glycerol

    • D.

      Nitrogenous base

    Correct Answer
    D. Nitrogenous base
    Explanation
    Nucleotide = monomer of nucleic acids (DNA or RNA)
    Made of = Pentose Sugar (deoxyribose or ribose), 1 phosphate group, and a Nitrogen base (G, C, A, T or U)

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  • 33. 

    Adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD) is a sex-linked recessive trait that affects the nervous system. In one family, the father, mother, daughter, and elder son do not have ALD, while the younger son has ALD. Who must be a carrier of the ALD allele?

    • A.

      Father

    • B.

      Mother

    • C.

      Daughter

    • D.

      Elder son

    Correct Answer
    B. Mother
    Explanation
    If it is Sex-Linked it is on the X-chromosome. That means that females can be carriers (heterozygous) but males can NOT be carriers. (Females = XX Males = XY)
    In order for the disorder to be passed to the younger son, he had to inherit that allele from mom because that is where the X chromosome came from. (He inherited the Y from dad)
    SO, mother is the carrier.

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  • 34. 

    What trait of an ATP molecule enables it to store energy for use by cells?

    • A.

      Its small size

    • B.

      Its solubility in water

    • C.

      Its ability to form hydrogen bonds

    • D.

      Its phosphate-phosphate bond

    Correct Answer
    D. Its phosphate-phosphate bond
    Explanation
    Energy is stored in chemical bonds. Energy is released when a phosphate group is removed from ATP (bond is broken). Energy is stored when a phosphate group is added to ADP (bond is formed).

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  • 35. 

    Which is the LEAST likely trait of an organic molecule?

    • A.

      The molecules may exist as isomers.

    • B.

      The backbone is linear, cyclic, or branched.

    • C.

      Ionic bonds are present between the atoms.

    • D.

      Functional groups, such as alcohols, are present.

    Correct Answer
    C. Ionic bonds are present between the atoms.
    Explanation
    Organic compounds contain Carbon. Carbon ALWAYS form covalent bonds.

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  • 36. 

    Cosmetics often contain glycerol (C3H8O3), which has three identical functional groups. Which type of bond holds these functional groups together?

    • A.

      Covalent

    • B.

      Hydrogen

    • C.

      Intermolecular

    • D.

      Ionic

    Correct Answer
    A. Covalent
    Explanation
    Glycerol is Organic because it contains Carbon (C3H8O3). Carbon ALWAYS forms Covalent bonds.

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  • 37. 

    Red blood cells have a salt content of 0.9%. When a microbiologist places red blood cells in pure water, osmosis occurs. What net movement of a substance occurs in this instance of osmosis?

    • A.

      Water molecules move out of the cells.

    • B.

      Water molecules move into the cells.

    • C.

      Salt ions move out of the cells.

    • D.

      Salt ions move into the cells.

    Correct Answer
    B. Water molecules move into the cells.
    Explanation
    Pure water is ALWAYS hypotonic to cells SO water will move in to the cell causing the cell to swell.
    Osmosis = water moves from where there is a lot of water to where there is a little water
    Hypotonic = more water, less solutes
    Hypertonic = less water, more solutes

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  • 38. 

    What is the purpose of mitosis?

    • A.

      To produce 2 cells, each with 1 complete set of chromosomes

    • B.

      To produce 2 cells, each with half the normal number of chromosomes

    • C.

      To produce 4 cells, each with 1 complete set of chromosomes

    • D.

      To produce 4 cells, each with half the normal number of chromosomes

    Correct Answer
    A. To produce 2 cells, each with 1 complete set of chromosomes
    Explanation
    Mitosis produces 2 identical diploid body cells
    Diploid = a complete set of chromosomes (2 alleles for every gene)

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  • 39. 

    After Harrison adds a chemical to cells growing in a test tube, proteins accumulate in the cells' endoplasmic reticula. The chemical prevents movement of proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum to which organelle?

    • A.

      Golgi apparatus

    • B.

      Lysosome

    • C.

      Mitochondrion

    • D.

      Ribosome

    Correct Answer
    A. Golgi apparatus
    Explanation
    After being modified by the Rough ER, proteins are SUPPOSED to go to the Golgi Apparatus to be packaged & shipped out of the cell through Exocytosis.

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  • 40. 

    As part of an experiment, a student adds 10 mL of 5% hydrochloric acid solution to 100 mL of a non-buffered, colorless solution of sugar. What is the most likely result?

    • A.

      The concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) will increase.

    • B.

      The concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) will increase.

    • C.

      The pH will not change.

    • D.

      The pH will increase.

    Correct Answer
    B. The concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) will increase.
    Explanation
    When a solution becomes more acidic, the concentration of H+ ions increases (by a factor of 10).
    When a solution becomes more of a base, the concentration of OH- ions increases (by a factor of 10).

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  • 41. 

    A Paramecium lives in an environment that is hypotonic to its cytoplasm. How does the Paramecium maintain homeostasis under these conditions?

    • A.

      It expels excess water using contractile vacuoles.

    • B.

      It expels excess sodium using the sodium-potassium pump.

    • C.

      It absorbs additional water through osmosis.

    • D.

      It absorbs additional sodium through facilitated diffusion.

    Correct Answer
    A. It expels excess water using contractile vacuoles.
    Explanation
    Hypotonic solution = the cell will swell because water is moving from the solution (a lot of water) to the cell (little water)
    Paramecia have contractile vacuoles, which are specialized organelles that collect the extra water from the cytoplasm and force it out of the cell.

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  • 42. 

    Which sequence is in order from the simplest level of organization to the most complex?

    • A.

      Muscle, erythrocyte, lipid, mitochondrion, carbon

    • B.

      Carbon, lipid, erythrocyte, mitochondrion, muscle

    • C.

      Muscle, mitochondrion, lipid, erythrocyte, carbon

    • D.

      Carbon, lipid, mitochondrion, erythrocyte, muscle

    Correct Answer
    D. Carbon, lipid, mitochondrion, erythrocyte, muscle
    Explanation
    Atom -> molecule -> organelle -> cell -> tissue
    examples = carbon -> lipid -> mitochondria -> erythrocyte -> muscle

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  • 43. 

    After learning about viruses in Biology class, Sam decides to have his cat vaccinated against feline leukemia virus. According to cell theory, are viruses, such as feline leukemia, considered living things?

    • A.

      Yes, because they can reproduce.

    • B.

      Yes, because they are composed of cells.

    • C.

      No, because they cannot adapt to their environment.

    • D.

      No, because they are not composed of cells.

    Correct Answer
    D. No, because they are not composed of cells.
    Explanation
    Cell theory = ALL living things are made of cells
    Viruses are made of proteins & nucleic acids but they are NOT cells (no cell membrane, cytoplasm, or ribosomes)

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  • 44. 

    The graph provides information about the size of 1 rabbit population over 30 generations. What most likely happened shortly after the 10th generation to cause the change in population between Points A and B?

    • A.

      A fatal disease infected the rabbits.

    • B.

      Area farmers set traps for coyotes.

    • C.

      The average temperature decreased by 0.5 oC.

    • D.

      The average monthly rainfall increased by 0.25 in.

    Correct Answer
    A. A fatal disease infected the rabbits.
    Explanation
    The only answer choice above that would cause the rabbit population to decrease would be a disease. The temperature & rainfall changes are not drastic, therefore not significant. The coyotes are predators, so killing coyotes would cause the rabbit population to increase

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  • 45. 

    A scientist found that the results of an experiment did not support her hypothesis. If she is following proper scientific procedure, what should she do next?

    • A.

      Discard those results and repeat the experiment.

    • B.

      Accept the hypothesis and exclude data that does not fit.

    • C.

      Reject the hypothesis and assume it is incorrect.

    • D.

      Create a new hypothesis and a new experiment to test it.

    Correct Answer
    D. Create a new hypothesis and a new experiment to test it.
    Explanation
    If the data does not support the hypothesis, it should be rejected. A new experiment should be designed to test a revised hypothesis.
    f the data does support the hypothesis, it should be accepted but the experiment should be repeated to ensure accuracy. The experimental design, results, & conclusion should be published so that other scientists can confirm the work.

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  • 46. 

    Dr. Hansen performs an experiment testing the effectiveness of different cough syrups. Identify the independent variable in the experiment.

    • A.

      Type of cough syrup

    • B.

      Flavor of the cough syrup

    • C.

      Number of people taking each cough syrup

    • D.

      Number of days people take each cough syrup

    Correct Answer
    A. Type of cough syrup
    Explanation
    Independent variable = the cause that is purposely changed in the experiment (different cough syrups)
    Dependent variable = the effect that is measured in the experiment (effectiveness/# of days sick)

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  • 47. 

    This graph illustrates 4 different chemical reactions. Which reaction has the fastest initial reaction rate?

    • A.

      Reaction I

    • B.

      Reaction II

    • C.

      Reaction III

    • D.

      Reaction IV

    Correct Answer
    A. Reaction I
    Explanation
    Reaction 1 (black circles) has the steepest rate of increase (slope) at the beginning of the experiment.

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  • 48. 

    Carbon-14 is a radioactive isotope used to determine the age of ancient objects composed of organic matter. Carbon-12 and carbon-13 are other isotopes of carbon. The number of what subatomic particles varies among these carbon isotopes?

    • A.

      Electrons

    • B.

      Neutrons

    • C.

      Photons

    • D.

      Protons

    Correct Answer
    B. Neutrons
    Explanation
    Isotopes have the same number of protons (atomic number) but they have different numbers of neutrons. This changes the atomic mass.

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  • 49. 

    What is the purpose of meiosis?

    • A.

      To produce 2 cells, each with 1 complete set of chromosomes

    • B.

      To produce 2 cells, each with half the normal number of chromosomes

    • C.

      To produce 4 cells, each with 1 complete set of chromosomes

    • D.

      To produce 4 cells, each with half the normal number of chromosomes

    Correct Answer
    D. To produce 4 cells, each with half the normal number of chromosomes
    Explanation
    Meiosis produces 4 genetically different haploid sex cells (gametes)
    haploid = half the number of chromosomes (1 allele for every gene)

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  • 50. 

    This molecule is an example of which substance?

    • A.

      Amino acid

    • B.

      Carbohydrate

    • C.

      Fatty Acid

    • D.

      Nucleotide

    Correct Answer
    A. Amino acid
    Explanation
    Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins. They are made of a central Carbon & Hydrogen, an Amino group (-NH2), a Carboxyl group (-COOH), and an R group (variable)

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • May 06, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Awest
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