Nmt Final Part 1

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1. According to the NRC, records of surveys must be retained for how many years?

Explanation

According to the NRC, records of surveys must be retained for 3 years. This means that any documentation or data collected during surveys conducted by the NRC or related to the facility's compliance with regulations must be kept for a period of three years. This allows for proper record-keeping and ensures that the information is available for future reference or audits.

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Nmt Final Part 1 - Quiz

This quiz titled 'NMT FINAL PART 1' focuses on nuclear medicine, particularly bone imaging. It covers topics such as tracer preparation, normal bone activity in children, implications of... see moretracer concentration, and use of radiopharmaceuticals. see less

2. Which of the following materials is recommended for shielding syringes containing positron-emitting radionuclides?

Explanation

Tungsten is recommended for shielding syringes containing positron-emitting radionuclides because it has a high atomic number and density, which allows it to effectively absorb and attenuate the radiation. This helps to minimize the exposure of individuals handling the syringes to the harmful radiation emitted by the radionuclides. Lead and steel do not have as high atomic numbers or densities as tungsten, making them less effective for shielding purposes. Plastic-lined lead may provide some shielding, but it is not as effective as tungsten due to the lower density of the plastic.

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3. The first step that a technologist should initiate when an adult patient experiences cardiac arrest is to:

Explanation

The first step that a technologist should initiate when an adult patient experiences cardiac arrest is to call for help. This is because cardiac arrest is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate medical intervention. By calling for help, the technologist can ensure that additional medical personnel and equipment are available to provide the necessary support and treatment. Once help has been summoned, the technologist can then proceed with other appropriate actions such as performing chest compressions, establishing an airway, and performing rescue breathing if necessary.

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4. The standard views performed in a lung perfusion study are: 

Explanation

In a lung perfusion study, the standard views that are performed include anterior (ANT), posterior (POST), lateral (LAT), and obliques. These views are necessary to obtain a comprehensive assessment of the lung perfusion and to identify any abnormalities or blockages in the blood flow. By examining the lung from different angles, the radiologist can gather more information and make a more accurate diagnosis. Therefore, the correct answer is ANT, POST, LAT, and OBLIQUES.

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5. A technologist confirms a reffering physician's request for a nuclear medicine procedure for a hospitalized patient by

Explanation

The technologist confirms a referring physician's request for a nuclear medicine procedure for a hospitalized patient by locating the order for the test in the patient's medical record. This is the correct answer because the technologist needs to verify that there is a valid order for the procedure before proceeding. The medical record is the official documentation of the patient's medical history and treatment, so finding the order in the record ensures that the procedure is authorized and necessary for the patient's care.

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6. A gastric-emptying study uses which of the following radiopharmaceuticals? 

Explanation

A gastric-emptying study is a diagnostic test used to evaluate the rate at which food empties from the stomach. Tc99m-sulfur colloid is the radiopharmaceutical used in this study. It is injected into the patient and then tracked using a gamma camera to monitor the movement of the radiopharmaceutical through the digestive system. This helps to assess the function of the stomach and diagnose any abnormalities or delays in gastric emptying. Tc99m-medronate, Tc99m-disida, and Tc99m-MAA are not commonly used in gastric-emptying studies and are more commonly associated with other diagnostic procedures.

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7. Which of the following agents used for pharmacologic stress testing remains in the plasma for the greatest length of time?

Explanation

Dipyridamole is the correct answer because it has a longer half-life compared to the other agents listed. This means that it remains in the plasma for a longer duration, allowing for a more prolonged stress testing effect. Dobutamine, adenosine, and nitroglycerin have shorter half-lives and are therefore eliminated from the plasma more quickly.

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8. The purpose of a charcoal filter in a xenon delivery unit is to absorb:

Explanation

A charcoal filter in a xenon delivery unit is used to absorb xenon gas. Charcoal is known for its ability to adsorb gases and impurities, making it an effective filter material. In this case, the charcoal filter helps to remove xenon gas from the delivery unit, ensuring that only purified xenon is delivered to the desired location. By removing xenon gas, the filter helps to maintain the purity and quality of the delivered xenon, which is important for various applications such as medical imaging.

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9. Which of the following sources is the most appropriate for assessing dose calibrator constancy?

Explanation

Cs-137 is the most appropriate source for assessing dose calibrator constancy because it is a long-lived gamma-emitting radionuclide that has a half-life of 30.1 years. This makes it an ideal source for calibrating dose calibrators, as its long half-life ensures that it will not decay significantly over short periods of time, allowing for accurate and consistent measurements. Additionally, Cs-137 emits gamma radiation, which is the type of radiation that dose calibrators are designed to measure.

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10. Static bone imaging is routinely performed how long after tracer administration to an adult?

Explanation

Static bone imaging is routinely performed 2-3 hours after tracer administration to an adult. This time period allows for sufficient uptake of the tracer by the bones, providing clear and accurate images. Waiting longer than 2-3 hours may result in decreased tracer uptake and compromised image quality. Conversely, imaging too soon after tracer administration may not allow enough time for the tracer to distribute throughout the bones. Therefore, the optimal time for static bone imaging is typically 2-3 hours after tracer administration.

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11. In preparation for hepatobiliary imaging, patients are required to fast in order to:

Explanation

Fasting before hepatobiliary imaging is necessary to avoid stimulating the gallbladder. When a person eats, the gallbladder contracts and releases bile into the small intestine to aid in digestion. However, during hepatobiliary imaging, the goal is to visualize the gallbladder and biliary system in a resting state. By fasting, the gallbladder remains inactive, allowing for better visualization and accurate interpretation of the imaging results.

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12. Which of the following is/are not normally visualized on a Ga67 image acquired 72 hr after tracer administration?

Explanation

The kidneys are normally visualized on a Ga67 image acquired 72 hours after tracer administration. This is because Ga67 is a radiopharmaceutical that accumulates in areas of inflammation or infection, and the kidneys can show increased uptake in these conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is "kidneys are normally visualized on a Ga67 image acquired 72 hr after tracer administration."

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13. Significantly increased serum bilirubin levels will most likely cause which of the following to be visualized on hepatobiliary images?

Explanation

Significantly increased serum bilirubin levels can indicate liver dysfunction, which can lead to impaired excretion of bilirubin. In hepatobiliary imaging, the kidneys are visualized because the excreted bilirubin is eliminated through the urine, which is produced by the kidneys. Therefore, if there are high levels of bilirubin in the serum, it is likely that the kidneys will be visualized on hepatobiliary images.

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14. When 99mTc exametazime is used to label white blood cells which of the following reagents is omitted from its preparation?

Explanation

Methylene blue solution is omitted from the preparation of 99mTc exametazime when labeling white blood cells. This is because methylene blue is not involved in the labeling process and is not necessary for the desired outcome. The other reagents listed, Tc99 - pertechnetate, 0.9% sodium chloride, and ACD solution, are all likely to be included in the preparation as they play a role in the labeling process or serve as a necessary component.

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15. The technologist's responsibilities during tracer administration for a cisternogram include:

Explanation

During a cisternogram, a radioactive tracer is administered to the patient. The technologist's responsibility is to ensure that both personnel and the surroundings are not contaminated with radioactivity. This involves taking necessary precautions such as wearing protective gear, handling the radioactive material properly, and maintaining a clean and safe environment. Contamination can pose health risks to both the staff and other patients, so it is crucial for the technologist to prevent any spread of radioactivity.

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16. Localization of a Meckel's diverticulum can be accomplished with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

Explanation

Tc99m pertechnetate is used for the localization of a Meckel's diverticulum. Meckel's diverticulum is a small pouch in the wall of the small intestine that is present at birth. It can sometimes cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, bleeding, or intestinal obstruction. Tc99m pertechnetate is a radiopharmaceutical that is taken up by the gastric mucosa, which is present in Meckel's diverticulum. By administering Tc99m pertechnetate and using imaging techniques such as scintigraphy, the diverticulum can be visualized and localized. Ga67 Citrate, Tc99m pentetate, and Tc99m sulfur colloid are not specifically used for the localization of Meckel's diverticulum.

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17. Which of the following federal US agencies regulates the packaging and transportation of radioactive materials?

Explanation

The Department of Transportation (DOT) regulates the packaging and transportation of radioactive materials in the United States. They enforce regulations that ensure the safe handling and transportation of these materials to protect public health and safety. The DOT sets standards for packaging, labeling, and documentation to minimize the risk of accidents or incidents during transportation. They also provide training and certification programs for individuals involved in the transportation of radioactive materials.

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18. According to the NRC, wipe tests of areas where radiopharmaceuticals are prepared or administered must be performed:

Explanation

The correct answer is "on a reasonable schedule". This means that wipe tests of areas where radiopharmaceuticals are prepared or administered should be performed regularly, but the exact frequency may vary depending on factors such as the type and amount of radiopharmaceuticals used, the level of contamination risk, and any applicable regulations or guidelines. Performing these tests on a reasonable schedule helps ensure that any potential contamination is detected and addressed in a timely manner, promoting safety and preventing unnecessary exposure to radiation.

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19. Which of the following structures is normally visualized on an image performed with F18-fluorodeoxyglucose?

Explanation

F18-fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) is a radiopharmaceutical that is commonly used in positron emission tomography (PET) imaging. It is taken up by cells in the body that have a high metabolic rate, such as the brain. Therefore, when an image is performed with FDG, the brain is typically visualized. The other structures listed (thyroid, pituitary gland, pancreas) do not have as high of a metabolic rate as the brain and would not typically show significant FDG uptake.

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20. The C14 urea breath test is used to:

Explanation

The C14 urea breath test is a diagnostic test that is used to detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori bacteria in the stomach. This bacteria is known to cause various gastrointestinal conditions, such as peptic ulcers. Therefore, by detecting the presence of H. pylori, the test can indirectly indicate the presence of peptic ulcers. However, the primary purpose of the C14 urea breath test is to specifically identify the presence of H. pylori bacteria. It is not used to identify gastric cancers or rule out Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.

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21. During heptobiliary imaging, which structure will NOT be visualized if cystic duct obstruction is present?

Explanation

If cystic duct obstruction is present during heptobiliary imaging, the gallbladder will not be visualized. This is because the cystic duct is responsible for transporting bile from the gallbladder to the common bile duct. If there is an obstruction in the cystic duct, the bile cannot flow out of the gallbladder, leading to its non-visualization during imaging. The common hepatic duct and common bile duct may still be visualized as they are upstream of the cystic duct, while the small intestine is not directly related to the cystic duct obstruction and can still be visualized.

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22. Which of the following statements about pentetreotide is true?

Explanation

Pentetreotide is a radiopharmaceutical that is used in nuclear medicine imaging. It is labeled with 99m-Tc, which is a commonly used radioisotope for diagnostic imaging. The statement that it exhibits no human antimurine antibody (HAMA) effect means that it does not cause an immune response in humans against the murine (mouse) antibodies used in its production. This is an important characteristic as it reduces the risk of adverse reactions in patients. The option stating that it is excreted exclusively through the kidneys is not correct as pentetreotide is primarily excreted through the liver and the kidneys.

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23. All of the following 99mTc-labeled radiopharmaceuticals may be appropriatefor performing a left-to-right cardiac shunt examination using the first-pass method except:

Explanation

The first-pass method is a technique used to evaluate left-to-right cardiac shunts. It involves injecting a radiopharmaceutical into the bloodstream and monitoring its passage through the heart. Sulfur colloid is not suitable for this examination because it is primarily used for imaging the liver and spleen, not for assessing cardiac shunts. On the other hand, pentetate, sestamibi, and tetrofosmin are commonly used radiopharmaceuticals for performing left-to-right cardiac shunt examinations using the first-pass method.

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24. In preparation for a Tl-201 stress test, patients are instructed to fast to:

Explanation

Patients are instructed to fast before a Tl-201 stress test in order to minimize tracer uptake in the gastrointestinal tract. Fasting helps to reduce the amount of activity in the digestive system, which can interfere with the accuracy of the test results. By minimizing tracer uptake in the gastrointestinal tract, the test can focus more accurately on the myocardium, allowing for a more reliable assessment of heart function. Additionally, fasting helps to standardize test conditions among patients, as it ensures that everyone is undergoing the test under similar conditions.

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25. SPECT liver imagin with Tc99 sulfur colloid is performed how soon after tracer administration?

Explanation

The correct answer is 10-15 mins. After the administration of Tc99 sulfur colloid, SPECT liver imaging is performed within 10-15 minutes. This time frame allows for the tracer to distribute and accumulate in the liver, providing optimal imaging of the liver. Waiting longer than 10-15 minutes may result in decreased tracer uptake and poorer image quality.

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26. During parathyroid imaging imahes of the chest as well as the neck are obtained to:

Explanation

During parathyroid imaging, images of the chest as well as the neck are obtained in order to visualize ectopic parathyroid tissue. Ectopic parathyroid tissue refers to parathyroid glands that are located outside their normal anatomical position. These glands can be found in various locations, such as the chest, mediastinum, or even within the thyroid gland itself. By obtaining images of both the chest and the neck, it allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the parathyroid glands and increases the chances of detecting any ectopic tissue that may be present.

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27. According to NRC regulations, records of written directives must be maintained for how long?

Explanation

According to NRC regulations, records of written directives must be maintained for a period of 3 years. This means that organizations or individuals who are subject to NRC regulations must keep these records for a minimum of 3 years. This requirement ensures that there is a documented record of any written directives issued and allows for future reference if needed. Keeping records for this duration also helps in compliance and accountability purposes.

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28. A biohazard warning label would appear in all of the following places except: 

Explanation

A biohazard warning label would not appear on a unit of blood released for clinical use because the blood has already been tested and determined to be safe for use. The other options, such as a contaminated sharps container, refrigerator containing potentially infectious material, and receptacle for contaminated laundry, are all places where biohazard warning labels would be necessary to indicate the presence of potentially harmful biological substances.

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29. What is the minimal centrifugation time needed if a protocol specifies 5000 g for 5 mins, but the maximum relative centrifugal force that can be obtained is 2500 g?

Explanation

The protocol specifies a centrifugation force of 5000 g for 5 minutes, but the maximum force that can be obtained is only 2500 g. Since the force is directly proportional to the centrifugation time, we can calculate the minimal time needed by using the formula: (5000 g * 5 min) / 2500 g = 10 min. Therefore, the minimal centrifugation time needed is 10 minutes.

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30. Personnel must wear a rotation monitoring device during work hours if they are:

Explanation

Personnel must wear a rotation monitoring device during work hours if they are likely to exceed 10% of the annual maximum allowable occupational exposure. This means that if there is a possibility that their radiation exposure will reach or surpass 10% of the maximum allowable limit over the course of the year, they must wear the monitoring device. This device helps track and measure their radiation exposure levels to ensure they are within safe limits and to take necessary precautions if the levels are exceeded.

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31. A nebulizer is used to administer which of the following lung ventilation radiopharmaceuticals?

Explanation

A nebulizer is a device used to convert liquid medication into a fine mist that can be inhaled into the lungs. Tc-99m pentetate is a radiopharmaceutical that is commonly used in lung ventilation imaging studies. It is administered through a nebulizer to allow the patient to inhale the radioactive particles, which then distribute throughout the lungs, allowing for visualization and assessment of lung ventilation.

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32. Patient preparation for a thyroid uptake test may include discontinuation of antithyroid medications. Which of the following is one of these antithyroid drugs?

Explanation

One of the antithyroid drugs that may need to be discontinued before a thyroid uptake test is proptlythiouracil. This medication is commonly used to treat hyperthyroidism by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones. Discontinuing this medication prior to the test allows for accurate measurement of the thyroid's ability to take up radioactive iodine, which is used in the test. Synthroid, potassium perchlorate, and thyroxine are not antithyroid drugs, and therefore would not need to be discontinued for the test.

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33. A vial of Xe 133 has been decayed in storage for 2 months. When the vial is monitored with a survey meter, the reading is twice the background level. What should the technologist do next?

Explanation

The correct answer is to return the vial to storage. This is because the reading on the survey meter is only twice the background level, which indicates a low level of radioactivity. It is safe to return the vial to storage as it does not pose a significant risk. Removing radiation symbols, disposing of it as biohazardous waste, or venting the radioactivity into the fume hood are unnecessary actions for the given scenario.

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34. During a radiochromium red cell mass determination, an infusion set may be used to place a needle in the patient's antecubital vein. To maintain the patency of the infusion set tubing, what substance should be injected into the infusion set tubing?

Explanation

Heparin should be injected into the infusion set tubing to maintain its patency. Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood from clotting, thus preventing blockage in the tubing. This ensures that the infusion set remains open and allows the free flow of fluids or medications into the patient's vein. Normal saline, ACD solution, and bacteriostatic water do not have anticoagulant properties and therefore would not be effective in maintaining the patency of the infusion set tubing.

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35. After total thyroidectomy, total-body imaging with radioiodine normally will demonstrate tracer conentration in which of the following areas? 

Explanation

After total thyroidectomy, total-body imaging with radioiodine normally demonstrates tracer concentration in the salivary glands, stomach, and bladder. This is because the salivary glands, stomach, and bladder are the major sites of iodine excretion in the body. The radioiodine is taken up by these organs and excreted through saliva, gastric juices, and urine. The presence of tracer concentration in these areas indicates normal iodine metabolism and excretion.

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36. Patient preparation for breast imaging with Tc99m-sestamibi includes which of the following?

Explanation

Patient preparation for breast imaging with Tc99m-sestamibi includes explanation of the procedure. This is important to ensure that the patient understands what will happen during the imaging test, any potential risks or discomforts involved, and what is expected of them during the procedure. It helps to alleviate any anxiety or confusion the patient may have and allows them to actively participate in their own healthcare. This preparation step also allows the healthcare provider to address any concerns or questions the patient may have prior to the imaging test.

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37. All of the following units are expressions of radiopharmaceutical specific acitivty except: 

Explanation

The correct answer is kBq/mL because kBq/mL is a unit of radioactivity concentration, not specific activity. Specific activity is defined as the amount of radioactivity per unit mass or mole of a substance. The other units listed (uCi/mg, Ci/g, and MBq/mole) are all expressions of specific activity because they relate the amount of radioactivity to the mass or mole of the radiopharmaceutical.

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38. Imaging with In-111 pentetreotide routinely includes what areas of the body?

Explanation

Imaging with In-111 pentetreotide routinely includes the head to upper femus. This means that the imaging procedure using In-111 pentetreotide is performed to visualize and evaluate areas of the body from the head down to the upper femus. It is a comprehensive scan that covers a large portion of the body, allowing for the detection and assessment of any abnormalities or conditions in these areas.

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39. If 375mCi of Tc99m are present on the column of a Mo99/Tc99 generator and after elution 342 mCi 99mTc are assayed in the elution vial, the approximate elution efficiency of the generator is:

Explanation

The elution efficiency of the generator can be calculated by dividing the amount of Tc99m assayed in the elution vial (342 mCi) by the total amount of Tc99m present on the column (375 mCi) and multiplying by 100. This gives us (342/375) * 100 = 91%. Therefore, the approximate elution efficiency of the generator is 91%.

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40. 3 or 4 phrase bone imaging is particularly useful when which of the following conditions is suspected?

Explanation

3 or 4 phrase bone imaging is particularly useful when osteomyelitis is suspected. This imaging technique allows for the detection of inflammation or infection in the bone, which is characteristic of osteomyelitis. By visualizing the affected area, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat the condition.

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41. In infants, 24-hr images are sometimes performed over what area to demonstrate gastroesophageal reflux?

Explanation

In infants, 24-hr images are sometimes performed over the lung fields to demonstrate gastroesophageal reflux. This is because gastroesophageal reflux can sometimes cause aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs, leading to respiratory symptoms. By imaging the lung fields, doctors can identify any abnormalities or signs of aspiration, which can help in diagnosing and managing gastroesophageal reflux in infants.

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42. A patient's plasmacrit may be determined by:

Explanation

The correct answer is subtracting the decimal hematocrit from 1. This is because the plasmacrit represents the percentage of the blood volume that is composed of plasma. Since the hematocrit represents the percentage of red blood cells in the blood, subtracting it from 1 will give us the percentage of plasma in the blood.

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43. Proper placement of the urine collection bag includes: 

Explanation

Proper placement of the urine collection bag involves hanging it from the imaging table so that it is lower than the level of the bladder. This positioning allows gravity to assist in the flow of urine from the bladder into the bag. Hanging the bag from the IV pole and raising it above the level of the bladder would create a barrier to urine flow. Placing it across the patient's lower legs or on the stretcher near the patient's foot does not take advantage of gravity and may impede urine drainage.

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44. Stress-rest myocardial imaging performed with Tc99m-sestamibi requires two administrations of tracer, because the tracer:

Explanation

Tc99m-sestamibi is a radiotracer used in stress-rest myocardial imaging. It is taken up by the myocardium and remains there without redistributing. This is why two administrations of the tracer are required - one during stress and another during rest. The tracer doesn't wash out rapidly from the myocardium and has a longer half-life, allowing delayed imaging if needed. It doesn't need to be administered immediately after preparation as it remains in the myocardium once taken up.

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45. Which of the following structures normally appear as areas of increased activity on the bone images of adults?

Explanation

The correct answer is "all of the above". The anterior iliac crests, glenoid fossa, and sternoclavicular joints are all structures that normally appear as areas of increased activity on bone images of adults. This is because these areas are commonly involved in weight-bearing and movement, leading to increased bone density and activity.

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46. Upon completion of an imaging procedure, the patient sits up quickly and complains of dizziness and feeling faint. The most appropriate action for the technologists would be to: 

Explanation

The patient's complaint of dizziness and feeling faint after sitting up quickly suggests that they may be experiencing orthostatic hypotension, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure upon changing positions. In such cases, talking with the patient and having them breathe slowly and deeply can help alleviate symptoms by increasing blood flow and oxygenation to the brain. Checking vital signs would also be important to confirm the diagnosis and monitor the patient's condition. Having the patient lie down again or stand and walk around the room may exacerbate their symptoms and should be avoided.

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47. It is safe to block a portion of the pulmonary circulation with MAA particles in patients with suspected pulmonary emboli because the:

Explanation

The correct answer is that the number of injected particles blocks only a small number of precaillary arterioles. This suggests that blocking a portion of the pulmonary circulation with MAA particles is safe because only a small number of arterioles are affected. This implies that the blockage caused by the particles is minimal and unlikely to cause significant harm or complications.

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48. If a source of radioactive contamination produces an exposure rate of 3 mR/hr, how long will it take for the exposure rate to drop to a background exposure rate of 0.05 mR/hr?

Explanation

The exposure rate of a radioactive contamination decreases by half with each half-life. In this question, the exposure rate needs to drop from 3 mR/hr to 0.05 mR/hr, which is a decrease of 60 times (3/0.05 = 60). Since each half-life reduces the exposure rate by half, it would take 6 half-lives to achieve a decrease of 60 times (2^6 = 64). Therefore, the correct answer is 6 half-lives.

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49. If a nuclear medicine technologist needs a diagnostic X ray, how should this exposure be included in his/her occupation exposure record?

Explanation

The exposure from the X-ray examination must not be included in the occupational exposure record because X-rays are a form of ionizing radiation, which is different from the radiation that is typically monitored by a dosimeter. Dosimeters are designed to measure the amount of radiation exposure from sources such as radioactive materials, not X-rays. Therefore, the X-ray exposure should be recorded separately, but not included in the occupational exposure record.

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50. If tracer concentration is visualized in the skeleton, stomach, thyroid, and salivary glands on a bone image, the most likely explanation for these findings is that the:

Explanation

The most likely explanation for the visualization of tracer concentration in the skeleton, stomach, thyroid, and salivary glands on a bone image is that the radiopharmaceutical contained excess free Tc99m pertechnetate. This is because Tc99m pertechnetate is known to accumulate in these areas, and an excess amount of it in the radiopharmaceutical would result in increased uptake in these organs.

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51. Before tracer administration, all of the following preparation are required for a 27 year old woman referred for total-body bone imaging except: 

Explanation

The correct answer is removing attenuation materials from the patient. Attenuation materials are substances that can interfere with the imaging procedure by blocking or absorbing the tracer. However, in total-body bone imaging, attenuation materials do not need to be removed because they do not significantly affect the results. The other preparations mentioned, such as explaining the procedure, answering questions, and ruling out pregnancy, are important steps to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the imaging procedure.

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52. Which of the following structures normally appear as areas of increased activity on the bone imaging of children?

Explanation

Costochondral junctions and epiphyseal plates normally appear as areas of increased activity on bone imaging of children. This is because these structures are actively growing and undergoing ossification, which results in increased metabolic activity and blood flow. The diaphyses of the long bones also show increased activity during growth, but they are not specific to children as they continue to grow and remodel throughout life. Breast tissue, lumbar spine, and cranium do not typically show increased activity on bone imaging.

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53. According to the standard of practice, how often should dose calibrator linearilty testing be performed?

Explanation

According to the standard of practice, dose calibrator linearity testing should be performed quarterly. This means that the testing should be done every three months to ensure accurate and reliable measurements. Performing the testing on a regular basis helps to identify any potential deviations or inaccuracies in the calibrator's performance, allowing for timely adjustments or repairs to be made. This ensures the safety and effectiveness of the calibrator in accurately measuring radiation doses.

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54. The purpose of using acetazolamide in conjunction with a brain agent is to:

Explanation

Acetazolamide is a medication that is commonly used to evaluate cerebrovascular ischemia. This is because it is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that helps to increase blood flow to the brain. By using acetazolamide in conjunction with a brain agent, healthcare professionals can assess the blood flow in the brain and determine if there is any ischemia present. This information is valuable in diagnosing and treating conditions such as strokes or other cerebrovascular disorders.

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55. Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals should be prepared if a renal function study is being performed to determine the glomerular filtation rate?

Explanation

Tc99m-pentetate should be prepared for a renal function study to determine the glomerular filtration rate. Pentetate is a chelating agent that binds to the Tc99m radioisotope. This radiopharmaceutical is commonly used in renal imaging studies because it is excreted by the kidneys and can provide information about the glomerular filtration rate. Tc99m-gluceptate is used for hepatobiliary imaging, Tc99m-mertiatide is used for renal imaging but not specifically for glomerular filtration rate, and Tc99m-succimer is used for imaging the liver and gastrointestinal tract.

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56. Which tracer is excreted primarily via the hepatobiliary system?

Explanation

Tc99m sestamibi is excreted primarily via the hepatobiliary system. This means that after administration, the tracer is primarily eliminated from the body through the liver and biliary system. The hepatobiliary system plays a crucial role in the metabolism and excretion of various substances, including drugs and radiopharmaceuticals. In the case of Tc99m sestamibi, its excretion through the hepatobiliary system allows for the imaging of the liver and biliary system using nuclear medicine techniques.

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57. For which of the following clinical indications would limited bone imaging (spot views) be most appropriate?

Explanation

Limited bone imaging (spot views) would be most appropriate for evaluating temporomandibular joint pain. This technique allows for focused imaging of the specific area of concern, in this case, the temporomandibular joint. By using spot views, the radiologist can obtain detailed images of the joint, helping to identify any abnormalities or causes of the pain. This approach is more targeted and efficient compared to performing a full bone scan or other imaging modalities that may not provide as much specific information for evaluating temporomandibular joint pain.

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58. If a Mo99/Tc99 generator is eluted on Monday at 0600, the maximum 99mTc activity could next be eluted at what time?

Explanation

The Mo99/Tc99 generator has a half-life of 66 hours, which means that it takes 66 hours for the activity of 99mTc to decrease to half of its initial value. Since the generator was eluted on Monday at 0600, it will take 66 hours for the activity to decrease to half by Wednesday at 1800. Therefore, the maximum 99mTc activity could next be eluted at 0600 on Tuesday, as it has not yet reached half of its initial value.

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59. A cardiac stress test requires the placement of how many electrodes on the patient's body?

Explanation

A cardiac stress test requires the placement of 10 electrodes on the patient's body. These electrodes are used to monitor the electrical activity of the heart during the test. By placing the electrodes in specific locations, healthcare professionals can gather important information about the heart's function and detect any abnormalities or signs of stress. The electrodes are connected to an electrocardiogram (ECG) machine, which records the electrical signals produced by the heart. This information helps healthcare providers assess the heart's performance and diagnose any potential heart conditions.

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60. How long after the administration of Tc99m pertechnetate does imaging begin for the localization of Meckel's diverticulum?

Explanation

The correct answer is "immediately" because Tc99m pertechnetate is a radiopharmaceutical that is rapidly taken up by the gastric mucosa. Once it is administered, it quickly localizes in the Meckel's diverticulum, allowing for immediate imaging to be performed. This prompt uptake and localization of the radiopharmaceutical make it possible to detect the presence of Meckel's diverticulum without a significant delay.

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61. When performing a gated equilibrium cardiac study, which of the following anatomical views best separates the right to left ventricles?

Explanation

The LAO (Left Anterior Oblique) view is the best anatomical view for separating the right and left ventricles during a gated equilibrium cardiac study. This view allows for a clear visualization of the left ventricle, which is located anteriorly in the heart. By angling the X-ray beam from the left side of the patient towards the right shoulder, the LAO view provides a lateral projection of the left ventricle, effectively separating it from the right ventricle. This view is commonly used in cardiac imaging to assess the function and anatomy of the left ventricle.

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62. During cleanup of a radioactive spill, decontamination of the area must continue until:

Explanation

The correct answer is "no more contamination can be removed from the area". This means that the decontamination process should continue until all traces of radioactive material have been completely eliminated from the area. This ensures that there is no risk of further contamination or exposure to radiation. It is important to remove all contamination to ensure the safety of individuals and the environment.

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63. For interpretation of nuclear medicine lung images, a chest X ray is required to: 

Explanation

A chest X-ray is required for the interpretation of nuclear medicine lung images to rule out possible causes of the patient's symptoms. This is because the chest X-ray can provide additional information about the patient's lung condition, such as the presence of any abnormalities, infections, or other lung diseases that may be contributing to the symptoms. By ruling out these possible causes, the healthcare provider can have a more comprehensive understanding of the patient's condition and make informed decisions regarding further treatment or diagnostic tests.

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64. If a patient must be hospitalized in isolation after receiving a high acitivty  of I-131, which of the following signs must be placed on the door of the isolation room?

Explanation

The correct answer is "sign noting the length of time a visitor may stay in the room". This sign is necessary because the patient has received a high activity of I-131, which indicates that they may be emitting radiation. Limiting the amount of time visitors spend in the room helps to minimize their exposure to radiation and ensures their safety.

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65. Sodium phosphate P32 may be used to treat which of the following conditions?

Explanation

Sodium phosphate P32 may be used to treat polycythemia vera. Polycythemia vera is a condition characterized by the overproduction of red blood cells in the bone marrow. Sodium phosphate P32 is a radioactive substance that can be used to selectively destroy the overactive bone marrow cells responsible for the excessive red blood cell production. By targeting and killing these cells, sodium phosphate P32 helps to reduce the red blood cell count and alleviate the symptoms associated with polycythemia vera.

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66. Filtered Tc99m-Sulfur Colloid is required for which of the following examinations? 

Explanation

Filtered Tc99m-Sulfur Colloid is required for lymphoscintigraphy. This examination is used to visualize the lymphatic system and identify any abnormalities or blockages. Tc99m-Sulfur Colloid is a radiopharmaceutical agent that is injected into the body and then tracked using a gamma camera. It is filtered to remove any large particles that could cause blockages in the lymphatic vessels. By using this filtered colloid, the lymphatic system can be accurately imaged and any issues can be identified.

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67. According to NRC regulations, the annual occupational dose limit to the eye is:

Explanation

According to NRC regulations, the annual occupational dose limit to the eye is 150 mSv. This means that individuals who are exposed to radiation in their occupational setting should not exceed this limit in a year to protect their eyes from potential harm. It is important to adhere to these regulations to ensure the safety and well-being of workers in radiation-related professions.

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68. The purpose of wrapping the legs with elastic bandages before performing a radionuclide venogram with TcMAA is to:

Explanation

Wrapping the legs with elastic bandages before performing a radionuclide venogram with TcMAA helps to suppress superficial circulation. This is important because superficial circulation can interfere with the visualization of deeper veins during the venogram. By suppressing superficial circulation, the focus can be solely on the deeper veins and any abnormalities or blockages that may be present.

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69. Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is used to label white blood cells within Tc99m?

Explanation

Tc99 - exametazime is used to label white blood cells within Tc99m. This radiopharmaceutical is commonly used in nuclear medicine imaging to assess inflammatory processes and infections. It is taken up by white blood cells and provides a clear visualization of their distribution and activity in the body. Tc99 - bicisate, Tc99 - pertechnetate, and Tc99 - sestamibi are not specifically used for labeling white blood cells.

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70. In-111 pentetreotide should not be administered through an intravenous line containing:

Explanation

In-111 pentetreotide should not be administered through an intravenous line containing a total parenteral nutrition mixture because it can potentially interact with the nutrients in the mixture and affect the effectiveness of the medication. Total parenteral nutrition is a complex mixture of nutrients that are given intravenously to patients who are unable to consume food orally. Mixing In-111 pentetreotide with this mixture may alter its stability or potency, rendering it ineffective or potentially causing harm to the patient. Therefore, it is important to administer In-111 pentetreotide through a separate intravenous line to ensure its proper administration and efficacy.

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71. Effective renal plasma flow is measured with which of the following radiopharmaceutical? 

Explanation

Tc99m mertiatide is used to measure effective renal plasma flow. It is a radiopharmaceutical that is injected into the body and taken up by the kidneys. By measuring the clearance of Tc99m mertiatide from the blood, the rate at which plasma flows through the kidneys can be determined. This information is important in assessing kidney function and diagnosing renal disorders. Tc99m pentetate, Tc99m disofenin, and Tc99m medronate are not used for measuring renal plasma flow.

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72. If a point sources produces an exposure rate of 30 mR/hr at a distance of 15 cm, what is the exposure rate at 40 cm from the source?

Explanation

The exposure rate is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source. Therefore, if the exposure rate is 30 mR/hr at a distance of 15 cm, the exposure rate at 40 cm can be calculated using the formula: (30 mR/hr) * (15 cm)^2 / (40 cm)^2 = 4.2 mR/hr.

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73. Supersaturated potassium iodide solution may be administrered to the patient for therapy with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

Explanation

Supersaturated potassium iodide solution may be administered to the patient for therapy with I-131 tositumomab. This is because I-131 tositumomab is a radiopharmaceutical used in the treatment of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and the administration of supersaturated potassium iodide solution helps to protect the patient's thyroid gland from the radiation exposure. The solution works by saturating the thyroid with stable iodine, preventing the uptake of radioactive iodine and reducing the risk of thyroid damage.

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74. Visualization of bone marrow uptake on a Tc99m sulfur colloid liver/spleen imagine is most likely the result of which of the following?

Explanation

The visualization of bone marrow uptake on a Tc99m sulfur colloid liver/spleen image is most likely the result of liver dysfunction. Liver dysfunction can lead to altered clearance and metabolism of the radiotracer, causing abnormal distribution and accumulation in different organs, including the bone marrow. This can be seen as increased uptake of the radiotracer in the bone marrow on the imaging study.

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75. The glomerular filtration rate is measured with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

Explanation

Tc99m-pentetate is used to measure the glomerular filtration rate. It is a radiopharmaceutical that is injected into the bloodstream and then excreted by the kidneys. By measuring the concentration of the radiopharmaceutical in the urine over a certain period of time, the glomerular filtration rate can be calculated. Tc99m-succimer, Tc99m-gluceptate, and Tc99m-mertiatide are not commonly used for measuring the glomerular filtration rate.

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76. In performing a plasma volume with I-125 albumin, three blood samples are collected at varying times after tracer administration and counted. These counts vs. time are plotted on semilog graph paper. The purpose of this graph is to:

Explanation

The purpose of the graph is to correct for leakage of the radiopharmaceutical. By plotting the counts vs. time on semilog graph paper, any leakage of the radiopharmaceutical can be identified and accounted for. This allows for a more accurate calculation of the plasma volume using I-125 albumin. The graph does not give a visual representation of the data or show the decay of the radionuclide, and it does not provide the half-time clearance value used in the calculations.

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77. Static bone imaging is performed several hours after tracer administration to permit:

Explanation

Static bone imaging is performed several hours after tracer administration to permit blood clearance of excess tracer. This is because after the tracer is injected, it needs time to circulate through the bloodstream and be cleared from the blood. By waiting several hours, the excess tracer can be eliminated from the blood, allowing for better visualization of the skeletal system. This helps to minimize any interference or background noise that may be caused by the excess tracer in the blood, resulting in a clearer and more accurate image of the bones.

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78. When positioning a patient for an LAO view of a gated equilibrium ventricular function study, tilting the camera detector toward the patient's feet separates what two structures?

Explanation

When positioning a patient for an LAO view of a gated equilibrium ventricular function study, tilting the camera detector toward the patient's feet separates the left ventricle and left atrium.

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79. A patient can be released after receiving a therapeutic dose if not other individual is likely to receive an exposure dose, from being exposed to the patient, exceeding how many rems?

Explanation

A patient can be released after receiving a therapeutic dose if no other individual is likely to receive an exposure dose exceeding 0.5 rem. This indicates that a dose of 0.5 rem is considered safe for individuals who may come into contact with the patient.

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80. The recommended amount of captopril to be given orally an hour before renal imaging in a hypertension study is:

Explanation

The recommended amount of captopril to be given orally an hour before renal imaging in a hypertension study is 25-50 mg. This dosage range is likely determined based on the desired effect of captopril in reducing blood pressure and improving renal blood flow during the imaging procedure. Lower doses may not be sufficient to achieve the desired effect, while higher doses may increase the risk of adverse effects. Therefore, a dosage range of 25-50 mg is considered appropriate for this specific situation.

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81. The red cell survival test is most often performed on a patient with suspected

Explanation

The red cell survival test is most often performed on a patient with suspected hemolytic anemia. This test helps determine the lifespan of red blood cells in the patient's bloodstream. In hemolytic anemia, the red blood cells are being destroyed prematurely, leading to a decreased lifespan. By performing this test, healthcare professionals can confirm the diagnosis of hemolytic anemia and assess the severity of the condition.

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82. After a Tc99 spill,  decontamination procedures have not been able to remove all of the spilled material. If the current exposure rate is 32 mR/hr, how long will it take for the exposure rate to drop to 2 mR/hr?

Explanation

The exposure rate is dropping from 32 mR/hr to 2 mR/hr. To calculate how long it will take for the exposure rate to drop, we can divide the initial exposure rate (32 mR/hr) by the desired exposure rate (2 mR/hr). 32 mR/hr / 2 mR/hr = 16. Therefore, it will take 16 hours for the exposure rate to drop from 32 mR/hr to 2 mR/hr.

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83. When operating packages containing radioactive material, which of the following steps should be performed first?

Explanation

When operating packages containing radioactive material, the first step should be to put on disposable gloves. This is important to ensure personal protection and minimize the risk of contamination. By wearing gloves, the operator can prevent direct contact with the radioactive material and reduce the potential for exposure. Once gloves are properly worn, the operator can proceed with other necessary steps such as visually inspecting the package for damage or leakage, verifying the package contents against the packing slip, and conducting wipe tests for contamination. However, wearing gloves should be the initial action to prioritize safety.

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84. Which type of collimator should be used for organ couting during a red cell sequestration study?

Explanation

A flat field collimator should be used for organ counting during a red cell sequestration study. This type of collimator is designed to provide a uniform sensitivity across the entire field of view, which is important for accurately measuring the distribution of red blood cells in the organs. Low-energy and high-sensitivity parallel hole collimators may not provide the necessary uniformity, and high-energy, low-resolution parallel hole collimators may not provide the required level of detail. Pinhole collimators are typically used for high-resolution imaging rather than organ counting.

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85. Radionuclide venography may be performed with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

Explanation

Radionuclide venography is a diagnostic imaging technique used to evaluate the blood flow and function of veins. Tc99m MAA (Technetium-99m macroaggregated albumin) is a radiopharmaceutical that is commonly used in radionuclide venography. It is injected into the bloodstream and then tracked using a gamma camera to visualize the venous system. Tc99m MAA particles are too large to pass through the capillaries and are trapped in the lungs, allowing for the visualization of pulmonary blood flow. Therefore, Tc99m MAA is the correct radiopharmaceutical for performing radionuclide venography.

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86. All of the following statements about performing a lung ventillation study with Tc99 pentate aerosol are true, except:

Explanation

The patient is imaged while inhaling particles from the nebulizer. This statement is false because in a lung ventilation study with Tc99 pentate aerosol, the patient is imaged after inhaling the particles, not during the inhalation process. The imaging is done to assess the distribution of the inhaled particles in the lungs.

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87. The appearance of what structure indicates the begginning of the venous phase of a cerebral blood flow study?

Explanation

The superior sagittal sinus is a major blood vessel located within the brain. It is responsible for draining deoxygenated blood from the brain and returning it to the heart. During a cerebral blood flow study, the venous phase begins when the contrast agent reaches the superior sagittal sinus. This indicates that the blood flow is being visualized and allows for the assessment of cerebral blood flow patterns and abnormalities. The appearance of the superior sagittal sinus therefore marks the beginning of the venous phase in a cerebral blood flow study.

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88. Which radiopharmaceutical can be used to asses vesicourtical reflux using the indirect method?

Explanation

Tc99m pentetate can be used to assess vesicourtical reflux using the indirect method. This radiopharmaceutical is a chelating agent that binds to calcium, which is present in the urine. By injecting Tc99m pentetate into the patient's bladder and then monitoring the radioactivity in the kidneys and bladder, any reflux of urine from the bladder back into the ureters can be detected. This method allows for the evaluation of vesicourtical reflux without the need for direct catheterization.

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89. According to the NRC, imaging rooms should be posted with which of the following signs?

Explanation

Imaging rooms should be posted with a sign that says "caution: radioactive materials" according to the NRC. This sign is necessary to inform individuals entering the room about the presence of radioactive materials and to exercise caution while inside. It serves as a warning to prevent accidental exposure to radiation and ensures the safety of those working in or entering the imaging room.

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90. If the ectopic thyroid tissue is suspected, the technologist can expect to find it most commonly in which of the following areas?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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91. A technologist needs 1 mCi of In-111 chloride at 0900 on May 18. The label on the radiopharmaceutical vial contains the following information:Total activity: 3.0 mCiTotal volume: 3.0 mLAssay: 1200, May 21What volume is required to obtain the necessary activity on May 18?

Explanation

The label on the vial states that the total activity is 3.0 mCi and the total volume is 3.0 mL. To find the volume required to obtain 1 mCi of In-111 chloride, we can set up a proportion. Since the activity and volume are directly proportional, we can write:

(1 mCi / x mL) = (3.0 mCi / 3.0 mL)

By cross-multiplying, we get:

3.0 mCi * x mL = 1 mCi * 3.0 mL

Simplifying, we find:

3.0x = 3.0

Dividing both sides by 3.0, we find:

x = 1

Therefore, the volume required to obtain 1 mCi of In-111 chloride is 1 mL. However, we need to obtain this activity on May 18, and the assay date is May 21. Therefore, we need to account for the decay of the radioisotope. The half-life of In-111 is approximately 67 hours. Since May 18 to May 21 is 3 days, or 72 hours, we can calculate the decay factor as 0.5^(72/67) ≈ 0.829. Multiplying the required volume by this decay factor, we find:

1 mL * 0.829 ≈ 0.83 mL

Therefore, the volume required to obtain the necessary activity on May 18 is approximately 0.83 mL. The closest answer choice is 0.48 mL.

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92. If a plasma volume has been determined to be 15 L, which of the following events has most likely occurred?

Explanation

The most likely event that has occurred if a plasma volume has been determined to be 15 L is the infiltration of the tracer. Infiltration refers to the unintended leakage or seepage of a substance into the surrounding tissues during medical procedures. In this case, the tracer used to determine the plasma volume has leaked from the circulation into the tissues, leading to an inaccurate measurement of the plasma volume. This can occur due to a variety of reasons such as improper administration of the tracer or a problem with the injection site.

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93. Radionuclide cystography is performed by the direct method using which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

Explanation

Radionuclide cystography is a diagnostic procedure used to evaluate the structure and function of the urinary bladder. It involves the direct method of injecting a radiopharmaceutical into the bladder. Tc99m-pentetate and Tc99m-sulfur colloid are the two radiopharmaceuticals used for this procedure. These radiopharmaceuticals allow for clear visualization of the bladder and any abnormalities or reflux that may be present. Therefore, the correct answer is Tc99m-pentetate or Tc99m-sulfur colloid.

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94. The total blood volume may be calculated by dividing the plasma volume mesaured with labeled albumin by the: 

Explanation

The total blood volume can be calculated by dividing the plasma volume measured with labeled albumin by the corrected plasmacrit. The plasmacrit is a measure of the percentage of red blood cells in the plasma, and the corrected plasmacrit takes into account any abnormalities or variations in the red blood cell count. Therefore, using the corrected plasmacrit ensures a more accurate calculation of the total blood volume.

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95. If radioactivity in the circulation from a previous nuclear medicine test is unaccounted for, results of a plasma volume determination will be: 

Explanation

If radioactivity from a previous nuclear medicine test is unaccounted for, it means that some of the radioactivity is still present in the circulation. This would lead to an underestimation of the plasma volume determination because the radioactivity would falsely decrease the measured plasma volume. Therefore, the correct answer is "falsely decreased."

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96. If the HVL for I-131 in lead is 0.3 cm, what is the minimum thickness of lead that is required to reduce the exposure rate of a I-131 source from 12 mR/hr to less than 2 mR/hr?

Explanation

The HVL (half-value layer) is the thickness of a material required to reduce the exposure rate by half. In this case, the HVL for I-131 in lead is given as 0.3 cm. To reduce the exposure rate from 12 mR/hr to less than 2 mR/hr, we need to reduce it by a factor of at least 6 (12/2 = 6). Since the HVL represents a reduction by half, we need to multiply the HVL by 6 to achieve a reduction by a factor of 6. Therefore, the minimum thickness of lead required is 0.3 cm x 6 = 1.8 cm. Since the answer choices are in increments of 0.3 cm, the closest option is 0.9 cm.

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97. Dual isotope gastric emptying studies use which of the following radiopharmaceuticals for each phase of gastric emptying?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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98. A gated equilibrium ventricular function study can be performed with which of the following Tc99 labeled tracers? 

Explanation

A gated equilibrium ventricular function study is a type of imaging test that evaluates the pumping function of the heart. Pyrophosphate is a Tc99 labeled tracer that can be used in this study. Pyrophosphate is a molecule that binds to calcium, and it is commonly used to detect areas of damaged heart muscle. By injecting Tc99 labeled pyrophosphate into the patient's bloodstream and then performing imaging, the test can identify regions of the heart with impaired blood flow or damaged tissue.

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99. On the basis of the data shown here: 
 timecounts/min
capsule0900216,789
background090092
thyroid150094,954
thigh1500521
What is the patient's thyroid uptake at 1500 if a I-123 sodium iodide capsule administered to the patient is used as the standard?

Explanation

Decay the counts:
216,789 - (216,789e^0.693(6/8.01) = 158,256 cpm

Thyroid Uptake Formula:
[(thyroid cpm - thigh cpm) / (standard cpm - background cpm) ] x 100 = % thyroid uptake

i.e.
[(94,954 cpm -521 cpm)/(158,256 cpm - 92 cpm)] x 100 = 60%

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100. Which of the following tracers is preferred if a first-pass stress and cardiac function examination is to be performed on a patient?

Explanation

Tc99m-pentetate is preferred for a first-pass stress and cardiac function examination because it is a radiopharmaceutical that is used for evaluating cardiac blood flow. It is specifically designed to rapidly distribute within the blood pool, allowing for accurate assessment of cardiac function and perfusion. Tc99m-pentetate has a short half-life, which allows for timely imaging and reduces radiation exposure to the patient. Additionally, it has low hepatobiliary excretion, minimizing interference with the visualization of the heart.

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According to the NRC, records of surveys must be retained for how many...
Which of the following materials is recommended for shielding syringes...
The first step that a technologist should initiate when an adult...
The standard views performed in a lung perfusion study are: 
A technologist confirms a reffering physician's request for a...
A gastric-emptying study uses which of the following...
Which of the following agents used for pharmacologic stress testing...
The purpose of a charcoal filter in a xenon delivery unit is to...
Which of the following sources is the most appropriate for assessing...
Static bone imaging is routinely performed how long after tracer...
In preparation for hepatobiliary imaging, patients are required to...
Which of the following is/are not normally visualized on a Ga67 image...
Significantly increased serum bilirubin levels will most likely cause...
When 99mTc exametazime is used to label white blood cells which of the...
The technologist's responsibilities during tracer administration...
Localization of a Meckel's diverticulum can be accomplished with...
Which of the following federal US agencies regulates the packaging and...
According to the NRC, wipe tests of areas where radiopharmaceuticals...
Which of the following structures is normally visualized on an image...
The C14 urea breath test is used to:
During heptobiliary imaging, which structure will NOT be visualized if...
Which of the following statements about pentetreotide is true?
All of the following 99mTc-labeled radiopharmaceuticals may be...
In preparation for a Tl-201 stress test, patients are instructed to...
SPECT liver imagin with Tc99 sulfur colloid is performed how soon...
During parathyroid imaging imahes of the chest as well as the neck are...
According to NRC regulations, records of written directives must be...
A biohazard warning label would appear in all of the following places...
What is the minimal centrifugation time needed if a protocol specifies...
Personnel must wear a rotation monitoring device during work hours if...
A nebulizer is used to administer which of the following lung...
Patient preparation for a thyroid uptake test may include...
A vial of Xe 133 has been decayed in storage for 2 months. When the...
During a radiochromium red cell mass determination, an infusion set...
After total thyroidectomy, total-body imaging with radioiodine...
Patient preparation for breast imaging with Tc99m-sestamibi...
All of the following units are expressions of radiopharmaceutical...
Imaging with In-111 pentetreotide routinely includes what areas of the...
If 375mCi of Tc99m are present on the column of a Mo99/Tc99 generator...
3 or 4 phrase bone imaging is particularly useful when which of the...
In infants, 24-hr images are sometimes performed over what area to...
A patient's plasmacrit may be determined by:
Proper placement of the urine collection bag includes: 
Stress-rest myocardial imaging performed with Tc99m-sestamibi requires...
Which of the following structures normally appear as areas of...
Upon completion of an imaging procedure, the patient sits up quickly...
It is safe to block a portion of the pulmonary circulation with MAA...
If a source of radioactive contamination produces an exposure rate of...
If a nuclear medicine technologist needs a diagnostic X ray, how...
If tracer concentration is visualized in the skeleton, stomach,...
Before tracer administration, all of the following preparation are...
Which of the following structures normally appear as areas of...
According to the standard of practice, how often should dose...
The purpose of using acetazolamide in conjunction with a brain agent...
Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals should be prepared if a...
Which tracer is excreted primarily via the hepatobiliary system?
For which of the following clinical indications would limited bone...
If a Mo99/Tc99 generator is eluted on Monday at 0600, the maximum...
A cardiac stress test requires the placement of how many electrodes on...
How long after the administration of Tc99m pertechnetate does imaging...
When performing a gated equilibrium cardiac study, which of the...
During cleanup of a radioactive spill, decontamination of the area...
For interpretation of nuclear medicine lung images, a chest X ray is...
If a patient must be hospitalized in isolation after receiving a high...
Sodium phosphate P32 may be used to treat which of the following...
Filtered Tc99m-Sulfur Colloid is required for which of the...
According to NRC regulations, the annual occupational dose limit to...
The purpose of wrapping the legs with elastic bandages before...
Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is used to label white...
In-111 pentetreotide should not be administered through an intravenous...
Effective renal plasma flow is measured with which of the following...
If a point sources produces an exposure rate of 30 mR/hr at a distance...
Supersaturated potassium iodide solution may be administrered to the...
Visualization of bone marrow uptake on a Tc99m sulfur colloid...
The glomerular filtration rate is measured with which of the following...
In performing a plasma volume with I-125 albumin, three blood samples...
Static bone imaging is performed several hours after tracer...
When positioning a patient for an LAO view of a gated equilibrium...
A patient can be released after receiving a therapeutic dose if not...
The recommended amount of captopril to be given orally an hour before...
The red cell survival test is most often performed on a patient with...
After a Tc99 spill,  decontamination procedures have not been...
When operating packages containing radioactive material, which of the...
Which type of collimator should be used for organ couting during a red...
Radionuclide venography may be performed with which of the following...
All of the following statements about performing a lung ventillation...
The appearance of what structure indicates the begginning of the...
Which radiopharmaceutical can be used to asses vesicourtical reflux...
According to the NRC, imaging rooms should be posted with which of the...
If the ectopic thyroid tissue is suspected, the technologist can...
A technologist needs 1 mCi of In-111 chloride at 0900 on May 18. The...
If a plasma volume has been determined to be 15 L, which of the...
Radionuclide cystography is performed by the direct method using which...
The total blood volume may be calculated by dividing the plasma volume...
If radioactivity in the circulation from a previous nuclear medicine...
If the HVL for I-131 in lead is 0.3 cm, what is the minimum thickness...
Dual isotope gastric emptying studies use which of the following...
A gated equilibrium ventricular function study can be performed with...
On the basis of the data shown...
Which of the following tracers is preferred if a first-pass stress and...
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