Nmt Final Part 1
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Before tracer administration, all of the following preparation are required for a 27 year old woman referred for total-body bone imaging except:
- A.
Explaining the procedure to the patient
- B.
Answering the patient's questions
- C.
Ruling out pregnancy
- D.
Removing attentuation materials from the patient
Correct Answer
D. Removing attentuation materials from the patientExplanation
The correct answer is removing attenuation materials from the patient. Attenuation materials are substances that can interfere with the imaging procedure by blocking or absorbing the tracer. However, in total-body bone imaging, attenuation materials do not need to be removed because they do not significantly affect the results. The other preparations mentioned, such as explaining the procedure, answering questions, and ruling out pregnancy, are important steps to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the imaging procedure.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following structures normally appear as areas of increased activity on the bone imaging of children?
- A.
Diaphyses of the long bones
- B.
Breast tissue
- C.
Costochondral junctions and epiphyseal plates
- D.
Lumbar spine and cranium
Correct Answer
C. Costochondral junctions and epiphyseal platesExplanation
Costochondral junctions and epiphyseal plates normally appear as areas of increased activity on bone imaging of children. This is because these structures are actively growing and undergoing ossification, which results in increased metabolic activity and blood flow. The diaphyses of the long bones also show increased activity during growth, but they are not specific to children as they continue to grow and remodel throughout life. Breast tissue, lumbar spine, and cranium do not typically show increased activity on bone imaging.Rate this question:
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- 3.
If tracer concentration is visualized in the skeleton, stomach, thyroid, and salivary glands on a bone image, the most likely explanation for these findings is that the:
- A.
Patient was imaged too soon after tracer administration
- B.
Radiopharmaceutical contained excess free Tc99m pertechnetate
- C.
Patient's renal function is comprised
- D.
Incorrect radiopharmaceutical was administered
Correct Answer
B. Radiopharmaceutical contained excess free Tc99m pertechnetateExplanation
The most likely explanation for the visualization of tracer concentration in the skeleton, stomach, thyroid, and salivary glands on a bone image is that the radiopharmaceutical contained excess free Tc99m pertechnetate. This is because Tc99m pertechnetate is known to accumulate in these areas, and an excess amount of it in the radiopharmaceutical would result in increased uptake in these organs.Rate this question:
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- 4.
For interpretation of nuclear medicine lung images, a chest X ray is required to:
- A.
Determine cardiac size
- B.
Rule out a pulmonary embolus
- C.
Rule out previous lung surgery
- D.
Rule out possible causes of the patient's symptoms
Correct Answer
D. Rule out possible causes of the patient's symptomsExplanation
A chest X-ray is required for the interpretation of nuclear medicine lung images to rule out possible causes of the patient's symptoms. This is because the chest X-ray can provide additional information about the patient's lung condition, such as the presence of any abnormalities, infections, or other lung diseases that may be contributing to the symptoms. By ruling out these possible causes, the healthcare provider can have a more comprehensive understanding of the patient's condition and make informed decisions regarding further treatment or diagnostic tests.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The purpose of a charcoal filter in a xenon delivery unit is to absorb:
- A.
Bacteria
- B.
Carbon dioxide
- C.
Moisture
- D.
Xenon gas
Correct Answer
D. Xenon gasExplanation
A charcoal filter in a xenon delivery unit is used to absorb xenon gas. Charcoal is known for its ability to adsorb gases and impurities, making it an effective filter material. In this case, the charcoal filter helps to remove xenon gas from the delivery unit, ensuring that only purified xenon is delivered to the desired location. By removing xenon gas, the filter helps to maintain the purity and quality of the delivered xenon, which is important for various applications such as medical imaging.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Radionuclide venography may be performed with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?
- A.
Tc99m pertechnetate
- B.
Tc99m pentetate
- C.
Tc99m exametazime
- D.
Tc99m MAA
Correct Answer
D. Tc99m MAAExplanation
Radionuclide venography is a diagnostic imaging technique used to evaluate the blood flow and function of veins. Tc99m MAA (Technetium-99m macroaggregated albumin) is a radiopharmaceutical that is commonly used in radionuclide venography. It is injected into the bloodstream and then tracked using a gamma camera to visualize the venous system. Tc99m MAA particles are too large to pass through the capillaries and are trapped in the lungs, allowing for the visualization of pulmonary blood flow. Therefore, Tc99m MAA is the correct radiopharmaceutical for performing radionuclide venography.Rate this question:
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- 7.
If the ectopic thyroid tissue is suspected, the technologist can expect to find it most commonly in which of the following areas?
- A.
In the brain
- B.
At the base of the tongue
- C.
In the mediastinum
- D.
At the base of the tongue or in the mediastinum
Correct Answer
D. At the base of the tongue or in the mediastinum -
- 8.
During parathyroid imaging imahes of the chest as well as the neck are obtained to:
- A.
Correct the image series for patient motion
- B.
Visualize ectopic parathyroid tissue
- C.
Visualize substernal thyroid tissue
- D.
Diagnose hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer
B. Visualize ectopic parathyroid tissueExplanation
During parathyroid imaging, images of the chest as well as the neck are obtained in order to visualize ectopic parathyroid tissue. Ectopic parathyroid tissue refers to parathyroid glands that are located outside their normal anatomical position. These glands can be found in various locations, such as the chest, mediastinum, or even within the thyroid gland itself. By obtaining images of both the chest and the neck, it allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the parathyroid glands and increases the chances of detecting any ectopic tissue that may be present.Rate this question:
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- 9.
When performing a gated equilibrium cardiac study, which of the following anatomical views best separates the right to left ventricles?
- A.
L LAT
- B.
LPO
- C.
LAO
- D.
ANT
Correct Answer
C. LAOExplanation
The LAO (Left Anterior Oblique) view is the best anatomical view for separating the right and left ventricles during a gated equilibrium cardiac study. This view allows for a clear visualization of the left ventricle, which is located anteriorly in the heart. By angling the X-ray beam from the left side of the patient towards the right shoulder, the LAO view provides a lateral projection of the left ventricle, effectively separating it from the right ventricle. This view is commonly used in cardiac imaging to assess the function and anatomy of the left ventricle.Rate this question:
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- 10.
In preparation for a Tl-201 stress test, patients are instructed to fast to:
- A.
Prevent gastrointestinal upsets during exercise
- B.
Minimize tracer uptake in the gastrointestinal tract
- C.
Enhance myocardial tracer uptake
- D.
Standardize test conditions among patients
Correct Answer
B. Minimize tracer uptake in the gastrointestinal tractExplanation
Patients are instructed to fast before a Tl-201 stress test in order to minimize tracer uptake in the gastrointestinal tract. Fasting helps to reduce the amount of activity in the digestive system, which can interfere with the accuracy of the test results. By minimizing tracer uptake in the gastrointestinal tract, the test can focus more accurately on the myocardium, allowing for a more reliable assessment of heart function. Additionally, fasting helps to standardize test conditions among patients, as it ensures that everyone is undergoing the test under similar conditions.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which of the following agents used for pharmacologic stress testing remains in the plasma for the greatest length of time?
- A.
Dobutamine
- B.
Adenosine
- C.
Dipyridamole
- D.
Nitroglycerin
Correct Answer
C. DipyridamoleExplanation
Dipyridamole is the correct answer because it has a longer half-life compared to the other agents listed. This means that it remains in the plasma for a longer duration, allowing for a more prolonged stress testing effect. Dobutamine, adenosine, and nitroglycerin have shorter half-lives and are therefore eliminated from the plasma more quickly.Rate this question:
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- 12.
SPECT liver imagin with Tc99 sulfur colloid is performed how soon after tracer administration?
- A.
Immediately
- B.
10-15 mins
- C.
30-45 mins
- D.
1-2 hr
Correct Answer
B. 10-15 minsExplanation
The correct answer is 10-15 mins. After the administration of Tc99 sulfur colloid, SPECT liver imaging is performed within 10-15 minutes. This time frame allows for the tracer to distribute and accumulate in the liver, providing optimal imaging of the liver. Waiting longer than 10-15 minutes may result in decreased tracer uptake and poorer image quality.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Significantly increased serum bilirubin levels will most likely cause which of the following to be visualized on hepatobiliary images?
- A.
Colon
- B.
Kidneys
- C.
Lung
- D.
Spleen
Correct Answer
B. KidneysExplanation
Significantly increased serum bilirubin levels can indicate liver dysfunction, which can lead to impaired excretion of bilirubin. In hepatobiliary imaging, the kidneys are visualized because the excreted bilirubin is eliminated through the urine, which is produced by the kidneys. Therefore, if there are high levels of bilirubin in the serum, it is likely that the kidneys will be visualized on hepatobiliary images.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Localization of a Meckel's diverticulum can be accomplished with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?
- A.
Ga67 Citrate
- B.
Tc99m pertechnetate
- C.
Tc99m pentetate
- D.
Tc99m sulfur colloid
Correct Answer
B. Tc99m pertechnetateExplanation
Tc99m pertechnetate is used for the localization of a Meckel's diverticulum. Meckel's diverticulum is a small pouch in the wall of the small intestine that is present at birth. It can sometimes cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, bleeding, or intestinal obstruction. Tc99m pertechnetate is a radiopharmaceutical that is taken up by the gastric mucosa, which is present in Meckel's diverticulum. By administering Tc99m pertechnetate and using imaging techniques such as scintigraphy, the diverticulum can be visualized and localized. Ga67 Citrate, Tc99m pentetate, and Tc99m sulfur colloid are not specifically used for the localization of Meckel's diverticulum.Rate this question:
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- 15.
In infants, 24-hr images are sometimes performed over what area to demonstrate gastroesophageal reflux?
- A.
Lung fields
- B.
Lower esophagus
- C.
Stomach
- D.
Upper small intestine
Correct Answer
A. Lung fieldsExplanation
In infants, 24-hr images are sometimes performed over the lung fields to demonstrate gastroesophageal reflux. This is because gastroesophageal reflux can sometimes cause aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs, leading to respiratory symptoms. By imaging the lung fields, doctors can identify any abnormalities or signs of aspiration, which can help in diagnosing and managing gastroesophageal reflux in infants.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Effective renal plasma flow is measured with which of the following radiopharmaceutical?
- A.
Tc99m pentetate
- B.
Tc99m disofenin
- C.
Tc99m medronate
- D.
Tc99m mertiatide
Correct Answer
D. Tc99m mertiatideExplanation
Tc99m mertiatide is used to measure effective renal plasma flow. It is a radiopharmaceutical that is injected into the body and taken up by the kidneys. By measuring the clearance of Tc99m mertiatide from the blood, the rate at which plasma flows through the kidneys can be determined. This information is important in assessing kidney function and diagnosing renal disorders. Tc99m pentetate, Tc99m disofenin, and Tc99m medronate are not used for measuring renal plasma flow.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following is/are not normally visualized on a Ga67 image acquired 72 hr after tracer administration?
- A.
Kidneys
- B.
Lacrimal glands
- C.
Sternum
- D.
Liver
Correct Answer
A. KidneysExplanation
The kidneys are normally visualized on a Ga67 image acquired 72 hours after tracer administration. This is because Ga67 is a radiopharmaceutical that accumulates in areas of inflammation or infection, and the kidneys can show increased uptake in these conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is "kidneys are normally visualized on a Ga67 image acquired 72 hr after tracer administration."Rate this question:
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- 18.
Which of the following statements about pentetreotide is true?
- A.
It's labled with 99m-Tc
- B.
It's labled with antibody
- C.
It exhibits no human antimurine antibody (HAMA) effect
- D.
It's excreted exclusively through the kidneys
Correct Answer
C. It exhibits no human antimurine antibody (HAMA) effectExplanation
Pentetreotide is a radiopharmaceutical that is used in nuclear medicine imaging. It is labeled with 99m-Tc, which is a commonly used radioisotope for diagnostic imaging. The statement that it exhibits no human antimurine antibody (HAMA) effect means that it does not cause an immune response in humans against the murine (mouse) antibodies used in its production. This is an important characteristic as it reduces the risk of adverse reactions in patients. The option stating that it is excreted exclusively through the kidneys is not correct as pentetreotide is primarily excreted through the liver and the kidneys.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The purpose of using acetazolamide in conjunction with a brain agent is to:
- A.
Tranquilize the patient
- B.
Evaluate cerebrovascular ischemia
- C.
Localize the area of the brain from which seizures arise
- D.
Localize brain tumors
Correct Answer
B. Evaluate cerebrovascular ischemiaExplanation
Acetazolamide is a medication that is commonly used to evaluate cerebrovascular ischemia. This is because it is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that helps to increase blood flow to the brain. By using acetazolamide in conjunction with a brain agent, healthcare professionals can assess the blood flow in the brain and determine if there is any ischemia present. This information is valuable in diagnosing and treating conditions such as strokes or other cerebrovascular disorders.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The technologist's responsibilities during tracer administration for a cisternogram include:
- A.
Performing the lumbar puncture
- B.
Obtaining concent to perform the procedure
- C.
Monitoring the patient for any adverse reactions to the provedure
- D.
Ensuring that personnel and the surroundings are not contaminated with radioactivity
Correct Answer
D. Ensuring that personnel and the surroundings are not contaminated with radioactivityExplanation
During a cisternogram, a radioactive tracer is administered to the patient. The technologist's responsibility is to ensure that both personnel and the surroundings are not contaminated with radioactivity. This involves taking necessary precautions such as wearing protective gear, handling the radioactive material properly, and maintaining a clean and safe environment. Contamination can pose health risks to both the staff and other patients, so it is crucial for the technologist to prevent any spread of radioactivity.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Sodium phosphate P32 may be used to treat which of the following conditions?
- A.
Liver metastases
- B.
Polycythemia vera
- C.
Rheumatoid arthritis
- D.
Malignant effusions
Correct Answer
B. Polycythemia veraExplanation
Sodium phosphate P32 may be used to treat polycythemia vera. Polycythemia vera is a condition characterized by the overproduction of red blood cells in the bone marrow. Sodium phosphate P32 is a radioactive substance that can be used to selectively destroy the overactive bone marrow cells responsible for the excessive red blood cell production. By targeting and killing these cells, sodium phosphate P32 helps to reduce the red blood cell count and alleviate the symptoms associated with polycythemia vera.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Supersaturated potassium iodide solution may be administrered to the patient for therapy with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?
- A.
Sm-153 lexidronam
- B.
Sr-89 chlorida
- C.
I-131 sodium iodide
- D.
I-131 tositumomab
Correct Answer
D. I-131 tositumomabExplanation
Supersaturated potassium iodide solution may be administered to the patient for therapy with I-131 tositumomab. This is because I-131 tositumomab is a radiopharmaceutical used in the treatment of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma, and the administration of supersaturated potassium iodide solution helps to protect the patient's thyroid gland from the radiation exposure. The solution works by saturating the thyroid with stable iodine, preventing the uptake of radioactive iodine and reducing the risk of thyroid damage.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The first step that a technologist should initiate when an adult patient experiences cardiac arrest is to:
- A.
Perform chest compressions
- B.
Establish an airway
- C.
Call for help
- D.
Perform rescue breathing
Correct Answer
C. Call for helpExplanation
The first step that a technologist should initiate when an adult patient experiences cardiac arrest is to call for help. This is because cardiac arrest is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate medical intervention. By calling for help, the technologist can ensure that additional medical personnel and equipment are available to provide the necessary support and treatment. Once help has been summoned, the technologist can then proceed with other appropriate actions such as performing chest compressions, establishing an airway, and performing rescue breathing if necessary.Rate this question:
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- 24.
In-111 pentetreotide should not be administered through an intravenous line containing:
- A.
A total parenteral nutrition mixture
- B.
0.9% sodium chloride
- C.
Dextrose and water
- D.
Glucose
Correct Answer
A. A total parenteral nutrition mixtureExplanation
In-111 pentetreotide should not be administered through an intravenous line containing a total parenteral nutrition mixture because it can potentially interact with the nutrients in the mixture and affect the effectiveness of the medication. Total parenteral nutrition is a complex mixture of nutrients that are given intravenously to patients who are unable to consume food orally. Mixing In-111 pentetreotide with this mixture may alter its stability or potency, rendering it ineffective or potentially causing harm to the patient. Therefore, it is important to administer In-111 pentetreotide through a separate intravenous line to ensure its proper administration and efficacy.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Dual isotope gastric emptying studies use which of the following radiopharmaceuticals for each phase of gastric emptying?
- A.
Liquid PhaseSolid PhaseTc99 Sulfure ColloidIn111 Pentetate
- B.
In111 PentetateTc99 Sulfur Colloid
- C.
Tl201 chlorideTc99 sestamibi
- D.
Tc99 pentetateTc99 Sulfur Colloid
Correct Answer
B. In111 PentetateTc99 Sulfur Colloid -
- 26.
Proper placement of the urine collection bag includes:
- A.
Placing it across the patient's lower legs to keep it near the level of the bladder
- B.
Placing it on the stretcher near the patient's foot so that it is out of the field of view from the camera
- C.
Hanging it from the IV pole and raising it above the level of the bladder
- D.
Hanging it from the imaging table so that it is lower than the level of the bladder
Correct Answer
D. Hanging it from the imaging table so that it is lower than the level of the bladderExplanation
Proper placement of the urine collection bag involves hanging it from the imaging table so that it is lower than the level of the bladder. This positioning allows gravity to assist in the flow of urine from the bladder into the bag. Hanging the bag from the IV pole and raising it above the level of the bladder would create a barrier to urine flow. Placing it across the patient's lower legs or on the stretcher near the patient's foot does not take advantage of gravity and may impede urine drainage.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which radiopharmaceutical can be used to asses vesicourtical reflux using the indirect method?
- A.
Tc99m pertechnetate
- B.
Tc99m sulfur colloid
- C.
Tc99m albumin
- D.
Tc99m pentetate
Correct Answer
D. Tc99m pentetateExplanation
Tc99m pentetate can be used to assess vesicourtical reflux using the indirect method. This radiopharmaceutical is a chelating agent that binds to calcium, which is present in the urine. By injecting Tc99m pentetate into the patient's bladder and then monitoring the radioactivity in the kidneys and bladder, any reflux of urine from the bladder back into the ureters can be detected. This method allows for the evaluation of vesicourtical reflux without the need for direct catheterization.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The red cell survival test is most often performed on a patient with suspected
- A.
Pernicious anemia
- B.
Intestinal malabsorption
- C.
Iron deficiency anemia
- D.
Hemolytic anemia
Correct Answer
D. Hemolytic anemiaExplanation
The red cell survival test is most often performed on a patient with suspected hemolytic anemia. This test helps determine the lifespan of red blood cells in the patient's bloodstream. In hemolytic anemia, the red blood cells are being destroyed prematurely, leading to a decreased lifespan. By performing this test, healthcare professionals can confirm the diagnosis of hemolytic anemia and assess the severity of the condition.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A technologist confirms a reffering physician's request for a nuclear medicine procedure for a hospitalized patient by
- A.
Locating the order for the test in the patient's medical record
- B.
Telephoning the patient's physician for confirmation
- C.
Asking the patient why he/she came to the nuclear medicine department
- D.
Conferring with the nuclear medicine physician
Correct Answer
A. Locating the order for the test in the patient's medical recordExplanation
The technologist confirms a referring physician's request for a nuclear medicine procedure for a hospitalized patient by locating the order for the test in the patient's medical record. This is the correct answer because the technologist needs to verify that there is a valid order for the procedure before proceeding. The medical record is the official documentation of the patient's medical history and treatment, so finding the order in the record ensures that the procedure is authorized and necessary for the patient's care.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which type of collimator should be used for organ couting during a red cell sequestration study?
- A.
Low-energy, high-sensitivity parallel hole
- B.
High- energy, low-resolution parallel hole
- C.
Pinhole
- D.
Flat flied
Correct Answer
D. Flat fliedExplanation
A flat field collimator should be used for organ counting during a red cell sequestration study. This type of collimator is designed to provide a uniform sensitivity across the entire field of view, which is important for accurately measuring the distribution of red blood cells in the organs. Low-energy and high-sensitivity parallel hole collimators may not provide the necessary uniformity, and high-energy, low-resolution parallel hole collimators may not provide the required level of detail. Pinhole collimators are typically used for high-resolution imaging rather than organ counting.Rate this question:
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- 31.
If a plasma volume has been determined to be 15 L, which of the following events has most likely occurred?
- A.
Completion of a satisfactory study
- B.
Overhydration of the patient
- C.
Leakage of tracer from the circulation
- D.
Infiltration of the tracer
Correct Answer
D. Infiltration of the tracerExplanation
The most likely event that has occurred if a plasma volume has been determined to be 15 L is the infiltration of the tracer. Infiltration refers to the unintended leakage or seepage of a substance into the surrounding tissues during medical procedures. In this case, the tracer used to determine the plasma volume has leaked from the circulation into the tissues, leading to an inaccurate measurement of the plasma volume. This can occur due to a variety of reasons such as improper administration of the tracer or a problem with the injection site.Rate this question:
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- 32.
A biohazard warning label would appear in all of the following places except:
- A.
Contaminated sharps container
- B.
Refrigerator containing potentially infectious material
- C.
Receptacle for contaminated laundry
- D.
Unit of blood released for clinical use
Correct Answer
D. Unit of blood released for clinical useExplanation
A biohazard warning label would not appear on a unit of blood released for clinical use because the blood has already been tested and determined to be safe for use. The other options, such as a contaminated sharps container, refrigerator containing potentially infectious material, and receptacle for contaminated laundry, are all places where biohazard warning labels would be necessary to indicate the presence of potentially harmful biological substances.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The total blood volume may be calculated by dividing the plasma volume mesaured with labeled albumin by the:
- A.
Hematocrit
- B.
Plasmacrit
- C.
Corrected hematocrit
- D.
Corrected plasmacrit
Correct Answer
D. Corrected plasmacritExplanation
The total blood volume can be calculated by dividing the plasma volume measured with labeled albumin by the corrected plasmacrit. The plasmacrit is a measure of the percentage of red blood cells in the plasma, and the corrected plasmacrit takes into account any abnormalities or variations in the red blood cell count. Therefore, using the corrected plasmacrit ensures a more accurate calculation of the total blood volume.Rate this question:
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- 34.
If radioactivity in the circulation from a previous nuclear medicine test is unaccounted for, results of a plasma volume determination will be:
- A.
Unaffected
- B.
Falsely elevated
- C.
Falsely decreased
- D.
Impossible to predict
Correct Answer
C. Falsely decreasedExplanation
If radioactivity from a previous nuclear medicine test is unaccounted for, it means that some of the radioactivity is still present in the circulation. This would lead to an underestimation of the plasma volume determination because the radioactivity would falsely decrease the measured plasma volume. Therefore, the correct answer is "falsely decreased."Rate this question:
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- 35.
The recommended amount of captopril to be given orally an hour before renal imaging in a hypertension study is:
- A.
10-15 mg
- B.
15-20 mg
- C.
25-50 mg
- D.
55-100 mg
Correct Answer
C. 25-50 mgExplanation
The recommended amount of captopril to be given orally an hour before renal imaging in a hypertension study is 25-50 mg. This dosage range is likely determined based on the desired effect of captopril in reducing blood pressure and improving renal blood flow during the imaging procedure. Lower doses may not be sufficient to achieve the desired effect, while higher doses may increase the risk of adverse effects. Therefore, a dosage range of 25-50 mg is considered appropriate for this specific situation.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Imaging with In-111 pentetreotide routinely includes what areas of the body?
- A.
Head and chest
- B.
Chest
- C.
Abdomen
- D.
Head to upper femus
Correct Answer
D. Head to upper femusExplanation
Imaging with In-111 pentetreotide routinely includes the head to upper femus. This means that the imaging procedure using In-111 pentetreotide is performed to visualize and evaluate areas of the body from the head down to the upper femus. It is a comprehensive scan that covers a large portion of the body, allowing for the detection and assessment of any abnormalities or conditions in these areas.Rate this question:
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- 37.
If 375mCi of Tc99m are present on the column of a Mo99/Tc99 generator and after elution 342 mCi 99mTc are assayed in the elution vial, the approximate elution efficiency of the generator is:
- A.
110%
- B.
91%
- C.
33%
- D.
11%
Correct Answer
B. 91%Explanation
The elution efficiency of the generator can be calculated by dividing the amount of Tc99m assayed in the elution vial (342 mCi) by the total amount of Tc99m present on the column (375 mCi) and multiplying by 100. This gives us (342/375) * 100 = 91%. Therefore, the approximate elution efficiency of the generator is 91%.Rate this question:
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- 38.
If a Mo99/Tc99 generator is eluted on Monday at 0600, the maximum 99mTc activity could next be eluted at what time?
- A.
1200, Monday
- B.
1800, Monday
- C.
0600, Tuesday
- D.
0600, Wednesday
Correct Answer
C. 0600, TuesdayExplanation
The Mo99/Tc99 generator has a half-life of 66 hours, which means that it takes 66 hours for the activity of 99mTc to decrease to half of its initial value. Since the generator was eluted on Monday at 0600, it will take 66 hours for the activity to decrease to half by Wednesday at 1800. Therefore, the maximum 99mTc activity could next be eluted at 0600 on Tuesday, as it has not yet reached half of its initial value.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is used to label white blood cells within Tc99m?
- A.
Tc99 - bicisate
- B.
Tc99 - exametazime
- C.
Tc99 - pertechnetate
- D.
Tc99 - sestamibi
Correct Answer
B. Tc99 - exametazimeExplanation
Tc99 - exametazime is used to label white blood cells within Tc99m. This radiopharmaceutical is commonly used in nuclear medicine imaging to assess inflammatory processes and infections. It is taken up by white blood cells and provides a clear visualization of their distribution and activity in the body. Tc99 - bicisate, Tc99 - pertechnetate, and Tc99 - sestamibi are not specifically used for labeling white blood cells.Rate this question:
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- 40.
When 99mTc exametazime is used to label white blood cells which of the following reagents is omitted from its preparation?
- A.
Tc99 - pertechnetate
- B.
0.9% sodium chloride
- C.
Methylene blue solution
- D.
ACD solution
Correct Answer
C. Methylene blue solutionExplanation
Methylene blue solution is omitted from the preparation of 99mTc exametazime when labeling white blood cells. This is because methylene blue is not involved in the labeling process and is not necessary for the desired outcome. The other reagents listed, Tc99 - pertechnetate, 0.9% sodium chloride, and ACD solution, are all likely to be included in the preparation as they play a role in the labeling process or serve as a necessary component.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What is the minimal centrifugation time needed if a protocol specifies 5000 g for 5 mins, but the maximum relative centrifugal force that can be obtained is 2500 g?
- A.
2 min
- B.
2.5 min
- C.
10 min
- D.
12.5 min
Correct Answer
C. 10 minExplanation
The protocol specifies a centrifugation force of 5000 g for 5 minutes, but the maximum force that can be obtained is only 2500 g. Since the force is directly proportional to the centrifugation time, we can calculate the minimal time needed by using the formula: (5000 g * 5 min) / 2500 g = 10 min. Therefore, the minimal centrifugation time needed is 10 minutes.Rate this question:
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- 42.
According to NRC regulations, the annual occupational dose limit to the eye is:
- A.
500 mSv
- B.
150 mSv
- C.
50 mSv
- D.
5 mSv
Correct Answer
B. 150 mSvExplanation
According to NRC regulations, the annual occupational dose limit to the eye is 150 mSv. This means that individuals who are exposed to radiation in their occupational setting should not exceed this limit in a year to protect their eyes from potential harm. It is important to adhere to these regulations to ensure the safety and well-being of workers in radiation-related professions.Rate this question:
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- 43.
According to the NRC, imaging rooms should be posted with which of the following signs?
- A.
No posting is required
- B.
Caution: radioactive materials
- C.
Caution: radioactive area
- D.
Caution: high radioactive area
Correct Answer
B. Caution: radioactive materialsExplanation
Imaging rooms should be posted with a sign that says "caution: radioactive materials" according to the NRC. This sign is necessary to inform individuals entering the room about the presence of radioactive materials and to exercise caution while inside. It serves as a warning to prevent accidental exposure to radiation and ensures the safety of those working in or entering the imaging room.Rate this question:
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- 44.
A vial of Xe 133 has been decayed in storage for 2 months. When the vial is monitored with a survey meter, the reading is twice the background level. What should the technologist do next?
- A.
Remove any radiation symbols from the vial, then dispose of it
- B.
Return the vial to storage
- C.
Dispose of the vial as biohazardous waste
- D.
Vent the radioactivity left in the vial into the fume hood
Correct Answer
B. Return the vial to storageExplanation
The correct answer is to return the vial to storage. This is because the reading on the survey meter is only twice the background level, which indicates a low level of radioactivity. It is safe to return the vial to storage as it does not pose a significant risk. Removing radiation symbols, disposing of it as biohazardous waste, or venting the radioactivity into the fume hood are unnecessary actions for the given scenario.Rate this question:
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- 45.
If a point sources produces an exposure rate of 30 mR/hr at a distance of 15 cm, what is the exposure rate at 40 cm from the source?
- A.
0.2 mR/hr
- B.
4.2 mR/hr
- C.
11.2 mR/hr
- D.
22 mR/hr
Correct Answer
B. 4.2 mR/hrExplanation
The exposure rate is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source. Therefore, if the exposure rate is 30 mR/hr at a distance of 15 cm, the exposure rate at 40 cm can be calculated using the formula: (30 mR/hr) * (15 cm)^2 / (40 cm)^2 = 4.2 mR/hr.Rate this question:
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- 46.
If the HVL for I-131 in lead is 0.3 cm, what is the minimum thickness of lead that is required to reduce the exposure rate of a I-131 source from 12 mR/hr to less than 2 mR/hr?
- A.
0.3 cm
- B.
0.6 cm
- C.
0.9 cm
- D.
1.2 cm
Correct Answer
C. 0.9 cmExplanation
The HVL (half-value layer) is the thickness of a material required to reduce the exposure rate by half. In this case, the HVL for I-131 in lead is given as 0.3 cm. To reduce the exposure rate from 12 mR/hr to less than 2 mR/hr, we need to reduce it by a factor of at least 6 (12/2 = 6). Since the HVL represents a reduction by half, we need to multiply the HVL by 6 to achieve a reduction by a factor of 6. Therefore, the minimum thickness of lead required is 0.3 cm x 6 = 1.8 cm. Since the answer choices are in increments of 0.3 cm, the closest option is 0.9 cm.Rate this question:
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- 47.
According to the NRC, wipe tests of areas where radiopharmaceuticals are prepared or administered must be performed:
- A.
On a reasonable schedule
- B.
Every day on which radiopharmaceuticals are used
- C.
Weekly
- D.
Only if contamination occurs
Correct Answer
A. On a reasonable scheduleExplanation
The correct answer is "on a reasonable schedule". This means that wipe tests of areas where radiopharmaceuticals are prepared or administered should be performed regularly, but the exact frequency may vary depending on factors such as the type and amount of radiopharmaceuticals used, the level of contamination risk, and any applicable regulations or guidelines. Performing these tests on a reasonable schedule helps ensure that any potential contamination is detected and addressed in a timely manner, promoting safety and preventing unnecessary exposure to radiation.Rate this question:
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- 48.
When operating packages containing radioactive material, which of the following steps should be performed first?
- A.
Visually inspect the package for damage or leakage
- B.
Put on disposable gloves
- C.
Verify the package contents against the packing slip
- D.
Wipe test the package for contamination
Correct Answer
B. Put on disposable glovesExplanation
When operating packages containing radioactive material, the first step should be to put on disposable gloves. This is important to ensure personal protection and minimize the risk of contamination. By wearing gloves, the operator can prevent direct contact with the radioactive material and reduce the potential for exposure. Once gloves are properly worn, the operator can proceed with other necessary steps such as visually inspecting the package for damage or leakage, verifying the package contents against the packing slip, and conducting wipe tests for contamination. However, wearing gloves should be the initial action to prioritize safety.Rate this question:
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- 49.
During cleanup of a radioactive spill, decontamination of the area must continue until:
- A.
No more contamination can be removed from the area
- B.
The exposure rate cannot be distinguished from background activity
- C.
The contamination is reduced to a small area
- D.
No one would receive the maximum allowable total effective dose equivalent if she/he remained in the area
Correct Answer
A. No more contamination can be removed from the areaExplanation
The correct answer is "no more contamination can be removed from the area". This means that the decontamination process should continue until all traces of radioactive material have been completely eliminated from the area. This ensures that there is no risk of further contamination or exposure to radiation. It is important to remove all contamination to ensure the safety of individuals and the environment.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Personnel must wear a rotation monitoring device during work hours if they are:
- A.
Exposed to radiation at any time during work hours
- B.
Exposed to radiation above background levels
- C.
Likely to exceed 10% if the annual maximum allowable occupational exposure
- D.
Likely to exceed the annual maximum allowable occupational exposure
Correct Answer
C. Likely to exceed 10% if the annual maximum allowable occupational exposureExplanation
Personnel must wear a rotation monitoring device during work hours if they are likely to exceed 10% of the annual maximum allowable occupational exposure. This means that if there is a possibility that their radiation exposure will reach or surpass 10% of the maximum allowable limit over the course of the year, they must wear the monitoring device. This device helps track and measure their radiation exposure levels to ensure they are within safe limits and to take necessary precautions if the levels are exceeded.Rate this question:
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Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Dec 06, 2016Quiz Created by
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