Nmt Final Part 1

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  • 1/100 Questions

    The first step that a technologist should initiate when an adult patient experiences cardiac arrest is to:

    • Perform chest compressions
    • Establish an airway
    • Call for help
    • Perform rescue breathing
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About This Quiz

This quiz titled 'NMT FINAL PART 1' focuses on nuclear medicine, particularly bone imaging. It covers topics such as tracer preparation, normal bone activity in children, implications of tracer concentration, and use of radiopharmaceuticals.

Nmt Final Part 1 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A technologist confirms a reffering physician's request for a nuclear medicine procedure for a hospitalized patient by

    • Locating the order for the test in the patient's medical record

    • Telephoning the patient's physician for confirmation

    • Asking the patient why he/she came to the nuclear medicine department

    • Conferring with the nuclear medicine physician

    Correct Answer
    A. Locating the order for the test in the patient's medical record
    Explanation
    The technologist confirms a referring physician's request for a nuclear medicine procedure for a hospitalized patient by locating the order for the test in the patient's medical record. This is the correct answer because the technologist needs to verify that there is a valid order for the procedure before proceeding. The medical record is the official documentation of the patient's medical history and treatment, so finding the order in the record ensures that the procedure is authorized and necessary for the patient's care.

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  • 3. 

    According to the NRC, records of surveys must be retained for how many years?

    • 1 year

    • 3 years

    • 5 years

    • As long as the facility's license is in effect

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 years
    Explanation
    According to the NRC, records of surveys must be retained for 3 years. This means that any documentation or data collected during surveys conducted by the NRC or related to the facility's compliance with regulations must be kept for a period of three years. This allows for proper record-keeping and ensures that the information is available for future reference or audits.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following materials is recommended for shielding syringes containing positron-emitting radionuclides?

    • Lead

    • Plastic-lined lead

    • Tungsten

    • Steel

    Correct Answer
    A. Tungsten
    Explanation
    Tungsten is recommended for shielding syringes containing positron-emitting radionuclides because it has a high atomic number and density, which allows it to effectively absorb and attenuate the radiation. This helps to minimize the exposure of individuals handling the syringes to the harmful radiation emitted by the radionuclides. Lead and steel do not have as high atomic numbers or densities as tungsten, making them less effective for shielding purposes. Plastic-lined lead may provide some shielding, but it is not as effective as tungsten due to the lower density of the plastic.

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  • 5. 

    A gastric-emptying study uses which of the following radiopharmaceuticals? 

    • Tc99m-medronate

    • Tc99m-disida

    • Tc99m-sulfur colloid

    • Tc99m-MAA

    Correct Answer
    A. Tc99m-sulfur colloid
    Explanation
    A gastric-emptying study is a diagnostic test used to evaluate the rate at which food empties from the stomach. Tc99m-sulfur colloid is the radiopharmaceutical used in this study. It is injected into the patient and then tracked using a gamma camera to monitor the movement of the radiopharmaceutical through the digestive system. This helps to assess the function of the stomach and diagnose any abnormalities or delays in gastric emptying. Tc99m-medronate, Tc99m-disida, and Tc99m-MAA are not commonly used in gastric-emptying studies and are more commonly associated with other diagnostic procedures.

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  • 6. 

    The standard views performed in a lung perfusion study are: 

    • ANT and POST only

    • POST and OBLIQUES

    • ANT, POST, and LAT of affected lung

    • ANT, POST, LAT, and OBLIQUES

    Correct Answer
    A. ANT, POST, LAT, and OBLIQUES
    Explanation
    In a lung perfusion study, the standard views that are performed include anterior (ANT), posterior (POST), lateral (LAT), and obliques. These views are necessary to obtain a comprehensive assessment of the lung perfusion and to identify any abnormalities or blockages in the blood flow. By examining the lung from different angles, the radiologist can gather more information and make a more accurate diagnosis. Therefore, the correct answer is ANT, POST, LAT, and OBLIQUES.

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  • 7. 

    In preparation for hepatobiliary imaging, patients are required to fast in order to:

    • Prevent renal uptake

    • Enhance liver uptake

    • Avoid stimulating the gallbladder

    • Minimize the risk of radioactive emesis

    Correct Answer
    A. Avoid stimulating the gallbladder
    Explanation
    Fasting before hepatobiliary imaging is necessary to avoid stimulating the gallbladder. When a person eats, the gallbladder contracts and releases bile into the small intestine to aid in digestion. However, during hepatobiliary imaging, the goal is to visualize the gallbladder and biliary system in a resting state. By fasting, the gallbladder remains inactive, allowing for better visualization and accurate interpretation of the imaging results.

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  • 8. 

    The purpose of a charcoal filter in a xenon delivery unit is to absorb:

    • Bacteria

    • Carbon dioxide

    • Moisture

    • Xenon gas

    Correct Answer
    A. Xenon gas
    Explanation
    A charcoal filter in a xenon delivery unit is used to absorb xenon gas. Charcoal is known for its ability to adsorb gases and impurities, making it an effective filter material. In this case, the charcoal filter helps to remove xenon gas from the delivery unit, ensuring that only purified xenon is delivered to the desired location. By removing xenon gas, the filter helps to maintain the purity and quality of the delivered xenon, which is important for various applications such as medical imaging.

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  • 9. 

    Which of the following agents used for pharmacologic stress testing remains in the plasma for the greatest length of time?

    • Dobutamine

    • Adenosine

    • Dipyridamole

    • Nitroglycerin

    Correct Answer
    A. Dipyridamole
    Explanation
    Dipyridamole is the correct answer because it has a longer half-life compared to the other agents listed. This means that it remains in the plasma for a longer duration, allowing for a more prolonged stress testing effect. Dobutamine, adenosine, and nitroglycerin have shorter half-lives and are therefore eliminated from the plasma more quickly.

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  • 10. 

    Significantly increased serum bilirubin levels will most likely cause which of the following to be visualized on hepatobiliary images?

    • Colon

    • Kidneys

    • Lung

    • Spleen

    Correct Answer
    A. Kidneys
    Explanation
    Significantly increased serum bilirubin levels can indicate liver dysfunction, which can lead to impaired excretion of bilirubin. In hepatobiliary imaging, the kidneys are visualized because the excreted bilirubin is eliminated through the urine, which is produced by the kidneys. Therefore, if there are high levels of bilirubin in the serum, it is likely that the kidneys will be visualized on hepatobiliary images.

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  • 11. 

    Localization of a Meckel's diverticulum can be accomplished with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

    • Ga67 Citrate

    • Tc99m pertechnetate

    • Tc99m pentetate

    • Tc99m sulfur colloid

    Correct Answer
    A. Tc99m pertechnetate
    Explanation
    Tc99m pertechnetate is used for the localization of a Meckel's diverticulum. Meckel's diverticulum is a small pouch in the wall of the small intestine that is present at birth. It can sometimes cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, bleeding, or intestinal obstruction. Tc99m pertechnetate is a radiopharmaceutical that is taken up by the gastric mucosa, which is present in Meckel's diverticulum. By administering Tc99m pertechnetate and using imaging techniques such as scintigraphy, the diverticulum can be visualized and localized. Ga67 Citrate, Tc99m pentetate, and Tc99m sulfur colloid are not specifically used for the localization of Meckel's diverticulum.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following is/are not normally visualized on a Ga67 image acquired 72 hr after tracer administration?

    • Kidneys

    • Lacrimal glands

    • Sternum

    • Liver

    Correct Answer
    A. Kidneys
    Explanation
    The kidneys are normally visualized on a Ga67 image acquired 72 hours after tracer administration. This is because Ga67 is a radiopharmaceutical that accumulates in areas of inflammation or infection, and the kidneys can show increased uptake in these conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is "kidneys are normally visualized on a Ga67 image acquired 72 hr after tracer administration."

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following statements about pentetreotide is true?

    • It's labled with 99m-Tc

    • It's labled with antibody

    • It exhibits no human antimurine antibody (HAMA) effect

    • It's excreted exclusively through the kidneys

    Correct Answer
    A. It exhibits no human antimurine antibody (HAMA) effect
    Explanation
    Pentetreotide is a radiopharmaceutical that is used in nuclear medicine imaging. It is labeled with 99m-Tc, which is a commonly used radioisotope for diagnostic imaging. The statement that it exhibits no human antimurine antibody (HAMA) effect means that it does not cause an immune response in humans against the murine (mouse) antibodies used in its production. This is an important characteristic as it reduces the risk of adverse reactions in patients. The option stating that it is excreted exclusively through the kidneys is not correct as pentetreotide is primarily excreted through the liver and the kidneys.

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  • 14. 

    The technologist's responsibilities during tracer administration for a cisternogram include:

    • Performing the lumbar puncture

    • Obtaining concent to perform the procedure

    • Monitoring the patient for any adverse reactions to the provedure

    • Ensuring that personnel and the surroundings are not contaminated with radioactivity

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensuring that personnel and the surroundings are not contaminated with radioactivity
    Explanation
    During a cisternogram, a radioactive tracer is administered to the patient. The technologist's responsibility is to ensure that both personnel and the surroundings are not contaminated with radioactivity. This involves taking necessary precautions such as wearing protective gear, handling the radioactive material properly, and maintaining a clean and safe environment. Contamination can pose health risks to both the staff and other patients, so it is crucial for the technologist to prevent any spread of radioactivity.

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  • 15. 

    When 99mTc exametazime is used to label white blood cells which of the following reagents is omitted from its preparation?

    • Tc99 - pertechnetate

    • 0.9% sodium chloride

    • Methylene blue solution

    • ACD solution

    Correct Answer
    A. Methylene blue solution
    Explanation
    Methylene blue solution is omitted from the preparation of 99mTc exametazime when labeling white blood cells. This is because methylene blue is not involved in the labeling process and is not necessary for the desired outcome. The other reagents listed, Tc99 - pertechnetate, 0.9% sodium chloride, and ACD solution, are all likely to be included in the preparation as they play a role in the labeling process or serve as a necessary component.

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  • 16. 

    According to the NRC, wipe tests of areas where radiopharmaceuticals are prepared or administered must be performed:

    • On a reasonable schedule

    • Every day on which radiopharmaceuticals are used

    • Weekly

    • Only if contamination occurs

    Correct Answer
    A. On a reasonable schedule
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "on a reasonable schedule". This means that wipe tests of areas where radiopharmaceuticals are prepared or administered should be performed regularly, but the exact frequency may vary depending on factors such as the type and amount of radiopharmaceuticals used, the level of contamination risk, and any applicable regulations or guidelines. Performing these tests on a reasonable schedule helps ensure that any potential contamination is detected and addressed in a timely manner, promoting safety and preventing unnecessary exposure to radiation.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following sources is the most appropriate for assessing dose calibrator constancy?

    • Tc-99m

    • Cs-137

    • I-125

    • I-131

    Correct Answer
    A. Cs-137
    Explanation
    Cs-137 is the most appropriate source for assessing dose calibrator constancy because it is a long-lived gamma-emitting radionuclide that has a half-life of 30.1 years. This makes it an ideal source for calibrating dose calibrators, as its long half-life ensures that it will not decay significantly over short periods of time, allowing for accurate and consistent measurements. Additionally, Cs-137 emits gamma radiation, which is the type of radiation that dose calibrators are designed to measure.

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  • 18. 

    Static bone imaging is routinely performed how long after tracer administration to an adult?

    • 30 min

    • 1 hr

    • 2-3 hr

    • 24 hr

    Correct Answer
    A. 2-3 hr
    Explanation
    Static bone imaging is routinely performed 2-3 hours after tracer administration to an adult. This time period allows for sufficient uptake of the tracer by the bones, providing clear and accurate images. Waiting longer than 2-3 hours may result in decreased tracer uptake and compromised image quality. Conversely, imaging too soon after tracer administration may not allow enough time for the tracer to distribute throughout the bones. Therefore, the optimal time for static bone imaging is typically 2-3 hours after tracer administration.

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  • 19. 

    During heptobiliary imaging, which structure will NOT be visualized if cystic duct obstruction is present?

    • Common hepatic duct

    • Common bile duct

    • Gallbladder

    • Small intestine

    Correct Answer
    A. Gallbladder
    Explanation
    If cystic duct obstruction is present during heptobiliary imaging, the gallbladder will not be visualized. This is because the cystic duct is responsible for transporting bile from the gallbladder to the common bile duct. If there is an obstruction in the cystic duct, the bile cannot flow out of the gallbladder, leading to its non-visualization during imaging. The common hepatic duct and common bile duct may still be visualized as they are upstream of the cystic duct, while the small intestine is not directly related to the cystic duct obstruction and can still be visualized.

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  • 20. 

    All of the following 99mTc-labeled radiopharmaceuticals may be appropriatefor performing a left-to-right cardiac shunt examination using the first-pass method except:

    • Sulfur colloid

    • Pentetate

    • Sestamibi

    • Tetrofosmin

    Correct Answer
    A. Sulfur colloid
    Explanation
    The first-pass method is a technique used to evaluate left-to-right cardiac shunts. It involves injecting a radiopharmaceutical into the bloodstream and monitoring its passage through the heart. Sulfur colloid is not suitable for this examination because it is primarily used for imaging the liver and spleen, not for assessing cardiac shunts. On the other hand, pentetate, sestamibi, and tetrofosmin are commonly used radiopharmaceuticals for performing left-to-right cardiac shunt examinations using the first-pass method.

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  • 21. 

    The C14 urea breath test is used to:

    • Detect the presence of peptic ulcers

    • Detect the presence Helicobacter pylori bacteria

    • Identity gastric cancers

    • Rule out Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. Detect the presence Helicobacter pylori bacteria
    Explanation
    The C14 urea breath test is a diagnostic test that is used to detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori bacteria in the stomach. This bacteria is known to cause various gastrointestinal conditions, such as peptic ulcers. Therefore, by detecting the presence of H. pylori, the test can indirectly indicate the presence of peptic ulcers. However, the primary purpose of the C14 urea breath test is to specifically identify the presence of H. pylori bacteria. It is not used to identify gastric cancers or rule out Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following federal US agencies regulates the packaging and transportation of radioactive materials?

    • Department of transportation

    • Environmental protection agency

    • Food and drug administration

    • Nuclear regulatory commission

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of transportation
    Explanation
    The Department of Transportation (DOT) regulates the packaging and transportation of radioactive materials in the United States. They enforce regulations that ensure the safe handling and transportation of these materials to protect public health and safety. The DOT sets standards for packaging, labeling, and documentation to minimize the risk of accidents or incidents during transportation. They also provide training and certification programs for individuals involved in the transportation of radioactive materials.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following structures is normally visualized on an image performed with F18-fluorodeoxyglucose?

    • Thyroid

    • Brain

    • Pituitary gland

    • Pancreas

    Correct Answer
    A. Brain
    Explanation
    F18-fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) is a radiopharmaceutical that is commonly used in positron emission tomography (PET) imaging. It is taken up by cells in the body that have a high metabolic rate, such as the brain. Therefore, when an image is performed with FDG, the brain is typically visualized. The other structures listed (thyroid, pituitary gland, pancreas) do not have as high of a metabolic rate as the brain and would not typically show significant FDG uptake.

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  • 24. 

    In preparation for a Tl-201 stress test, patients are instructed to fast to:

    • Prevent gastrointestinal upsets during exercise

    • Minimize tracer uptake in the gastrointestinal tract

    • Enhance myocardial tracer uptake

    • Standardize test conditions among patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Minimize tracer uptake in the gastrointestinal tract
    Explanation
    Patients are instructed to fast before a Tl-201 stress test in order to minimize tracer uptake in the gastrointestinal tract. Fasting helps to reduce the amount of activity in the digestive system, which can interfere with the accuracy of the test results. By minimizing tracer uptake in the gastrointestinal tract, the test can focus more accurately on the myocardium, allowing for a more reliable assessment of heart function. Additionally, fasting helps to standardize test conditions among patients, as it ensures that everyone is undergoing the test under similar conditions.

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  • 25. 

    During parathyroid imaging imahes of the chest as well as the neck are obtained to:

    • Correct the image series for patient motion

    • Visualize ectopic parathyroid tissue

    • Visualize substernal thyroid tissue

    • Diagnose hyperparathyroidism

    Correct Answer
    A. Visualize ectopic parathyroid tissue
    Explanation
    During parathyroid imaging, images of the chest as well as the neck are obtained in order to visualize ectopic parathyroid tissue. Ectopic parathyroid tissue refers to parathyroid glands that are located outside their normal anatomical position. These glands can be found in various locations, such as the chest, mediastinum, or even within the thyroid gland itself. By obtaining images of both the chest and the neck, it allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the parathyroid glands and increases the chances of detecting any ectopic tissue that may be present.

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  • 26. 

    SPECT liver imagin with Tc99 sulfur colloid is performed how soon after tracer administration?

    • Immediately

    • 10-15 mins

    • 30-45 mins

    • 1-2 hr

    Correct Answer
    A. 10-15 mins
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 10-15 mins. After the administration of Tc99 sulfur colloid, SPECT liver imaging is performed within 10-15 minutes. This time frame allows for the tracer to distribute and accumulate in the liver, providing optimal imaging of the liver. Waiting longer than 10-15 minutes may result in decreased tracer uptake and poorer image quality.

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  • 27. 

    According to NRC regulations, records of written directives must be maintained for how long?

    • 3 years

    • 5 years

    • 10 years

    • Indefinitely

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 years
    Explanation
    According to NRC regulations, records of written directives must be maintained for a period of 3 years. This means that organizations or individuals who are subject to NRC regulations must keep these records for a minimum of 3 years. This requirement ensures that there is a documented record of any written directives issued and allows for future reference if needed. Keeping records for this duration also helps in compliance and accountability purposes.

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  • 28. 

    In infants, 24-hr images are sometimes performed over what area to demonstrate gastroesophageal reflux?

    • Lung fields

    • Lower esophagus

    • Stomach

    • Upper small intestine

    Correct Answer
    A. Lung fields
    Explanation
    In infants, 24-hr images are sometimes performed over the lung fields to demonstrate gastroesophageal reflux. This is because gastroesophageal reflux can sometimes cause aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs, leading to respiratory symptoms. By imaging the lung fields, doctors can identify any abnormalities or signs of aspiration, which can help in diagnosing and managing gastroesophageal reflux in infants.

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  • 29. 

    Proper placement of the urine collection bag includes: 

    • Placing it across the patient's lower legs to keep it near the level of the bladder

    • Placing it on the stretcher near the patient's foot so that it is out of the field of view from the camera

    • Hanging it from the IV pole and raising it above the level of the bladder

    • Hanging it from the imaging table so that it is lower than the level of the bladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Hanging it from the imaging table so that it is lower than the level of the bladder
    Explanation
    Proper placement of the urine collection bag involves hanging it from the imaging table so that it is lower than the level of the bladder. This positioning allows gravity to assist in the flow of urine from the bladder into the bag. Hanging the bag from the IV pole and raising it above the level of the bladder would create a barrier to urine flow. Placing it across the patient's lower legs or on the stretcher near the patient's foot does not take advantage of gravity and may impede urine drainage.

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  • 30. 

    A biohazard warning label would appear in all of the following places except: 

    • Contaminated sharps container

    • Refrigerator containing potentially infectious material

    • Receptacle for contaminated laundry

    • Unit of blood released for clinical use

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit of blood released for clinical use
    Explanation
    A biohazard warning label would not appear on a unit of blood released for clinical use because the blood has already been tested and determined to be safe for use. The other options, such as a contaminated sharps container, refrigerator containing potentially infectious material, and receptacle for contaminated laundry, are all places where biohazard warning labels would be necessary to indicate the presence of potentially harmful biological substances.

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  • 31. 

    Imaging with In-111 pentetreotide routinely includes what areas of the body?

    • Head and chest

    • Chest

    • Abdomen

    • Head to upper femus

    Correct Answer
    A. Head to upper femus
    Explanation
    Imaging with In-111 pentetreotide routinely includes the head to upper femus. This means that the imaging procedure using In-111 pentetreotide is performed to visualize and evaluate areas of the body from the head down to the upper femus. It is a comprehensive scan that covers a large portion of the body, allowing for the detection and assessment of any abnormalities or conditions in these areas.

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  • 32. 

    If 375mCi of Tc99m are present on the column of a Mo99/Tc99 generator and after elution 342 mCi 99mTc are assayed in the elution vial, the approximate elution efficiency of the generator is:

    • 110%

    • 91%

    • 33%

    • 11%

    Correct Answer
    A. 91%
    Explanation
    The elution efficiency of the generator can be calculated by dividing the amount of Tc99m assayed in the elution vial (342 mCi) by the total amount of Tc99m present on the column (375 mCi) and multiplying by 100. This gives us (342/375) * 100 = 91%. Therefore, the approximate elution efficiency of the generator is 91%.

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  • 33. 

    What is the minimal centrifugation time needed if a protocol specifies 5000 g for 5 mins, but the maximum relative centrifugal force that can be obtained is 2500 g?

    • 2 min

    • 2.5 min

    • 10 min

    • 12.5 min

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 min
    Explanation
    The protocol specifies a centrifugation force of 5000 g for 5 minutes, but the maximum force that can be obtained is only 2500 g. Since the force is directly proportional to the centrifugation time, we can calculate the minimal time needed by using the formula: (5000 g * 5 min) / 2500 g = 10 min. Therefore, the minimal centrifugation time needed is 10 minutes.

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  • 34. 

    A vial of Xe 133 has been decayed in storage for 2 months. When the vial is monitored with a survey meter, the reading is twice the background level. What should the technologist do next?

    • Remove any radiation symbols from the vial, then dispose of it

    • Return the vial to storage

    • Dispose of the vial as biohazardous waste

    • Vent the radioactivity left in the vial into the fume hood

    Correct Answer
    A. Return the vial to storage
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to return the vial to storage. This is because the reading on the survey meter is only twice the background level, which indicates a low level of radioactivity. It is safe to return the vial to storage as it does not pose a significant risk. Removing radiation symbols, disposing of it as biohazardous waste, or venting the radioactivity into the fume hood are unnecessary actions for the given scenario.

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  • 35. 

    Personnel must wear a rotation monitoring device during work hours if they are:

    • Exposed to radiation at any time during work hours

    • Exposed to radiation above background levels

    • Likely to exceed 10% if the annual maximum allowable occupational exposure

    • Likely to exceed the annual maximum allowable occupational exposure

    Correct Answer
    A. Likely to exceed 10% if the annual maximum allowable occupational exposure
    Explanation
    Personnel must wear a rotation monitoring device during work hours if they are likely to exceed 10% of the annual maximum allowable occupational exposure. This means that if there is a possibility that their radiation exposure will reach or surpass 10% of the maximum allowable limit over the course of the year, they must wear the monitoring device. This device helps track and measure their radiation exposure levels to ensure they are within safe limits and to take necessary precautions if the levels are exceeded.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following structures normally appear as areas of increased activity on the bone images of adults?

    • Anterior iliac crests

    • Glenoid fossa

    • Sternclavicular joints

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all of the above". The anterior iliac crests, glenoid fossa, and sternoclavicular joints are all structures that normally appear as areas of increased activity on bone images of adults. This is because these areas are commonly involved in weight-bearing and movement, leading to increased bone density and activity.

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  • 37. 

    It is safe to block a portion of the pulmonary circulation with MAA particles in patients with suspected pulmonary emboli because the:

    • Number of injected particles blocks only a small number of precaillary arterioles

    • Particles are made from albumin isolated from human serum

    • Particles are rapidly phagocytized by lung macrophages

    • Albumin is denatured before it is made into particles

    Correct Answer
    A. Number of injected particles blocks only a small number of precaillary arterioles
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that the number of injected particles blocks only a small number of precaillary arterioles. This suggests that blocking a portion of the pulmonary circulation with MAA particles is safe because only a small number of arterioles are affected. This implies that the blockage caused by the particles is minimal and unlikely to cause significant harm or complications.

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  • 38. 

    A nebulizer is used to administer which of the following lung ventilation radiopharmaceuticals?

    • Kr-81 gas

    • Xe-133 gas

    • Tc-99m pentetate

    • Tc-99m macroaggragated albumin

    Correct Answer
    A. Tc-99m pentetate
    Explanation
    A nebulizer is a device used to convert liquid medication into a fine mist that can be inhaled into the lungs. Tc-99m pentetate is a radiopharmaceutical that is commonly used in lung ventilation imaging studies. It is administered through a nebulizer to allow the patient to inhale the radioactive particles, which then distribute throughout the lungs, allowing for visualization and assessment of lung ventilation.

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  • 39. 

    After total thyroidectomy, total-body imaging with radioiodine normally will demonstrate tracer conentration in which of the following areas? 

    • Liver, lungs, and bones

    • Salivary glands, stomach, and bladder

    • Liver, salivary glands, stomach, and lungs

    • Bladder, liver, and brain

    Correct Answer
    A. Salivary glands, stomach, and bladder
    Explanation
    After total thyroidectomy, total-body imaging with radioiodine normally demonstrates tracer concentration in the salivary glands, stomach, and bladder. This is because the salivary glands, stomach, and bladder are the major sites of iodine excretion in the body. The radioiodine is taken up by these organs and excreted through saliva, gastric juices, and urine. The presence of tracer concentration in these areas indicates normal iodine metabolism and excretion.

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  • 40. 

    Patient preparation for breast imaging with Tc99m-sestamibi includes which of the following?

    • Explanation of the procedure

    • Fasting for 8 hr before tracer administration

    • Discontinuation of any medications

    • Consumption of a fatty meal

    Correct Answer
    A. Explanation of the procedure
    Explanation
    Patient preparation for breast imaging with Tc99m-sestamibi includes explanation of the procedure. This is important to ensure that the patient understands what will happen during the imaging test, any potential risks or discomforts involved, and what is expected of them during the procedure. It helps to alleviate any anxiety or confusion the patient may have and allows them to actively participate in their own healthcare. This preparation step also allows the healthcare provider to address any concerns or questions the patient may have prior to the imaging test.

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  • 41. 

    A patient's plasmacrit may be determined by:

    • Multiplying the patient's hematocrit by 0.9

    • Substracting the decimal hematocrit from 1

    • Finding the ratio of plasma volume to red blood cell volume

    • Dividing 1 by the demical hematocrit

    Correct Answer
    A. Substracting the decimal hematocrit from 1
    Explanation
    The correct answer is subtracting the decimal hematocrit from 1. This is because the plasmacrit represents the percentage of the blood volume that is composed of plasma. Since the hematocrit represents the percentage of red blood cells in the blood, subtracting it from 1 will give us the percentage of plasma in the blood.

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  • 42. 

    Patient preparation for a thyroid uptake test may include discontinuation of antithyroid medications. Which of the following is one of these antithyroid drugs?

    • Synthroid

    • Potassium perchlorate

    • Proptlythiouracil

    • Thyroxine

    Correct Answer
    A. Proptlythiouracil
    Explanation
    One of the antithyroid drugs that may need to be discontinued before a thyroid uptake test is proptlythiouracil. This medication is commonly used to treat hyperthyroidism by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones. Discontinuing this medication prior to the test allows for accurate measurement of the thyroid's ability to take up radioactive iodine, which is used in the test. Synthroid, potassium perchlorate, and thyroxine are not antithyroid drugs, and therefore would not need to be discontinued for the test.

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  • 43. 

    During a radiochromium red cell mass determination, an infusion set may be used to place a needle in the patient's antecubital vein. To maintain the patency of the infusion set tubing, what substance should be injected into the infusion set tubing?

    • Heparin

    • Normal saline

    • ACD solution

    • Bacteriostatic water

    Correct Answer
    A. Heparin
    Explanation
    Heparin should be injected into the infusion set tubing to maintain its patency. Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood from clotting, thus preventing blockage in the tubing. This ensures that the infusion set remains open and allows the free flow of fluids or medications into the patient's vein. Normal saline, ACD solution, and bacteriostatic water do not have anticoagulant properties and therefore would not be effective in maintaining the patency of the infusion set tubing.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals should be prepared if a renal function study is being performed to determine the glomerular filtation rate?

    • Tc99m-gluceptate

    • Tc99m-mertiatide

    • Tc99m-pentetate

    • Tc99m-succimer

    Correct Answer
    A. Tc99m-pentetate
    Explanation
    Tc99m-pentetate should be prepared for a renal function study to determine the glomerular filtration rate. Pentetate is a chelating agent that binds to the Tc99m radioisotope. This radiopharmaceutical is commonly used in renal imaging studies because it is excreted by the kidneys and can provide information about the glomerular filtration rate. Tc99m-gluceptate is used for hepatobiliary imaging, Tc99m-mertiatide is used for renal imaging but not specifically for glomerular filtration rate, and Tc99m-succimer is used for imaging the liver and gastrointestinal tract.

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  • 45. 

    All of the following units are expressions of radiopharmaceutical specific acitivty except: 

    • UCi/mg

    • KBq/mL

    • Ci/g

    • MBq/mole

    Correct Answer
    A. KBq/mL
    Explanation
    The correct answer is kBq/mL because kBq/mL is a unit of radioactivity concentration, not specific activity. Specific activity is defined as the amount of radioactivity per unit mass or mole of a substance. The other units listed (uCi/mg, Ci/g, and MBq/mole) are all expressions of specific activity because they relate the amount of radioactivity to the mass or mole of the radiopharmaceutical.

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  • 46. 

    3 or 4 phrase bone imaging is particularly useful when which of the following conditions is suspected?

    • Skeletal metastases

    • Osteoporosis

    • Osteomyelitis

    • Stress fracture

    Correct Answer
    A. Osteomyelitis
    Explanation
    3 or 4 phrase bone imaging is particularly useful when osteomyelitis is suspected. This imaging technique allows for the detection of inflammation or infection in the bone, which is characteristic of osteomyelitis. By visualizing the affected area, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat the condition.

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  • 47. 

    Upon completion of an imaging procedure, the patient sits up quickly and complains of dizziness and feeling faint. The most appropriate action for the technologists would be to: 

    • Talk with the patient and have the patient breathe slowly and deeply

    • Check vital signs

    • Have the patient lie down again

    • Have the patient stand and walk around the room

    Correct Answer
    A. Talk with the patient and have the patient breathe slowly and deeply
    Explanation
    The patient's complaint of dizziness and feeling faint after sitting up quickly suggests that they may be experiencing orthostatic hypotension, which is a sudden drop in blood pressure upon changing positions. In such cases, talking with the patient and having them breathe slowly and deeply can help alleviate symptoms by increasing blood flow and oxygenation to the brain. Checking vital signs would also be important to confirm the diagnosis and monitor the patient's condition. Having the patient lie down again or stand and walk around the room may exacerbate their symptoms and should be avoided.

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  • 48. 

    Stress-rest myocardial imaging performed with Tc99m-sestamibi requires two administrations of tracer, because the tracer:

    • Doesn't redistribute one it has been taken up by the myocardium

    • Rapidly washes out of the myocardium after administration

    • Has too short of a half-life to permit delayed imaging

    • Must be administered immediately after its preparation

    Correct Answer
    A. Doesn't redistribute one it has been taken up by the myocardium
    Explanation
    Tc99m-sestamibi is a radiotracer used in stress-rest myocardial imaging. It is taken up by the myocardium and remains there without redistributing. This is why two administrations of the tracer are required - one during stress and another during rest. The tracer doesn't wash out rapidly from the myocardium and has a longer half-life, allowing delayed imaging if needed. It doesn't need to be administered immediately after preparation as it remains in the myocardium once taken up.

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  • 49. 

    If a source of radioactive contamination produces an exposure rate of 3 mR/hr, how long will it take for the exposure rate to drop to a background exposure rate of 0.05 mR/hr?

    • 4 half-lives

    • 5 half-lives

    • 6 half-lives

    • 7 half-lives

    Correct Answer
    A. 6 half-lives
    Explanation
    The exposure rate of a radioactive contamination decreases by half with each half-life. In this question, the exposure rate needs to drop from 3 mR/hr to 0.05 mR/hr, which is a decrease of 60 times (3/0.05 = 60). Since each half-life reduces the exposure rate by half, it would take 6 half-lives to achieve a decrease of 60 times (2^6 = 64). Therefore, the correct answer is 6 half-lives.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 06, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Natfasho

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