Naval Science One (Ns1) Final Promotion Test

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    THE UNIFORM YOUR SENIOR NAVAL SCIENCE INSTRUCTOR (SNSI) WILL DIRECT YOU TO WEAR ON ANY GIVEN DAY IS KNOWN AS THE

    • A.

      UNIFORM OF THE SCHOOL

    • B.

      UNIFORM OF THE NAVY

    • C.

      UNIFORM OF THE DAY

    • D.

      DESIGNATED UNIFORM

    Correct Answer
    C. UNIFORM OF THE DAY
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "UNIFORM OF THE DAY". The uniform that your Senior Naval Science Instructor (SNSI) directs you to wear on any given day is referred to as the Uniform of the Day. This indicates that the specific uniform to be worn may vary depending on the day and the instructions given by the SNSI. It is important for Navy personnel to adhere to the Uniform of the Day to maintain uniformity and professionalism within the unit.

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  • 2. 

    WHAT ARTICLES/ITEMS MAY BE WORN AND EXPOSED WHEN IN UNIFORM?

    • A.

      CELL PHONES

    • B.

      PENS

    • C.

      WATCH CHAINS

    • D.

      NO ARTICLES MAY BE EXPOSED

    Correct Answer
    D. NO ARTICLES MAY BE EXPOSED
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "NO ARTICLES MAY BE EXPOSED." This means that when in uniform, no articles or items should be visible or worn. This could include items such as cell phones, pens, or watch chains. The uniform should be worn in a way that all personal belongings are concealed and not exposed.

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  • 3. 

    WHO IS THE ONLY PERSON WHO CAN APPROVE MODIFICATIONS TO CADET'S UNIFORMS?

    • A.

      SCHOOL PRINCIPAL

    • B.

      NAVAL SCIENCE INSTRUCTOR

    • C.

      NJROTC AREA MANAGER

    • D.

      NJROTC PROGRAM OFFICE

    Correct Answer
    C. NJROTC AREA MANAGER
    Explanation
    The NJROTC Area Manager is the only person who can approve modifications to cadets' uniforms. This individual is responsible for overseeing the NJROTC program in a specific area and has the authority to make decisions regarding uniform regulations and modifications. The School Principal, Naval Science Instructor, and NJROTC Program Office may have some level of involvement in the program, but the ultimate approval authority lies with the NJROTC Area Manager.

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  • 4. 

    THE MALE HAIR ABOVE THE EARS AND AROUND THE NECK AREA MUST BE TAPERED UPWARD AND OUTWARD NOT GREATER THAN

    • A.

      1/4 OF AN INCH

    • B.

      3/4 OF AN INCH

    • C.

      1 INCH

    • D.

      2 INCHES

    Correct Answer
    B. 3/4 OF AN INCH
    Explanation
    The male hair above the ears and around the neck area must be tapered upward and outward not greater than 3/4 of an inch. This means that the hair should be gradually shorter as it goes up and out from the ears and neck, and it should not exceed a length of 3/4 of an inch. This tapering technique helps to create a clean and polished look, while still maintaining some length and texture in the hair.

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  • 5. 

    FEMALE HAIR ORNAMENTS SUCH AS CONSPICUOUS BANDS, COMBS, AND PINS ARE NOT AUTHORIZED.  BARRETTES ARE AUTHORIZED, BUT MUST BE

    • A.

      BLACK

    • B.

      BROWN

    • C.

      RED

    • D.

      SIMILAR TO THE FEMALE HAIR COLOR.

    Correct Answer
    D. SIMILAR TO THE FEMALE HAIR COLOR.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "SIMILAR TO THE FEMALE HAIR COLOR." This means that barrettes are allowed, but they must be of a color that matches or closely resembles the female's hair color. This is to ensure that the barrettes blend in with the hair and do not stand out as a conspicuous ornament. It promotes a more natural and professional appearance.

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  • 6. 

    IN UNIFORM, NECKLACES ARE AUTHORIZED BUT SHALL NOT BE

    • A.

      ANY COLOR OTHER THAN GOLD OR SILVER

    • B.

      EXPENSIVE

    • C.

      VISIBLE

    • D.

      HEAVY BRAID

    Correct Answer
    C. VISIBLE
    Explanation
    In uniform, necklaces are allowed but they should not be visible. This means that while wearing the uniform, necklaces should not be easily seen by others. This is likely to maintain a professional and neat appearance, as visible necklaces may be considered distracting or unprofessional.

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  • 7. 

    WHAT TYPE OF FACIAL HAIR IS PERMITTED TO BE WORN BY MALE CADETS?

    • A.

      GOATEE

    • B.

      FULL BEARD

    • C.

      TRIMMED MUSTACHE

    • D.

      MUTTONCHOP SIDEBURNS

    Correct Answer
    C. TRIMMED MUSTACHE
    Explanation
    Male cadets are permitted to wear a trimmed mustache. This means that they can have a mustache, but it should be neatly groomed and not extend beyond the corners of the mouth. This allows for a more professional and tidy appearance while still allowing for some facial hair.

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  • 8. 

    RANK/RATE AND THE JROTC BAR INSIGNIA'S ARE CENTERED AT WHAT DISTANCE FROM THE COLLAR POINT ON THE MALE AND FEMALE SHORT SLEEVE BLUE SHIRT?

    • A.

      1/4 INCH

    • B.

      1 AND 1/2 OF AN INCH

    • C.

      1 AND 7/8 OF AN INCH

    • D.

      2 AND 1/2 OF AN INCH

    Correct Answer
    A. 1/4 INCH
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 1/4 inch. The rank/rate and the JROTC bar insignia's are centered at a distance of 1/4 inch from the collar point on the male and female short sleeve blue shirt.

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  • 9. 

    WHAT RANK IS REPRESENTED BY 5 ATTACHED GOLD BARS?

    • A.

      CADET COMMANDER

    • B.

      CADET LIEUTENANT COMMANDER

    • C.

      COMMANDER

    • D.

      CADET ADMIRAL

    Correct Answer
    A. CADET COMMANDER
    Explanation
    The rank represented by 5 attached gold bars is Cadet Commander.

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  • 10. 

    WHAT NAVY RANK IS REPRESENTED BY 3 SILVER STARS?

    • A.

      CAPTAIN

    • B.

      REAR ADMIRAL LOWER HALF

    • C.

      VICE ADMIRAL

    • D.

      ADMIRAL

    Correct Answer
    C. VICE ADMIRAL
    Explanation
    Three silver stars represent the rank of Vice Admiral in the navy. In the United States Navy, the rank of Vice Admiral is the third-highest rank, above Rear Admiral and below Admiral. The silver stars indicate the level of authority and responsibility held by the individual in this rank.

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  • 11. 

    WHAT NAVY RANK IS DESIGNATED AN AN O-6?

    • A.

      COMMANDER

    • B.

      LIEUTENANT COMMANDER

    • C.

      LIEUTENANT

    • D.

      CAPTAIN

    Correct Answer
    D. CAPTAIN
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CAPTAIN. In the United States Navy, the rank designated as an O-6 is Captain. This rank is typically achieved after years of service and experience, and Captains often hold important leadership positions within the Navy. They may be in command of a ship, squadron, or naval base, and are responsible for the overall operations and welfare of their assigned units.

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  • 12. 

    WHAT IS THE HIGHEST RANK THAT AN NJROTC CADET CAN ATTAIN?

    • A.

      CADET ADMIRAL

    • B.

      CAPTAIN CAPTAIN

    • C.

      CADET COMMANDER

    • D.

      CADET LIEUTENANT

    Correct Answer
    C. CADET COMMANDER
    Explanation
    The highest rank that an NJROTC cadet can attain is Cadet Commander.

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  • 13. 

    FOR WHICH NJROTC RATING IS THERE NO COLLAR DEVICE?

    • A.

      PETTY OFFICER

    • B.

      SEAMAN APPRENTICE

    • C.

      SEAMAN

    • D.

      SEAMAN RECRUIT

    Correct Answer
    D. SEAMAN RECRUIT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is SEAMAN RECRUIT. In the NJROTC rating system, collar devices are used to indicate the rank and rating of a sailor. However, the rank of Seaman Recruit is the lowest rank in the system and does not have a corresponding collar device.

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  • 14. 

    A CHEVRON ON A COLLAR DEVICE LOOKS LIKE_____________________________________________.

    • A.

      THE LETTER V

    • B.

      A FLAT DRAWING OF AN INDIAN TEPEE

    • C.

      A ROCKER ON A ROCKING CHAIR

    • D.

      HALF OF A LINK OF CHAIN

    Correct Answer
    A. THE LETTER V
    Explanation
    The chevron on a collar device resembles the letter V. The chevron is a V-shaped insignia that is often used as a symbol of rank or achievement. It is commonly seen on military uniforms and can also be found on other types of collars or patches. The shape of the chevron is similar to the letter V, with two diagonal lines meeting at a point in the middle. Therefore, the correct answer is that the chevron on a collar device looks like the letter V.

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  • 15. 

    WHAT NJROTC RANK IS REPRESENTED BY AN EAGLE AND ONE STAR PERCHED ON AN FOULED ANCHOR?

    • A.

      CADET LIEUTENANT COMMANDER

    • B.

      CADETY PETTY OFFICER FIRST CLASS

    • C.

      CADET CHIEF PETTY OFFICER

    • D.

      CADET SENIOR CHIEF PETTY OFFICER

    Correct Answer
    D. CADET SENIOR CHIEF PETTY OFFICER
  • 16. 

    WHAT RANK IS SYMBOLIZED BY AN EAGLE PERCHED OVER TWO CHEVRONS?

    • A.

      CADET CHIEF PETTY OFFICER

    • B.

      CADET PETTY OFFICER SECOND CLASS

    • C.

      CADET SENIOR CHIEF PETTY OFFICER

    • D.

      CADET PETTY OFFICER THIRD CLASS

    Correct Answer
    B. CADET PETTY OFFICER SECOND CLASS
    Explanation
    The rank symbolized by an eagle perched over two chevrons is Cadet Petty Officer Second Class.

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  • 17. 

    WHAT NAVY RANK IS REPRESENTED BY A GOLD OAK LEAF?

    • A.

      LIEUTENANT COMMANDER

    • B.

      COMMANDER

    • C.

      LIEUTENANT JUNIOR GRADE

    • D.

      LIEUTENANT

    Correct Answer
    A. LIEUTENANT COMMANDER
    Explanation
    A gold oak leaf represents the rank of Lieutenant Commander in the navy.

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  • 18. 

    WHAT RANK IS REPRESENTED BY A SILVER EAGLE?

    • A.

      LIEUTENANT COMMANDER

    • B.

      LIEUTENANT

    • C.

      COMMANDER

    • D.

      CAPTAIN

    Correct Answer
    D. CAPTAIN
    Explanation
    A Silver Eagle represents the rank of Captain.

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  • 19. 

    WHAT NAVY RANK IS REPRESENTED BY 2 SILVER BARS?

    • A.

      LIEUTENANT

    • B.

      LIEUTENANT COMMANDER

    • C.

      ENSIGN

    • D.

      LIEUTENANT JUNIOR GRADE

    Correct Answer
    A. LIEUTENANT
    Explanation
    The navy rank represented by 2 silver bars is Lieutenant.

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  • 20. 

    THE NATIONAL ENSIGN MAY BE DISPLAYED TWENTY-FOUR HOURS A DAY UNDER WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SITUATIONS?

    • A.

      NEVER

    • B.

      WHEN PROPERLY ILLUMINATED DURING THE HOURS OF DARKNESS

    • C.

      DURING THE FUNERAL OF A FORMER PRESIDENT

    • D.

      ONLY WITH THE PRESIDENT'S APPROVAL

    Correct Answer
    B. WHEN PROPERLY ILLUMINATED DURING THE HOURS OF DARKNESS
    Explanation
    The national ensign may be displayed twenty-four hours a day when properly illuminated during the hours of darkness. This means that as long as the flag is adequately lit during nighttime hours, it can be displayed continuously. This is to ensure that the flag remains visible and recognizable even at night.

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  • 21. 

    WHAT IS A TRADITION?

    • A.

      A WAY BY WHICH NATIONS AND INDIVIDUALS PAY RESPECT TO DISTINGUISHED PERSONS AND FOREIGN GOVERNMENTS.

    • B.

      INFORMATION, ACTIONS, OR CUSTOMS THAT HAVE BEEN HANDED DOWN FROM ONE GENERATION TO ANOTHER.

    • C.

      A FORM OF POLITE MANNERS AND BEHAVIOR.

    • D.

      WAYS OF SHOWING RESPECT.

    Correct Answer
    B. INFORMATION, ACTIONS, OR CUSTOMS THAT HAVE BEEN HANDED DOWN FROM ONE GENERATION TO ANOTHER.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "INFORMATION, ACTIONS, OR CUSTOMS THAT HAVE BEEN HANDED DOWN FROM ONE GENERATION TO ANOTHER." This explanation aligns with the definition of tradition, which refers to the transmission of customs, beliefs, and practices from one generation to another. It emphasizes the aspect of continuity and passing down cultural heritage.

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  • 22. 

    WHEN SHOULD THE FLAG BE DISPLAYED?

    • A.

      ONLY ON STATE AND NATIONAL HOLIDAYS.

    • B.

      ON ALL DAYS, ESPECIALLY ON ALL NATIONAL AND STATE HOLIDAYS.

    • C.

      ALL DAY ON EVERY SUNDAY.

    • D.

      ON ALL HOLIDAYS.

    Correct Answer
    B. ON ALL DAYS, ESPECIALLY ON ALL NATIONAL AND STATE HOLIDAYS.
    Explanation
    The flag should be displayed on all days, especially on all national and state holidays. This means that the flag should be flown every day, but it is particularly important to display it on national and state holidays as a symbol of patriotism and respect for the country.

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  • 23. 

    WHEN PERFORMING A PASS IN REVIEW, THE PLATOON COMMANDER EXECUTES EYES RIGHT WHEN THE PLATOON IS WITHIN HOW MANY PACES OF THE NEAREST MEMBER OF THE REVIEWING PARTY?

    • A.

      4 PACES

    • B.

      6 PACES

    • C.

      8 PACES

    • D.

      2 PACES

    Correct Answer
    B. 6 PACES
    Explanation
    During a pass in review, the platoon commander executes eyes right when the platoon is within 6 paces of the nearest member of the reviewing party.

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  • 24. 

    WHEN ATTENDING AN OUTDOOR EVENT IN UNIFORM AND THE NATIONAL ENSIGN IS ESCORTED PAST YOU, WHEN THE FLAG IS HOW MANY PACES PRIOR TO YOUR POSITION DO YOU RENDER A HAND SALUTE?

    • A.

      WHEN THE FLAG IS 8 PACES FROM YOU

    • B.

      WHEN THE FLAG IS 4 PACES FROM YOU

    • C.

      WHEN THE FLAG IS EVEN WITH YOU

    • D.

      WHEN THE FLAG IS 6 PACES FROM YOU

    Correct Answer
    D. WHEN THE FLAG IS 6 PACES FROM YOU
    Explanation
    When the flag is 6 paces from you, you render a hand salute.

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  • 25. 

    IF THREE SERVICES (NAVY, MARINE, AND ARMY) ARE PARTICIPATING JOINTLY IN AN NJROTC UNIT'S REVIEW, THE ORDER OF MARCH IS ________________________________.

    • A.

      ARMY, MARINE, NAVY

    • B.

      MARINE, NAVY, ARMY

    • C.

      NAVY, ARMY, AND MARINE

    • D.

      ARMY, NAVY, AND MARINE

    Correct Answer
    A. ARMY, MARINE, NAVY
    Explanation
    The correct order of march for the three services participating jointly in an NJROTC unit's review is Army, Marine, Navy.

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  • 26. 

    WHEN DOES ONE'S GROWTH GENERALLY STOP?

    • A.

      AROUND AGE 30

    • B.

      AROUND AGE 20

    • C.

      AROUND AGE 18

    • D.

      AROUND AGE 25

    Correct Answer
    D. AROUND AGE 25
    Explanation
    Growth generally stops around age 25. This is because the growth plates in the long bones of the body, which are responsible for bone growth, close around this age. After the growth plates close, there is no further increase in height or bone length. However, it is important to note that growth can vary between individuals and may continue slightly beyond age 25 for some people.

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  • 27. 

    WHAT IS THE THIRD GREATEST CAUSE OF DEATH AMONG YOUNG PEOPLE IN TODAY'S SOCIETY?

    • A.

      SUICIDE

    • B.

      GANG VIOLENCE

    • C.

      NICOTINE

    • D.

      ALCOHOL

    Correct Answer
    D. ALCOHOL
    Explanation
    Alcohol is the third greatest cause of death among young people in today's society. Excessive alcohol consumption can lead to various health problems such as liver disease, cardiovascular diseases, and alcohol poisoning. It can also contribute to risky behaviors such as drunk driving, which can result in fatal accidents. Alcohol abuse can have serious consequences on mental health, leading to depression and increasing the risk of suicide. Therefore, it is crucial to address the issue of alcohol misuse among young people in order to reduce the number of deaths associated with it.

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  • 28. 

    WHAT DO WE CALL THE DISEASES THAT ARE AMONG THE MOST COMMON OF TODAY'S COMMUNICABLE DISEASES?

    • A.

      OBSEITY

    • B.

      HYGIENE DEFICIENCY SYNDROME

    • C.

      HYPERACTIVITY

    • D.

      STD's

    Correct Answer
    D. STD's
    Explanation
    The correct answer is STD's. STD's, or sexually transmitted diseases, are among the most common communicable diseases today. These diseases are transmitted through sexual contact and include infections such as chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, and HIV/AIDS. STD's can have serious health consequences if left untreated and can be prevented through safe sexual practices and regular testing.

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  • 29. 

    WHAT IS THE AGE RANGE FOR PUBERTY FOR GIRLS?

    • A.

      AGES 11-15

    • B.

      AGES 10-14

    • C.

      AGES 9-11

    • D.

      AGES 9-13

    Correct Answer
    D. AGES 9-13
    Explanation
    The age range for puberty for girls is typically between 9 and 13 years old. During this time, girls experience physical and hormonal changes as their bodies mature, including the development of breasts, growth of pubic hair, and the onset of menstruation. While the timing can vary for each individual, this age range is generally considered the normal range for the onset of puberty in girls.

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  • 30. 

    WHAT IS THE ONE CRUCIAL DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THOSE WHO ATTEMPT SUICIDE AND GET OVER IT, AND THOSE WHO COMPLETE IT?

    • A.

      APPROPRIATE MEDICATION AND COUNSELING

    • B.

      EARLY PROBELM DETECTION AND COUNSELING

    • C.

      THE PRESENCE OF SOMEONE THE YOUNG PERSON FEELS CLOSE TO, AND WHO ACCEPTS THEM JUST AS THEY ARE

    • D.

      CONSTANT COUNSELING

    Correct Answer
    A. APPROPRIATE MEDICATION AND COUNSELING
    Explanation
    The one crucial difference between those who attempt suicide and get over it, and those who complete it, is appropriate medication and counseling. This suggests that individuals who receive the right medication and counseling are more likely to overcome their suicidal thoughts and find a way to cope with their problems. It highlights the importance of professional help in managing mental health issues and preventing suicide.

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  • 31. 

    WHAT IS THE FASTEST GROWING ALTERNATIVE FAMILY UNIT IN THE UNITED STATES?

    • A.

      JROTC

    • B.

      FRATERNITIES

    • C.

      BOYS CLUB ORGANIZATIONS

    • D.

      GANGS

    Correct Answer
    D. GANGS
    Explanation
    Gangs are the fastest growing alternative family unit in the United States. This can be attributed to various factors such as social and economic disadvantages, lack of parental guidance, and the allure of a sense of belonging and protection that gangs provide. Gangs often offer a support system and a substitute family structure for individuals who may feel marginalized or disconnected from mainstream society. The allure of power, respect, and material gains also attracts individuals to join gangs, contributing to their rapid growth.

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  • 32. 

    WHAT IS THE NUMBER ONE DRUG PROBLEM IN THE UNITED STATES?

    • A.

      OPIATE USE

    • B.

      STIMULANT USE

    • C.

      ALCOHOL ABUSE

    • D.

      DELIRIANT USE

    Correct Answer
    C. ALCOHOL ABUSE
    Explanation
    Alcohol abuse is considered the number one drug problem in the United States because it is widely available and socially accepted. It leads to a variety of negative consequences such as addiction, health problems, impaired judgment, accidents, and violence. Alcohol abuse affects people of all ages and socioeconomic backgrounds, causing significant societal and economic burdens. It is a pervasive issue that requires attention and intervention to reduce its impact on individuals and communities.

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  • 33. 

    WHAT IS MEANT BY THE TERM "HUMAN GROWTH?"

    • A.

      GROWTH ON THE CELLULAR LEVEL

    • B.

      THE GROWTH OF THE HUMAN BODY

    • C.

      PUBERTY

    • D.

      THE WAY A PERSON'S BODY AND MIND DEVELOP

    Correct Answer
    D. THE WAY A PERSON'S BODY AND MIND DEVELOP
    Explanation
    The term "human growth" refers to the way a person's body and mind develop. It encompasses not only physical growth but also cognitive, emotional, and social development. This includes changes in height, weight, muscle mass, and bone density, as well as the development of cognitive abilities, emotional intelligence, and social skills. Human growth is a continuous process that begins at conception and continues throughout the lifespan, influenced by both genetic and environmental factors.

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  • 34. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BEST DEFINES A VALUE SYSTEM?

    • A.

      A SET OF BELIEFS, IDEAS, INTERESTS, LIKES AND DISLIKES THAT GOVERN ONE'S BEHAVIOR.

    • B.

      THE COMMUNITY ATTITUDES THAT EFFECT OUR IDEA OF WHAT IS CORRECT.

    • C.

      THE THOUGHTS, IDEAS, AND OPINIONS OF FRIENDS THAT INFLUENCE OUR BEHAVIOR.

    • D.

      THE COST OF DOING WHAT IS RIGHT.

    Correct Answer
    A. A SET OF BELIEFS, IDEAS, INTERESTS, LIKES AND DISLIKES THAT GOVERN ONE'S BEHAVIOR.
    Explanation
    A value system refers to a collection of beliefs, ideas, interests, likes, and dislikes that guide and dictate an individual's behavior. It encompasses the principles and standards that an individual considers important and uses to make decisions and judgments in their daily life. These values shape a person's moral compass, influencing their actions, choices, and interactions with others. By adhering to their value system, individuals establish a framework for their behavior and establish a sense of personal identity and integrity.

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  • 35. 

    WHEN DO MOST PEOPLE ACHIEVE EMOTIONAL SECURITY?

    • A.

      WHEN THEY LEAVE HOME AND SCHOOL AND BEGIN THIER LIFE'S WORK.

    • B.

      WHEN THEY GO TO COLLEGE.

    • C.

      AT AROUND AGE 18.

    • D.

      WHEN THEY GET MARRIED AND RAISE CHILDREN.

    Correct Answer
    A. WHEN THEY LEAVE HOME AND SCHOOL AND BEGIN THIER LIFE'S WORK.
  • 36. 

    WHEN CAN CADETS CALL A TRAINING TIME OUT (TTO)?

    • A.

      IF THEY ARE FEELING A SHARP PAIN IN THEIR SIDE

    • B.

      IF THEY FEEL LIKE THEY ARE GOING TO THROW UP

    • C.

      IF THEY FEAR FOR THIER PERSONAL SAFETY

    • D.

      ALL OF THE ABOVE

    Correct Answer
    D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
    Explanation
    Cadets can call a Training Time Out (TTO) if they are feeling a sharp pain in their side, if they feel like they are going to throw up, or if they fear for their personal safety.

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  • 37. 

    A CADET WILL PASS THE PHYSICAL FITNESS TEST (PFT) WHEN HE/SHE

    • A.

      ACHIEVES SATISFACTORY IN 3 OF THE 4 PFT EVENTS

    • B.

      ACHIEVES SATISFACTORY IN ALL 4 OF THE PFT EVENTS

    • C.

      COMPLETES THE 1.5 MILE-RUN IN LESS THAN 9 MINUTES AND 30 SECONDS

    • D.

      COMPLETES 50 CURL-UPS AND 25 PUSH-UPS,

    Correct Answer
    A. ACHIEVES SATISFACTORY IN 3 OF THE 4 PFT EVENTS
    Explanation
    To pass the Physical Fitness Test (PFT), a cadet needs to achieve a satisfactory result in three out of the four PFT events. This means that even if they do not achieve a satisfactory result in one of the events, as long as they perform well in the other three events, they will still pass the PFT.

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  • 38. 

    CURL-UPS ARE INDICATORS OF UPPER TORSO MUSCULAR ENDURANCE.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Curl-ups are exercises that primarily target the muscles in the upper torso, such as the abdominals and the hip flexors. By performing curl-ups, these muscles are repeatedly contracted and extended, which helps to improve their endurance over time. Therefore, it can be concluded that curl-ups are indeed indicators of upper torso muscular endurance.

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  • 39. 

    CARDIO RESPIRATORY ENDURANCE IS THE ABILITY TO PERSIST IN PHYSICALL ACTIVITY WHICH DEMANDS THE USE OF LARGE AROUNTS OF OXYGEN.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Cardio respiratory endurance refers to the ability of the body to sustain physical activity that requires a significant amount of oxygen. This means that individuals with good cardio respiratory endurance can engage in activities like running, swimming, or cycling for extended periods without getting exhausted quickly. Since the given statement accurately describes the definition of cardio respiratory endurance, the answer is true.

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  • 40. 

    IF A CADET EARNS THE SILVER LAMP ON THE PFT WITH AN OVERALL POINT SCORE OF "EXCELLENT," BUT THEN SCORES ONLY A "SATISFACTORY" POINT SCORE ON ALL PORTIONS OF THE PFT THE SECOND TIME HE/SHE TAKES THE TEST, WHAT HAPPENS TO TH SILVER LAMP?

    • A.

      THE SILVER LAMP IS REPLACED WITH A BRONZE LAMP.

    • B.

      THE SILVER LAMP IS REPLACED WITH A BRONZE LAMP.

    • C.

      NOTHING, THE SILVER LAMP REMAINS ON THE RIBON ONCE EARNED.

    • D.

      THE SILVER LAMP IS REMOVED AND THE CAET WEARS JUST THE PFT RIBBON

    Correct Answer
    D. THE SILVER LAMP IS REMOVED AND THE CAET WEARS JUST THE PFT RIBBON
    Explanation
    If a cadet earns the Silver Lamp on the PFT with an overall point score of "Excellent," but then scores only a "Satisfactory" point score on all portions of the PFT the second time he/she takes the test, the Silver Lamp is removed and the cadet wears just the PFT ribbon.

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  • 41. 

    WHAT MEASURE SHOULD BE TAKEN AFTER DETERMINING THE EXTENT OF THE PATIENT'S INJURY?

    • A.

      CHECK FOR SHOCK

    • B.

      CHECK FOR BLEEDING

    • C.

      CHECK FOR PULSE

    • D.

      CHECK FOR BREATHING

    Correct Answer
    A. CHECK FOR SHOCK
    Explanation
    After determining the extent of the patient's injury, it is important to check for shock. This is because shock is a life-threatening condition that can occur as a result of severe injury or trauma. Checking for shock involves assessing the patient for signs such as pale or clammy skin, rapid breathing and heartbeat, and low blood pressure. If shock is present, immediate medical attention is required to stabilize the patient and prevent further complications.

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  • 42. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWNG IS NOT A PURPOSE OF FIRST AID?

    • A.

      TO DO NOTHING AND WAIT FOR MEDICAL HELP TO ARRIVE.

    • B.

      TO SAVE LIFE.

    • C.

      TO MINIMIZE OR PREVENT INFECTION.

    • D.

      TO PREVENT FURHTER INJURY,

    Correct Answer
    A. TO DO NOTHING AND WAIT FOR MEDICAL HELP TO ARRIVE.
    Explanation
    The purpose of first aid is to provide immediate assistance to someone who is injured or ill until professional medical help arrives. It involves actions such as saving lives, minimizing or preventing infection, and preventing further injury. However, doing nothing and waiting for medical help to arrive is not a purpose of first aid. First aid aims to provide immediate care and support to the injured person before professional medical assistance is available.

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  • 43. 

    WHICH TYPE OF BLEEDING IS BRIGHT RED AND THE BLOOD SPURTS FROM THE WOUND?

    • A.

      ARTERIAL BLEEDING

    • B.

      VENOUS BLEEDING

    • C.

      CAPILLARY BLEEDING

    • D.

      COMPOUND BLEEDING

    Correct Answer
    A. ARTERIAL BLEEDING
    Explanation
    Arterial bleeding is the correct answer because it is characterized by bright red blood that spurts from the wound. Arterial bleeding occurs when an artery is damaged, and since arteries carry oxygen-rich blood, the blood is bright red in color. The spurting of blood is due to the high pressure in the arteries. Venous bleeding, on the other hand, is characterized by dark red blood that flows steadily, while capillary bleeding is slow and oozing. Compound bleeding refers to a combination of different types of bleeding.

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  • 44. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REFERS TO THE FAILURE OF THE CIRCULATORY SYSTEM TO MAINTAIN ENOUGH OXYGEN RICH BLOOD FLOWING TO THE VITAL ORGANS OF THE BODY?

    • A.

      CHOKING

    • B.

      INTERNAL BLEEDING

    • C.

      A CONCUSSION

    • D.

      SHOCK

    Correct Answer
    D. SHOCK
    Explanation
    Shock refers to the failure of the circulatory system to maintain enough oxygen-rich blood flowing to the vital organs of the body. This can be caused by various factors such as severe bleeding, heart attack, severe infection, or allergic reaction. In shock, the body's organs and tissues do not receive enough oxygen and nutrients, which can lead to organ failure and potentially death if not treated promptly.

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  • 45. 

    WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BURNS INVOLVE ONLY THE TOP LAYER OF THE SKIN?

    • A.

      FIRST-DEGREE BURNS

    • B.

      SURFACE-BURN

    • C.

      FOURTH-DEGREE BURNS

    • D.

      SECOND DEGREE BURNS

    Correct Answer
    A. FIRST-DEGREE BURNS
    Explanation
    First-degree burns involve only the top layer of the skin. They are characterized by redness, pain, and swelling. The damage is limited to the outermost layer of the skin, known as the epidermis. These burns typically heal within a week without scarring. Surface-burn, fourth-degree burns, and second-degree burns involve deeper layers of the skin and are more severe than first-degree burns.

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  • 46. 

    WHAT DOES A SURVIVOR HAVE TO DO TO BEAT ALL ODDS AGAINST THEM TO SURVIVE IN A SURIVAL SITUATION?

    • A.

      ATTEND HEALTH CLASSES

    • B.

      ATTEND SURVIVAL TRAINING

    • C.

      DEVELOP A SURVIVAL PATTERN

    • D.

      BUILD SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT

    Correct Answer
    B. ATTEND SURVIVAL TRAINING
    Explanation
    In order to beat all odds against them and survive in a survival situation, a survivor needs to attend survival training. This training will provide them with the necessary skills and knowledge to navigate through challenging situations, such as finding food and water, building shelter, and administering first aid. It will also teach them how to assess risks, make informed decisions, and stay calm under pressure. By attending survival training, a survivor will be better prepared to handle the challenges they may face and increase their chances of survival.

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  • 47. 

    WHAT IS THE SINGLE MOST IMPORTANT FACTOR IN DETERMINING ABILITY TO SURVIVE IN COLD CLIMATES?

    • A.

      FOOD

    • B.

      GOOD HEALTH

    • C.

      SHELTER PREPARATION

    • D.

      FIRE

    Correct Answer
    C. SHELTER PREPARATION
    Explanation
    Shelter preparation is the single most important factor in determining the ability to survive in cold climates. Having a well-prepared shelter helps protect individuals from extreme cold temperatures, wind, and other harsh weather conditions. It provides a safe and warm space where people can stay and conserve body heat, preventing hypothermia and frostbite. While food, good health, and fire are also important for survival, without proper shelter preparation, individuals would be exposed to the elements and their chances of survival would be significantly reduced.

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  • 48. 

    WHAT ARE THE TWO FUNDAMENTAL GOALS OF A SURVIVOR?

    • A.

      PERSONAL PROTECTION AND INJURY PREVENTION

    • B.

      HEALTH AND SELF AID

    • C.

      MAINTAIN LIFE, AND RETURN

    • D.

      COMMUNICATION AND ADEQUATE CLOTHING

    Correct Answer
    C. MAINTAIN LIFE, AND RETURN
    Explanation
    The two fundamental goals of a survivor are to maintain life and to return. This means that the primary focus is on staying alive and finding a way back to safety or civilization. This includes taking necessary measures to ensure basic needs such as food, water, and shelter are met, as well as finding a way to navigate and communicate for rescue or assistance. The goal is to survive the situation and eventually make it back to a safe environment.

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  • 49. 

    WHAT TWO ITEMS ARE JUST AS NECESSARY AS FOOD AND WATER FOR A STRANDED PERSON?

    • A.

      COOKING UTENSILS AND A RIFLE

    • B.

      SHELTER AND SLEEP

    • C.

      ASPIRIN AND MATCHES

    • D.

      MAP AND COMPASS

    Correct Answer
    B. SHELTER AND SLEEP
    Explanation
    Shelter and sleep are just as necessary as food and water for a stranded person. When a person is stranded, they need a safe and protected place to stay, which is provided by shelter. Shelter protects them from harsh weather conditions and provides a sense of security. Sleep is essential for the body to rest and recover. It helps maintain physical and mental health, and without proper sleep, a person's ability to function and make rational decisions is compromised. Therefore, having shelter and getting enough sleep are crucial for the well-being and survival of a stranded person.

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  • 50. 

    TO MAINTAIN EFFICIENCY, SURVIVORS REQUIRE A MINIMUM DAILY CALORIE INTAKE OF

    • A.

      2,000 CALORIES

    • B.

      6,000 CALORIES

    • C.

      4,000 CALORIES

    • D.

      2,500 CALORIES

    Correct Answer
    C. 4,000 CALORIES
    Explanation
    To maintain efficiency, survivors require a minimum daily calorie intake of 4,000 calories. This is because during survival situations, individuals are likely to engage in physically demanding activities such as searching for food, building shelters, and traversing difficult terrains. These activities require a significant amount of energy, which can only be obtained through a higher calorie intake. A lower calorie intake would not provide enough energy to sustain the body's needs and could lead to fatigue, weakness, and decreased efficiency in performing survival tasks.

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