Radtech Simulation Examination 6

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  • 1/200 Questions

    Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?

    • Distal interphalangeal joints
    • Proximal interphalangeal joints
    • Metacarpals
    • Radial styloid process
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About This Quiz

Radtech Simulation Examination 6 assesses key competencies in radiologic technology, focusing on anatomical articulations, imaging positions, and bone structures. It is designed for learners aiming to enhance their diagnostic imaging skills.

Radtech Simulation Examination 6 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves is termed the:

    • Median sagittal plane (MSP)

    • Midcoronal plane

    • Sagittal plane

    • Transverse plane

    Correct Answer
    A. Midcoronal plane
    Explanation
    The midcoronal plane is the correct answer because it is the plane that divides the body into equal anterior and posterior halves. This plane is also known as the frontal plane or coronal plane. The other options are not correct because the median sagittal plane divides the body into equal left and right halves, the sagittal plane divides the body into unequal left and right halves, and the transverse plane divides the body into superior and inferior halves.

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  • 3. 

    A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following?
    1. sacral vertebrae
    2. thoracic vertebrae
    3. lumbar vertebrae

    • 1 only

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1 and 3 only

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 and 2 only
    Explanation
    A kyphotic curve is formed by the thoracic vertebrae and the sacral vertebrae. The thoracic vertebrae are located in the upper and middle back and have a natural kyphotic curve, which gives the spine its rounded shape. The sacral vertebrae are located at the base of the spine and also contribute to the kyphotic curve. The lumbar vertebrae, on the other hand, have a lordotic curve, which is the opposite of a kyphotic curve. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?
    1. talotibial
    2. talocalcaneal
    3. talofibular

    • 1 only

    • 1 and 3 only

    • 2 and 3 only

    • 3 only

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 and 3 only
    Explanation
    The ankle mortise is formed by the articulations of the talotibial and talofibular joints. The talotibial joint is formed between the talus bone and the tibia, while the talofibular joint is formed between the talus bone and the fibula. Therefore, both the talotibial and talofibular articulations participate in the formation of the ankle mortise. The talocalcaneal articulation, on the other hand, refers to the joint between the talus bone and the calcaneus bone, which is not involved in the formation of the ankle mortise.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas and odontoid process?

    • AP axial

    • Lateral

    • Parietoacanthial

    • Submentovertical (SMV)

    Correct Answer
    A. Submentovertical (SMV)
    Explanation
    The submentovertical (SMV) position is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process. This position involves the patient's head being tilted back with the chin resting on the image receptor, allowing for a clear view of these structures. The AP axial, lateral, and parietoacanthial positions do not provide the same visualization of these specific areas.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?
    1. spleen
    2. gallbladder
    3. hepatic flexure

    • 1 only

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 2 and 3 only

    • 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 and 3 only
    Explanation
    The spleen is not located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ), so option 1 is incorrect. The gallbladder is located in the RUQ, so option 2 is correct. The hepatic flexure, which is a part of the large intestine, is also located in the RUQ, so option 3 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

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  • 7. 

    The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is:

    • Cephalad

    • Proximal

    • Distal

    • Lateral

    Correct Answer
    A. Distal
    Explanation
    Distal refers to parts that are located away from the source or beginning. It is often used to describe the position of body parts in relation to a specific reference point. For example, the fingers are distal to the wrist, meaning they are further away from the body's starting point. In medical terminology, distal is commonly used to describe the location of injuries or abnormalities in the body.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following views would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees?

    • AP recumbent

    • Lateral recumbent

    • AP erect

    • Medial oblique

    Correct Answer
    A. AP erect
    Explanation
    The AP erect view would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees. This view allows for a clear visualization of the joint space and the alignment of the bones in an upright position, which is important for assessing arthritis. The erect position also helps to minimize any superimposition of structures, providing a more accurate image of the knee joint. The other views mentioned may have their own uses in certain situations, but they may not be as effective in demonstrating arthritic changes specifically.

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  • 9. 

    The threat of hypothermia is greatest when radiographing a (an):

    • Elderly patient

    • Hypertensive patient

    • Premature infant

    • Diabetic patient

    Correct Answer
    A. Premature infant
    Explanation
    Premature infants have underdeveloped thermoregulatory systems, making them more vulnerable to hypothermia. Their small size and limited fat stores also contribute to heat loss. Radiographing involves exposing the baby to a cold environment, which further increases the risk of hypothermia. Therefore, the threat of hypothermia is greatest when radiographing a premature infant.

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  • 10. 

    What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis?

    • Dome of the acetabulum

    • Femoral neck

    • Greater trochanter

    • Iliac crest

    Correct Answer
    A. Dome of the acetabulum
    Explanation
    The dome of the acetabulum is the correct answer because it is located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis. The acetabulum is the socket of the hip joint, and its dome-shaped portion is positioned between the ASIS and pubic symphysis. This anatomical structure serves as the articulation point for the femoral head, forming the hip joint.

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  • 11. 

    The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is:

    • Hemoptysis

    • Hematemesis

    • Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

    • Bronchitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemoptysis
    Explanation
    Hemoptysis is the term used to describe the expectoration of blood from the bronchi. This condition occurs when there is bleeding in the respiratory tract, typically from the lungs or bronchial tubes. It is often a symptom of underlying respiratory conditions such as tuberculosis, bronchitis, or lung cancer. Hematemesis, on the other hand, refers to the vomiting of blood from the gastrointestinal tract. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and bronchitis are respiratory conditions but do not specifically refer to the expectoration of blood.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?
    1. knee
    2. intervertebral joints
    3. temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 1 and 3 only

    • 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 and 3 only
    Explanation
    The knee and temporomandibular joint (TMJ) can be described as diarthrotic. Diarthrotic joints are freely movable joints that allow for a wide range of motion. The knee joint is a hinge joint that allows for flexion and extension of the leg, while the TMJ is a synovial joint that allows for movement of the jaw, including opening and closing, as well as side-to-side and forward-backward movements. The intervertebral joints, on the other hand, are cartilaginous joints that allow for limited movement and are not considered diarthrotic.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs?

    • Pneumothorax

    • Atelectasis

    • Pulmonary embolism

    • Hypoxia

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulmonary embolism
    Explanation
    A pulmonary embolism is a condition in which a blood vessel in the lungs becomes blocked by a blood clot, fat, air, or other substances. This blockage prevents blood flow to a portion of the lungs, leading to decreased oxygen supply and potentially causing serious complications such as difficulty breathing, chest pain, and even death if not treated promptly. Pneumothorax refers to the presence of air in the pleural cavity, atelectasis is the collapse of a lung or part of a lung, and hypoxia refers to low oxygen levels in the body.

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  • 14. 

    A quality control program includes checks on which of the following radiographic equipment conditions?
    1. reproducibility
    2. linearity
    3. positive beam limitation

    • 1 only

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 2 and 3 only

    • 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 2 and 3
    Explanation
    A quality control program includes checks on reproducibility, linearity, and positive beam limitation. Reproducibility refers to the ability of the radiographic equipment to produce consistent and repeatable images. Linearity refers to the accuracy of the equipment in producing images with consistent density and contrast across a range of exposures. Positive beam limitation refers to the ability of the equipment to automatically collimate the x-ray beam to the size of the image receptor, reducing unnecessary radiation exposure. Therefore, all three conditions are important for maintaining the quality and accuracy of radiographic images.

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  • 15. 

    The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to:

    • Permit the diaphragm to move to its lowest position

    • Avoid superimpostion on the apices

    • Assist in maintaining an upright position

    • Keep the MSP parallel

    Correct Answer
    A. Avoid superimpostion on the apices
    Explanation
    Elevating the patient's chin during chest radiography helps to avoid superimposition on the apices. This is important because the apices, which are the uppermost parts of the lungs, can be easily obscured by other structures such as the clavicles or the spine. By elevating the chin, the radiographer can ensure that the apices are clearly visible and not overlapping with other anatomical structures, allowing for a more accurate interpretation of the radiograph.

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  • 16. 

    With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?

    • Symphysis

    • Rami

    • Body

    • Angle

    Correct Answer
    A. Rami
    Explanation
    When the patient's head is in a PA position and the CR is directed 20 degrees cephalad, the rami of the mandible will be best visualized. The rami are the vertical portions of the mandible that extend upwards from the body towards the angle. By angling the CR cephalad, the rami will be projected away from the superimposition of the body and symphysis, allowing for a clearer visualization.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?

    • Patient AP w/30 to 35 degree angle cephalad

    • Patient AP w/30 to 35 degree angle caudad

    • Patient AP w/ 0 degree angle

    • Patient lateral, coned to L5

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient AP w/30 to 35 degree angle cephalad
    Explanation
    Positioning the patient in an AP (anterior-posterior) projection with a 30 to 35 degree angle cephalad will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace. By angling the x-ray beam cephalad (towards the head), the L5-S1 interspace will be better visualized on the resulting image. This positioning helps to separate the structures and reduce superimposition, allowing for a clearer view of the L5-S1 interspace.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?

    • Erect

    • Recumbent

    • Oblique

    • Trendelenburg

    Correct Answer
    A. Erect
    Explanation
    The erect position is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses because it allows for better visualization and assessment of the sinuses. In the erect position, the patient is standing or sitting upright, which helps to ensure that gravity does not affect the positioning of the sinuses. This position also helps to minimize any potential distortion or superimposition of the sinuses, allowing for a more accurate evaluation of the paranasal sinuses.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following factors can contribute to hypertension?
    1. obesity
    2. smoking
    3. stress

    • 1 only

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 2 and 3 only

    • 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 2 and 3
    Explanation
    Obesity, smoking, and stress can all contribute to hypertension. Obesity increases the risk of developing high blood pressure because it puts extra strain on the heart. Smoking can raise blood pressure and damage blood vessels, leading to hypertension. Stress can also cause temporary increases in blood pressure, and chronic stress can contribute to long-term hypertension. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

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  • 20. 

    The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart are called?

    • Hypertension

    • Elasticity

    • Pulse

    • Pressure

    Correct Answer
    A. Pulse
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "pulse" because the contraction and relaxation of the heart cause the arterial walls to expand and contract, resulting in the rhythmic throbbing sensation that can be felt in the arteries. This pulsation is known as the pulse. Hypertension refers to high blood pressure, elasticity refers to the ability of the arterial walls to stretch and recoil, and pressure refers to the force exerted by the blood against the arterial walls.

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  • 21. 

    With the patient recumbent on the x-ray table, with the head lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the:

    • Trendelenburg position

    • Fowler position

    • Decubitus position

    • Sims position

    Correct Answer
    A. Trendelenburg position
    Explanation
    The Trendelenburg position is when the patient is lying on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feet. This position is often used in medical procedures to improve blood flow and circulation to vital organs. It can also be used to prevent or treat hypotension. The other options, Fowler position, decubitus position, and Sims position, do not involve the head being lower than the feet.

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  • 22. 

    Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations?

    • Barium examinations

    • Spine radiography

    • Skull radiography

    • Emergency and trauma radiography

    Correct Answer
    A. Emergency and trauma radiography
    Explanation
    In emergency and trauma radiography, standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views at right angles to each other. This is because in emergency situations, time is often limited and it may not be feasible to perform multiple views or complex imaging techniques. By obtaining two views at right angles, it allows for a quick assessment of the injury or condition, providing important diagnostic information to guide immediate treatment decisions. This approach helps to expedite the imaging process and ensure timely patient care in emergency and trauma cases.

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  • 23. 

    In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced trought the skin?

    • Closed

    • Compound

    • Compression

    • Depressed

    Correct Answer
    A. Compound
    Explanation
    A compound fracture occurs when the splintered ends of a bone are forced through the skin. This type of fracture is also known as an open fracture. It is considered more severe and carries a higher risk of infection compared to a closed fracture, where the bone does not break through the skin. In a compound fracture, the bone fragments and surrounding tissues are exposed to the external environment, making it important to seek immediate medical attention to prevent complications.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following refers to a regular program of evaluation that ensures proper functioning of x-ray equipment, thereby protecting both patients and radiation workers?

    • Sensitometry

    • Densitometry

    • Quality assurance

    • Modulation transfer function

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality assurance
    Explanation
    Quality assurance refers to a regular program of evaluation that ensures proper functioning of x-ray equipment, thereby protecting both patients and radiation workers. It involves various activities such as equipment testing, calibration, maintenance, and monitoring to ensure that the equipment is functioning accurately and producing reliable results. This helps to minimize the risk of errors, reduce radiation exposure, and maintain the quality and safety of the imaging process. Sensitometry and densitometry are related to the measurement and analysis of film density, while modulation transfer function is a measure of the imaging system's ability to reproduce fine details.

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  • 25. 

    Poor screen-film contact can be caused by which of the following:
    1. damaged cassette frame
    2. foreign body in cassette
    3. warped cassette front

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 1 and 3 only

    • 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 2 and 3
    Explanation
    Poor screen-film contact can occur due to a damaged cassette frame, as it may not hold the film and screen tightly together. Similarly, a foreign body in the cassette can create a gap between the film and screen, resulting in poor contact. Additionally, a warped cassette front can cause uneven pressure on the film and screen, leading to poor contact. Therefore, all three options (1, 2, and 3) can cause poor screen-film contact.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax?
    1. Manubrium
    2. Clavicles
    3. 24 ribs

    • 1 only

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 1 and 3 only

    • 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 and 3 only
    Explanation
    The bony thorax consists of the manubrium and the 24 ribs. The manubrium is the uppermost part of the sternum, which is a flat bone located in the center of the chest. The ribs are long, curved bones that attach to the vertebrae in the back and wrap around the chest to connect to the sternum. The clavicles, also known as the collarbones, are not part of the bony thorax as they are located above the sternum and do not contribute to the structure of the rib cage. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

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  • 27. 

    Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed?

    • Eversion

    • Inversion

    • Abduction

    • Adduction

    Correct Answer
    A. Adduction
    Explanation
    Adduction refers to the movement of a body part towards the midline of the body. This means that the body part is being brought closer to the center of the body. In contrast, abduction refers to the movement of a body part away from the midline of the body. Eversion refers to the movement of the sole of the foot away from the midline of the body, while inversion refers to the movement of the sole of the foot towards the midline of the body. Therefore, adduction is the correct term for the movement described in the question.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following would best evaluate the maxillary sinus?

    • PA axial projection (Caldwell method)

    • Parietoacanthal projection (Waters method)

    • Lateral projection

    • Submentovertical projection (SMV)

    Correct Answer
    A. Parietoacanthal projection (Waters method)
    Explanation
    The parietoacanthal projection (Waters method) would best evaluate the maxillary sinus. This projection is specifically designed to visualize the maxillary sinuses by placing the patient's forehead and nose against the image receptor. This allows for a clear and detailed view of the maxillary sinuses, which are located in the upper jaw area. The other projections mentioned may not provide as accurate or specific visualization of the maxillary sinuses.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following devices should not be removed before positioning for a radiograph?
    1. a ring when performing hand radiography
    2. an antishock garment
    3. a pneumatic spint

    • 1 only

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 2 and 3 only

    • 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 and 3 only
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. This means that the antishock garment and the pneumatic splint should not be removed before positioning for a radiograph. This is because these devices are used to stabilize and support the patient during the radiographic procedure. Removing them could potentially cause harm or discomfort to the patient. However, a ring can be removed before performing hand radiography as it does not interfere with the positioning or image quality.

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  • 30. 

    Glossitis refers to inflammation of the:

    • Epiglottis

    • Salivary glands

    • Tongue

    • Ossicles

    Correct Answer
    A. Tongue
    Explanation
    Glossitis is a medical term that specifically refers to the inflammation of the tongue. It is characterized by swelling, redness, and sometimes pain or discomfort in the tongue. Glossitis can be caused by various factors including infections, allergies, nutritional deficiencies, or other underlying health conditions. The inflammation can affect the entire tongue or specific areas of it. Treatment for glossitis depends on the underlying cause and may involve medications, oral hygiene practices, or lifestyle changes. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is "tongue."

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  • 31. 

    The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the:

    • Diploe

    • Lambda

    • Bregma

    • Pterion

    Correct Answer
    A. Bregma
    Explanation
    The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is known as the bregma. The bregma is an anatomical landmark on the skull where the frontal and parietal bones meet. It is located towards the top of the skull, near the anterior fontanelle (soft spot) in infants. The bregma is an important reference point for neurosurgery and cranial measurements.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?

    • AP

    • PA

    • RPO

    • LPO

    Correct Answer
    A. LPO
    Explanation
    The LPO (Left Posterior Oblique) position is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR (Image Receptor). In this position, the patient is lying on their left side with the left posterior aspect of the body closest to the IR. This positioning allows for the right kidney to be closer to the IR and parallel to it, resulting in a clearer and more accurate image of the right kidney.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation?

    • AP knee

    • Lateral knee

    • Tangential patella

    • Tunnel view

    Correct Answer
    A. Tangential patella
    Explanation
    The tangential patella position is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation. This position involves placing the patient in a supine position with the knee flexed at 45 degrees and the x-ray beam angled 10-15 degrees caudally. This allows for a tangential view of the patella, providing a clear visualization of any fractures and the relationship between the patella and femur.

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  • 34. 

    All the following are palpable bony landmarks used in radiography of the pelvis except:

    • The femoral neck

    • The pubic symphysis

    • The greater trochanter

    • The iliac crest

    Correct Answer
    A. The femoral neck
    Explanation
    The femoral neck is not a palpable bony landmark used in radiography of the pelvis. Palpable bony landmarks are those that can be felt or touched on the body's surface, and they are used as reference points in radiographic imaging. The pubic symphysis, greater trochanter, and iliac crest are all palpable bony landmarks that can be used to accurately position and align the pelvis for radiographic imaging. However, the femoral neck is not easily palpable and therefore not used as a landmark in this context.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following structures is (are) located in the RUQ?
    1. hepatic flexure
    2. gallbladder
    3. ileocecal valve

    • 1 only

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 2 and 3 only

    • 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 and 2 only
    Explanation
    The hepatic flexure is located in the RUQ (right upper quadrant) of the abdomen. The gallbladder is also located in the RUQ. However, the ileocecal valve is not located in the RUQ, so it is not included in the answer. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

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  • 36. 

    The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is:

    • Red marrow

    • Yellow marrow

    • Cortical tissue

    • Cancellous tissue

    Correct Answer
    A. Yellow marrow
    Explanation
    Yellow marrow is the correct answer because it occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult. Yellow marrow is composed mainly of fat cells and is responsible for storing fat. It replaces red marrow as a person ages and plays a role in the production of red and white blood cells.

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  • 37. 

    A type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow is:

    • Ewing sarcoma

    • Multiple myeloma

    • Enchondroma

    • Osteochondroma

    Correct Answer
    A. Ewing sarcoma
    Explanation
    Ewing sarcoma is a type of cancerous bone tumor that primarily affects children and young adults. It arises from the bone marrow and can occur in various bones in the body. Ewing sarcoma is characterized by the formation of malignant cells in the bone, leading to pain, swelling, and potential fractures. It is important to diagnose and treat Ewing sarcoma early to prevent further complications and improve the chances of successful treatment. Multiple myeloma, enchondroma, and osteochondroma are different types of bone tumors, but they do not specifically arise from the bone marrow like Ewing sarcoma does.

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  • 38. 

    The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the:

    • Costal margin

    • Umbilicus

    • Xiphoid tip

    • Fouth lumbar vertebra

    Correct Answer
    A. Fouth lumbar vertebra
    Explanation
    The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the fourth lumbar vertebra. The iliac crest is the curved ridge at the top of the pelvic bone, and it extends from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to the posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS). The fourth lumbar vertebra is located in the lower back, just above the sacrum. The iliac crest and the fourth lumbar vertebra are at a similar level in the body, which is why they are approximately at the same level.

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  • 39. 

    With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids?

    • Below the orbits

    • In the lower third of the orbits

    • Completely within the orbits

    • Above the orbits

    Correct Answer
    A. Completely within the orbits
    Explanation
    When the patient is positioned in the PA (posteroanterior) position and the OML (orbitomeatal line) and CR (central ray) are perpendicular to the IR (image receptor), the resulting radiograph will show the petrous pyramids completely within the orbits. This means that the petrous pyramids, which are part of the temporal bone, will be fully visible within the eye sockets on the radiograph.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?

    • Avulsion fracture

    • Torus fracture

    • Comminuted fracture

    • Compound fracture

    Correct Answer
    A. Avulsion fracture
    Explanation
    An avulsion fracture is a type of fracture where a small bony fragment is pulled from a bony process. This usually occurs when a strong force is applied to a tendon or ligament, causing it to pull away from the bone and take a small piece of bone with it. Avulsion fractures are commonly seen in sports injuries, where sudden and forceful movements can cause the tendon or ligament to tear away from the bone.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull?
    1. The IOML is parallel to the IR
    2. The MSP is parallel to the IR
    3. The CR enters 3/4 inch superior and anterior to the EAM

    • 1 only

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 2 and 3 only

    • 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 and 2 only
    Explanation
    For a lateral projection of the skull, it is necessary for the IOML (infraorbital-meatal line) to be parallel to the IR (image receptor) and for the MSP (mid-sagittal plane) to be parallel to the IR. This ensures that the image is properly aligned and that the structures of interest are accurately depicted. The third statement, regarding the CR (central ray), is not required for a lateral projection of the skull.

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  • 42. 

    To better visualize the knee joint in a lateral projection the radiographer should:

    • Direct CR perpendicular to IR

    • Angle the CR 5-7 degrees cephalad

    • Angle the CR 5-7 degrees caudad

    Correct Answer
    A. Angle the CR 5-7 degrees cephalad
    Explanation
    To better visualize the knee joint in a lateral projection, angling the CR 5-7 degrees cephalad is the correct answer. This angulation helps to separate the femoral condyles and tibial plateau, allowing for better visualization of the joint space and bony structures. Angling the CR in this direction helps to reduce superimposition of the structures and provides a clearer image of the knee joint.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture?

    • Internal and external rotation

    • AP and tangential

    • AP and AP axial

    • AP and scapular Y

    Correct Answer
    A. AP and scapular Y
    Explanation
    The best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture would be the AP (Anteroposterior) and scapular Y views. The AP view allows for visualization of the entire shoulder joint, including the humeral head and glenoid fossa. The scapular Y view provides a better visualization of the scapula and its relationship to the humeral head, which can help detect any fractures or dislocations. Together, these views provide a comprehensive assessment of the shoulder joint and are ideal for ruling out fractures.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition?

    • AP oblique, medial rotation

    • AP oblique, lateral rotation

    • Mediolateral

    • Lateral weight-bearing

    Correct Answer
    A. AP oblique, medial rotation
    Explanation
    AP oblique, medial rotation is the best projection to demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition because it allows for better visualization of the medial side of the foot. By rotating the foot medially, the navicular bone is pulled away from the other bones, reducing superimposition and providing a clearer image. This projection is commonly used to assess for fractures or other abnormalities involving the navicular bone.

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  • 45. 

    The innominate bone is located in the:

    • Middle cranial fossa

    • Posterior cranial fossa

    • Foot

    • Pelvis

    Correct Answer
    A. Pelvis
    Explanation
    The innominate bone, also known as the hip bone, is indeed located in the pelvis. It is a large, irregularly shaped bone that forms part of the pelvic girdle. The pelvis consists of two innominate bones, along with the sacrum and coccyx, and it serves as a strong and stable base for the spine and supports the weight of the upper body. The innominate bone plays a crucial role in providing attachment points for muscles and ligaments, as well as protecting the reproductive and urinary organs.

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  • 46. 

    During chest radiography, the act of inspiration:
    1. elevates the diaphragm
    2. raises the ribs
    3. depresses the abdominal viscera

    • 1 only

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 2 and 3 only

    • 1, 2 and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 and 3 only
    Explanation
    During chest radiography, the act of inspiration raises the ribs and depresses the abdominal viscera. This is because when a person takes a deep breath in, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, causing the ribs to move upward and outward. This expansion of the ribcage allows for more air to enter the lungs and creates space for the x-ray to capture a clear image of the chest. Additionally, the downward movement of the diaphragm during inspiration puts pressure on the abdominal viscera, causing them to be pushed downward.

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  • 47. 

    With patient lying prone, knee flexed @ 45 degrees (support under ankle), CR 45 degrees caudad, what will be demonstrated?

    • Patella

    • Patellofemoral articulation

    • Intercondyloid fossa

    • Tibial tuberosity

    Correct Answer
    A. Intercondyloid fossa
    Explanation
    When the patient is lying prone with the knee flexed at 45 degrees and the CR (central ray) angled 45 degrees caudad, the intercondyloid fossa will be demonstrated. The intercondyloid fossa is the depression located between the condyles of the femur, specifically the medial and lateral condyles. This positioning allows for optimal visualization of this anatomical structure.

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  • 48. 

    For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?

    • 5 degrees caudad

    • 10 degrees caudad

    • 5 degrees cephalad

    • 0 degrees (perpendicular)

    Correct Answer
    A. 0 degrees (perpendicular)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0 degrees (perpendicular). In an AP projection of the knee, the central ray should be directed perpendicular to the image receptor. This ensures that the knee joint is displayed without any distortion, allowing for accurate assessment of the anatomy. Angling the central ray in any direction (caudad or cephalad) would introduce distortion and compromise the image quality. Therefore, a perpendicular CR direction is necessary to best demonstrate the knee joint.

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  • 49. 

    Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the:

    • Right main stem bronchus

    • Left main stem bronchus

    • Esophagus

    • Proximal stomach

    Correct Answer
    A. Right main stem bronchus
    Explanation
    In older children and adults, aspirated foreign bodies are most likely to lodge in the right main stem bronchus. This is because the right main stem bronchus is wider, shorter, and more vertical compared to the left main stem bronchus. As a result, foreign bodies are more likely to enter and become lodged in the right bronchus, causing obstruction and potential respiratory complications.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 24, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Untalancy

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