Radtech Simulation Examination 6
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the:
- atlantoaxial joint
- radioulnar joint
- temporomandibular joint
- A.
1 and 2 only
- B.
2 and 3 only
- C.
1 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
A. 1 and 2 onlyExplanation
The correct answer is 1 and 2 only because the atlantoaxial joint and radioulnar joint are both examples of synovial pivot articulations. The temporomandibular joint, on the other hand, is an example of a synovial hinge articulation, not a synovial pivot articulation.Rate this question:
- 2.
The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned lumbar spine?
- A.
Eye
- B.
Nose
- C.
Body
- D.
Ear
Correct Answer
B. NoseExplanation
In the "Scotty dog" representation of the lumbar spine, the lumbar transverse process is represented by the "nose" of the dog. This is because the transverse process is a bony projection that extends laterally from the vertebral body, resembling the nose of a dog. The other options, such as eye, body, and ear, do not accurately represent the location or shape of the lumbar transverse process in this representation.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which of the following positions will separate the radial head, neck and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna?
- A.
AP
- B.
Lateral
- C.
Medial oblique
- D.
Lateral oblique
Correct Answer
D. Lateral obliqueExplanation
The lateral oblique position will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna. This position involves angling the x-ray beam and the patient's forearm, which allows for better visualization and differentiation of these structures. By positioning the patient in the lateral oblique position, the radial head, neck, and tuberosity can be seen without overlapping with the ulna, providing a clearer and more accurate image.Rate this question:
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- 4.
In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimpostion with the metatarsals or phalanges?
- A.
Dorsoplantar metatarsals/toes
- B.
Tangential metatarsals/toes
- C.
30-degree medial oblique foot
- D.
30-degree lateral oblique foot
Correct Answer
B. Tangential metatarsals/toesExplanation
The correct answer is Tangential metatarsals/toes. In a tangential projection, the X-ray beam is directed parallel to the structure being imaged, in this case, the metatarsals and toes. This projection allows for the sesamoid bones of the foot to be visualized without any superimposition from the surrounding bones. In the other positions mentioned, such as dorsoplantar and oblique views, there may be overlapping of the sesamoid bones with the metatarsals or phalanges, making it difficult to assess them accurately.Rate this question:
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- 5.
With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids?
- A.
Below the orbits
- B.
In the lower third of the orbits
- C.
Completely within the orbits
- D.
Above the orbits
Correct Answer
C. Completely within the orbitsExplanation
When the patient is positioned in the PA (posteroanterior) position and the OML (orbitomeatal line) and CR (central ray) are perpendicular to the IR (image receptor), the resulting radiograph will show the petrous pyramids completely within the orbits. This means that the petrous pyramids, which are part of the temporal bone, will be fully visible within the eye sockets on the radiograph.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax?
- Manubrium
- Clavicles
- 24 ribs
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
1 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
C. 1 and 3 onlyExplanation
The bony thorax consists of the manubrium and the 24 ribs. The manubrium is the uppermost part of the sternum, which is a flat bone located in the center of the chest. The ribs are long, curved bones that attach to the vertebrae in the back and wrap around the chest to connect to the sternum. The clavicles, also known as the collarbones, are not part of the bony thorax as they are located above the sternum and do not contribute to the structure of the rib cage. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only.Rate this question:
- 7.
During atrial systole, blood flows into the:
- right ventricle via the mitral valve.
- left ventricle via the bicuspid valve.
- right ventricle via the tricuspid valve.
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 3 onlyExplanation
During atrial systole, the atria contract and pump blood into the ventricles. The blood flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle through the tricuspid valve and from the left atrium to the left ventricle through the bicuspid valve (also known as the mitral valve). Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.Rate this question:
- 8.
The PA chest radiograph should demonstrate:
- rotation
- scapulae removed from lung fields
- adequate inspiration
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 3 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3Explanation
The PA chest radiograph should demonstrate rotation, which means that the patient's body should be positioned correctly and not tilted to one side. The scapulae should be removed from the lung fields in order to have a clear view of the lungs. Adequate inspiration is also important to ensure that the lungs are fully expanded and visible on the radiograph. Therefore, all three options - 1, 2, and 3 - are correct and should be demonstrated on a PA chest radiograph.Rate this question:
- 9.
In a PA chest radiograph which ribs will be demonstrated on the right upper side of the film?
- A.
Left anterior ribs
- B.
Right posterior ribs
- C.
Left posterior ribs
- D.
Right anterior ribs
Correct Answer
A. Left anterior ribsExplanation
In a PA chest radiograph, the left anterior ribs will be demonstrated on the right upper side of the film. This is because the x-ray beam passes through the patient's body from the back to the front, and the resulting image is a mirror image of the patient's anatomy. Therefore, the left side of the patient will appear on the right side of the film, and the anterior ribs on the left side will be visible on the upper right side of the film.Rate this question:
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- 10.
With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?
- A.
Radial head
- B.
Ulnar head
- C.
Coronoid process
- D.
Olecranon process
Correct Answer
C. Coronoid processExplanation
When the patient is seated at the end of the x-ray table with the elbow flexed 80 degrees and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, the coronoid process will be demonstrated best. The coronoid process is a projection of the ulna bone located in the front of the elbow joint. This positioning allows for a clear view of the coronoid process, while the radial head, ulnar head, and olecranon process may not be as clearly visible in this specific position and angle.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The threat of hypothermia is greatest when radiographing a (an):
- A.
Elderly patient
- B.
Hypertensive patient
- C.
Premature infant
- D.
Diabetic patient
Correct Answer
C. Premature infantExplanation
Premature infants have underdeveloped thermoregulatory systems, making them more vulnerable to hypothermia. Their small size and limited fat stores also contribute to heat loss. Radiographing involves exposing the baby to a cold environment, which further increases the risk of hypothermia. Therefore, the threat of hypothermia is greatest when radiographing a premature infant.Rate this question:
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- 12.
The CR will parallel the intervertebral foramina in which of the following projections?
- lateral cervical spine
- lateral thoracic spine
- lateral lumbar spine
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 3 onlyExplanation
The intervertebral foramina are the spaces between adjacent vertebrae through which the spinal nerves pass. In the lateral thoracic spine and lateral lumbar spine projections, the CR will be parallel to the intervertebral foramina. This is because in these projections, the CR is directed perpendicular to the intervertebral foramina, allowing for better visualization of the neural foramina and nerve roots. In the lateral cervical spine projection, the CR is angled slightly cephalad, which makes it not parallel to the intervertebral foramina. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.Rate this question:
- 13.
What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis?
- A.
Dome of the acetabulum
- B.
Femoral neck
- C.
Greater trochanter
- D.
Iliac crest
Correct Answer
A. Dome of the acetabulumExplanation
The dome of the acetabulum is the correct answer because it is located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis. The acetabulum is the socket of the hip joint, and its dome-shaped portion is positioned between the ASIS and pubic symphysis. This anatomical structure serves as the articulation point for the femoral head, forming the hip joint.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which of the following would best evaluate the maxillary sinus?
- A.
PA axial projection (Caldwell method)
- B.
Parietoacanthal projection (Waters method)
- C.
Lateral projection
- D.
Submentovertical projection (SMV)
Correct Answer
B. Parietoacanthal projection (Waters method)Explanation
The parietoacanthal projection (Waters method) would best evaluate the maxillary sinus. This projection is specifically designed to visualize the maxillary sinuses by placing the patient's forehead and nose against the image receptor. This allows for a clear and detailed view of the maxillary sinuses, which are located in the upper jaw area. The other projections mentioned may not provide as accurate or specific visualization of the maxillary sinuses.Rate this question:
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- 15.
During chest radiography, the act of inspiration:
- elevates the diaphragm
- raises the ribs
- depresses the abdominal viscera
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 3 onlyExplanation
During chest radiography, the act of inspiration raises the ribs and depresses the abdominal viscera. This is because when a person takes a deep breath in, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, causing the ribs to move upward and outward. This expansion of the ribcage allows for more air to enter the lungs and creates space for the x-ray to capture a clear image of the chest. Additionally, the downward movement of the diaphragm during inspiration puts pressure on the abdominal viscera, causing them to be pushed downward.Rate this question:
- 16.
Which foot view would best demonstrate the articulation between the (calcaneus and cuboid) & (the talus and navicular)?
- A.
Medial oblique
- B.
Lateral oblique
- C.
AP
- D.
Lateral
Correct Answer
A. Medial obliqueExplanation
The medial oblique foot view would best demonstrate the articulation between the calcaneus and cuboid, as well as the talus and navicular. This view allows for a clear visualization of the medial side of the foot, which is where these articulations are located. The medial oblique view provides a diagonal angle that helps to highlight the relationship between these bones and their articulations.Rate this question:
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- 17.
A lateral projection of the lumbar spine will demonstrate the: 1. intervertebral spaces 2. intervertebral foramina 3. articular facets
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
B. 1 and 2 onlyExplanation
A lateral projection of the lumbar spine will demonstrate the intervertebral spaces and intervertebral foramina. The intervertebral spaces are the gaps between adjacent vertebrae where the intervertebral discs are located. The intervertebral foramina are the openings between the vertebrae through which the spinal nerves exit the spinal cord. The articular facets, on the other hand, are the joints between the superior and inferior articular processes of adjacent vertebrae, and they are best visualized in a posterior-anterior or oblique projection.Rate this question:
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- 18.
The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to:
- A.
Permit the diaphragm to move to its lowest position
- B.
Avoid superimpostion on the apices
- C.
Assist in maintaining an upright position
- D.
Keep the MSP parallel
Correct Answer
B. Avoid superimpostion on the apicesExplanation
Elevating the patient's chin during chest radiography helps to avoid superimposition on the apices. This is important because the apices, which are the uppermost parts of the lungs, can be easily obscured by other structures such as the clavicles or the spine. By elevating the chin, the radiographer can ensure that the apices are clearly visible and not overlapping with other anatomical structures, allowing for a more accurate interpretation of the radiograph.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the:
- A.
Diaphysis
- B.
Epiphysis
- C.
Metaphysis
- D.
Apophysis
Correct Answer
B. EpiphysisExplanation
The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the epiphysis. This is because the epiphysis is the rounded end of a long bone, where growth occurs during childhood and adolescence. It is separated from the rest of the bone by the growth plate, also known as the metaphysis. The diaphysis, on the other hand, is the shaft or main portion of the long bone, while the apophysis refers to a bony outgrowth or projection. Therefore, the epiphysis is the correct answer as it is the specific region where secondary ossification occurs.Rate this question:
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- 20.
The lumbar lamina is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?
- A.
Eye
- B.
Nose
- C.
Body
- D.
Neck
Correct Answer
C. BodyExplanation
In a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view, the lumbar lamina is represented by the body of the "Scotty dog." The "Scotty dog" is a radiographic representation of the lumbar spine, with various anatomical structures resembling different parts of a dog. In this case, the body of the "Scotty dog" corresponds to the lumbar lamina.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition?
- A.
AP oblique, medial rotation
- B.
AP oblique, lateral rotation
- C.
Mediolateral
- D.
Lateral weight-bearing
Correct Answer
A. AP oblique, medial rotationExplanation
AP oblique, medial rotation is the best projection to demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition because it allows for better visualization of the medial side of the foot. By rotating the foot medially, the navicular bone is pulled away from the other bones, reducing superimposition and providing a clearer image. This projection is commonly used to assess for fractures or other abnormalities involving the navicular bone.Rate this question:
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- 22.
To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers:
- A.
Rest on the cassette for immobilization
- B.
Must be supported paralled to the IR
- C.
Are radiographed in natural flexion
- D.
Are radiographed in palmar flexion
Correct Answer
B. Must be supported paralled to the IRExplanation
When evaluating the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, it is necessary to support the fingers parallel to the image receptor (IR). This ensures proper alignment and positioning of the joints for accurate radiographic evaluation. Resting the fingers on the cassette for immobilization may not provide the necessary support and alignment. Radiographing the fingers in natural or palmar flexion would not allow for proper evaluation of the interphalangeal joints in these specific positions.Rate this question:
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- 23.
In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the:
- fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia
- patellofemoral joint should be visualized
- femoral condyles should be superimposed
- A.
1 only
- B.
2 only
- C.
1 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3Explanation
In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia. This is because the fibula is located on the lateral side of the leg and should be partially overlapping with the tibia in this view. The patellofemoral joint should be visualized because it is the joint between the patella (kneecap) and the femur (thigh bone), and it is important to assess its alignment and any potential abnormalities. The femoral condyles should be superimposed because they are the rounded ends of the femur that articulate with the tibia, and their alignment is crucial for proper knee function.Rate this question:
- 24.
The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the:
- A.
Diploe
- B.
Lambda
- C.
Bregma
- D.
Pterion
Correct Answer
C. BregmaExplanation
The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is known as the bregma. The bregma is an anatomical landmark on the skull where the frontal and parietal bones meet. It is located towards the top of the skull, near the anterior fontanelle (soft spot) in infants. The bregma is an important reference point for neurosurgery and cranial measurements.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is:
- A.
Hemoptysis
- B.
Hematemesis
- C.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
- D.
Bronchitis
Correct Answer
A. HemoptysisExplanation
Hemoptysis is the term used to describe the expectoration of blood from the bronchi. This condition occurs when there is bleeding in the respiratory tract, typically from the lungs or bronchial tubes. It is often a symptom of underlying respiratory conditions such as tuberculosis, bronchitis, or lung cancer. Hematemesis, on the other hand, refers to the vomiting of blood from the gastrointestinal tract. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and bronchitis are respiratory conditions but do not specifically refer to the expectoration of blood.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient in PA and:
- A.
In a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IR
- B.
In a slight oblique position, affected side away from the IR
- C.
Erect and weight-bearing
- D.
Erect with and without weights
Correct Answer
A. In a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IRExplanation
The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IR. This positioning allows for better visualization of the sternoclavicular joints, as it helps to separate the clavicle from the ribs and superimposed structures. The oblique position also helps to minimize overlap and improve the clarity of the joint space. By placing the affected side adjacent to the IR, the joint of interest is brought closer to the image receptor, resulting in better image quality and detail.Rate this question:
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- 27.
With patient lying prone, knee flexed @ 45 degrees (support under ankle), CR 45 degrees caudad, what will be demonstrated?
- A.
Patella
- B.
Patellofemoral articulation
- C.
Intercondyloid fossa
- D.
Tibial tuberosity
Correct Answer
C. Intercondyloid fossaExplanation
When the patient is lying prone with the knee flexed at 45 degrees and the CR (central ray) angled 45 degrees caudad, the intercondyloid fossa will be demonstrated. The intercondyloid fossa is the depression located between the condyles of the femur, specifically the medial and lateral condyles. This positioning allows for optimal visualization of this anatomical structure.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?
- knee
- intervertebral joints
- temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
- A.
1 only
- B.
2 only
- C.
1 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
C. 1 and 3 onlyExplanation
The knee and temporomandibular joint (TMJ) can be described as diarthrotic. Diarthrotic joints are freely movable joints that allow for a wide range of motion. The knee joint is a hinge joint that allows for flexion and extension of the leg, while the TMJ is a synovial joint that allows for movement of the jaw, including opening and closing, as well as side-to-side and forward-backward movements. The intervertebral joints, on the other hand, are cartilaginous joints that allow for limited movement and are not considered diarthrotic.Rate this question:
- 29.
For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?
- A.
5 degrees caudad
- B.
10 degrees caudad
- C.
5 degrees cephalad
- D.
0 degrees (perpendicular)
Correct Answer
D. 0 degrees (perpendicular)Explanation
The correct answer is 0 degrees (perpendicular). In an AP projection of the knee, the central ray should be directed perpendicular to the image receptor. This ensures that the knee joint is displayed without any distortion, allowing for accurate assessment of the anatomy. Angling the central ray in any direction (caudad or cephalad) would introduce distortion and compromise the image quality. Therefore, a perpendicular CR direction is necessary to best demonstrate the knee joint.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Structures comprising the neutral or vertebral arch include:
- pedicles
- laminae
- body
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
B. 1 and 2 onlyExplanation
The structures comprising the neutral or vertebral arch are the pedicles and laminae. The pedicles are short, thick processes that connect the vertebral body to the laminae. The laminae are flat plates of bone that extend from the pedicles to form the posterior part of the arch. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only, as the body is not part of the neutral or vertebral arch.Rate this question:
- 31.
The intervertebral foramina of the thoracic spine are demonstrated with the:
- A.
Coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR
- B.
Midsagittal plane 90 degrees to the IR
- C.
Coronal plane 70 degrees to the IR
- D.
Midsagittal plane 70 degrees to the IR
Correct Answer
A. Coronal plane 90 degrees to the IRExplanation
The correct answer is "coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR." The intervertebral foramina are the spaces between adjacent vertebrae through which the spinal nerves exit the spinal cord. The coronal plane is a vertical plane that divides the body into front and back halves. By positioning the coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR (image receptor), it allows for visualization of the intervertebral foramina in a perpendicular orientation, providing a clear view of the spaces. This positioning is necessary to accurately assess the intervertebral foramina and detect any potential abnormalities or pathology.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?
- scapular Y projection
- Inferosuperior axial
- transthoracic lateral
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3Explanation
The scapular Y projection, inferosuperior axial, and transthoracic lateral can all be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint. These imaging techniques provide different views of the joint, allowing for a comprehensive evaluation of its structures and any potential abnormalities.Rate this question:
- 33.
The innominate bone is located in the:
- A.
Middle cranial fossa
- B.
Posterior cranial fossa
- C.
Foot
- D.
Pelvis
Correct Answer
D. PelvisExplanation
The innominate bone, also known as the hip bone, is indeed located in the pelvis. It is a large, irregularly shaped bone that forms part of the pelvic girdle. The pelvis consists of two innominate bones, along with the sacrum and coccyx, and it serves as a strong and stable base for the spine and supports the weight of the upper body. The innominate bone plays a crucial role in providing attachment points for muscles and ligaments, as well as protecting the reproductive and urinary organs.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The body habitus characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity and low midline stomach and gallbladder is the:
- A.
Asthenic
- B.
Hyposthenic
- C.
Sthenic
- D.
Hypersthenic
Correct Answer
A. AsthenicExplanation
The correct answer is asthenic. Asthenic body habitus is characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity, as well as a low midline stomach and gallbladder. This body type is typically associated with individuals who are slender and have a delicate build.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?
- A.
Avulsion fracture
- B.
Torus fracture
- C.
Comminuted fracture
- D.
Compound fracture
Correct Answer
A. Avulsion fractureExplanation
An avulsion fracture is a type of fracture where a small bony fragment is pulled from a bony process. This usually occurs when a strong force is applied to a tendon or ligament, causing it to pull away from the bone and take a small piece of bone with it. Avulsion fractures are commonly seen in sports injuries, where sudden and forceful movements can cause the tendon or ligament to tear away from the bone.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?
- A.
Distal interphalangeal joints
- B.
Proximal interphalangeal joints
- C.
Metacarpals
- D.
Radial styloid process
Correct Answer
D. Radial styloid processExplanation
The radial styloid process is the correct answer because it is located closer to the carpal bones compared to the other options. The distal interphalangeal joints and proximal interphalangeal joints are located in the fingers and are further away from the carpal bones. The metacarpals are the bones in the palm of the hand and are also further away from the carpal bones. Therefore, the radial styloid process, which is a bony projection on the lateral side of the wrist, is the closest structure to the carpal bones.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true?
- The midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR.
- The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft.
- An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained.
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 3 onlyExplanation
In the scapular Y projection of the shoulder, the midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR. This means that statement 1 is true. However, statement 2, which says that the scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft, is false. In this projection, the scapular borders should be free from superimposition. Statement 3, which states that an oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained, is true. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.Rate this question:
- 38.
Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR?
- AP humerus
- Lateral forearm
- Internal rotation shoulder
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 3 onlyExplanation
The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. In the lateral forearm projection, the humeral epicondyles need to be perpendicular to the IR in order to ensure proper positioning and alignment of the forearm. In the internal rotation shoulder projection, the humeral epicondyles also need to be perpendicular to the IR to accurately visualize the internal structures of the shoulder joint. However, in the AP humerus projection, the humeral epicondyles do not need to be perpendicular to the IR as the purpose of this projection is to evaluate the entire humerus, not specifically the epicondyles.Rate this question:
- 39.
Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?
- A.
AP
- B.
PA
- C.
RPO
- D.
LPO
Correct Answer
D. LPOExplanation
The LPO (Left Posterior Oblique) position is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR (Image Receptor). In this position, the patient is lying on their left side with the left posterior aspect of the body closest to the IR. This positioning allows for the right kidney to be closer to the IR and parallel to it, resulting in a clearer and more accurate image of the right kidney.Rate this question:
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- 40.
With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?
- A.
Symphysis
- B.
Rami
- C.
Body
- D.
Angle
Correct Answer
B. RamiExplanation
When the patient's head is in a PA position and the CR is directed 20 degrees cephalad, the rami of the mandible will be best visualized. The rami are the vertical portions of the mandible that extend upwards from the body towards the angle. By angling the CR cephalad, the rami will be projected away from the superimposition of the body and symphysis, allowing for a clearer visualization.Rate this question:
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- 41.
The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves is termed the:
- A.
Median sagittal plane (MSP)
- B.
Midcoronal plane
- C.
Sagittal plane
- D.
Transverse plane
Correct Answer
B. Midcoronal planeExplanation
The midcoronal plane is the correct answer because it is the plane that divides the body into equal anterior and posterior halves. This plane is also known as the frontal plane or coronal plane. The other options are not correct because the median sagittal plane divides the body into equal left and right halves, the sagittal plane divides the body into unequal left and right halves, and the transverse plane divides the body into superior and inferior halves.Rate this question:
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- 42.
To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees:
- A.
Toward the affected side
- B.
Away from the affected side
- C.
With the arm at the side in the anatomic position
- D.
With the arm in external rotation
Correct Answer
A. Toward the affected sideExplanation
To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is positioned in an AP recumbent position and obliqued 45 degrees toward the affected side. This positioning allows for a clear visualization of the glenoid fossa from a side view. By obliquing toward the affected side, the structures of the glenoid fossa can be better visualized and evaluated. This positioning also helps in assessing any abnormalities or injuries in the affected side.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?
- A.
Invert the foot
- B.
Evert the foot
- C.
Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly
- D.
Angle the CR 10 degrees anteriorly
Correct Answer
C. Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorlyExplanation
Angling the CR (central ray) 10 degrees posteriorly is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot. This angulation helps to separate the metatarsals and reduce superimposition, allowing for a clearer visualization of the tarsometatarsal joints. Inverting or everting the foot would not specifically target the tarsometatarsal joints, and angling the CR anteriorly would not provide the desired separation of the metatarsals.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is:
- A.
Red marrow
- B.
Yellow marrow
- C.
Cortical tissue
- D.
Cancellous tissue
Correct Answer
B. Yellow marrowExplanation
Yellow marrow is the correct answer because it occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult. Yellow marrow is composed mainly of fat cells and is responsible for storing fat. It replaces red marrow as a person ages and plays a role in the production of red and white blood cells.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?
- A.
Patient AP w/30 to 35 degree angle cephalad
- B.
Patient AP w/30 to 35 degree angle caudad
- C.
Patient AP w/ 0 degree angle
- D.
Patient lateral, coned to L5
Correct Answer
A. Patient AP w/30 to 35 degree angle cephaladExplanation
Positioning the patient in an AP (anterior-posterior) projection with a 30 to 35 degree angle cephalad will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace. By angling the x-ray beam cephalad (towards the head), the L5-S1 interspace will be better visualized on the resulting image. This positioning helps to separate the structures and reduce superimposition, allowing for a clearer view of the L5-S1 interspace.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis?
- A.
Ischial tuberosity
- B.
Prominence of the greater trochanter
- C.
Anterosuperior iliac spine
- D.
Anteroinferior iliac spine
Correct Answer
B. Prominence of the greater trochanterExplanation
The prominence of the greater trochanter is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis. The symphysis pubis is located in the midline of the body, while the prominence of the greater trochanter is a bony prominence on the femur, which is also located in the same transverse plane. Therefore, both landmarks are in alignment horizontally.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed?
- A.
Eversion
- B.
Inversion
- C.
Abduction
- D.
Adduction
Correct Answer
D. AdductionExplanation
Adduction refers to the movement of a body part towards the midline of the body. This means that the body part is being brought closer to the center of the body. In contrast, abduction refers to the movement of a body part away from the midline of the body. Eversion refers to the movement of the sole of the foot away from the midline of the body, while inversion refers to the movement of the sole of the foot towards the midline of the body. Therefore, adduction is the correct term for the movement described in the question.Rate this question:
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- 48.
A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following?
- sacral vertebrae
- thoracic vertebrae
- lumbar vertebrae
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
3 only
- D.
1 and 3 only
Correct Answer
B. 1 and 2 onlyExplanation
A kyphotic curve is formed by the thoracic vertebrae and the sacral vertebrae. The thoracic vertebrae are located in the upper and middle back and have a natural kyphotic curve, which gives the spine its rounded shape. The sacral vertebrae are located at the base of the spine and also contribute to the kyphotic curve. The lumbar vertebrae, on the other hand, have a lordotic curve, which is the opposite of a kyphotic curve. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.Rate this question:
- 49.
Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull?
- The IOML is parallel to the IR
- The MSP is parallel to the IR
- The CR enters 3/4 inch superior and anterior to the EAM
- A.
1 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
B. 1 and 2 onlyExplanation
For a lateral projection of the skull, it is necessary for the IOML (infraorbital-meatal line) to be parallel to the IR (image receptor) and for the MSP (mid-sagittal plane) to be parallel to the IR. This ensures that the image is properly aligned and that the structures of interest are accurately depicted. The third statement, regarding the CR (central ray), is not required for a lateral projection of the skull.Rate this question:
- 50.
With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?
- A.
Fifth metacarpal
- B.
First metacarpal
- C.
Distal radius
- D.
Distal ulna
Correct Answer
B. First metacarpalExplanation
The trapezium articulates with the first metacarpal.Rate this question:
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