Radtech Simulation Examination 6

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1. Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?

Explanation

The radial styloid process is the correct answer because it is located closer to the carpal bones compared to the other options. The distal interphalangeal joints and proximal interphalangeal joints are located in the fingers and are further away from the carpal bones. The metacarpals are the bones in the palm of the hand and are also further away from the carpal bones. Therefore, the radial styloid process, which is a bony projection on the lateral side of the wrist, is the closest structure to the carpal bones.

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About This Quiz
Radtech Simulation Examination 6 - Quiz

Radtech Simulation Examination 6 assesses key competencies in radiologic technology, focusing on anatomical articulations, imaging positions, and bone structures. It is designed for learners aiming to enhance their... see morediagnostic imaging skills. see less

2. The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves is termed the:

Explanation

The midcoronal plane is the correct answer because it is the plane that divides the body into equal anterior and posterior halves. This plane is also known as the frontal plane or coronal plane. The other options are not correct because the median sagittal plane divides the body into equal left and right halves, the sagittal plane divides the body into unequal left and right halves, and the transverse plane divides the body into superior and inferior halves.

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3. A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following?
  1. sacral vertebrae
  2. thoracic vertebrae
  3. lumbar vertebrae

Explanation

A kyphotic curve is formed by the thoracic vertebrae and the sacral vertebrae. The thoracic vertebrae are located in the upper and middle back and have a natural kyphotic curve, which gives the spine its rounded shape. The sacral vertebrae are located at the base of the spine and also contribute to the kyphotic curve. The lumbar vertebrae, on the other hand, have a lordotic curve, which is the opposite of a kyphotic curve. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

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4. Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?
  1. talotibial
  2. talocalcaneal
  3. talofibular

Explanation

The ankle mortise is formed by the articulations of the talotibial and talofibular joints. The talotibial joint is formed between the talus bone and the tibia, while the talofibular joint is formed between the talus bone and the fibula. Therefore, both the talotibial and talofibular articulations participate in the formation of the ankle mortise. The talocalcaneal articulation, on the other hand, refers to the joint between the talus bone and the calcaneus bone, which is not involved in the formation of the ankle mortise.

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5. Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas and odontoid process?

Explanation

The submentovertical (SMV) position is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process. This position involves the patient's head being tilted back with the chin resting on the image receptor, allowing for a clear view of these structures. The AP axial, lateral, and parietoacanthial positions do not provide the same visualization of these specific areas.

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6. Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?
  1. spleen
  2. gallbladder
  3. hepatic flexure

Explanation

The spleen is not located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ), so option 1 is incorrect. The gallbladder is located in the RUQ, so option 2 is correct. The hepatic flexure, which is a part of the large intestine, is also located in the RUQ, so option 3 is correct. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

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7. The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is:

Explanation

Distal refers to parts that are located away from the source or beginning. It is often used to describe the position of body parts in relation to a specific reference point. For example, the fingers are distal to the wrist, meaning they are further away from the body's starting point. In medical terminology, distal is commonly used to describe the location of injuries or abnormalities in the body.

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8. Which of the following views would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees?

Explanation

The AP erect view would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees. This view allows for a clear visualization of the joint space and the alignment of the bones in an upright position, which is important for assessing arthritis. The erect position also helps to minimize any superimposition of structures, providing a more accurate image of the knee joint. The other views mentioned may have their own uses in certain situations, but they may not be as effective in demonstrating arthritic changes specifically.

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9. A quality control program includes checks on which of the following radiographic equipment conditions?
  1. reproducibility
  2. linearity
  3. positive beam limitation

Explanation

A quality control program includes checks on reproducibility, linearity, and positive beam limitation. Reproducibility refers to the ability of the radiographic equipment to produce consistent and repeatable images. Linearity refers to the accuracy of the equipment in producing images with consistent density and contrast across a range of exposures. Positive beam limitation refers to the ability of the equipment to automatically collimate the x-ray beam to the size of the image receptor, reducing unnecessary radiation exposure. Therefore, all three conditions are important for maintaining the quality and accuracy of radiographic images.

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10. The threat of hypothermia is greatest when radiographing a (an):

Explanation

Premature infants have underdeveloped thermoregulatory systems, making them more vulnerable to hypothermia. Their small size and limited fat stores also contribute to heat loss. Radiographing involves exposing the baby to a cold environment, which further increases the risk of hypothermia. Therefore, the threat of hypothermia is greatest when radiographing a premature infant.

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11. What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis?

Explanation

The dome of the acetabulum is the correct answer because it is located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis. The acetabulum is the socket of the hip joint, and its dome-shaped portion is positioned between the ASIS and pubic symphysis. This anatomical structure serves as the articulation point for the femoral head, forming the hip joint.

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12. The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is:

Explanation

Hemoptysis is the term used to describe the expectoration of blood from the bronchi. This condition occurs when there is bleeding in the respiratory tract, typically from the lungs or bronchial tubes. It is often a symptom of underlying respiratory conditions such as tuberculosis, bronchitis, or lung cancer. Hematemesis, on the other hand, refers to the vomiting of blood from the gastrointestinal tract. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and bronchitis are respiratory conditions but do not specifically refer to the expectoration of blood.

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13. Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?
  1. knee
  2. intervertebral joints
  3. temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

Explanation

The knee and temporomandibular joint (TMJ) can be described as diarthrotic. Diarthrotic joints are freely movable joints that allow for a wide range of motion. The knee joint is a hinge joint that allows for flexion and extension of the leg, while the TMJ is a synovial joint that allows for movement of the jaw, including opening and closing, as well as side-to-side and forward-backward movements. The intervertebral joints, on the other hand, are cartilaginous joints that allow for limited movement and are not considered diarthrotic.

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14. Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs?

Explanation

A pulmonary embolism is a condition in which a blood vessel in the lungs becomes blocked by a blood clot, fat, air, or other substances. This blockage prevents blood flow to a portion of the lungs, leading to decreased oxygen supply and potentially causing serious complications such as difficulty breathing, chest pain, and even death if not treated promptly. Pneumothorax refers to the presence of air in the pleural cavity, atelectasis is the collapse of a lung or part of a lung, and hypoxia refers to low oxygen levels in the body.

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15. Poor screen-film contact can be caused by which of the following:
  1. damaged cassette frame
  2. foreign body in cassette
  3. warped cassette front

Explanation

Poor screen-film contact can occur due to a damaged cassette frame, as it may not hold the film and screen tightly together. Similarly, a foreign body in the cassette can create a gap between the film and screen, resulting in poor contact. Additionally, a warped cassette front can cause uneven pressure on the film and screen, leading to poor contact. Therefore, all three options (1, 2, and 3) can cause poor screen-film contact.

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16. The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to:

Explanation

Elevating the patient's chin during chest radiography helps to avoid superimposition on the apices. This is important because the apices, which are the uppermost parts of the lungs, can be easily obscured by other structures such as the clavicles or the spine. By elevating the chin, the radiographer can ensure that the apices are clearly visible and not overlapping with other anatomical structures, allowing for a more accurate interpretation of the radiograph.

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17. With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?

Explanation

When the patient's head is in a PA position and the CR is directed 20 degrees cephalad, the rami of the mandible will be best visualized. The rami are the vertical portions of the mandible that extend upwards from the body towards the angle. By angling the CR cephalad, the rami will be projected away from the superimposition of the body and symphysis, allowing for a clearer visualization.

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18. Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?

Explanation

Positioning the patient in an AP (anterior-posterior) projection with a 30 to 35 degree angle cephalad will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace. By angling the x-ray beam cephalad (towards the head), the L5-S1 interspace will be better visualized on the resulting image. This positioning helps to separate the structures and reduce superimposition, allowing for a clearer view of the L5-S1 interspace.

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19. Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?

Explanation

The erect position is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses because it allows for better visualization and assessment of the sinuses. In the erect position, the patient is standing or sitting upright, which helps to ensure that gravity does not affect the positioning of the sinuses. This position also helps to minimize any potential distortion or superimposition of the sinuses, allowing for a more accurate evaluation of the paranasal sinuses.

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20. Which of the following factors can contribute to hypertension?
  1. obesity
  2. smoking
  3. stress

Explanation

Obesity, smoking, and stress can all contribute to hypertension. Obesity increases the risk of developing high blood pressure because it puts extra strain on the heart. Smoking can raise blood pressure and damage blood vessels, leading to hypertension. Stress can also cause temporary increases in blood pressure, and chronic stress can contribute to long-term hypertension. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

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21. The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart are called?

Explanation

The correct answer is "pulse" because the contraction and relaxation of the heart cause the arterial walls to expand and contract, resulting in the rhythmic throbbing sensation that can be felt in the arteries. This pulsation is known as the pulse. Hypertension refers to high blood pressure, elasticity refers to the ability of the arterial walls to stretch and recoil, and pressure refers to the force exerted by the blood against the arterial walls.

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22. With the patient recumbent on the x-ray table, with the head lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the:

Explanation

The Trendelenburg position is when the patient is lying on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feet. This position is often used in medical procedures to improve blood flow and circulation to vital organs. It can also be used to prevent or treat hypotension. The other options, Fowler position, decubitus position, and Sims position, do not involve the head being lower than the feet.

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23. Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations?

Explanation

In emergency and trauma radiography, standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views at right angles to each other. This is because in emergency situations, time is often limited and it may not be feasible to perform multiple views or complex imaging techniques. By obtaining two views at right angles, it allows for a quick assessment of the injury or condition, providing important diagnostic information to guide immediate treatment decisions. This approach helps to expedite the imaging process and ensure timely patient care in emergency and trauma cases.

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24. In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced trought the skin?

Explanation

A compound fracture occurs when the splintered ends of a bone are forced through the skin. This type of fracture is also known as an open fracture. It is considered more severe and carries a higher risk of infection compared to a closed fracture, where the bone does not break through the skin. In a compound fracture, the bone fragments and surrounding tissues are exposed to the external environment, making it important to seek immediate medical attention to prevent complications.

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25. Which of the following refers to a regular program of evaluation that ensures proper functioning of x-ray equipment, thereby protecting both patients and radiation workers?

Explanation

Quality assurance refers to a regular program of evaluation that ensures proper functioning of x-ray equipment, thereby protecting both patients and radiation workers. It involves various activities such as equipment testing, calibration, maintenance, and monitoring to ensure that the equipment is functioning accurately and producing reliable results. This helps to minimize the risk of errors, reduce radiation exposure, and maintain the quality and safety of the imaging process. Sensitometry and densitometry are related to the measurement and analysis of film density, while modulation transfer function is a measure of the imaging system's ability to reproduce fine details.

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26. Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax?
  1. Manubrium
  2. Clavicles
  3. 24 ribs

Explanation

The bony thorax consists of the manubrium and the 24 ribs. The manubrium is the uppermost part of the sternum, which is a flat bone located in the center of the chest. The ribs are long, curved bones that attach to the vertebrae in the back and wrap around the chest to connect to the sternum. The clavicles, also known as the collarbones, are not part of the bony thorax as they are located above the sternum and do not contribute to the structure of the rib cage. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

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27. Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed?

Explanation

Adduction refers to the movement of a body part towards the midline of the body. This means that the body part is being brought closer to the center of the body. In contrast, abduction refers to the movement of a body part away from the midline of the body. Eversion refers to the movement of the sole of the foot away from the midline of the body, while inversion refers to the movement of the sole of the foot towards the midline of the body. Therefore, adduction is the correct term for the movement described in the question.

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28. Which of the following would best evaluate the maxillary sinus?

Explanation

The parietoacanthal projection (Waters method) would best evaluate the maxillary sinus. This projection is specifically designed to visualize the maxillary sinuses by placing the patient's forehead and nose against the image receptor. This allows for a clear and detailed view of the maxillary sinuses, which are located in the upper jaw area. The other projections mentioned may not provide as accurate or specific visualization of the maxillary sinuses.

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29. Which of the following devices should not be removed before positioning for a radiograph?
  1. a ring when performing hand radiography
  2. an antishock garment
  3. a pneumatic spint

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. This means that the antishock garment and the pneumatic splint should not be removed before positioning for a radiograph. This is because these devices are used to stabilize and support the patient during the radiographic procedure. Removing them could potentially cause harm or discomfort to the patient. However, a ring can be removed before performing hand radiography as it does not interfere with the positioning or image quality.

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30. Glossitis refers to inflammation of the:

Explanation

Glossitis is a medical term that specifically refers to the inflammation of the tongue. It is characterized by swelling, redness, and sometimes pain or discomfort in the tongue. Glossitis can be caused by various factors including infections, allergies, nutritional deficiencies, or other underlying health conditions. The inflammation can affect the entire tongue or specific areas of it. Treatment for glossitis depends on the underlying cause and may involve medications, oral hygiene practices, or lifestyle changes. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is "tongue."

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31. The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the:

Explanation

The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is known as the bregma. The bregma is an anatomical landmark on the skull where the frontal and parietal bones meet. It is located towards the top of the skull, near the anterior fontanelle (soft spot) in infants. The bregma is an important reference point for neurosurgery and cranial measurements.

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32. Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?

Explanation

The LPO (Left Posterior Oblique) position is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR (Image Receptor). In this position, the patient is lying on their left side with the left posterior aspect of the body closest to the IR. This positioning allows for the right kidney to be closer to the IR and parallel to it, resulting in a clearer and more accurate image of the right kidney.

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33. Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation?

Explanation

The tangential patella position is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation. This position involves placing the patient in a supine position with the knee flexed at 45 degrees and the x-ray beam angled 10-15 degrees caudally. This allows for a tangential view of the patella, providing a clear visualization of any fractures and the relationship between the patella and femur.

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34. All the following are palpable bony landmarks used in radiography of the pelvis except:

Explanation

The femoral neck is not a palpable bony landmark used in radiography of the pelvis. Palpable bony landmarks are those that can be felt or touched on the body's surface, and they are used as reference points in radiographic imaging. The pubic symphysis, greater trochanter, and iliac crest are all palpable bony landmarks that can be used to accurately position and align the pelvis for radiographic imaging. However, the femoral neck is not easily palpable and therefore not used as a landmark in this context.

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35. Which of the following structures is (are) located in the RUQ?
  1. hepatic flexure
  2. gallbladder
  3. ileocecal valve

Explanation

The hepatic flexure is located in the RUQ (right upper quadrant) of the abdomen. The gallbladder is also located in the RUQ. However, the ileocecal valve is not located in the RUQ, so it is not included in the answer. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

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36. The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is:

Explanation

Yellow marrow is the correct answer because it occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult. Yellow marrow is composed mainly of fat cells and is responsible for storing fat. It replaces red marrow as a person ages and plays a role in the production of red and white blood cells.

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37. A type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow is:

Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is a type of cancerous bone tumor that primarily affects children and young adults. It arises from the bone marrow and can occur in various bones in the body. Ewing sarcoma is characterized by the formation of malignant cells in the bone, leading to pain, swelling, and potential fractures. It is important to diagnose and treat Ewing sarcoma early to prevent further complications and improve the chances of successful treatment. Multiple myeloma, enchondroma, and osteochondroma are different types of bone tumors, but they do not specifically arise from the bone marrow like Ewing sarcoma does.

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38. The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the:

Explanation

The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the fourth lumbar vertebra. The iliac crest is the curved ridge at the top of the pelvic bone, and it extends from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to the posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS). The fourth lumbar vertebra is located in the lower back, just above the sacrum. The iliac crest and the fourth lumbar vertebra are at a similar level in the body, which is why they are approximately at the same level.

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39. With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids?

Explanation

When the patient is positioned in the PA (posteroanterior) position and the OML (orbitomeatal line) and CR (central ray) are perpendicular to the IR (image receptor), the resulting radiograph will show the petrous pyramids completely within the orbits. This means that the petrous pyramids, which are part of the temporal bone, will be fully visible within the eye sockets on the radiograph.

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40. Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?

Explanation

An avulsion fracture is a type of fracture where a small bony fragment is pulled from a bony process. This usually occurs when a strong force is applied to a tendon or ligament, causing it to pull away from the bone and take a small piece of bone with it. Avulsion fractures are commonly seen in sports injuries, where sudden and forceful movements can cause the tendon or ligament to tear away from the bone.

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41. Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull?
  1. The IOML is parallel to the IR
  2. The MSP is parallel to the IR
  3. The CR enters 3/4 inch superior and anterior to the EAM

Explanation

For a lateral projection of the skull, it is necessary for the IOML (infraorbital-meatal line) to be parallel to the IR (image receptor) and for the MSP (mid-sagittal plane) to be parallel to the IR. This ensures that the image is properly aligned and that the structures of interest are accurately depicted. The third statement, regarding the CR (central ray), is not required for a lateral projection of the skull.

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42. To better visualize the knee joint in a lateral projection the radiographer should:

Explanation

To better visualize the knee joint in a lateral projection, angling the CR 5-7 degrees cephalad is the correct answer. This angulation helps to separate the femoral condyles and tibial plateau, allowing for better visualization of the joint space and bony structures. Angling the CR in this direction helps to reduce superimposition of the structures and provides a clearer image of the knee joint.

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43. Which of the following positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture?

Explanation

The best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture would be the AP (Anteroposterior) and scapular Y views. The AP view allows for visualization of the entire shoulder joint, including the humeral head and glenoid fossa. The scapular Y view provides a better visualization of the scapula and its relationship to the humeral head, which can help detect any fractures or dislocations. Together, these views provide a comprehensive assessment of the shoulder joint and are ideal for ruling out fractures.

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44. Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition?

Explanation

AP oblique, medial rotation is the best projection to demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition because it allows for better visualization of the medial side of the foot. By rotating the foot medially, the navicular bone is pulled away from the other bones, reducing superimposition and providing a clearer image. This projection is commonly used to assess for fractures or other abnormalities involving the navicular bone.

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45. The innominate bone is located in the:

Explanation

The innominate bone, also known as the hip bone, is indeed located in the pelvis. It is a large, irregularly shaped bone that forms part of the pelvic girdle. The pelvis consists of two innominate bones, along with the sacrum and coccyx, and it serves as a strong and stable base for the spine and supports the weight of the upper body. The innominate bone plays a crucial role in providing attachment points for muscles and ligaments, as well as protecting the reproductive and urinary organs.

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46. During chest radiography, the act of inspiration:
  1. elevates the diaphragm
  2. raises the ribs
  3. depresses the abdominal viscera

Explanation

During chest radiography, the act of inspiration raises the ribs and depresses the abdominal viscera. This is because when a person takes a deep breath in, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, causing the ribs to move upward and outward. This expansion of the ribcage allows for more air to enter the lungs and creates space for the x-ray to capture a clear image of the chest. Additionally, the downward movement of the diaphragm during inspiration puts pressure on the abdominal viscera, causing them to be pushed downward.

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47. With patient lying prone, knee flexed @ 45 degrees (support under ankle), CR 45 degrees caudad, what will be demonstrated?

Explanation

When the patient is lying prone with the knee flexed at 45 degrees and the CR (central ray) angled 45 degrees caudad, the intercondyloid fossa will be demonstrated. The intercondyloid fossa is the depression located between the condyles of the femur, specifically the medial and lateral condyles. This positioning allows for optimal visualization of this anatomical structure.

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48. For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?

Explanation

The correct answer is 0 degrees (perpendicular). In an AP projection of the knee, the central ray should be directed perpendicular to the image receptor. This ensures that the knee joint is displayed without any distortion, allowing for accurate assessment of the anatomy. Angling the central ray in any direction (caudad or cephalad) would introduce distortion and compromise the image quality. Therefore, a perpendicular CR direction is necessary to best demonstrate the knee joint.

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49. Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the:

Explanation

In older children and adults, aspirated foreign bodies are most likely to lodge in the right main stem bronchus. This is because the right main stem bronchus is wider, shorter, and more vertical compared to the left main stem bronchus. As a result, foreign bodies are more likely to enter and become lodged in the right bronchus, causing obstruction and potential respiratory complications.

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50. Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise?

Explanation

A medial oblique projection of the ankle at an angle of 15-20 degrees would best demonstrate the mortise. This projection allows for a clear visualization of the mortise joint space, which is the articulation between the tibia, fibula, and talus bones. The oblique angle helps to separate the bones and reduce overlap, providing a better view of the joint space and any potential pathology or injury.

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51. Free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which of the following postitions?

Explanation

Free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in the AP projection, left lateral decubitus position. This position allows the air to rise and collect under the diaphragm, making it easier to detect on an X-ray. The left lateral decubitus position helps to separate the air from other structures in the abdomen, providing a clear view of any free air present. The other positions listed may not be as effective in visualizing free air in the abdominal cavity.

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52. Which of the following are mediastinal structures?
  1. heart
  2. trachea
  3. esophagus

Explanation

The heart, trachea, and esophagus are all mediastinal structures. The mediastinum is the central compartment of the thoracic cavity, located between the lungs. It contains various structures including the heart, trachea, and esophagus. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 3 are all correct.

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53. Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?

Explanation

The PA oblique scapular Y projection will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation. This projection allows for a clear visualization of the glenohumeral joint and the surrounding structures, including the acromion and coracoid process. By positioning the patient in this way, any dislocation or abnormality in the subacromial or subcoracoid region can be easily identified and assessed.

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54. Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the:
  1. atlantoaxial joint
  2. radioulnar joint
  3. temporomandibular joint

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only because the atlantoaxial joint and radioulnar joint are both examples of synovial pivot articulations. The temporomandibular joint, on the other hand, is an example of a synovial hinge articulation, not a synovial pivot articulation.

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55. Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?
  1. scapular Y projection
  2. Inferosuperior axial
  3. transthoracic lateral

Explanation

The scapular Y projection, inferosuperior axial, and transthoracic lateral can all be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint. These imaging techniques provide different views of the joint, allowing for a comprehensive evaluation of its structures and any potential abnormalities.

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56. Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis?

Explanation

The prominence of the greater trochanter is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis. The symphysis pubis is located in the midline of the body, while the prominence of the greater trochanter is a bony prominence on the femur, which is also located in the same transverse plane. Therefore, both landmarks are in alignment horizontally.

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57. The inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat or lungs is referred to as:

Explanation

Aspiration refers to the inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs. This can occur when foreign substances, such as food or liquids, enter the airway instead of going down the esophagus. Aspiration can lead to various respiratory complications, including pneumonia or lung abscesses.

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58. Which of the following statements regarding the Norgaard method, "Ball-Catcher's position" is (are) correct?
  1. Bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained
  2. It is used for early detection of RA
  3. The hands are obliqued about 45 degrees

Explanation

The Norgaard method, "Ball-Catcher's position," involves obtaining bilateral AP oblique hands that are obliqued about 45 degrees. This method is used for the early detection of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct.

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59. Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?

Explanation

The lateral weight-bearing projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch. This projection is specifically designed to highlight the arch by placing the majority of the weight on the lateral side of the foot. By doing so, the arch becomes more prominent and easier to visualize on the radiograph. The other projections mentioned may not provide the same emphasis on the arch and may not be as effective in demonstrating its structure.

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60. Which of the following guidelines should be used when performing radiographic examinations on pediatric patients?

Explanation

When performing radiographic examinations on pediatric patients, it is important to use restraint only when necessary. This means that restraint should be employed only when the patient's safety or the quality of the examination is at risk. Using physical or mechanical restraint as a default approach is not recommended, as it can cause unnecessary distress and discomfort to the child. The focus should be on minimizing the use of restraint and ensuring that the child feels as comfortable and secure as possible during the procedure.

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61. The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned lumbar spine?

Explanation

In the "Scotty dog" representation of the lumbar spine, the lumbar transverse process is represented by the "nose" of the dog. This is because the transverse process is a bony projection that extends laterally from the vertebral body, resembling the nose of a dog. The other options, such as eye, body, and ear, do not accurately represent the location or shape of the lumbar transverse process in this representation.

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62. The CR will parallel the intervertebral foramina in which of the following projections?
  1. lateral cervical spine
  2. lateral thoracic spine
  3. lateral lumbar spine

Explanation

The intervertebral foramina are the spaces between adjacent vertebrae through which the spinal nerves pass. In the lateral thoracic spine and lateral lumbar spine projections, the CR will be parallel to the intervertebral foramina. This is because in these projections, the CR is directed perpendicular to the intervertebral foramina, allowing for better visualization of the neural foramina and nerve roots. In the lateral cervical spine projection, the CR is angled slightly cephalad, which makes it not parallel to the intervertebral foramina. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

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63. Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa?
  1. patient PA, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa
  2. patient AP, cassette under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia
  3. patient PA, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5-10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint

Explanation

The intercondyloid fossa is a depression located between the condyles of the femur. To demonstrate this anatomical structure, the patient can be positioned in two ways. In option 1, the patient is positioned in a PA (posteroanterior) projection with the knee flexed at 40 degrees. The central ray (CR) is directed caudad at a 40-degree angle to the popliteal fossa. In option 2, the patient is positioned in an AP (anteroposterior) projection with the cassette placed under the flexed knee. The CR is directed cephalad to the knee, perpendicular to the tibia. Both of these positions can effectively demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa.

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64. Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially?

Explanation

Internal rotation of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially. This means that when the shoulder is rotated internally, the lesser tubercle, which is a bony prominence on the humerus, is visible from a medial view. In other words, when the arm is rotated inward, the lesser tubercle becomes more prominent and can be seen on the inner side of the shoulder joint.

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65. What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it?

Explanation

Spondylolisthesis is the correct answer. It is a condition where one vertebra slips forward over the one below it. Spondylitis refers to inflammation of the vertebrae, spondyloysis is the defect or fracture of the vertebrae, and spondylosis refers to degenerative changes in the spine.

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66. Which of the following is (are) appropriate technique(s) for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury?
  1. Instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts.
  2. Maneuver the x-ray tube head instead of moving the patient.
  3. Call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient.

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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67. Which of the following structures is located at the level of the interspace between the second and third thoracic vertebrae?

Explanation

The jugular notch is located at the level of the interspace between the second and third thoracic vertebrae. It is a concave depression at the superior border of the manubrium, which is the uppermost part of the sternum. This anatomical landmark is important for identifying the level of the second and third thoracic vertebrae during physical examinations or medical procedures. The sternal angle, xiphoid process, and manubrium are not specifically located at this level.

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68. The term valgus refers to?

Explanation

Valgus refers to the condition where a body part, usually a joint, is turned outward. This can occur in various parts of the body, such as the knees, elbows, or ankles. It is the opposite of varus, which refers to a body part being turned inward. Valgus alignment can lead to instability and increased stress on the affected joint, potentially causing pain and dysfunction.

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69. Periodic equipment calibration includes testing of the:
  1. focal spot
  2. mA
  3. kVp

Explanation

Periodic equipment calibration involves testing the focal spot, mA, and kVp. This means that all three factors are assessed and adjusted as necessary to ensure the accuracy and reliability of the equipment. Focal spot testing is important to ensure that the X-ray beam is properly focused, while mA and kVp testing helps to verify the accuracy of the current and voltage settings. By testing and calibrating these factors, the equipment can be maintained in optimal working condition and ensure accurate and safe imaging.

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70. A lateral projection of the lumbar spine will demonstrate the: 1. intervertebral spaces 2. intervertebral foramina 3. articular facets

Explanation

A lateral projection of the lumbar spine will demonstrate the intervertebral spaces and intervertebral foramina. The intervertebral spaces are the gaps between adjacent vertebrae where the intervertebral discs are located. The intervertebral foramina are the openings between the vertebrae through which the spinal nerves exit the spinal cord. The articular facets, on the other hand, are the joints between the superior and inferior articular processes of adjacent vertebrae, and they are best visualized in a posterior-anterior or oblique projection.

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71. Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true?
  1. The midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR.
  2. The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft.
  3. An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained.

Explanation

In the scapular Y projection of the shoulder, the midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR. This means that statement 1 is true. However, statement 2, which says that the scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft, is false. In this projection, the scapular borders should be free from superimposition. Statement 3, which states that an oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained, is true. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

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72. Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the:

Explanation

Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the hilus. The hilus is a specific area on the lung where blood vessels, nerves, and bronchi enter and exit. It is located on the medial side of the lung and serves as a point of connection between the lung and the rest of the body. This is where oxygenated blood enters the lung through the pulmonary arteries and deoxygenated blood exits through the pulmonary veins. The hilus also allows for the passage of bronchi, which carry air to and from the lungs.

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73. During atrial systole, blood flows into the:
  1. right ventricle via the mitral valve.
  2. left ventricle via the bicuspid valve.
  3. right ventricle via the tricuspid valve.

Explanation

During atrial systole, the atria contract and pump blood into the ventricles. The blood flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle through the tricuspid valve and from the left atrium to the left ventricle through the bicuspid valve (also known as the mitral valve). Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

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74. Which foot view would best demonstrate the articulation between the (calcaneus and cuboid) & (the talus and navicular)?

Explanation

The medial oblique foot view would best demonstrate the articulation between the calcaneus and cuboid, as well as the talus and navicular. This view allows for a clear visualization of the medial side of the foot, which is where these articulations are located. The medial oblique view provides a diagonal angle that helps to highlight the relationship between these bones and their articulations.

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75. Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in an AP projection of the cervical spine?
  1. intervertebral disk spaces
  2. C3-7 cervical bodies
  3. apophyseal joints

Explanation

An AP projection of the cervical spine demonstrates the intervertebral disk spaces (1) and the C3-7 cervical bodies (2). The intervertebral disk spaces can be visualized as dark spaces between the vertebrae, indicating the presence and condition of the disks. The C3-7 cervical bodies refer to the specific vertebrae in the cervical spine that are visible in the image. The apophyseal joints (3) are not specifically demonstrated in an AP projection, as they are better visualized in oblique or lateral projections.

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76. In the AP projection of the ankle, the:
  1. plantar surface of the foot is vertical
  2. fibula projects more distally than the tibia
  3. calcaneus is well visualized

Explanation

In the AP projection of the ankle, the plantar surface of the foot is vertical because the foot is placed flat on the imaging surface. The fibula projects more distally than the tibia because the fibula is located on the lateral side of the lower leg and extends further down towards the foot compared to the tibia. However, the calcaneus may or may not be well visualized in the AP projection of the ankle as it depends on the positioning and technique used during the imaging.

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77. Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart by the:

Explanation

Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart by the superior vena cava. The superior vena cava is a large vein that carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body to the right atrium of the heart. It collects blood from the head, neck, upper limbs, and upper chest, and delivers it to the heart for oxygenation. This blood will then be pumped to the lungs through the pulmonary artery to receive oxygen before being circulated throughout the body.

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78. A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate:
  1. a fracture
  2. a foreign body
  3. soft tissue

Explanation

A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate soft tissue and foreign bodies. This projection allows for clear visualization of the soft tissue structures and can help identify any foreign bodies that may be present in the hand. Fractures, on the other hand, are usually evaluated using other imaging techniques such as X-rays or CT scans. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

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79. Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Grashey method) of the skull for occipital bone?
  1. posterior clinoid processes
  2. dorsum sella
  3. posterior arch of C1

Explanation

In an AP axial projection of the skull using the Grashey method, the structures that should be visualized through the foramen magnum are the posterior clinoid processes and the dorsum sella. The posterior clinoid processes are small bony projections located at the posterior aspect of the sella turcica, while the dorsum sella is the posterior portion of the sella turcica. These structures are important to visualize in this projection as they provide information about the occipital bone and the base of the skull. The posterior arch of C1 is not visualized through the foramen magnum in this projection.

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80. What are the effects of scattered radiation on the x-ray image?
  1. it produces fog
  2. it increases contrast
  3. it increases grid cutoff

Explanation

Scattered radiation refers to the radiation that is deflected from its original path and interacts with the image receptor in a random manner. This scattered radiation can cause fog on the x-ray image, reducing the image quality by reducing the contrast between different structures. Therefore, the correct answer is "1 only" as scattered radiation produces fog on the x-ray image.

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81. In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimpostion with the metatarsals or phalanges?

Explanation

The correct answer is Tangential metatarsals/toes. In a tangential projection, the X-ray beam is directed parallel to the structure being imaged, in this case, the metatarsals and toes. This projection allows for the sesamoid bones of the foot to be visualized without any superimposition from the surrounding bones. In the other positions mentioned, such as dorsoplantar and oblique views, there may be overlapping of the sesamoid bones with the metatarsals or phalanges, making it difficult to assess them accurately.

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82. In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the intervertebral foramina that are best seen are those:

Explanation

In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the intervertebral foramina that are furthest from the IR are the ones that are best seen. This is because when the spine is obliqued posteriorly, the intervertebral foramina that are farther away from the image receptor (IR) are more aligned with the x-ray beam, resulting in better visualization.

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83. The act of expiration will cause the:
  1. diaphragm to move inferiorly
  2. sternum and ribs to move inferiorly
  3. diaphragm to move superiorly

Explanation

During expiration, the diaphragm relaxes and moves superiorly, causing the volume of the thoracic cavity to decrease. This movement of the diaphragm also leads to the sternum and ribs moving inferiorly, further decreasing the volume of the thoracic cavity. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

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84. To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers:

Explanation

When evaluating the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, it is necessary to support the fingers parallel to the image receptor (IR). This ensures proper alignment and positioning of the joints for accurate radiographic evaluation. Resting the fingers on the cassette for immobilization may not provide the necessary support and alignment. Radiographing the fingers in natural or palmar flexion would not allow for proper evaluation of the interphalangeal joints in these specific positions.

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85. The body habitus characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity and low midline stomach and gallbladder is the:

Explanation

The correct answer is asthenic. Asthenic body habitus is characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity, as well as a low midline stomach and gallbladder. This body type is typically associated with individuals who are slender and have a delicate build.

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86. Which of the following is (are) located on the posterior aspect of the femur?
  1. intertrochanteric line
  2. intercondyloid fossa
  3. linea aspera

Explanation

The intercondyloid fossa is a depression located on the posterior aspect of the femur, between the condyles. The linea aspera is a ridge located on the posterior aspect of the femur, running down the middle of the shaft. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

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87. The most significant risk factor for breast cancer is:

Explanation

Gender is the most significant risk factor for breast cancer because the majority of breast cancer cases occur in women. While men can also develop breast cancer, it is much less common. This is due to the presence of female hormones, such as estrogen, which can promote the growth of cancer cells in breast tissue. Additionally, women have a higher amount of breast tissue compared to men, which increases their risk. Age, family history, and personal history are also risk factors for breast cancer, but gender is the most significant one.

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88. A frontal view of the sternum is best accomplished in which of the following positions?

Explanation

A frontal view of the sternum is best accomplished in the RAO (Right Anterior Oblique) position. This position allows for a better visualization of the sternum by angling the body and the x-ray beam in a way that reduces overlap with other structures. The RAO position helps to separate the sternum from the spine and ribs, providing a clearer image for diagnosis.

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89. What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient?

Explanation

In a hypersthenic patient, the stomach is positioned high and horizontal. This means that the stomach is located towards the upper part of the abdomen and is oriented horizontally rather than vertically. This positioning is characteristic of hypersthenic individuals, who typically have a larger and broader body frame.

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90. Which of the following positions will separate the radial head, neck and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna?

Explanation

The lateral oblique position will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna. This position involves angling the x-ray beam and the patient's forearm, which allows for better visualization and differentiation of these structures. By positioning the patient in the lateral oblique position, the radial head, neck, and tuberosity can be seen without overlapping with the ulna, providing a clearer and more accurate image.

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91. The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the:

Explanation

The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the epiphysis. This is because the epiphysis is the rounded end of a long bone, where growth occurs during childhood and adolescence. It is separated from the rest of the bone by the growth plate, also known as the metaphysis. The diaphysis, on the other hand, is the shaft or main portion of the long bone, while the apophysis refers to a bony outgrowth or projection. Therefore, the epiphysis is the correct answer as it is the specific region where secondary ossification occurs.

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92. Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint?
  1. femur
  2. tibia
  3. patella

Explanation

The femur and tibia bones participate in the formation of the knee joint. The femur is the thigh bone and the tibia is the shin bone. The patella, also known as the kneecap, is a sesamoid bone that lies in front of the knee joint and helps protect it, but it does not directly participate in the formation of the joint itself. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

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93. The male bony pelvis differs from the female bony pelvis in which of the following way(s)?
  1. the male pelvis has a larger pelvis inlet
  2. the female pubic arch is greater than 90 degrees
  3. the male ilium is more vertical

Explanation

The male bony pelvis differs from the female bony pelvis in two ways. Firstly, the male pelvis has a more vertical ilium compared to the female pelvis. Secondly, the male pelvis has a smaller pubic arch, which is less than 90 degrees, while the female pelvis has a greater pubic arch, which is greater than 90 degrees.

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94. Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity?

Explanation

In the lateral decubitus position, the patient is lying on their side. By positioning the affected side up, any small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity will rise and be more easily visualized on imaging. This positioning allows for better visualization and detection of air, as opposed to the affected side down or other positions listed. The AP Trendelenburg and AP supine positions are not ideal for demonstrating small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity.

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95. Which of the anatomic structures listed below is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest?

Explanation

In a lateral projection of the chest, the cardiac apex is seen most anteriorly. The cardiac apex refers to the pointed tip of the heart and is located in the left lower portion of the chest. In this projection, the heart is positioned in a way that the apex is closest to the front of the body, making it the most anterior structure among the options given. The esophagus, trachea, and scapular bodies are positioned more posteriorly in this view.

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96. With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

Explanation

When the patient is seated at the end of the x-ray table with the elbow flexed 80 degrees and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, the coronoid process will be demonstrated best. The coronoid process is a projection of the ulna bone located in the front of the elbow joint. This positioning allows for a clear view of the coronoid process, while the radial head, ulnar head, and olecranon process may not be as clearly visible in this specific position and angle.

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97. The intervertebral foramina of the thoracic spine are demonstrated with the:

Explanation

The correct answer is "coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR." The intervertebral foramina are the spaces between adjacent vertebrae through which the spinal nerves exit the spinal cord. The coronal plane is a vertical plane that divides the body into front and back halves. By positioning the coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR (image receptor), it allows for visualization of the intervertebral foramina in a perpendicular orientation, providing a clear view of the spaces. This positioning is necessary to accurately assess the intervertebral foramina and detect any potential abnormalities or pathology.

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98. To best visualize the lower ribs, the exposure should be made:

Explanation

The correct answer is "on expiration." This is because during expiration, the diaphragm moves upward, causing the lower ribs to be more visible. This allows for better visualization of the lower ribs on a radiograph. During inspiration, the diaphragm moves downward, which can obscure the lower ribs. Therefore, the best time to make the exposure is during expiration.

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99. Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals?
  1. the heads of the first row of phalanges
  2. the cuboid
  3. the cuneiforms

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. The heads of the first row of phalanges articulate with the bases of the metatarsals. The cuboid and the cuneiforms also articulate with the bases of the metatarsals.

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100. "Flattening" of the hemidiaphragms is characteristic of which of the following conditions?

Explanation

"Flattening" of the hemidiaphragms is characteristic of emphysema. Emphysema is a chronic lung condition characterized by the destruction of the alveoli, leading to a loss of lung elasticity. This causes the lungs to overinflate and the diaphragms to become flattened, resulting in a decreased ability to effectively move air in and out of the lungs. This radiographic finding is often seen in patients with emphysema and can help differentiate it from other lung conditions such as pneumothorax, pleural effusion, or pneumonia.

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101. Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in a lateral projection of the cervical spine?
  1. intervertebral foramina
  2. apophyseal joints
  3. intervertebral joints

Explanation

A lateral projection of the cervical spine demonstrates the intervertebral joints and the apophyseal joints. The intervertebral joints are the connections between the vertebrae, allowing for movement and flexibility. The apophyseal joints, also known as the facet joints, are located at the back of the vertebrae and help guide and limit the movement of the spine. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

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102. A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine to:
  1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR
  2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR
  3. decrease the amount of SR reaching the IR

Explanation

A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine to make the vertebral column parallel with the IR and to place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR. This helps to ensure that the image captured is accurate and properly aligned. It does not directly decrease the amount of SR (scatter radiation) reaching the IR, so option 3 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

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103. Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type?
  1. short, wide, transverse heart
  2. high and peripheral large bowel
  3. diaphragm positioned low

Explanation

The hypersthenic body type is characterized by a short, wide, transverse heart and a high and peripheral large bowel. The diaphragm is not positioned low in this body type. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

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104. Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25 degree RPO position with the CR entering 1" medial to the elevated ASIS?

Explanation

The correct answer is left sacroiliac joint. In a 25 degree RPO (right posterior oblique) position with the CR (central ray) entering 1" medial to the elevated ASIS (anterior superior iliac spine), the left sacroiliac joint is demonstrated. This position allows for better visualization of the left sacroiliac joint by minimizing superimposition of other structures.

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105. In a PA chest radiograph which ribs will be demonstrated on the right upper side of the film?

Explanation

In a PA chest radiograph, the left anterior ribs will be demonstrated on the right upper side of the film. This is because the x-ray beam passes through the patient's body from the back to the front, and the resulting image is a mirror image of the patient's anatomy. Therefore, the left side of the patient will appear on the right side of the film, and the anterior ribs on the left side will be visible on the upper right side of the film.

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106. Structures comprising the neutral or vertebral arch include:
  1. pedicles
  2. laminae
  3. body

Explanation

The structures comprising the neutral or vertebral arch are the pedicles and laminae. The pedicles are short, thick processes that connect the vertebral body to the laminae. The laminae are flat plates of bone that extend from the pedicles to form the posterior part of the arch. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only, as the body is not part of the neutral or vertebral arch.

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107. Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints?
  1. The procedure is performed in the erect position
  2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints
  3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only. This means that both statement 1 and statement 2 are true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints. Statement 1 states that the procedure is performed in the erect position, which is true because this position allows for better visualization of the joints. Statement 2 states that the use of weights can improve the demonstration of the joints, which is also true because the additional weight can help separate the joint space and provide clearer images.

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108. To demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is positioned so that:

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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109. Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip?
  1. When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician.
  2. The AP axiolateral projection should be avoided.
  3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis typically is included in the initial examination.

Explanation

When radiographing a patient with a traumatic hip injury, it is important to observe certain precautions. Firstly, if a fracture is suspected, only a physician should perform any manipulation of the affected extremity to avoid further damage. Secondly, to evaluate the entire region and get a comprehensive view, the pelvis should typically be included in the initial examination. However, the AP axiolateral projection should be avoided, as it may not provide the necessary information for assessing the hip injury. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

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110. Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture?
  1. fractured lateral malleolus
  2. fractured medial malleolus
  3. fractured posterior tibia

Explanation

A trimalleolar fracture involves the fracture of three specific components of the ankle: the lateral malleolus, the medial malleolus, and the posterior tibia. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

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111. Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR?
  1. AP humerus
  2. Lateral forearm
  3. Internal rotation shoulder

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. In the lateral forearm projection, the humeral epicondyles need to be perpendicular to the IR in order to ensure proper positioning and alignment of the forearm. In the internal rotation shoulder projection, the humeral epicondyles also need to be perpendicular to the IR to accurately visualize the internal structures of the shoulder joint. However, in the AP humerus projection, the humeral epicondyles do not need to be perpendicular to the IR as the purpose of this projection is to evaluate the entire humerus, not specifically the epicondyles.

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112. With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?

Explanation

The trapezium articulates with the first metacarpal.

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113. Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimpostion?

Explanation

The lateral oblique projection is the correct answer because it allows for a clear visualization of the radial head without any superimposition from the ulna. This projection involves positioning the patient's elbow at a 45-degree angle with the forearm supinated and the hand resting on the hip. The X-ray beam is then directed from a medial to lateral direction, providing a clear view of the radial head.

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114. With the patient PA, the MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a 37 degree angle with the IR and the CR perpendicular and exiting the acanthion; which of the following is best demonstrated?

Explanation

In this radiographic positioning, the patient is positioned with the MSP (mid-sagittal plane) centered to the grid, the OML (orbitomeatal line) forming a 37-degree angle with the IR (image receptor), and the CR (central ray) perpendicular and exiting the acanthion (midpoint between the base of the nose and the upper lip). This positioning is commonly used to demonstrate the facial bones, as it provides a clear view of the facial bone structures. Therefore, the best demonstrated structure in this case would be the facial bone.

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115. Below-diaphragm ribs are better demonstrated when:

Explanation

When the patient is in the recumbent position, the ribs below the diaphragm are better demonstrated. This is because the recumbent position allows the diaphragm to move downwards, resulting in increased lung expansion and better visualization of the lower ribs. In this position, the weight of the abdominal contents is also removed from the diaphragm, allowing it to descend further and provide a clearer image of the lower ribs.

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116. All the following structures are associated with the femur except the:

Explanation

The lesser tuberosity is not associated with the femur. The femur has two condyles, the medial and lateral condyles, which are important for articulation with the tibia. The medial epicondyle is a bony prominence on the medial side of the femur, serving as an attachment point for muscles and ligaments. The fovea capitis is a small depression on the head of the femur, which provides attachment for the ligament of the head of the femur. However, the lesser tuberosity is a feature of the humerus, not the femur. It is a bony prominence on the anterior surface of the humerus, serving as an attachment point for muscles.

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117. All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position?

Explanation

The correct answer is "lateral." In the lateral position, the elbow fat pads can be clearly visualized. The lateral fat pad is located anterior to the distal humerus, and the posterior fat pad is located posterior to the distal humerus. These fat pads can indicate the presence of an elbow joint effusion or other pathology. The AP, acute flexion, and AP partial flexion positions may not provide optimal visualization of the fat pads.

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118. Proper care of leaded apparel includes:
  1. periodic checks for cracks
  2. careful folding following each use
  3. routine laundering with soap and water

Explanation

The proper care of leaded apparel includes periodic checks for cracks and routine laundering with soap and water. Checking for cracks is important to ensure that the leaded apparel remains intact and effective in providing protection. Routine laundering with soap and water helps to remove any contaminants or substances that may have accumulated on the apparel during use. Careful folding following each use is not mentioned as a specific requirement for proper care of leaded apparel. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

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119. Which of the following contribute(s) to inherent filtration?
  1. x-ray tube glass envelope
  2. x-ray tube port window
  3. aluminum between tube housing and collimator

Explanation

The x-ray tube glass envelope contributes to inherent filtration because it absorbs some of the lower energy x-ray photons. Aluminum between the tube housing and collimator also contributes to inherent filtration because it absorbs some of the lower energy x-ray photons. The x-ray tube port window does not contribute to inherent filtration as it does not absorb any x-ray photons.

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120. The PA chest radiograph should demonstrate:
  1. rotation
  2. scapulae removed from lung fields
  3. adequate inspiration

Explanation

The PA chest radiograph should demonstrate rotation, which means that the patient's body should be positioned correctly and not tilted to one side. The scapulae should be removed from the lung fields in order to have a clear view of the lungs. Adequate inspiration is also important to ensure that the lungs are fully expanded and visible on the radiograph. Therefore, all three options - 1, 2, and 3 - are correct and should be demonstrated on a PA chest radiograph.

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121. The lumbar lamina is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?

Explanation

In a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view, the lumbar lamina is represented by the body of the "Scotty dog." The "Scotty dog" is a radiographic representation of the lumbar spine, with various anatomical structures resembling different parts of a dog. In this case, the body of the "Scotty dog" corresponds to the lumbar lamina.

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122. To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees:

Explanation

To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is positioned in an AP recumbent position and obliqued 45 degrees toward the affected side. This positioning allows for a clear visualization of the glenoid fossa from a side view. By obliquing toward the affected side, the structures of the glenoid fossa can be better visualized and evaluated. This positioning also helps in assessing any abnormalities or injuries in the affected side.

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123. Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?

Explanation

Angling the CR (central ray) 10 degrees posteriorly is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot. This angulation helps to separate the metatarsals and reduce superimposition, allowing for a clearer visualization of the tarsometatarsal joints. Inverting or everting the foot would not specifically target the tarsometatarsal joints, and angling the CR anteriorly would not provide the desired separation of the metatarsals.

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124. Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the:

Explanation

The parietoacanthal (Waters method) projection is the best way to demonstrate the lateral deviation of the nasal septum. This projection involves angling the x-ray beam from the patient's parietal bone to their acanthion, which is the junction of the nose and upper lip. By doing this, the x-ray image will show a clear view of the nasal septum, allowing any lateral deviation to be easily seen and evaluated. This projection is commonly used in diagnosing conditions such as a deviated septum.

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125. Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest are performed to demonstrate:
  1. partial or complete collapse of pulmonary lobe(s)
  2. air in the pleural cavity
  3. foreign body

Explanation

Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest are performed to demonstrate several conditions. Firstly, they can show partial or complete collapse of pulmonary lobe(s), which can be useful in diagnosing conditions such as pneumonia or atelectasis. Secondly, these projections can reveal the presence of air in the pleural cavity, indicating conditions like pneumothorax. Lastly, they can also help identify the presence of a foreign body in the chest, which may be causing symptoms or complications. Therefore, all three options - 1, 2, and 3 - are correct.

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126. The axiolateral or horizontal beam projection of the hip, requires the IR to be placed?
  1. parallel to the CR
  2. parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck
  3. in contact with the lateral surface of the body

Explanation

For the axiolateral or horizontal beam projection of the hip, the IR needs to be placed in contact with the lateral surface of the body. This is because this projection requires the patient to lie on their side with the affected hip against the IR, allowing for a better visualization of the femoral neck. Additionally, the IR needs to be parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck to ensure accurate imaging of the hip joint. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

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127. In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the OML and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?

Explanation

In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, the CR is directed 30 degrees caudad to the OML and passes midway between the external auditory meati. This positioning allows for the best demonstration of the occipital bone. The occipital bone is located at the back of the skull, and this projection helps visualize it by angling the CR in a specific direction. Therefore, the correct answer is occipital bone.

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128. All the following positions are used frequently to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations except:

Explanation

The sternoclavicular articulations are frequently demonstrated using positions such as RAO (right anterior oblique), LAO (left anterior oblique), and PA (posteroanterior). However, weight-bearing is not typically used to demonstrate these articulations.

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129. The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient in PA and:

Explanation

The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IR. This positioning allows for better visualization of the sternoclavicular joints, as it helps to separate the clavicle from the ribs and superimposed structures. The oblique position also helps to minimize overlap and improve the clarity of the joint space. By placing the affected side adjacent to the IR, the joint of interest is brought closer to the image receptor, resulting in better image quality and detail.

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130. AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed:
  1. to demonstrate fracutres of the distal tibia and fibula
  2. following inversion or eversion injuries
  3. to demonstrate a ligament tear

Explanation

AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed to demonstrate a ligament tear and following inversion or eversion injuries. This means that these studies can help identify ligament tears and fractures of the distal tibia and fibula that occur as a result of ankle injuries involving inward or outward twisting of the foot. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

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131. In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head?

Explanation

In internal rotation of the shoulder, the greater tubercle is seen superimposed on the humeral head. This means that when the shoulder is internally rotated, the greater tubercle, which is a bony prominence on the humerus, aligns with the humeral head. This position can be visualized on an x-ray or imaging study of the shoulder.

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132. Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle?
  1. clavicular body
  2. acromioclavicular joint
  3. sternocostal joint

Explanation

In a true AP projection of the clavicle, both the clavicular body and the acromioclavicular joint should be demonstrated. The clavicular body refers to the main part of the clavicle bone, while the acromioclavicular joint is the joint between the clavicle and the acromion of the scapula. The sternocostal joint, which is the joint between the clavicle and the sternum, is not typically visualized in an AP projection of the clavicle.

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133. When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained?
  1. with humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
  2. with forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular
  3. through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular

Explanation

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134. Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include:
  1. epicondyles parallel to the IR
  2. lesser tubercle in profile
  3. superimposed epicondyles

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. This means that the evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include the lesser tubercle being in profile and the epicondyles being superimposed. The epicondyles being parallel to the IR is not included in the evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus.

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135. The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles?
  1. interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR
  2. MSP perpendicular to the IR
  3. infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR

Explanation

The true lateral position of the skull uses the principle of the interpupillary line being perpendicular to the IR, as well as the principle of the infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) being parallel to the transverse axis of the IR. These two principles ensure that the skull is positioned correctly and accurately in the lateral view.

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136. With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15-20 degrees caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result in a baby or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to:

Explanation

To achieve the same result in a baby or a small child, the radiographer needs to modify the angulation to 10-15 degrees caudal. This is because the anatomy and positioning of a baby or small child differs from that of an adult. By angling the X-ray beam caudally, the petrous ridges will be properly positioned in the lower third of the orbit, ensuring accurate imaging of the skull.

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137. Which of the following positions is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table with the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest?

Explanation

The correct answer is dorsal decubitus position. In this position, the patient is lying supine on the radiographic table with the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest. The term "dorsal" refers to the back or posterior side of the body, and "decubitus" indicates that the patient is lying down. This position is commonly used for imaging the abdomen or pelvis to visualize the organs and structures in that area.

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138. Which of the following is usually recommended for cleaning CR image plates?

Explanation

Anhydrous ethanol is usually recommended for cleaning CR image plates. This is because anhydrous ethanol is a high-purity form of ethanol that does not contain water. Water can damage the image plate, so using anhydrous ethanol ensures that no water is introduced during the cleaning process. Denatured alcohol and soap and water may contain water or other impurities that can harm the image plate. Intensifying screen cleaner is not typically used for cleaning CR image plates.

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139. Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs?
  1. sternal extremitites of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders
  2. ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm
  3. the esophagus is visible in the midline

Explanation

The sternal extremities of clavicles being equidistant from vertebral borders is correct because it indicates proper positioning and alignment of the chest. The demonstration of ten posterior ribs above the diaphragm is also correct as it ensures that the entire lung field is captured in the image. However, the visibility of the esophagus in the midline is not mentioned in the question, so it cannot be determined if it is correct or not.

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140. In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the:
  1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia
  2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized
  3. femoral condyles should be superimposed

Explanation

In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia. This is because the fibula is located on the lateral side of the leg and should be partially overlapping with the tibia in this view. The patellofemoral joint should be visualized because it is the joint between the patella (kneecap) and the femur (thigh bone), and it is important to assess its alignment and any potential abnormalities. The femoral condyles should be superimposed because they are the rounded ends of the femur that articulate with the tibia, and their alignment is crucial for proper knee function.

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141. Central ray angulation may be required for:
  1. magnification of anatomic structures
  2. foreshortening or self-superimposition
  3. superimposition of overlying structures

Explanation

Central ray angulation may be required for foreshortening or self-superimposition, as well as for the superimposition of overlying structures. This means that angling the central ray can help in reducing the overlap of structures or creating a more accurate representation of the anatomy being imaged. Magnification of anatomic structures is not mentioned as a reason for central ray angulation in the given options.

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142. All the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except:

Explanation

The main stem bronchi do not enter the lung apex. The main stem bronchi, also known as the primary bronchi, enter the lungs at the hilum, which is located on the medial side of each lung. The bronchi then branch out into smaller bronchi and eventually into bronchioles, which lead to the alveoli where gas exchange occurs. The apex of the lung is the uppermost portion, while the base is the lower portion that rests on the diaphragm.

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143. How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient having traumatic injuries?

Explanation

To rule out air-fluid levels in a patient with traumatic injuries, a lateral chest examination in the dorsal decubitus position should be included. This position allows for better visualization of any abnormal air-fluid levels within the chest. It helps to identify potential injuries such as pneumothorax or hemothorax, which may not be easily detected in other positions or views. By including this specific examination, healthcare professionals can ensure a comprehensive assessment of the patient's chest and accurately diagnose any potential injuries.

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144. Which of the following views will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation?

Explanation

The best view to demonstrate acromioclavicular separation is the AP erect, both shoulders view. This view allows for a comparison of both shoulders in an upright position, which helps to assess any asymmetry or displacement between the acromion and clavicle. This view provides a clear visualization of the acromioclavicular joint and is commonly used in the diagnosis of acromioclavicular separation.

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145. Which of the following is (are) distal to the tibial plateau?
  1. intercondyloid fossa
  2. tibial condyles
  3. tibial tuberosity

Explanation

The tibial plateau is located at the top of the tibia bone, near the knee joint. The intercondyloid fossa is a depression located between the tibial condyles, which are the rounded prominences at the top of the tibia. The tibial tuberosity is a bony prominence located on the front of the tibia, below the tibial plateau. Both the intercondyloid fossa and the tibial tuberosity are distal to the tibial plateau because they are located further away from the body's midline. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

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146. Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the right apophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae?

Explanation

The RPO (Right Posterior Oblique) position will best demonstrate the right apophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae. This position allows for a clear visualization of the right side of the vertebrae and their articulations, providing a comprehensive view of the specific area of interest.

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147. The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are called?

Explanation

The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are called laminae. Laminae are thin plates of bone that connect the transverse processes to the spinous process, forming the posterior part of the vertebral arch. They help protect the spinal cord and provide attachment sites for muscles and ligaments.

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148. What projection of the oscalsis is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR and the CR directed 40 degrees cephalad?

Explanation

An axial plantodorsal projection is obtained when the leg is extended, the plantar surface of the foot is vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR is directed 40 degrees cephalad. This projection allows for visualization of the foot and ankle in a specific plane, helping to assess any abnormalities or injuries in that area. It is commonly used in orthopedic imaging to evaluate fractures, dislocations, and other pathologies of the foot and ankle.

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149. The ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the?

Explanation

The metaphysis is the correct answer because it refers to the ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone. The diaphysis refers to the shaft or middle portion of the long bone, the epiphysis refers to the ends of the long bone, and the apophysis refers to a bony outgrowth or projection.

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150. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding a PA axial projection of the paranasal sinuses?
  1. The OML is elevated 15 degrees from the horizontal
  2. The petrous pyramids completely fill the orbits
  3. The frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized

Explanation

In a PA axial projection of the paranasal sinuses, the OML (Orbitomeatal Line) is elevated 15 degrees from the horizontal. This means that the patient's head is tilted backwards slightly. The frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized in this projection, but the petrous pyramids do not completely fill the orbits. Therefore, the correct statements are 1 and 3 only.

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151. Which of the following statements is (are) correct, with respect to a left lateral projection of the chest?
  1. The MSP must be perfectly vertical and parallel to the IR.
  2. The right posterior ribs will be projected slightly posterior to the left posterior ribs.
  3. Arms must be raised high to prevent upper arm soft tissue superimposition on lung field.

Explanation

In a left lateral projection of the chest, the MSP (mid-sagittal plane) must be perfectly vertical and parallel to the IR to ensure proper positioning and alignment. The right posterior ribs will be projected slightly posterior to the left posterior ribs due to the rotation of the body. Additionally, raising the arms high is necessary to prevent upper arm soft tissue superimposition on the lung field, which could obscure the visibility of the structures being examined. Therefore, all three statements are correct.

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152. In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the CR is directed:

Explanation

The correct answer is 3/4" distal to the nasion. In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the CR is directed 3/4" distal to the nasion. This means that the central ray is positioned 3/4" below the nasion, which is the midpoint of the bridge of the nose. This positioning allows for optimal visualization and assessment of the nasal bones in the lateral view.

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153. Structures involved in blowout fractures include the:
  1. orbital floor
  2. inferior rectus muscle
  3. zygoma

Explanation

Blowout fractures involve the orbital floor and the inferior rectus muscle. The orbital floor is the structure that separates the eye from the maxillary sinus, and it is commonly involved in blowout fractures. The inferior rectus muscle is one of the muscles that control eye movement, and it is also commonly affected in blowout fractures. The zygoma, on the other hand, is not typically involved in blowout fractures. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

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154. Ulnar flexion/deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)?
  1. medial carpals
  2. lateral carpals
  3. scaphoid

Explanation

Ulnar flexion/deviation refers to the movement of the wrist towards the ulnar side (pinky side) of the hand. This movement will best demonstrate the carpal bones located on the ulnar (medial) side of the wrist, which are the scaphoid and the medial carpals. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

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155. Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine?

Explanation

A horizontal beam lateral should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine. This imaging technique allows for a clear view of the cervical vertebrae and can help identify any abnormalities or misalignments. By taking a lateral view, the radiologist can assess the alignment of the vertebrae and determine if there is any evidence of subluxation or fracture. This is a crucial step in the diagnostic process to ensure that any potential injuries or conditions are properly identified and treated.

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156. Which of the following is used to evaluate focal spot size?

Explanation

A slit camera is used to evaluate focal spot size. A slit camera consists of a narrow slit and a detector that captures the X-ray beam passing through the slit. By analyzing the resulting image, the focal spot size can be determined. This method is commonly used in radiography and radiology to ensure the quality and accuracy of X-ray imaging systems. The spinning top, wire-mesh, and penetrometer are not specifically used for evaluating focal spot size.

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157. To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the:
  1. epicondyles perpendicular to the cassette
  2. hand pronated and supinated as much as possible
  3. hand lateral and in internal rotation

Explanation

To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposures must be made with the epicondyles perpendicular to the cassette, the hand pronated and supinated as much as possible, and the hand lateral and in internal rotation. These positioning techniques allow for the best visualization of the entire radial head, ensuring that no part of it is obscured or missed during the imaging process.

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158. Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?

Explanation

Flexion and extension laterals are a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of anterior-posterior (AP) motion present in the cervical spine. This study involves taking lateral radiographs of the cervical spine while the patient is asked to flex and extend their neck. By comparing the images in flexion and extension, any abnormal or excessive movement of the vertebrae can be observed, helping to assess the degree of AP motion in the cervical spine. The other options, such as open-mouth projection, moving-mandible AP, and right and left bending AP, are not specifically designed to assess AP motion in the cervical spine.

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159. Which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle with the patient in the PA position?

Explanation

The correct answer is 15-30 degrees caudad. This means that the tube should be angled downwards towards the patient's feet at an angle between 15 and 30 degrees. This is the correct angle for an axial projection of the clavicle with the patient in the PA position.

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160. To "visualize open" the right sacroiliac joint, the patient is positioned:

Explanation

To "visualize open" the right sacroiliac joint, the patient is positioned at 25-30 degrees LPO. This positioning allows for a better visualization of the right sacroiliac joint by creating an oblique angle that separates the joint space and reduces overlap of the bony structures. The LPO position helps to project the right sacroiliac joint away from the spine, providing a clearer image for diagnostic purposes.

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161. The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the:

Explanation

The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the fifth thoracic vertebra (T5). This is an anatomical landmark that can be easily palpated on the anterior chest wall. The sternal angle is important because it marks the level of the second rib and the location where the trachea bifurcates into the left and right main bronchi. It is also used as a reference point for counting the ribs and intercostal spaces. Therefore, T5 is the correct answer as it corresponds to the level of the sternal angle.

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162. To reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbosacral region, which of the following is (are) recommended:
  1. close collimation
  2. lead mat on table posterior to patient
  3. decreased SID

Explanation

To reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbosacral region, two recommendations are given: close collimation and placing a lead mat on the table posterior to the patient. Decreased SID (source-to-image distance) is not mentioned as a recommendation in this context.

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163. The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?

Explanation

In the medial oblique elbow position, the coronoid process should be visualized in profile. This position allows for a clear view of the coronoid process, which is a projection of the ulna bone in the forearm. The other positions mentioned, such as scapular Y, AP scapula, and lateral oblique elbow, do not provide the same profile view of the coronoid process. Therefore, the medial oblique elbow position is the correct choice for visualizing the coronoid process.

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164. In the lateral projection of the scapula, the:
  1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed
  2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed
  3. patient may be examined in the erect position

Explanation

In the lateral projection of the scapula, the vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed. This means that the two borders of the scapula appear to overlap or align with each other in the resulting image. Additionally, the patient may be examined in the erect position, suggesting that this particular projection can be performed with the patient standing upright.

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165. In lateral projection of the ankle, the:
  1. talotibial joint is visualized
  2. talofibular joint is visualized
  3. tibia and fibula are superimposed

Explanation

In a lateral projection of the ankle, the talotibial joint is visualized because this projection allows for a clear view of the joint space between the talus bone and the tibia bone. Additionally, the tibia and fibula are superimposed in this projection because they are aligned closely together and appear as one bone on the image. The talofibular joint, on the other hand, is not visualized in this projection as it is not in the direct path of the X-ray beam. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

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166. When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15 degree caudal angle, the radiographer should see:
  1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits
  2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally
  3. symmetrical petrous pyramids

Explanation

In a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15 degree caudal angle, the radiographer should see the petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits. This is because the caudal angle helps to project the petrous pyramids lower in the orbits. Additionally, the radiographer should observe equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally, indicating proper positioning and alignment. Lastly, the petrous pyramids should appear symmetrical, indicating proper positioning and lack of rotation. Therefore, all three statements are correct.

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167. Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles' fracture?
  1. transverse fracture of the radial head
  2. chip fracture of the ulnar styloid
  3. posterior or backward displacement

Explanation

A Colles' fracture is a type of wrist fracture that involves the distal radius bone. It is characterized by a posterior or backward displacement of the fractured bone. This explains why option 3, which mentions posterior or backward displacement, is associated with a Colles' fracture. Additionally, a chip fracture of the ulnar styloid, as mentioned in option 2, is also commonly seen in Colles' fractures. However, option 1, which mentions a transverse fracture of the radial head, is not associated with a Colles' fracture.

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168. Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?

Explanation

The proximal tibiofibular articulation refers to the joint between the tibia and fibula bones in the lower leg. Internal rotation refers to the movement of the bone towards the midline of the body. Therefore, 45 degrees of internal rotation would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation as it represents the movement of the tibia bone rotating towards the midline of the body.

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169. To demonstrate the mandibular body in the PA position, the:

Explanation

To demonstrate the mandibular body in the PA position, the CR is directed perpendicular to the IR. This means that the central ray of the X-ray beam is directed straight towards the image receptor, creating a perpendicular angle between the CR and the IR. This positioning is necessary to obtain a clear and accurate image of the mandibular body, allowing for proper diagnosis and evaluation of any potential abnormalities or injuries.

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170. Which of the following positions demonstrates the sphenoid sinuses?
  1. Modified Waters (mouth open)
  2. lateral
  3. PA axial

Explanation

The sphenoid sinuses are best demonstrated in the Modified Waters (mouth open) position and the lateral position. The Modified Waters position allows for visualization of the sphenoid sinuses from a frontal perspective, while the lateral position provides a side view of the sinuses. The PA axial position does not specifically target the sphenoid sinuses, so it is not included in the correct answer.

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171. Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?

Explanation

To avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand, it is important to oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees. This means that the hand should be positioned at an angle less than or equal to 45 degrees with respect to the image receptor. By limiting the obliquity to 45 degrees or less, the joints will be better visualized without excessive overlap, allowing for a more accurate assessment of the hand's anatomy.

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172. In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?

Explanation

The talofibular joint is best demonstrated in the medial oblique projection. This projection provides a clear view of the joint by positioning the foot in a specific angle and direction, allowing for optimal visualization of the talus and fibula. The medial oblique projection is commonly used in radiology to assess the integrity and alignment of the talofibular joint.

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173. Which of the following is (are) effective in reducing exposure to sensitive tissues for frontal views during scoliosis examinations?
  1. use of PA position
  2. use of breast shields
  3. use of compensating filtration

Explanation

The use of PA position, breast shields, and compensating filtration are all effective in reducing exposure to sensitive tissues for frontal views during scoliosis examinations. The PA position helps to minimize radiation exposure to the breasts and other sensitive tissues by placing them farther away from the x-ray source. Breast shields provide additional protection to the breasts by absorbing or blocking some of the radiation. Compensating filtration helps to even out the radiation dose across the image, reducing the risk of overexposure to certain areas. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 3 are all correct.

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174. If a patient's zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheekbones, the arch may be demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient's head:

Explanation

The correct answer is 15 degrees toward the side being examined. By rotating the patient's head 15 degrees toward the side being examined, the zygomatic arch can be better demonstrated on the SMV projection. This positioning helps to separate the arch from other structures and provides a clearer image for diagnostic purposes.

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175. In which of the following trangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate dx?
  1. supine flexion 45 degrees (merchant)
  2. prone flexion 90 degrees (settegast)
  3. prone flexion 55 degrees (hughston)

Explanation

In the supine flexion 45 degrees (merchant) projection, complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris is required for an accurate diagnosis. This is because in this position, the patella is fully relaxed and not influenced by any muscle tension, allowing for a clear view of any abnormalities or injuries. In the other two projections, prone flexion 90 degrees (settegast) and prone flexion 55 degrees (hughston), the quadriceps femoris is not required to be completely relaxed, so these projections do not meet the requirement stated in the question.

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176. In the lateral projection of the foot, the:
  1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR
  2. metatarsals are superimposed
  3. talofibular joint should be visualized

Explanation

In the lateral projection of the foot, the plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR. This means that the bottom surface of the foot should be positioned at a 90-degree angle to the image receptor, allowing for optimal visualization of the structures. Additionally, in this projection, the metatarsals should be superimposed. This means that the long bones in the front part of the foot should overlap each other, indicating proper alignment and positioning. The talofibular joint, which is the joint between the talus bone and the fibula, is not specifically mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be determined as a correct answer.

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177. The AP projection of the coccyx requires that the CR be directed:
  1. 15 degrees cephalad
  2. 2" superior to the pubic symphysis
  3. to a level midway between the ASIS and pubic symphysis

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 only. The AP projection of the coccyx requires that the CR be directed 2" superior to the pubic symphysis. This means that the central ray should be angled 15 degrees cephalad and positioned 2" above the pubic symphysis. Option 1, which states that the CR should be directed 15 degrees cephalad, is incorrect as it does not mention the specific positioning of the CR. Option 3, which states that the CR should be directed to a level midway between the ASIS and pubic symphysis, is also incorrect as it does not specify the exact distance above the pubic symphysis.

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178. For the AP projection of the scapula, the:
  1. patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body
  2. patient's elbow is flexed with the hand supinated
  3. exposure is made during quiet breathing

Explanation

In the AP projection of the scapula, the patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body to ensure proper positioning of the scapula. The patient's elbow is flexed with the hand supinated to relax the muscles and prevent any movement during the exposure. The exposure is made during quiet breathing to minimize motion blur and obtain a clear image of the scapula. Therefore, all three statements are correct.

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179. Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the obturator foramen?
  1. ilium
  2. ischium
  3. pubis

Explanation

The obturator foramen is formed by the ischium and pubis bones. The ilium bone does not participate in the formation of the obturator foramen.

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180. A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?
  1. radial head
  2. capitulum
  3. coronoid process

Explanation

When the patient is unable to extend their arm and the CR is directed 45 degrees medially, the radial head and capitulum will be demonstrated best. The radial head is located on the lateral side of the elbow joint, and the capitulum is located on the distal end of the humerus. The medial direction of the CR allows for visualization of these structures. The coronoid process, which is located on the anterior aspect of the ulna, will not be well demonstrated in this positioning. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

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181. Which of the following fat pads/stripes should be demonstrated radiographically in a lateral projection of the normal adult elbow?
  1. posterior fat pad
  2. anterior fat pad
  3. supinator fat stripe

Explanation

In a lateral projection of the normal adult elbow, the supinator fat stripe and the anterior fat pad should be demonstrated radiographically. The supinator fat stripe is a linear radiolucent line located just anterior to the radial head, while the anterior fat pad is a triangular radiolucent area located anterior to the distal humerus. The posterior fat pad is not typically visible in a normal lateral projection of the adult elbow, so it should not be demonstrated radiographically. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

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182. In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?

Explanation

The talocalcaneal joint will be visualized in the plantodorsal projection of the os calcis. This projection involves taking an X-ray of the foot with the X-ray beam directed from the plantar (bottom) surface of the foot towards the dorsal (top) surface. This allows for clear visualization of the talocalcaneal joint, which is the joint between the talus bone and the calcaneus bone in the foot. The other positions/projections mentioned do not specifically target the talocalcaneal joint for visualization.

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183. What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?

Explanation

The trochlea is a portion of the humerus that articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint. It is a smooth, grooved structure that allows for the hinge-like movement of the forearm. The trochlea is located on the medial side of the distal end of the humerus and is responsible for flexion and extension of the elbow joint.

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184. Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the:

Explanation

The medial displacement of a tibial fracture refers to the movement of the fractured bone towards the midline of the body. In an AP (anteroposterior) projection, the X-ray beam is directed from the front to the back of the body, producing an image that shows the tibia from the front. This projection would provide the best visualization of any medial displacement of the fracture, as it allows for a direct view of the bone from the front.

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185. Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral apophyseal articulation?

Explanation

The lumbosacral apophyseal articulation refers to the joint between the lumbar vertebrae and the sacrum. In order to visualize this joint, an oblique view is required. The 30 degrees RPO (right posterior oblique) position allows for a better visualization of the lumbosacral apophyseal articulation compared to the other options.

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186. Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm include:
  1. the epicondyles should be parallel to the IR
  2. the radius and ulna should be superimposed distally
  3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly

Explanation

In order to have a valid evaluation of a lateral projection of the forearm, two criteria must be met. Firstly, the radius and ulna should be superimposed distally, meaning that the bones should overlap each other at the lower end. This is important for proper visualization and assessment of the forearm. Secondly, the radial tuberosity, a bony prominence on the radius, should face anteriorly. This ensures that the forearm is correctly positioned and aligned for imaging. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

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187. The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones except:

Explanation

The floor of the cranium is formed by the ethmoid bone, sphenoid bone, and temporal bones. The occipital bone is not part of the floor of the cranium, but rather forms the back and base of the skull. Therefore, the correct answer is occipital bone.

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188. Which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthal projection (Waters method) with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth?

Explanation

The correct answer is sphenoidal. The parietoacanthal projection (Waters method) with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth is used to visualize the sphenoidal sinuses. This projection provides a superior-inferior view of the sphenoidal sinuses, which are located deep within the skull behind the ethmoidal sinuses. The frontal sinuses are visualized with a frontal projection, the ethmoidal sinuses are visualized with a lateral projection, and the maxillary sinuses are visualized with a Waters projection with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth.

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189. The right posterior oblique (RPO) position of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the?

Explanation

In the right posterior oblique (RPO) position, the X-ray will show the anterior rim of the right acetabulum. The RPO position is an imaging technique used to visualize specific structures in the hip joint. In this position, the X-ray beam is angled from behind and to the right side of the patient, allowing for a clear view of the anterior rim of the right acetabulum. This view is important for assessing any abnormalities or fractures in the anterior aspect of the hip joint.

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190. In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated?

Explanation

The correct answer is lateral oblique foot. In a lateral oblique foot projection, the foot is positioned with the medial side elevated and the lateral side closest to the image receptor. This projection provides a clear view of the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms, allowing for better demonstration of any abnormalities or pathologies in that area.

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191. An increase in the kilovoltage applied to the x-ray tube increases the:
  1. x-ray wavelength
  2. exposure rate
  3. patient absorption

Explanation

An increase in the kilovoltage applied to the x-ray tube increases the exposure rate. This is because increasing the kilovoltage increases the energy of the x-ray photons produced, which in turn increases the number of photons and their intensity. However, an increase in kilovoltage does not affect the wavelength of the x-rays or the patient absorption. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 only.

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192. The spinning top test can be used to evaluate:
  1. timer accuracy
  2. rectifier failure
  3. effect of kVp on contrast

Explanation

The spinning top test can be used to evaluate timer accuracy and rectifier failure. Timer accuracy refers to the ability of the timer to accurately control the exposure time, while rectifier failure refers to the malfunctioning of the rectifier unit in the X-ray machine. The spinning top test involves spinning a top at a constant speed and taking X-ray images of it. If the timer is accurate, the images will show the top as a blur, indicating that the exposure time was correctly controlled. If there is rectifier failure, the images will show a pulsating or flickering effect on the top, indicating a malfunction in the rectifier unit.

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193. The external, or lateral, oblique projection of the elbow demonstrates the:
  1. olecranon process within the olecranon fossa
  2. radial head free of superimposition
  3. coronoid process free of superimposition

Explanation

The external, or lateral, oblique projection of the elbow allows for the visualization of the radial head without any superimposition. This means that the radial head is clearly visible and not obstructed by any other structures in the image. This projection is useful in assessing fractures or dislocations involving the radial head. The olecranon process within the olecranon fossa and the coronoid process are not specifically visualized in this projection.

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194. Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the left thorax?
  1. RPO
  2. LAO
  3. RPO

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 only. The RPO (right posterior oblique) position can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the left thorax. The LAO (left anterior oblique) and RPO (right posterior oblique) positions are not mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the left thorax.

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195. Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include:
  1. the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb
  2. both joints must be included in long bone studies
  3. two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only. This is because both joints must be included in long bone studies to ensure that the entire area of injury is captured. Additionally, two views at 90 degrees to each other are required to provide a comprehensive assessment of the injury and to ensure that no important details are missed. Supporting the joint closest to the injured site during movement of the limb is not mentioned as an important consideration for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity.

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196. Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional "open mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?

Explanation

When the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated in the traditional "open mouth" projection, an AP or PA through the foramen magnum projection can be used as a supplement. This projection allows for a better visualization of the upper portion of the odontoid process by directing the X-ray beam through the opening at the base of the skull. This alternative projection can provide additional information and help in diagnosing any potential abnormalities or injuries in the area.

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197. Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?

Explanation

The AP medial oblique projection is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition. This projection is specifically designed to show the pisiform bone in isolation by angling the hand and wrist in a way that separates the pisiform from other bones and structures. This allows for a clear visualization of the pisiform bone without any overlapping or superimposition, making it the best choice among the given options.

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198. The AP axial projection, or "frog leg" position, of the femoral neck places the patient in a supine position with the affected thigh:

Explanation

The AP axial projection, or "frog leg" position, of the femoral neck requires the patient to be in a supine position with the affected thigh abducted 40 degrees from the vertical. This position allows for a better visualization of the femoral neck and head, as well as the acetabulum, in radiographic imaging. The abduction of the thigh helps to separate the femoral neck from the pelvis, reducing superimposition and providing a clearer image of the area of interest.

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199. All the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull are true except:

Explanation

In an exact PA projection of the skull, the petrous pyramids do not fill the inferior third of the orbits. The petrous pyramids are located within the temporal bone and are projected just below the floor of the orbits in this projection. The other statements are true for an exact PA projection of the skull, including the obitomeatal line being perpendicular to the image receptor, the midsagittal plane being perpendicular to the IR, and the central ray being perpendicular to the IR and exiting at the nasion.

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200. In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed:

Explanation

In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed 15 degrees caudad to C4. This means that the central ray should be angled downward, towards the feet, at a 15-degree angle from the horizontal plane, in relation to the fourth cervical vertebra (C4). This positioning is important in order to obtain a clear and accurate image of the cervical spine from this specific oblique angle.

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Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?
The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into...
A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following?...
Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of...
Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial...
Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper...
The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is:
Which of the following views would best demonstrate arthritic changes...
A quality control program includes checks on which of the following...
The threat of hypothermia is greatest when radiographing a (an):
What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac...
The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is:
Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?...
Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood...
Poor screen-film contact can be caused by which of the following:...
The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to:
With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20...
Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the...
Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the...
Which of the following factors can contribute to hypertension?...
The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with...
With the patient recumbent on the x-ray table, with the head lower...
Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views,...
In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced...
Which of the following refers to a regular program of evaluation that...
Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax?...
Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed?
Which of the following would best evaluate the maxillary sinus?
Which of the following devices should not be removed before...
Glossitis refers to inflammation of the:
The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the:
Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right...
Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical...
All the following are palpable bony landmarks used in radiography of...
Which of the following structures is (are) located in the RUQ?...
The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long...
A type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults...
The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same...
With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular...
Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony...
Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of...
To better visualize the knee joint in a lateral projection the...
Which of the following positions would be the best choice for a right...
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal...
The innominate bone is located in the:
During chest radiography, the act of inspiration:...
With patient lying prone, knee flexed @ 45 degrees (support under...
For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from...
Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely...
Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate...
Free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which of the...
Which of the following are mediastinal structures?...
Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate...
Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the:...
Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?...
Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane...
The inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat or...
Which of the following statements regarding the Norgaard method,...
Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal...
Which of the following guidelines should be used when performing...
The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the...
The CR will parallel the intervertebral foramina in which of the...
Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid...
Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in...
What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping...
Which of the following is (are) appropriate technique(s) for imaging a...
Which of the following structures is located at the level of the...
The term valgus refers to?
Periodic equipment calibration includes testing of the:...
A lateral projection of the lumbar spine will demonstrate the:...
Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection...
Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at...
During atrial systole, blood flows into the:...
Which foot view would best demonstrate the articulation between the...
Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in an AP projection of...
In the AP projection of the ankle, the:...
Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart...
A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to...
Which of the following structures should be visualized through the...
What are the effects of scattered radiation on the x-ray image?...
In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot...
In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the...
The act of expiration will cause the:...
To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral...
The body habitus characterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity...
Which of the following is (are) located on the posterior aspect of the...
The most significant risk factor for breast cancer is:
A frontal view of the sternum is best accomplished in which of the...
What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient?
Which of the following positions will separate the radial head, neck...
The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the:
Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the...
The male bony pelvis differs from the female bony pelvis in which of...
Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small...
Which of the anatomic structures listed below is seen most anteriorly...
With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80...
The intervertebral foramina of the thoracic spine are demonstrated...
To best visualize the lower ribs, the exposure should be made:
Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the...
"Flattening" of the hemidiaphragms is characteristic of...
Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in a lateral projection...
A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a...
Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body...
Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25 degree RPO position...
In a PA chest radiograph which ribs will be demonstrated on the right...
Structures comprising the neutral or vertebral arch include:...
Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic...
To demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP projection,...
Which of the following precautions should be observed when...
Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture?...
Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral...
With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?
Which of the following projections of the elbow should demonstrate the...
With the patient PA, the MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a...
Below-diaphragm ribs are better demonstrated when:
All the following structures are associated with the femur except the:
All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position?
Proper care of leaded apparel includes:...
Which of the following contribute(s) to inherent filtration?...
The PA chest radiograph should demonstrate:...
The lumbar lamina is represented by what part of the "Scotty...
To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP...
Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the...
Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the:
Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest are performed to...
The axiolateral or horizontal beam projection of the hip, requires the...
In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR...
All the following positions are used frequently to demonstrate the...
The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient in...
AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed:...
In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen...
Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection...
When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should...
Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include:...
The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following...
With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the...
Which of the following positions is obtained with the patient lying...
Which of the following is usually recommended for cleaning CR image...
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to...
In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the:...
Central ray angulation may be required for:...
All the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true...
How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be...
Which of the following views will best demonstrate acromioclavicular...
Which of the following is (are) distal to the tibial plateau?...
Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the right...
The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the...
What projection of the oscalsis is obtained with the leg extended, the...
The ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced...
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding a PA axial...
Which of the following statements is (are) correct, with respect to a...
In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the CR is directed:
Structures involved in blowout fractures include the:...
Ulnar flexion/deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)?...
Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or...
Which of the following is used to evaluate focal spot size?
To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head,...
Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the...
Which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is...
To "visualize open" the right sacroiliac joint, the patient...
The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the:
To reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR...
The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the...
In the lateral projection of the scapula, the:...
In lateral projection of the ankle, the:...
When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15 degree...
Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles'...
Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal...
To demonstrate the mandibular body in the PA position, the:
Which of the following positions demonstrates the sphenoid sinuses?...
Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid...
In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best...
Which of the following is (are) effective in reducing exposure to...
If a patient's zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or...
In which of the following trangential axial projections of the patella...
In the lateral projection of the foot, the:...
The AP projection of the coccyx requires that the CR be directed:...
For the AP projection of the scapula, the:...
Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the...
A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the...
Which of the following fat pads/stripes should be demonstrated...
In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal...
What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the...
Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in...
Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral...
Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm...
The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones except:
Which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient...
The right posterior oblique (RPO) position of the right acetabulum...
In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first...
An increase in the kilovoltage applied to the x-ray tube increases...
The spinning top test can be used to evaluate:...
The external, or lateral, oblique projection of the elbow demonstrates...
Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the...
Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic...
Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the...
Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the...
The AP axial projection, or "frog leg" position, of the...
All the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the...
In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the CR should...
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