3e151 C Set Vol 4

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  • 1/56 Questions

    What size water vessel is used for the 500,000 British thermal units/hour (BTU/h) field boiler?

    • 20 gallons.
    • 25 gallons.
    • 30 gallons.
    • 35 gallons.
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '3E151 C set Vol 4', assesses knowledge on the operation and maintenance of heating systems, specifically tent heaters. It covers key components like the immersion heater's combustion chamber, the vaporizer plate, and the operation of Preway heaters, essential for ensuring safety and efficiency in heater usage.

3e151 C Set Vol 4 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What type of refrigerant does the advanced design refrigeration–300 (ADR) use?

    • R–12.

    • R–22.

    • R–404a.

    • R–502.

    Correct Answer
    A. R–404a.
    Explanation
    The advanced design refrigeration-300 (ADR) uses R-404a as its refrigerant.

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  • 3. 

    After a trouble is located, what is your next step?

    • Turn the unit on.

    • Switch to heat mode.

    • Correct the malfunction.

    • Switch to ventilation mode.

    Correct Answer
    A. Correct the malfunction.
    Explanation
    After locating the trouble, the next step would be to correct the malfunction. This means identifying and fixing the issue that caused the trouble in the first place. Turning the unit on, switching to heat mode, or switching to ventilation mode may not address the underlying problem and may not effectively resolve the malfunction. Therefore, the most appropriate next step would be to correct the malfunction itself.

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  • 4. 

    What reading should you receive on the multimeter when starting up the field boiler?

    • Steady reading of at least two volts.

    • Fluctuating reading of at least two volts.

    • Steady reading of at least four volts.

    • Fluctuating reading of at least four volts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Steady reading of at least two volts.
    Explanation
    When starting up the field boiler, a steady reading of at least two volts should be received on the multimeter. This suggests that there is a consistent flow of electricity, which is necessary for the proper functioning of the boiler. A fluctuating reading may indicate an unstable or unreliable power supply, which could lead to issues with the boiler's operation. However, a steady reading of at least four volts is not necessary and may indicate an excessive power supply, which could potentially cause damage to the boiler.

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  • 5. 

    What is the problem if you must inspect the evaporator coil and clean it?

    • Refrigerator does not start.

    • Insufficient cooling.

    • Excessively noisy operation.

    • Compressor fails to start.

    Correct Answer
    A. Insufficient cooling.
    Explanation
    If you must inspect and clean the evaporator coil, the problem is most likely insufficient cooling. The evaporator coil is responsible for absorbing heat from the air inside the refrigerator, and if it is dirty or clogged, it can't effectively cool the air. This can result in the refrigerator not cooling properly and not maintaining the desired temperature.

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  • 6. 

    If the unit has an insufficient charge of refrigerant, what are at least two things that will happen?

    • Evaporator will starve and not enough oil circulated in the system.

    • Condenser will starve and not enough oil circulated in the system.

    • Evaporator will get dirty and plugged.

    • Condenser will get dirty and plugged.

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaporator will starve and not enough oil circulated in the system.
    Explanation
    If the unit has an insufficient charge of refrigerant, two things that will happen are the evaporator will starve and not enough oil will circulate in the system. When there is not enough refrigerant, the evaporator will not receive the necessary amount to cool the air effectively, leading to poor cooling performance. Additionally, the lack of refrigerant can cause a decrease in oil circulation, which is essential for lubricating the moving parts of the system. This can result in increased friction and potential damage to the components.

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  • 7. 

    Which type of alternative or temporary heaters can be used without the risk of open flames?

    • Cart-type ducted.

    • Immersion.

    • 1941 tent.

    • Electric.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electric.
    Explanation
    Electric heaters can be used without the risk of open flames because they do not require any combustible fuel to operate. They rely on electricity to generate heat, making them a safe alternative or temporary heating option. Unlike other types of heaters, such as cart-type ducted or immersion heaters, electric heaters do not pose a fire hazard and can be used in various settings without the need for ventilation or constant monitoring.

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  • 8. 

    Fuel, dripping from the fuel valve, drops and falls onto which component of an immersion heater?

    • Burner plate.

    • Vaporizer plate.

    • Vertical partition.

    • Flue compartment.

    Correct Answer
    A. Vaporizer plate.
    Explanation
    Fuel, dripping from the fuel valve, drops and falls onto the vaporizer plate of an immersion heater. The vaporizer plate is responsible for converting the fuel into a vapor or gas form, which can then be ignited to produce heat. The fuel dripping onto the vaporizer plate ensures a steady supply of fuel for the heater to function efficiently.

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  • 9. 

    Which type of tent heater uses a siphon to start the fuel flowing from the fuel can to the control valve?

    • Type I, Model M1941.

    • Type II, Model M1941.

    • Yukon, Model M1950.

    • Preway.

    Correct Answer
    A. Preway.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Preway. The question asks about the type of tent heater that uses a siphon to start the fuel flowing from the fuel can to the control valve. Out of the given options, Preway is the only one that fits this description. The other options do not mention the use of a siphon. Therefore, the correct answer is Preway.

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  • 10. 

    What would most likely cause a heavy soot deposit in the burner on a preway tent heater?

    • Restricted combustion air inlet.

    • Oil control valve set too low.

    • Insufficient priming.

    • Air lock in fuel line.

    Correct Answer
    A. Restricted combustion air inlet.
    Explanation
    A heavy soot deposit in the burner on a preway tent heater would most likely be caused by a restricted combustion air inlet. When the air inlet is restricted, it can lead to an inadequate supply of oxygen for combustion, resulting in incomplete burning of the fuel. This incomplete burning produces soot, which then accumulates in the burner.

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  • 11. 

    During a preway tent heater operation, what causes a high-draft condition?

    • Loose fitting pipe.

    • Top of rain cap below ridge of a building.

    • Large trees extending above the building.

    • Additional lengths of smokestack added on.

    Correct Answer
    A. Additional lengths of smokestack added on.
    Explanation
    Adding additional lengths of smokestack can create a high-draft condition during a preway tent heater operation. This is because the increased height of the smokestack allows for better airflow and increased draft, which can result in a stronger and more powerful heating effect. The other options mentioned, such as a loose fitting pipe, top of rain cap below ridge of a building, and large trees extending above the building, do not directly contribute to a high-draft condition.

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  • 12. 

    What is the possible cause if an operation is excessively noisy?

    • Thermostat has defects.

    • Loose mounting hardware.

    • Evaporator screen dirty or clogged.

    • Continuity of fuses F1, F2, and F3.

    Correct Answer
    A. Loose mounting hardware.
    Explanation
    If an operation is excessively noisy, the possible cause could be loose mounting hardware. Loose mounting hardware can cause vibrations and rattling, resulting in excessive noise during operation. This can occur when screws, bolts, or other fasteners become loose over time or due to improper installation. Tightening the mounting hardware can help reduce the noise and ensure proper operation of the equipment.

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  • 13. 

    When is the unit ready for operation?

    • After it has been clean.

    • Soon as you receive the unit.

    • When the shop supervisor approves it.

    • After pre-operation checks are complete.

    Correct Answer
    A. After pre-operation checks are complete.
    Explanation
    The unit is ready for operation after pre-operation checks are complete. This indicates that there are specific checks and procedures that need to be done before the unit can be used. These checks ensure that the unit is in proper working condition and meets all necessary requirements for safe operation.

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  • 14. 

    When will the unit go into defrost mode?

    • Evaporator temperature is below freezing or defrost key is pressed on controller.

    • Outside temperature is below freezing or defrost key is pressed on controller.

    • Evaporator temperature is below freezing and the box is empty.

    • Outside temperature is below freezing the box is full.

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaporator temperature is below freezing or defrost key is pressed on controller.
    Explanation
    The unit will go into defrost mode when either the evaporator temperature is below freezing or the defrost key is pressed on the controller. This means that if the temperature of the evaporator drops below freezing, or if someone manually activates the defrost mode by pressing the key on the controller, the unit will enter defrost mode.

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  • 15. 

    Which circuit on the advanced design refrigeration (ADR) is direction specific?

    • 208/230 volts alternating current (VAC).

    • 208/230 volts direct current (VDC).

    • 24 VAC.

    • 24 VDC.

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 VDC.
    Explanation
    The circuit on the advanced design refrigeration (ADR) that is direction specific is the 24 VDC circuit. This means that the flow of current in this circuit can only go in one direction, which is from the positive terminal to the negative terminal. In contrast, alternating current (AC) can flow in both directions, while direct current (DC) flows in only one direction. Therefore, the 24 VDC circuit is the only one that is direction specific.

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  • 16. 

    What are preventive maintenance checks and services (PMCS) used for?

    • Warn you of potential dangers.

    • Find and correct or report problems.

    • Tell you about the unit you are working on.

    • Find and order the right replacement parts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Find and correct or report problems.
    Explanation
    Preventive maintenance checks and services (PMCS) are used to find and correct or report problems. This means that PMCS is a proactive approach to identify any issues or faults in a unit before they become major problems. By conducting regular PMCS, potential problems can be addressed early on, preventing further damage or breakdowns. Additionally, PMCS helps in maintaining the overall functionality and efficiency of the unit, ensuring smooth operations and reducing the chances of unexpected failures.

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  • 17. 

    What is the main difference between the field deployable environmental control unit (FDECU) types 2 and 3?

    • FDECU Type 3 has no crankcase heater.

    • FDECU Type3 weighs more.

    • FDECU Type 3 weighs less.

    • There is no difference.

    Correct Answer
    A. FDECU Type 3 has no crankcase heater.
    Explanation
    The main difference between FDECU Type 2 and Type 3 is that Type 3 does not have a crankcase heater.

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  • 18. 

    Twenty-four-hour monitoring may be considered for

    • Visiting officer’s quarters.

    • Visiting Airman’s quarters.

    • Any mission essential facility

    • Senior noncommissioned officers quarters.

    Correct Answer
    A. Any mission essential facility
    Explanation
    Twenty-four-hour monitoring may be considered for any mission essential facility because these facilities are critical for the success of a mission and any disruption or security breach can have serious consequences. Monitoring these facilities round the clock ensures that any issues or threats can be detected and addressed immediately, ensuring the safety and functionality of the facility. This level of monitoring is not limited to specific types of facilities such as officer's quarters or airman's quarters, but rather applies to any facility that is deemed essential for the mission.

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  • 19. 

    If a field boiler is not filled with water, what trouble will occur?

    • Noisy fuel pump.

    • Flame failure during firing cycle.

    • Burner fails to ignite.

    • Boiler fails to start.

    Correct Answer
    A. Boiler fails to start.
    Explanation
    If a field boiler is not filled with water, it will fail to start. This is because water is essential for the boiler to generate steam and produce heat. Without water, the boiler will not be able to create the necessary pressure and temperature required for operation. As a result, the boiler will fail to start and perform its intended function.

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  • 20. 

    The proper power supply for the mechanical refrigeration section is

    • 208-volt, three-phase, 60-cycle.

    • 208-volt, three-phase, 50-cycle.

    • 125-volt, one-phase, 60-cycle.

    • 125-volt, one-phase, 50-cycle.

    Correct Answer
    A. 208-volt, three-phase, 60-cycle.
    Explanation
    The proper power supply for the mechanical refrigeration section is 208-volt, three-phase, 60-cycle. This means that the power supply should have a voltage of 208 volts, be three-phase (meaning it has three separate power lines), and have a frequency of 60 cycles per second. This combination of voltage, phase, and frequency is the correct power supply for the mechanical refrigeration section.

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  • 21. 

    Which stage of the heater is energized through relay K8?

    • First.

    • Second.

    • Third.

    • Fourth.

    Correct Answer
    A. Second.
    Explanation
    Relay K8 is responsible for energizing the second stage of the heater. This means that when relay K8 is activated, it allows power to flow to the second stage, providing heat. The other stages (first, third, and fourth) are not energized through relay K8, indicating that the correct answer is the second stage.

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  • 22. 

    What has an effect on resistance-type US equipment caused by the voltage difference?

    • Increased torque.

    • Increased running temperatures.

    • Shorter life.

    • Longer life.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shorter life.
    Explanation
    The voltage difference has an effect on resistance-type US equipment by causing it to have a shorter life. This is because the higher the voltage difference, the greater the stress on the equipment, leading to increased wear and tear, and ultimately reducing its lifespan.

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  • 23. 

    What could possibly hold up repair of a central production plant?

    • Structural repairs only.

    • Electrical repair only.

    • Structural and electrical repairs.

    • Heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) system repairs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Structural and electrical repairs.
    Explanation
    The repair of a central production plant can be delayed if both structural and electrical repairs are required. Structural repairs involve fixing any damage or issues with the physical structure of the plant, such as walls, floors, or support beams. Electrical repairs, on the other hand, involve fixing any problems with the electrical systems and equipment within the plant. Both types of repairs are crucial for the proper functioning and safety of the plant, and any delays in either area can hold up the overall repair process.

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  • 24. 

    Which component of the immersion heater combustion chamber separates the combustion chamber and makes sure air fully circulates as it travels through the heater?

    • Burner compartment.

    • Flue compartment.

    • Vertical partition.

    • Vaporizer plate.

    Correct Answer
    A. Vertical partition.
    Explanation
    The vertical partition is the component of the immersion heater combustion chamber that separates the combustion chamber and ensures that air fully circulates as it travels through the heater. This partition helps to create a clear separation between the combustion process and the air intake, allowing for efficient and controlled heating.

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  • 25. 

    Which burner is used in a preway tent heater?

    • Vaporizing nozzle.

    • Vaporizing sleeve.

    • Vaporizing wick.

    • Vaporizing pot.

    Correct Answer
    A. Vaporizing pot.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Vaporizing pot." In a preway tent heater, the vaporizing pot is the burner that is used. This burner is responsible for vaporizing the fuel, allowing it to be burned and produce heat. The vaporizing pot is an essential component of the tent heater's heating system.

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  • 26. 

    When lighting a preway heater, you first press the reset lever of the fuel control valve down and turn the control knob to

    • The ON position.

    • The OFF position.

    • High fire.

    • Low fire.

    Correct Answer
    A. High fire.
    Explanation
    When lighting a preway heater, the correct sequence of actions is to first press the reset lever of the fuel control valve down and then turn the control knob to the high fire position. This is because pressing the reset lever ensures that any residual fuel is cleared from the system, and turning the control knob to the high fire position allows for maximum fuel flow and ignition, resulting in a higher flame and increased heat output.

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  • 27. 

    A fluctuating flame in a preway heater is caused by

    • The heater not being level.

    • An air lock in the fuel line.

    • A broken siphon tube.

    • Water in the oil.

    Correct Answer
    A. Water in the oil.
    Explanation
    A fluctuating flame in a preway heater is caused by water in the oil. Water in the oil can disrupt the combustion process by creating steam pockets that interfere with the flow of fuel. This can result in an inconsistent flame, causing it to fluctuate. The presence of water in the oil can be due to condensation or a leak in the system. It is important to address this issue promptly to ensure proper functioning of the heater.

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  • 28. 

    The operating temperature of a field boiler is?

    • 140°Fahrenheit (F).

    • 160°F.

    • 190°F.

    • 200°F.

    Correct Answer
    A. 160°F.
    Explanation
    The operating temperature of a field boiler is typically set at 160°F. This temperature allows for efficient heating and operation of the boiler without risking damage or inefficiency. Higher temperatures may cause overheating and potential damage to the boiler, while lower temperatures may not provide sufficient heat output. Therefore, 160°F is the optimal operating temperature for a field boiler.

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  • 29. 

    When checking the high limit control for operation during the checkout period, which component has a jumper wire installed?

    • Low-water probe.

    • Load limit switch.

    • Operating limit control.

    • Flame safeguard control.

    Correct Answer
    A. Operating limit control.
    Explanation
    During the checkout period, the high limit control is checked for operation. The component that has a jumper wire installed is the operating limit control. This jumper wire is used to bypass the control temporarily, allowing the system to continue operating even if the high limit is reached. This is done to test the control's response and ensure that it is functioning correctly.

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  • 30. 

    Proper oil level for the compressor is?

    • 1/8 to ½ a sight glass with the compressor off.

    • ¾ to ½ a sight glass with the compressor off.

    • 1/8 to ½ a sight glass with the compressor running.

    • ¾ to ½ a sight glass with the compressor running.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1/8 to ½ a sight glass with the compressor running.
    Explanation
    The proper oil level for the compressor is 1/8 to ½ a sight glass with the compressor running. This means that when the compressor is in operation, the oil level should be between 1/8 and ½ of the sight glass. This is important because the oil helps lubricate the moving parts of the compressor and ensures proper functioning. Having the correct oil level while the compressor is running helps maintain optimal performance and prevents damage to the compressor.

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  • 31. 

    What protects the compressor if it overheats?

    • Low pressure switch.

    • High pressure switch.

    • Circuit breaker.

    • Motor protector (TH).

    Correct Answer
    A. Motor protector (TH).
    Explanation
    The motor protector (TH) is designed to protect the compressor from overheating. It is a safety device that monitors the temperature of the compressor and automatically shuts it off if it exceeds a certain threshold. This helps prevent damage to the compressor and ensures its longevity. The low pressure switch and high pressure switch are not specifically designed to protect against overheating, and the circuit breaker is a general safety device that protects against electrical overloads. Therefore, the motor protector (TH) is the correct answer in this case.

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  • 32. 

    What type of material is the insulated container made of?

    • Steel.

    • Sheet metal.

    • Die cast metal.

    • Aluminum-skinned composite panels.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aluminum-skinned composite panels.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Aluminum-skinned composite panels. This type of material is commonly used for insulated containers because it provides good insulation properties while also being lightweight and durable. The aluminum skin provides protection and strength, while the composite panels provide insulation by trapping air between layers. This combination of materials makes it an ideal choice for keeping the contents of the container at a controlled temperature.

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  • 33. 

    What is the probable cause, on a bare base air conditioner, if the compressor stops on high pressure or high temperature?

    • Evaporator fan motor belt loose or slipping.

    • Defective crankcase heater.

    • Low refrigerant charge.

    • Dirty condenser coil.

    Correct Answer
    A. Dirty condenser coil.
    Explanation
    If the compressor stops on high pressure or high temperature, the most probable cause would be a dirty condenser coil. A dirty condenser coil can restrict airflow and prevent the proper heat transfer, causing the compressor to overheat and shut off. This can lead to high pressure or high temperature conditions. The other options listed, such as a loose or slipping evaporator fan motor belt, a defective crankcase heater, or low refrigerant charge, do not directly relate to high pressure or high temperature issues.

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  • 34. 

    Where are the preventive maintenance checks and services (PMCS) performed on the bare base unit found?

    • In the applicable technical manual.

    • Commercial manuals.

    • Air Force pamphlets.

    • On the unit.

    Correct Answer
    A. In the applicable technical manual.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "In the applicable technical manual." This is because preventive maintenance checks and services (PMCS) are typically performed according to the guidelines and procedures provided in the technical manual specific to the equipment or unit being maintained. These manuals outline the necessary steps, schedules, and requirements for conducting PMCS effectively and ensuring the proper functioning and longevity of the equipment. Commercial manuals and Air Force pamphlets may provide additional information or guidelines, but the primary source for PMCS procedures would be the applicable technical manual.

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  • 35. 

    What is the first thing assembled on the tent extendible modular personnel (TEMPER) tent?

    • Fly.

    • Tent frame.

    • End section.

    • Window sections.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tent frame.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is tent frame. The tent frame is the first thing assembled on the TEMPER tent. This is because the tent frame provides the structure and support for the tent, allowing it to stand upright and be functional. Once the tent frame is assembled, other components such as the fly, end sections, and window sections can be added to complete the tent. However, without the tent frame, the other components would not be able to be properly attached or supported.

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  • 36. 

    How do German circuit breakers differ from US circuit breakers?

    • They are larger because of the higher voltage and less current draw.

    • They are smaller because of the higher voltage and less current draw.

    • They are larger because of the higher voltage and higher current draw.

    • They are smaller because of the higher voltage and higher current draw.

    Correct Answer
    A. They are smaller because of the higher voltage and less current draw.
    Explanation
    German circuit breakers are smaller compared to US circuit breakers because they are designed to handle higher voltage and less current draw. The higher voltage allows for a smaller size since it requires less insulation and spacing between components. Additionally, the lower current draw reduces the heat generated, allowing for smaller components and overall size.

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  • 37. 

    How many strokes are required to prime a preway heater?

    • 1 to 3.

    • 2 to 4.

    • 3 to 5.

    • 4 to 6.

    Correct Answer
    A. 4 to 6.
    Explanation
    The question is asking about the number of strokes required to prime a preway heater. The correct answer is 4 to 6, which means that it can take anywhere between 4 to 6 strokes to prime the heater. This suggests that the process of priming the heater may vary and can require a different number of strokes each time.

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  • 38. 

    A noisy fuel pump in a field boiler is caused by the

    • Pump rotating in opposite direction.

    • Pump being out of adjustment.

    • Contactor being defective.

    • Suction line leaking.

    Correct Answer
    A. Suction line leaking.
    Explanation
    A noisy fuel pump in a field boiler can be caused by a suction line leaking. When there is a leak in the suction line, air can enter the system and mix with the fuel, causing turbulence and vibrations in the pump. This can result in a noisy operation. The other options, such as the pump rotating in the opposite direction, the pump being out of adjustment, or the contactor being defective, do not directly relate to the issue of a noisy fuel pump caused by a suction line leak.

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  • 39. 

    The heat output on a preway heater is increased by turning the control knob

    • Counterclockwise.

    • Clockwise.

    • Down.

    • Up.

    Correct Answer
    A. Counterclockwise.
    Explanation
    Turning the control knob counterclockwise increases the heat output on a preway heater. This is because counterclockwise rotation typically corresponds to increasing or opening the valve, allowing more fuel or heat to enter the system.

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  • 40. 

    Which safety control only functions if the operating limit control fails on a field boiler?

    • Low-water probe.

    • High limit control.

    • Load limit switch.

    • Flame safeguard control.

    Correct Answer
    A. High limit control.
    Explanation
    The high limit control is a safety control that only functions if the operating limit control fails on a field boiler. It is designed to prevent the boiler from exceeding its maximum temperature. If the operating limit control fails to regulate the temperature and it continues to rise, the high limit control will activate and shut down the boiler to prevent any potential damage or hazards.

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  • 41. 

    The relief valve on a shower shelter boiler automatically relieves excessive pressure if the water pressure exceeds?

    • 50 pounds per square inch (psi).

    • 45 psi.

    • 40 psi.

    • 35 psi.

    Correct Answer
    A. 50 pounds per square inch (psi).
    Explanation
    The relief valve on a shower shelter boiler automatically relieves excessive pressure if the water pressure exceeds 50 pounds per square inch (psi). This means that if the pressure in the boiler goes above 50 psi, the relief valve will open to release the excess pressure and prevent any potential damage or accidents.

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  • 42. 

    Which component is used to adjust for proper combustion?

    • Automatic operated air vents.

    • Hand operated air vents.

    • Automatic operated air band.

    • Hand operated air band.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hand operated air band.
    Explanation
    The hand operated air band is used to adjust for proper combustion. It allows the user to manually control the amount of air entering the combustion chamber, ensuring the right balance of oxygen for efficient and complete combustion. This adjustment is crucial for achieving optimal fuel efficiency and reducing emissions. Automatic operated air vents and air bands may not provide the same level of control and precision as the hand operated ones.

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  • 43. 

    Once a field boiler is operating and you notice a fuel pressure of 100 pounds per square inch (psi), what action should you take?

    • Remove the end cap from the side of the pump and turn the pressure regulating set screw clockwise until you get a proper reading.

    • Remove the end cap from the top of pump and turn the pressure regulating set screw clockwise until you get a proper reading.

    • Remove the end cap from the side of pump and turn the pressure regulating set screw counterclockwise until you get a proper reading.

    • Remove the end cap from the top of pump and turn the pressure regulating set screw counterclockwise until you get a proper reading.

    Correct Answer
    A. Remove the end cap from the side of pump and turn the pressure regulating set screw counterclockwise until you get a proper reading.
    Explanation
    When the fuel pressure is too high (100 psi), the action to be taken is to reduce the pressure. To do this, the end cap should be removed from the side of the pump and the pressure regulating set screw should be turned counterclockwise until a proper reading is obtained. This will decrease the pressure and bring it to the desired level.

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  • 44. 

    During nozzle repair, you have to remove the nozzle screen. How is this task done?

    • Using a hexagonal wrench and turning counterclockwise.

    • Using a hexagonal wrench and turning clockwise.

    • Turning the screen counterclockwise by hand.

    • Turning the screen clockwise by hand.

    Correct Answer
    A. Turning the screen counterclockwise by hand.
    Explanation
    To remove the nozzle screen during repair, it is done by turning the screen counterclockwise by hand. This means that the screen should be rotated in the opposite direction of the clockwise motion. No additional tools such as a hexagonal wrench are required for this task.

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  • 45. 

    Which item is inspected for scaling or deterioration?

    • Electrode on burner assembly.

    • Electrode rod on low-water probe.

    • Manual shutoff valve.

    • Magnetic fuel valve.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrode rod on low-water probe.
    Explanation
    The electrode rod on the low-water probe is inspected for scaling or deterioration. Scaling refers to the buildup of mineral deposits on the electrode, which can affect its performance. Deterioration refers to any damage or wear that may have occurred on the electrode rod. Regular inspection of the electrode rod is important to ensure that it is functioning properly and to prevent any potential issues with the equipment.

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  • 46. 

    Within what temperature range is the 150 cubic foot refrigeration unit designed to operate?

    • –5 to 25° Fahrenheit (F).

    • 0 to 25°F.

    • –5 to 35°F.

    • 0 to 35°F.

    Correct Answer
    A. 0 to 35°F.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 0 to 35°F. This means that the 150 cubic foot refrigeration unit is designed to operate within a temperature range of 0 to 35°F.

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  • 47. 

    During a normal defrost cycle, the defrost timer switch energizes the

    • Fan motor and deenergizes the solenoid valve.

    • Solenoid valve and deenergizes the fan motor.

    • Compressor and deenergizes the fan motor.

    • Fan motor and deenergizes the compressor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Solenoid valve and deenergizes the fan motor.
    Explanation
    During a normal defrost cycle, the defrost timer switch activates the solenoid valve, allowing it to open and deenergizes the fan motor, causing it to stop. This allows for the flow of hot air to defrost the evaporator coils, while preventing the fan from blowing cold air into the freezer.

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  • 48. 

    When moving the advanced design refrigeration–300 (ADR), what is the minimum capacity of the equipment used?

    • 4,000 pounds (lbs).

    • 6,000 lbs.

    • 8,000 lbs.

    • 10,000 lbs.

    Correct Answer
    A. 10,000 lbs.
    Explanation
    The minimum capacity of the equipment used when moving the advanced design refrigeration-300 (ADR) is 10,000 pounds (lbs). This means that the equipment must be able to handle a minimum weight of 10,000 lbs in order to safely transport the ADR.

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  • 49. 

    What power source is required for the bare base air conditioner?

    • Three-phase, four-wire, 208/220-volt direct current (VDC).

    • Three-phase, three-wire, 208/220-VDC.

    • Three-phase, four-wire, 208/220-volt alternating current (VAC).

    • Three-phase, three-wire, 208/220-VAC.

    Correct Answer
    A. Three-phase, four-wire, 208/220-volt alternating current (VAC).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Three-phase, four-wire, 208/220-volt alternating current (VAC)." This means that the bare base air conditioner requires a power source that provides three-phase electricity, with four wires, and a voltage of either 208 or 220 volts. The use of alternating current (AC) is also specified, indicating that the power source should provide electricity that periodically reverses direction.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 17, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 17, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 27, 2017
    Quiz Created by
    XxxHitman21xxx
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