1.
Myra is ordered laboratory tests after she is admitted to the hospitalfor angina. The isoenzyme test that is the most reliable early indicatorof myocardial insult is
Correct Answer
A. CK-MB
Explanation
The cardiac marker, Creatinine phosphokinase (CPK) isoenzyme levels, especially the MB sub-unit which is cardio-specific, begin to rise in 3-6 hours, peak in 12-18 hours and are elevated 48 hours after the occurrence of the infarct. They are therefore most reliable in assisting
with early diagnosis. The cardiac markers elevate as a result of
myocardial tissue damage.
2.
Joey is a 46 year-old radio technician who is admitted because ofmild chest pain. He is 5 feet, 8 inches tall and weighs 190 pounds. He isdiagnosed with a myocardial infarct. Morphine sulfate, Diazepam (Valium)and Lidocaine are prescribed. The physician orders 8 mg of MorphineSulfate to be given IV. The vial on hand is labeled 1 ml/ 10 mg. Thenurse should administer:
Correct Answer
A. 12 minims
Explanation
Using ratio and proportion 8 mg/10 mg = X minims/15 minims 10 X= 120
X = 12 minims. The nurse will administer 12 minims intravenously
equivalent to 8mg Morphine Sulfate
3.
An early finding in the EKG of a client with an infarcted mycardiumwould be:
Correct Answer
A. Elevated ST segments
Explanation
This is a typical early finding after a myocardial infarct because of the
altered contractility of the heart. The other choices are not typical of MI.
4.
Mr. Ong, a client with CHF, has been receiving a cardiac glycoside, adiuretic, and a vasodilator drug. His apical pulse rate is 44 and he is onbed rest. The nurse concludes that his pulse rate is most likely the resultof the:
Correct Answer
A. Cardiac glycoside
Explanation
A cardiac glycoside such as digitalis increases force of cardiac contraction, decreases the conduction speed of impulses within the myocardium and slows the heart rate.
5.
After the acute phase of congestive heart failure, the nurse shouldexpect the dietary management of the client to include the restriction of:
Correct Answer
A. Sodium
Explanation
Restriction of sodium reduces the amount of water retention that reduces
the cardiac workload
6.
Mr. Ong is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Left-sided CHF.In the assessment, the nurse should expect to find:
Correct Answer
A. Dyspnea on exertion
Explanation
Pulmonary congestion and edema occur because of fluid extravasation from
the pulmonary capillary bed, resulting in difficult breathing. Left-sided heart failure creates a backward effect on the pulmonary system that leads to pulmonary congestion.
7.
What would be the primary goal of therapy for a client withpulmonary edema and heart failure?
Correct Answer
A. Increase cardiac output
Explanation
The primary goal of therapy for the client with pulmonary edema or heart failure is increasing cardiac output. Pulmonary edema is an acute medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
8.
During the second day of hospitalization of the client aftera Myocardial Infarction. Which of thefollowing is an expected outcome?
Correct Answer
A. Able to perform self-care activities without pain
Explanation
By the second day of hospitalization after suffering
a Myocardial Infarction, Clients are able to perform care without chest pain
9.
Upon admission to an intensive care unit, a client diagnosed with anacute myocardialinfarction is ordered oxygen. The nurse knows that the major reason thatoxygen
Correct Answer
A. Increase oxygen level in the myocardium
Explanation
Anoxia of the myocardium occurs in myocardial infarction. Oxygen administration will help relieve dyspnea and cyanosis associated with the condition but the major purpose is to increase the oxygen concentration in the damaged myocardial tissue.
10.
A 66 year-old client is admitted for mitral valve replacement surgery.The client has ahistory of mitral valve regurgitation and mitral stenosis since her teenageyears. During theadmission assessment, the nurse should ask the client if as a child shehad
Correct Answer
A. Rheumatic fever
Explanation
Clients that present with mitral stenosis often have a history
of rheumatic fever or bacterial endocarditis
11.
Electrocardiogarphy (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to evaluate theelectrical activity of the heart. Which of the following ECG results wouldreveal that there is myocardial ischemia?
Correct Answer
A. ST segment elevation and inverted T wave
Explanation
The ECG reading of a client who had myocardial ischemia would reveal an inverted T wave and ST segment elevation. The ECG tracing of a client with myocardial injury is characterized by a symmetric and peaked T wave and at least 1 mm ST segment elevation while myocardial infarction will show an abnormal or pathologic Q wave that develops within 1-3 days after MI.
12.
A client has been diagnosed with hypertension. The nurse prioritynursing diagnosis would be
Correct Answer
A. Ineffective health maintenance
Explanation
Managing hypertension is the priority for the client with hypertension. Clients with hypertension frequently do not experience pain, deficient volume or impaired skin integrity. It is the asymptomatic nature of hypertension that makes it so difficult to treat.
13.
Which of the following represents a significant risk immediately aftersurgery for repair of aortic aneurysm?
Correct Answer
A. Potential alteration in renal perfusion
Explanation
There is a potential alteration in renal perfusion manifested by decreased urine output. The altered renal perfusion may be related to renal artery embolism, prolonged hypotension, or prolonged aortic cross clamping during the surgery.
14.
The following are lipid abnormalities. Which of the following is a riskfactor for the development of atherosclerosis and PVD?
Correct Answer
A. High levels of low density lipid (LDL) cholesterol
Explanation
An increased in LDL cholesterol concentration has been documented at risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis. LDL cholesterol is not broken down into the liver but is deposited into the wall of the blood vessels.
15.
Patrick who is hospitalized following a myocardial infarction asksthe nurse why he is taking morphine. The nurse explains that morphine:
Correct Answer
A. Prevents shock and relieves pain
Explanation
Morphine is a central nervous system depressant used to relieve the pain associated with myocardial infarction, it also decreases apprehension and prevents cardiogenic shock.
16.
Nurse Trisha teaches a client with heart failure to take oralFurosemide in the morning. The reason for this is to help.
Correct Answer
A. Prevents sleep disturbances during night
Explanation
When diuretics are taken in the morning, client will void frequently during daytime and will not need to void frequently at night.
17.
Dr. Marquez orders a continuous intravenous nitroglycerin infusion forthe client suffering from myocardial infarction. Which of the following isthe most essential nursing action?
Correct Answer
A. Obtaining infusion pump for the medication
Explanation
Administration of Intravenous Nitroglycerin infusion requires
pump for accurate control of medication
18.
Nurse Maureen would expect the client with mitral stenosis woulddemonstrate symptoms associated with congestion in the:
Correct Answer
A. Pulmonary
Explanation
When mitral stenosis is present, the left atrium has difficulty
emptying its contents into the left ventricle because there is no valve to
prevent back ward flow into the pulmonary vein; the pulmonary
circulation is under pressure
19.
A client who has been diagnosed of hypertension is being taught torestrict intake of sodium. The nurse would know that the teachings areeffective if the client states that…
Correct Answer
A. I can eat shredded wheat cereal
Explanation
Wheat cereal has low sodium content.
20.
Which of the following should the nurse teach the client about thesigns of digitalis toxicity?
Correct Answer
A. Visual disturbances such as seeing yellow spots
Explanation
Seeing yellow spots and colored vision are common symptoms of
digitalis toxicity
21.
A client received digoxin (Lanoxin) therapy o treat the irregularbeating of his heart. The nurse knows that the therapy has beeneffective when the client with atrial fibrillation has an ECG tracingshowing:
Correct Answer
A. A heart rate of 70 beats per minute
Explanation
When the heart rate is above 60 beats per minute and below
10 beats per minute, digoxin therapy is deemed effective. However, if too
much digoxin was administered to the client, Mobitz II heart block may
be present.
22.
Cardiomyopathy is a serious disease in which the heart muscleweakens and there is an evident change in the cardiac structure. Thereare three types of cardiomyopathy namely: dilated, hypertonic andrestrictive. When assessing a client with left-sided heart failure, thenurse would observe:
Correct Answer
A. Air hunger and tachypnea
Explanation
The client with left-sided heart failure usually has pulmonary
congestion, orthopnea, hemoptysis and experiences dyspnea and coughing.
Right sided heart failure is characterized by hepatomegaly, edema, ascites
and distended neck veins. Right sided heart failure is another complication
of cardiomyopathy.
23.
You are providing care for a patient with Arterial Occlusive Disease,and writing a Nursing Care Plan. One of your interventions is to positionthe patient's legs below the level of the heart. From which of thefollowing Nursing Diagnoses is the above intervention MOST LIKELY derivedfrom:
Correct Answer
A. Altered Tissue Perfusion
Explanation
Patients with Arterial Occlusive Disease have decreased
perfusion of tissues. By placing the patient in a dependent position,
blood flow to the lower extremities is enhanced, and, therefore, the
nursing diagnosis for this intervention would be Altered Tissue Perfusion
24.
An 18 month old with Tetralogy of Fallot has a "tet" spell afterhaving an invasive procedure. To improve the child's cardiac statuswhich of the following interventions should the nurse do initially:
Correct Answer
A. Place the child in a knee chest position
Explanation
A "tet" spell is when the child is having difficulty meeting
oxygen demands. The knee chest position reduces venous blood return from
the lower extremities and increases vascular resistance to divert blood
flow to the pulmonary artery.
25.
A patient has received thromboembolytic therapy following aMyocardial Infarction with Streoptokinase. Which of the following drugsshould the nurse have on hand if the patient develops excessive bleedingor hemorrhage?
Correct Answer
A. Aminocaproic Acid (Amicar)
Explanation
The major complication of thromboembolytic therapy is
hemorrhage, and the antidote for this is Amicar, which aids in the
stoppage of bleeding by inhibiting plasminogen, which inhibits
thrombolysis. This drug should be available for any patient on this type
of thromboembolytic therapy. Protamine Sulfate and Vitamin K are the
antidotes for Heparin and Coumadin, respectively. Heparin is not correct,
as it is an anticoagulant.
26.
Valsalva maneuver can result in bradycardia. Which of the followingactivities will not stimulate Valsalva’s maneuver?
Correct Answer
A. Use of stool softeners
Explanation
Straining or bearing down activities can cause vagal stimulation
that leads to bradycardia. Use of stool softeners promote easy bowel
evacuation that prevents straining or the valsalva maneuver.
27.
A 66 year-old client is admitted for mitral valve replacement surgery.The client has ahistory of mitral valve regurgitation and mitral stenosis since her teenageyears. During theadmission assessment, the nurse should ask the client if as a child shehad
Correct Answer
A. Rheumatic fever
Explanation
Clients that present with mitral stenosis often have a history
of rheumatic fever or bacterial endocarditis.
28.
A woman in her third trimester complains of severe heartburn. Whatis appropriate teaching by the nurse to help the woman alleviate thesesymptoms?
Correct Answer
A. Sleep with head propped on several pillows
Explanation
Heartburn is a burning sensation caused by regurgitation of
gastric contents that is best relieved by sleeping position, eating small
meals, and not eating before bedtime.
29.
A nurse is caring for a 2 year-old child after corrective surgery forTetralogy of Fallot. The mother reports that the child has suddenly begunseizing. The nurse recognizes this problem is probably due to
Correct Answer
A. A cerebral vascular accident
Explanation
Polycythemia occurs as a physiological reaction to chronic
hypoxemia which commonly occurs in clients with Tetralogy of Fallot.
Polycythemia and the resultant increased viscosity of the blood increase
the risk of thromboembolic events. Cerebrovascular accidents may occur.
Signs and symptoms include sudden paralysis, altered speech, extreme
irritability or fatigue, and seizures.
30.
A client is scheduled for a percutaneous transluminal coronaryangioplasty (PTCA). The nurse knows that a PTCA is the
Correct Answer
A. Procedure that compresses plaque against the wall of the diseased coronary artery to improve blood flow
Explanation
PTCA (percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty) is
performed to improve coronary artery blood flow in a diseased artery. It
is performed during a cardiac catheterization. Aorta coronary bypass
Graft is the surgical procedure to repair a diseased coronary artery.
31.
To prevent a valsalva maneuver in a client recovering from an acutemyocardial infarction, the nurse would
Correct Answer
A. Administer stool softeners every day as ordered
Explanation
Administering stool softeners every day will prevent straining
on defecation which causes the Valsalva maneuver. If constipation occurs
then laxatives would be necessary to prevent straining. If straining on
defecation produced the valsalva maneuver and rhythm disturbances
resulted then antidysrhythmics would be appropriate.
32.
Which of the ff. statements by the client to the nurse indicates arisk factor for CAD?
Correct Answer
A. “I smoke 1 1/2 packs of cigarettes per day.”
Explanation
“I smoke 1 1/2 packs of cigarettes per day.” Smoking has
been considered as one of the major modifiable risk factors for coronary
artery disease. Exercise and maintaining normal serum cholesterol levels
help in its prevention.
33.
The nurse is teaching the patient regarding his permanent artificialpacemaker. Which information given by the nurse shows her knowledgedeficit about the artificial cardiac pacemaker?.
Correct Answer
A. May engage in contact sports
Explanation
The client should be advised by the nurse to avoid contact
sports. This will prevent trauma to the area of the pacemaker generator.
34.
A client with chronic heart failure has been placed on a dietrestricted to 2000mg. of sodium per day. The client demonstratesadequate knowledge if behaviors are evident such as not salting food andavoidance of which food?
Correct Answer
A. Canned sardines
Explanation
Canned foods are generally rich in sodium content as salt is
used as the main preservative.