Nsg 323 Final Practice Test

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1. The home health nurse visits a 50 y/o breast cancer patient with metastatic breast cancer who is receiving palliative care. The patient is experiencing pain at a level of 7 out of 10. In prioritizing activities for the visit you would do which of the following first?

Explanation

Meeting the patients physiologic and safety needs is the priority. Physical care focuses on the need for oxygen, nutrition, pain relied, mobility, elimination, and skin care. The pt is not experiencing oxygenation problems; the priority is to treat the severe pain with pain medication.

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About This Quiz
Nsg 323 Final Practice Test - Quiz

This NSG 323 Final Practice Test assesses critical nursing competencies in respiratory care, prioritizing patient needs, and understanding biochemical imbalances. It prepares learners for real-world nursing challenges, emphasizing... see moreasthma management and respiratory assessments. see less

2. A patient with a potassium level of 2.1 has been taking Lasix daily. What medication will the patient most likely be switched to?

Explanation

A potassium level of 2.1 indicates severe hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Lasix (furosemide) is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss. Therefore, the patient will most likely be switched to Spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Spironolactone helps to retain potassium in the body and can help correct the low potassium levels caused by Lasix. Hydrochlorothiazide and bumetanide are also diuretics but are not potassium-sparing like Spironolactone.

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3. The nurse providing care for a patient with suspected cancer recalls that the only diagnostic procedure that is definitive for a diagnosis of cancer is:

Explanation

Only a biopsy is a definitive means of diagnosing cancer because it actually identifies the pathological cells.

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4. Nurse Channing is caring for four clients and is preparing to do his initial rounds. Which client should the nurse assess first?

Explanation

The patient with problem of the airway should be given highest priority. Remember Airway, Breathing, and Circulation (ABC) is a priority.

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5. The hospice care nurse is conducting a spiritual care assessment. Which statement is the scientific rationale for this intervention?

Explanation

The scientific rationale for conducting a spiritual care assessment is that spirituality provides a sense of meaning and purpose for many clients. This means that understanding and addressing a client's spiritual needs can contribute to their overall well-being and quality of life. It recognizes the importance of spirituality in the holistic care of individuals, acknowledging that it can play a significant role in their physical, emotional, and psychological well-being.

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6. In staging and grading neoplasm TNM system is used. TNM stands for:

Explanation

The correct answer is "Tumor, Node, Metastasis." The TNM system is used for staging and grading neoplasms, which refers to the extent and spread of cancer in the body. "Tumor" refers to the size and invasiveness of the primary tumor, "Node" refers to the involvement of nearby lymph nodes, and "Metastasis" refers to the presence of cancer cells in distant organs or tissues. This system helps in determining the prognosis and guiding treatment decisions for cancer patients.

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7. A patient with nasogastric suctioning is experiencing diarrhea. The patient is ordered a morning dose of Lasix 20mg IV. Patient's potassium level is 3.0. What is your next nursing intervention?

Explanation

The correct answer is to hold the dose of Lasix and notify the doctor for further orders. Diarrhea can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances, including low potassium levels. Lasix is a diuretic that can further decrease potassium levels. Therefore, it is important to hold the dose and notify the doctor to assess the patient's condition and determine if any adjustments need to be made to the medication regimen.

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8. A patient reports during a routine check-up that he is experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath while performing activities. He states the pain goes away when he rests. This is known as:

Explanation

Stable angina occurs during activities but goes away when the patient rests. Variant and Prinzmetal angina are the same and occur at rest during cycles. Unstable angina is chest pain felt during rest and is more severe.

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9. A patient calls the cardiac clinic you are working at and reports that they have taken 3 sublingual doses of Nitroglycerin as prescribed for chest pain, but the chest pain is not relieved. What do you educate the patient to do next?

Explanation

If a patient's chest pain is not relieved with 3 doses of Nitroglycerin, taken 5 minutes apart, they should call 911 immediately. The patient should never exceed more than 3 doses of Nitroglycerin or take 2 doses at one time.

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10. A hospice nurse is visiting with a dying patient. During the interaction the patient is silent for some time. What is the best response?

Explanation

Frequently silence is related to the overwhelming feelings experienced at the end of life. Silence can also allow time to gather thoughts. Listening to the silence sends a message of acceptance and comfort.

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11. After change of shift, you are assigned to care for the following patients. Which patient should you assess first?  

Explanation

The patient with asthma did not achieve relief from shortness of breath after using the bronchodilator and is at risk for respiratory complications. This patient’s needs are urgent. The other patients need to be assessed as soon as possible, but none of their situations are urgent. in COPD patients pulse oximetry oxygen saturations of more than 90% are acceptable.

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12. The nurse reviews the chart of the client admitted with a diagnosis of glioblastoma with a T1NXM0 classification. Which explanation does the nurse offer when the client asks what the terminology means?

Explanation

T1 means that the tumor is increasing in size to about 2 cm, and that no regional lymph nodes are present in the brain. M0 means no distant metastasis has occurred.

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13. Which of the following blood tests is most indicative of cardiac damage?

Explanation

Option C: Troponin I levels rise rapidly and are detectable within 1 hour of myocardial injury. Troponin I levels aren’t detectable in people without cardiac injury.

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14. What assessment is used when monitoring cellulitis?

Explanation

When monitoring cellulitis, marking the initial border and monitoring change is the appropriate assessment to use. Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection that can spread rapidly, so it is important to track the progression of the infection. By marking the initial border and monitoring any changes, such as increased redness, swelling, or spreading of the infection, healthcare providers can assess the effectiveness of treatment and determine if further intervention is necessary. Monitoring drainage amount or color on dressing and assessing pain may provide additional information, but they are not specific to monitoring cellulitis.

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15. When taking a health history, the nurse screens for manifestations suggestive of Diabetes Type I. Which of the following manifestations are considered the primary manifestations of Diabetes Type I and would be most suggestive and require follow-up investigation?

Explanation

An increase in three areas: thirst, intake of fluids, and hunger are considered the primary manifestations of Diabetes Type I. These symptoms are indicative of excessive glucose levels in the blood, which leads to increased thirst and fluid intake to try and dilute the glucose. The increased hunger is a result of the body's inability to properly use glucose for energy. These symptoms would require follow-up investigation to confirm a diagnosis of Diabetes Type I.

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16. A nurse is educating a patient about their new pacemaker, what should the nurse teach the patient to monitor.

Explanation

The nurse should teach the patient to monitor their heart rate. This is important because the pacemaker is responsible for regulating the patient's heart rate. By monitoring their heart rate, the patient can ensure that the pacemaker is functioning properly and that their heart is beating at a normal rate. This can help in identifying any potential issues or abnormalities with the pacemaker or the patient's heart rhythm.

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17. You have obtained the following assessment information about a 3-year old who has just returned to the pediatric unit after having a tonsillectomy. Which finding requires the most immediate follow-up?

Explanation

Frequent swallowing after a tonsillectomy may indicate bleeding. You should inspect the back of the throat for evidence of bleeding. The other assessment results are not unusual in a 3-year old after surgery

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18. The nurse is teaching the mother on how to take meticulous care of her child who is experiencing failure to thrive. The mother would not be correct in saying:

Explanation

Talk to the child in a warm, soothing tone to provide sensory stimulation.
A, B, D: All these options are correct interventions for a child who has failure to thrive.

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19. A nurse has taught a client about dietary changes that can reduce the chances of developing cancer. What statement by the client indicates the nurse needs to provide additional teaching?

Explanation

To decrease the risk of developing cancer, one should cut down on the consumption of red meats and animal fat. The other statements are correct.

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20. Which client problem does the nurse set as the priority for the client experiencing chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy?

Explanation

Safety is always priority.

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21. The client tells the nurse, "Every time I come in the hospital you hand me one of these advanced directives (AD) why should I fill one of these out?" Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate?

Explanation

An AD lets you participate in decisions about your health care. This statement is the most appropriate response because it accurately explains the purpose of an advanced directive. It emphasizes the client's autonomy and their ability to have a say in their own healthcare decisions. It also highlights the importance of the client's involvement in their own care planning process.

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22. Which of the following patients is not a candidate for a beta blocker medication?

Explanation

A 39 year old female with asthma is not a candidate for a beta blocker medication because beta blockers can cause bronchoconstriction and worsen symptoms in patients with asthma.

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23. The public health nurse is giving a lecture on potential outbreaks of infectious meningitis. Which population is most at risk for an outbreak? 

Explanation

Outbreaks of infectious meningitis are most likely to occur in dense community groups such as college campuses, jails, and military installations.

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24. A patient has a potassium level of 2.0. What would you expect to be ordered for this patient?

Explanation

A potassium level of 2.0 is considered critically low (normal range is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L). To correct this deficiency, the most appropriate and effective method would be to administer potassium intravenously through an infusion. This allows for a controlled and gradual increase in potassium levels, ensuring patient safety and preventing complications associated with rapid administration. Oral supplements may not be effective in cases of severe deficiency, and intramuscular injections may not provide the immediate correction needed.

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25. You are visiting with the wife of a patient who is having difficulty making the transition to palliative care for her dying husband. What is the most desirable outcome for the couple?

Explanation

The grief experience for the caregiver of the patient with a chronic illness often begins long before the death. This is called anticipatory grief. Acceptance of the expected loss is associated with more positive outcomes.

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26. Which of the following patients are MOST at risk for developing endocarditis? Select-all-that-apply:

Explanation

Options A, B, and D are all risks for developing endocarditis. Remember that any thing that allows entry of bacteria into the system can potentially cause endocarditis. Option C is not relevant.

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27. Which of the following instructions would Nurse Courtney include in a teaching plan that focuses on initial prevention for Sheri who is diagnosed with rheumatic fever?

Explanation

Rheumatoid fever results from improperly treated group beta-hemolytic streptococcal infections, usually pharyngitis. Therefore, prompt treatment of streptococcal throat infections with an antibiotic is a key preventive measure.

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28. A client is on chemotherapy and has a platelet count of 25,000. Which intervention is most important to teach the client?

Explanation

This client has thrombocytopenia which is a common s/e of chemotherapy. This increases the clients risk for prolonged bleeding in response to even minor injury.

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29. The client is diagnosed w Type 1 diabetes has an A1C of 8.1%. Which interpretation should the nurse make based on this result

Explanation

The nurse should interpret that the A1C result of 8.1% is above the recommended levels. A1C is a test that measures the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. For individuals with type 1 diabetes, the target A1C level is usually below 7%. Therefore, a result of 8.1% indicates that the client's blood sugar levels have been consistently higher than the recommended range. This may indicate poor glycemic control and the need for adjustments in the client's diabetes management plan.

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30. A 36 year old male is newly diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. Which of the following treatments do you expect the patient to be started on initially?

Explanation

The initial treatment for a newly diagnosed patient with Type 2 diabetes is usually a diet and exercise regime. This is because lifestyle modifications, such as healthy eating and regular physical activity, can help improve blood sugar control and reduce the need for medication. It is important to promote weight loss and a healthy lifestyle as the first step in managing Type 2 diabetes. Medications like Metformin or insulin may be added later if lifestyle changes alone are not sufficient to control blood sugar levels.

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31. A family member asks the nurse to explain the purpose of hospice care. Which of the following is the best response? Hospice care:

Explanation

Hospice care focuses on holistic care of patients actively dying or not expected to improve. It helps patients face death with dignity and comfort. Euthanasia refers to the deliberate ending of a life. Palliative care is aggressively planned care that manages symptoms of patients whose disease process no longer responds to treatment. Aggressive medical treatment is aimed at stopping the disease process.

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32. A nurse is going to visit a client who needs assistance with personal hygiene and feeding. Which of the following suggestions should be made to the family?

Explanation

The only thing the RN can do id the care needed is maintenance and assistance with ADLs is suggest a HHA if the family can afford it, or teach the family how to help the client.

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33. A home care nurse provides instructions to the mother of an infant with cleft palate regarding feeding. Which statement if made by the mother indicates a need for further instructions?

Explanation

An infant with cleft palate would have difficulty in feeding despite stimulation for sucking.

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34. You're providing education to a patient who will be undergoing a heart catheterization. Which statement by the patient requires you to re-educate the patient about this procedure?

Explanation

The femoral or radial artery is used during a heart cath...not the brachial.

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35. pH 7.17 PaCO2 48 HCO3- 36

Explanation

The given values indicate a pH level below the normal range (7.35-7.45), which suggests acidosis. The elevated PaCO2 (partial pressure of carbon dioxide) of 48 indicates respiratory acidosis, as an increase in PaCO2 leads to an increase in carbonic acid and a decrease in pH. The HCO3- (bicarbonate) level of 36 is within the normal range (22-28), ruling out metabolic acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is respiratory acidosis.

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36. When developing a teaching session on glaucoma for the community. Which of the following statements would the nurse stress?

Explanation

Open-angle glaucoma causes painless increase in intraocular pressure (IOP) with loss of peripheral vision. A variety of miotics and agents to decrease IOP and occasional surgery are used to treat glaucoma. Blacks have a threefold greater chance of developing with an increased chance of blindness than other groups. Individuals older than 40 should be screened.

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37. The healthcare provider is admitting a patient with a diagnosis of iron-deficiency anemia. The patient's skin and conjunctiva are pale, the tongue is smooth and red, and there are sores on the corners of the mouth. Which additional assessment finding will the healthcare provider identify as related to the iron-deficiency anemia?

Explanation

Spoon-shaped nails, also known as koilonychia, are a classic sign of iron-deficiency anemia. In this condition, the nails become thin and concave, resembling a spoon. This occurs due to a decrease in the production of hemoglobin, which is responsible for carrying oxygen to the nails. Therefore, the presence of spoon-shaped nails suggests that the patient's iron-deficiency anemia is causing this abnormal nail shape.

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38. The nurse is administering a combination of three different antineoplatic drugs to a patient who has metastatic breast cancer. Which statement best describes the rationale for combination therapy?

Explanation

Exposure to multiple mechanisms and sites of action will destroy more sub-populations of cells.

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39. An experienced LPN, under the supervision of the team leader RN, is providing nursing care for a patient with a respiratory problem. Which actions are appropriate to the scope of practice of an experienced LPN? Select all that apply.  

Explanation

The experienced LPN is capable of gathering data and making observations, including noting breath sounds and performing pulse oximetry. Administering medications, such as those delivered via MDIs, is within the scope of practice of the LPN. Independently completing the admission assessment, initiating the nursing care plan, and evaluating a patient’s abilities require additional education and skills. These actions are within the scope of practice of the professional RN.

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40. When a patient has long-term atrial fibrillation, the nurse would expect to include which drug in the plan of care to minimize the greatest risk that is commonly associated with atrial fibrillation?

Explanation

c.) is correct because it reflects the greatest risk or complication of thrombi or emboli that occurs with long-term atrial fibrillation. Coumadin is often given prophylactically to prevent stroke, clots, or emboli from developing when hospitalizing a patient with long-term atrial fibrillation.

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41. Which of the following are NOT typical signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure? Select-all-that-apply:

Explanation

Persistent cough, crackles (also called rales), and orthopnea are signs and symptoms of LEFT-sided heart failure...not right-sided heart failure.

Left= Lungs Right = Body

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42. What is the primary reason for administering morphine to a client with myocardial infarction?

Explanation

Answer: D. To decrease oxygen demand on the client’s heart

Option D: Morphine is administered because it decreases myocardial oxygen demand.
Options A, B, and C: Morphine will also decrease pain and anxiety while causing sedation, but isn’t primarily given for those reasons.

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43. The client received 10 units of Humulin R, a fast acting insulin, at 0700. At the 1030 the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) tells the nurse the client has a headache and is really acting "funny." Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Explanation

The correct answer is to go to the client's room and assess the client for hypoglycemia. This is the first intervention the nurse should implement because the client's symptoms of a headache and acting "funny" could be signs of hypoglycemia, which is a potential complication of receiving fast-acting insulin. Assessing the client's condition will help determine if their symptoms are due to low blood glucose levels and if immediate treatment is needed. Obtaining blood glucose, having the patient drink orange juice, and preparing to administer dextrose may be necessary interventions, but assessing the client's condition is the priority.

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44. Which patient(s) are most at risk for developing coronary artery disease? Select-all-that-apply:

Explanation

Remember risk factors for developing CAD include: smoking, family history, diabetes, being overweight or obese, and high cholesterol.

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45. Which of the following treatment goals is best for the client with status asthmatics?

Explanation

Inhaled beta-adrenergic agents, I.V. corticosteroids, and supplemental oxygen are used to reduce bronchospasm, improve oxygenation, and avoid intubation. Determining the trigger for the client’s attack and improving exercise tolerance are later goals. Typically, secretions aren’t a problem in status asthmaticus.

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46. As the nurse admits a patient in end-stage kidney disease to the hospital, the patient tells the nurse, "If my heart or breathing stop, I do not want to be resuscitated. "which action is best for the nurse to take?"

Explanation

A health care provider's order should be written describing the actions that the nurses should take if the patient requires CPR, but the primary right to decide belongs to the patient or family. The nurse should document the patient's request but does not have the authority to place the DNR order in the care plan.

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47. A 6 year-old is admitted with sickle cell crisis. The patient has a FACE scale rating of 10 and the following vital signs: HR 115, BP 120/82, RR 18, oxygen saturation 91%, temperature 101.4'F. Select all the appropriate nursing interventions for this patient at this time?

Explanation

To help alleviate the RBCs from clumping together and sickling, oxygen and hydration are priority. In addition, pain needs to be addressed. Opioid medication is the best on a scheduled basis rather than PRN (as needed). Avoid keeping patient NPO unless needed (remember patient needs hydration). Avoid cold compresses (can lead to more sickling) but instead use warm compresses. The patient will need FOLIC ACID supplements to help with RBC creation rather than iron (iron can actually build up in the body and collect in the organs in patients with sickle cell disease). Patients definitely need to be on bedrest, and restrictive clothing or objects (blood pressure cuff etc.) should be removed to help blood flow.

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48. Which precaution is most important for the nurse to teach a client reciving radiation therapy for head and neck cancer?

Explanation

Radiation therapy that is directed in or around the oral cavity has a variety of actions that increase the risk for dental cavities and tooth decay. The salivary glands are affected, which changes the composition of the person's saliva and often causes "dry mouth."

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49.  pH 7.6 PaCO2 53  HCO3- 38  

Explanation

The given pH value of 7.6 indicates alkalosis, which means the blood is more basic than normal. The elevated HCO3- level of 38 suggests a primary metabolic alkalosis. The PaCO2 level of 53 is not consistent with respiratory acidosis, as it would be expected to be elevated in that case. Therefore, the most appropriate explanation for the given values is metabolic alkalosis.

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50. For a client having an episode of acute narrow-angle glaucoma a nurse expects ti give which of the following medications.

Explanation

pilocarpine is a miotic and it constrict pupils facilitates outflow of aqueous humor. Atropine dilates the pupil and decreases intraocular pressure by decreasing the secretion of aqueous humor, causing further increase of IOP. Lasix is a loop diuretic. Urokinase is a thrombolytic agent.

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51. A patient is being discharged home on Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) for treatment of hypertension. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates they understood your discharge teaching about this medication?

Explanation

Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic thus excess potassium can be excreted through the urine.

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52. A client receiving IV chemotherapy asks the nurse the reason for wearing a mask, gloves, and gown while administering drugs to the client. What is the nurse's best response?

Explanation

Most chemotherapy drugs are absorbed through the skin and mucous membranes. As a result health care workers who prepare or give these drugs are at risk for absorbing the,.

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53. A patient who had a mitral valve replacement with a prosthetic mechanical valve and is ready for discharge home. Which information should the healthcare provider include in the discharge teaching for this patient? Select all that apply.

Explanation

The correct answer choices provide important information regarding the patient's specific needs after a mitral valve replacement with a prosthetic mechanical valve. Planning to become pregnant requires consultation with a healthcare provider due to potential risks and adjustments that may need to be made. Taking antibiotics before certain medical dental procedures is necessary to prevent infective endocarditis. Regular coagulation studies are necessary to monitor the patient's blood clotting ability. Immediate reporting of any infection is crucial to prevent complications.

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54. You are providing care for a patient with recently diagnosed asthma. Which key points would you be sure to include in your teaching plan for this patient? (Select all that apply)   

Explanation

Bedding should be washed in hot water to destroy dust mites. All of the other points are accurate and appropriate to a teaching plan for a patient with a new diagnosis of asthma.

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55. The hospice care nurse is planning the care of an elderly client diagnosed with end-stage renal disease. Which interventions should be included in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

Explanation

Euphoria is not an intervention the nurse can provide. Every person is different during the dying process.

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56. A nurse cares for a patient who recently completed genetic testing that revealed that she has a BRCA1 gene mutation. Which actions should the nurse take next?

Explanation

The RN can asses the client's response to the test results, discuss potential risks for other family members, encourage genetic counseling, and assist the client to make a plan for prevention, risk reduction, and early detection.

Perform self-examinations monthly a week after the end of your period.
A person who test positive with BRCA1 should have at least yearly mammograms and ovarian ultrasounds.

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57. Which patients are NOT a candidate for tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) for the treatment of stroke?*  A. A patient with a CT scan that is negative.

Explanation

Patients who are experiencing signs and symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke, who have a BP >185/110, and has received heparin or any other anticoagulants etc. are NOT a candidate for tPA. tPA is only for an ischemic stroke.

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58. Select-all-that-apply: Which of the following are NOT typical signs and symptoms of pericarditis?

Explanation

These are findings NOT found in pericarditis. B is wrong because leaning forward actually helps relieve pain felt in pericarditis (supine position makes it worst). E is wrong because inspiration (breathing in) increases the pain felt with pericarditis.

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59. A nurse is caring for a dying patient who is non-responsive. Which of the following is important for the nurse to do?

Explanation

The nurse should continue to communicate with dying patients even if the are non-responsiveness. Research indicates that patients continue to hear even though the LOC is low.

Nonverbal actions would not communicate meaning for a pt who is non-responsive; nor would the pt be aware that the nurse is sitting instead of standing when speaking. The nurse should direct explanations of care to the patient , as always. Nurses should not talk about the patient to others in the patient's presence even when the pt is comatose.

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60. An 80 y/o patient is receiving palliative care for HF what are the primary purposes of her receiving palliative care (select all that apply)?

Explanation

The focus of palliative care is to reduce the severity of disease symptoms. The goals of palliative care are to prevent and relieve suffering and to improve quality of lie for patients with serious, life-limiting illness.

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The home health nurse visits a 50 y/o breast cancer patient with...
A patient with a potassium level of 2.1 has been taking Lasix daily....
The nurse providing care for a patient with suspected cancer recalls...
Nurse Channing is caring for four clients and is preparing to do his...
The hospice care nurse is conducting a spiritual care assessment....
In staging and grading neoplasm TNM system is used. TNM stands for:
A patient with nasogastric suctioning is experiencing diarrhea. The...
A patient reports during a routine check-up that he is experiencing...
A patient calls the cardiac clinic you are working at and reports that...
A hospice nurse is visiting with a dying patient. During the...
After change of shift, you are assigned to care for the following...
The nurse reviews the chart of the client admitted with a diagnosis of...
Which of the following blood tests is most indicative of cardiac...
What assessment is used when monitoring cellulitis?
When taking a health history, the nurse screens for manifestations...
A nurse is educating a patient about their new pacemaker, what should...
You have obtained the following assessment information about a 3-year...
The nurse is teaching the mother on how to take meticulous care of her...
A nurse has taught a client about dietary changes that can reduce the...
Which client problem does the nurse set as the priority for the client...
The client tells the nurse, "Every time I come in the hospital...
Which of the following patients is not a candidate for a beta blocker...
The public health nurse is giving a lecture on potential outbreaks of...
A patient has a potassium level of 2.0. What would you expect to be...
You are visiting with the wife of a patient who is having difficulty...
Which of the following patients are MOST at risk for developing...
Which of the following instructions would Nurse Courtney include in a...
A client is on chemotherapy and has a platelet count of 25,000. Which...
The client is diagnosed w Type 1 diabetes has an A1C of 8.1%. Which...
A 36 year old male is newly diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. Which of...
A family member asks the nurse to explain the purpose of hospice care....
A nurse is going to visit a client who needs assistance with personal...
A home care nurse provides instructions to the mother of an infant...
You're providing education to a patient who will be undergoing a...
PH 7.17 PaCO2 48 HCO3- 36
When developing a teaching session on glaucoma for the community....
The healthcare provider is admitting a patient with a diagnosis of...
The nurse is administering a combination of three different...
An experienced LPN, under the supervision of the team leader RN, is...
When a patient has long-term atrial fibrillation, the nurse would...
Which of the following are NOT typical signs and symptoms of...
What is the primary reason for administering morphine to a...
The client received 10 units of Humulin R, a fast acting insulin, at...
Which patient(s) are most at risk for developing coronary artery...
Which of the following treatment goals is best for the client with...
As the nurse admits a patient in end-stage kidney disease to the...
A 6 year-old is admitted with sickle cell crisis. The patient has a...
Which precaution is most important for the nurse to teach a client...
 pH 7.6 PaCO2 53  HCO3- 38  
For a client having an episode of acute narrow-angle glaucoma a nurse...
A patient is being discharged home on Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) for...
A client receiving IV chemotherapy asks the nurse the reason for...
A patient who had a mitral valve replacement with a prosthetic...
You are providing care for a patient with recently diagnosed...
The hospice care nurse is planning the care of an elderly client...
A nurse cares for a patient who recently completed genetic testing...
Which patients are NOT a candidate for tissue plasminogen activator...
Select-all-that-apply: Which of the following are NOT typical signs...
A nurse is caring for a dying patient who is non-responsive. Which of...
An 80 y/o patient is receiving palliative care for HF what are the...
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