Pdd Pre Course Exam

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Pdd Pre Course Exam - Quiz

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The depth of compression for an adult victim should be at least

    • A.

      A. 1 inch

    • B.

      B. 2 inches

    • C.

      C. 3 inches

    • D.

      D. 4 inches

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 2 inches
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. 2 inches. When performing CPR on an adult victim, the depth of compression should be at least 2 inches. This is necessary to effectively pump blood and oxygen to the vital organs and maintain circulation. Compressions that are too shallow may not provide enough force to generate blood flow, while compressions that are too deep can cause damage to the internal organs. Therefore, a depth of 2 inches is recommended to ensure proper compression during CPR.

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  • 2. 

    What is the recommended length of time for a pulse check?

    • A.

      A. At least 5 seconds

    • B.

      B. More than 10 seconds

    • C.

      C. 30 seconds

    • D.

      D. 3 seconds

    Correct Answer
    A. A. At least 5 seconds
    Explanation
    The recommended length of time for a pulse check is at least 5 seconds. This duration allows for a more accurate assessment of the pulse rate and rhythm. It ensures that any irregularities or abnormalities in the pulse can be detected, which may not be possible with a shorter duration. Additionally, a longer pulse check duration allows for a more thorough evaluation of the pulse, especially in cases where the pulse may be weak or difficult to detect.

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  • 3. 

    In one-provider CPR, what is the recommended ratio of compressions to breaths to a pediatric patient?

    • A.

      15:1

    • B.

      15:2

    • C.

      30:1

    • D.

      30:2

    Correct Answer
    D. 30:2
    Explanation
    In one-provider CPR for pediatric patients, the recommended ratio of compressions to breaths is 30:2. This means that for every 30 compressions, there should be 2 breaths given to the patient. This ratio allows for adequate circulation and oxygenation during CPR, ensuring that the child receives the necessary chest compressions and breaths to maintain their vital functions.

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  • 4. 

    An infant who had been choking becomes unresponsive. The rescuer should:

    • A.

      Alternate back slaps and chest thrusts

    • B.

      Perform a blind finger sweep to attempt to remove the obstruction

    • C.

      Attempt to dislodge the obstruction using abdominal thrusts

    • D.

      Begin CPR

    Correct Answer
    D. Begin CPR
    Explanation
    When an infant becomes unresponsive after choking, the rescuer should begin CPR. CPR stands for cardiopulmonary resuscitation and involves providing chest compressions and rescue breaths to help restore blood circulation and oxygenation. In this situation, it is important to start CPR immediately as the infant's airway may be completely blocked, and chest compressions can help dislodge the obstruction. Performing back slaps, chest thrusts, or attempting a blind finger sweep may not be effective if the infant is unresponsive and not breathing. Therefore, beginning CPR is the most appropriate action to take in this scenario.

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  • 5. 

    You are giving CPR to a 5 year-old child. A second rescuer comes by and states they know CPR. What happens to your Compression to Breath ratio when you add the second rescuer?

    • A.

      It stays the same at:  30 compressions to 2 breaths

    • B.

      It changes to: 15 compressions to 1 breath

    • C.

      It changes to: 15 compressions to 2 breaths

    • D.

      It changes to: 30 compressions to 1 breath

    Correct Answer
    C. It changes to: 15 compressions to 2 breaths
    Explanation
    When a second rescuer joins in giving CPR to a 5-year-old child, the compression to breath ratio changes to 15 compressions to 2 breaths. This is because with two rescuers, they can alternate between giving compressions and breaths more efficiently, allowing for a higher number of compressions per minute while still providing adequate breaths to the child. This change in ratio ensures that the child receives enough compressions to circulate blood and enough breaths to provide oxygen during the resuscitation process.

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  • 6. 

    After the AED has delivered the shock you should:

    • A.

      Continue CPR beginning with compressions

    • B.

      Wait patiently for the AED to reanalyze

    • C.

      Turn off the AED

    • D.

      Give 2 breaths

    Correct Answer
    A. Continue CPR beginning with compressions
    Explanation
    After the AED has delivered the shock, it is important to continue CPR beginning with compressions. This is because CPR helps to circulate oxygenated blood to the vital organs and maintain some blood flow until professional medical help arrives. Compressions are a crucial part of CPR as they help to mimic the pumping action of the heart and keep the blood flowing. Therefore, it is essential to continue with compressions immediately after the AED delivers the shock to maximize the chances of survival for the individual experiencing cardiac arrest.

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  • 7. 

    Rescue Breathing is used for a victim who is unconscious, but has a pulse. What is the correct rate for rescue breathing in an adult?

    • A.

      1 breath every 30 compressions

    • B.

      2 breaths every 30 compressions

    • C.

      1 breath every 5 – 6 seconds

    • D.

      1 breath evert 3 – 5 seconds

    Correct Answer
    C. 1 breath every 5 – 6 seconds
    Explanation
    The correct rate for rescue breathing in an adult is 1 breath every 5-6 seconds. This means that the rescuer should give one breath every 5-6 seconds while performing rescue breathing on an unconscious victim with a pulse. This allows for adequate oxygenation and ventilation of the victim's lungs, ensuring that they receive the necessary oxygen to support their vital functions. It is important to maintain this rate consistently to prevent any further complications and provide effective assistance to the victim.

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  • 8. 

    Where should the BLS provider’s hand be placed to perform chest compressions on an adult?

    • A.

      On the lower half of the breastbone

    • B.

      In the center of the breastbone

    • C.

      On the upper portion of the abdomen

    • D.

      On the upper half of the breastbone

    Correct Answer
    A. On the lower half of the breastbone
    Explanation
    The BLS provider's hand should be placed on the lower half of the breastbone to perform chest compressions on an adult. This is the correct position for effective chest compressions, as it allows for proper compression of the heart and circulation of blood. Placing the hand on the center of the breastbone or on the upper portion of the abdomen would not provide the necessary pressure to effectively perform chest compressions. Similarly, placing the hand on the upper half of the breastbone would not target the heart and could result in ineffective compressions.

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  • 9. 

    The recommended depth of compressions for an infant is

    • A.

      At least one fourth the depth of the chest, approximately 1 inch

    • B.

      At least one third the depth of the chest, approximately 1.5 inches

    • C.

      At least one half the depth of the chest, approximately 2 inches

    • D.

      At least two thirds the depth of the chest, approximately 3 inches

    Correct Answer
    B. At least one third the depth of the chest, approximately 1.5 inches
    Explanation
    The recommended depth of compressions for an infant is at least one third the depth of the chest, approximately 1.5 inches. This depth allows for effective compression of the heart and circulation of blood, while also minimizing the risk of causing harm to the infant's delicate chest and internal organs. It is important to maintain the correct depth to ensure proper delivery of compressions during infant CPR.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following victims need CPR?

    • A.

      A victim with a pulse and who has negative breathing

    • B.

      A victim with chest pain and indigestion

    • C.

      A victim who is unresponsive, no normal breathing and absent pulse

    • D.

      A victim who is unresponsive but is breathing adequately

    Correct Answer
    C. A victim who is unresponsive, no normal breathing and absent pulse
    Explanation
    A victim who is unresponsive, has no normal breathing, and has an absent pulse needs CPR. This indicates that the person's heart has stopped beating and they are not breathing effectively. CPR, or cardiopulmonary resuscitation, is a life-saving technique that involves chest compressions and rescue breaths to help circulate oxygenated blood throughout the body. By performing CPR, the rescuer can help maintain blood flow and oxygenation until advanced medical help arrives.

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  • 11. 

    Identify the ECG Rhythm

    • A.

      Supraventricular Tachycardia

    • B.

      Monomorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • C.

      Sinus Tachycardia

    • D.

      Polymorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • E.

      Atrial Fibrillation

    • F.

      Ventricular Fibrillation

    • G.

      Pulseless Electrical Activity

    • H.

      Asystole

    • I.

      Sinus Bradycardia

    • J.

      First Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • K.

      Third Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • L.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 1

    • M.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 2

    Correct Answer
    A. Supraventricular Tachycardia
    Explanation
    Supraventricular tachycardia is the correct answer because it is a rapid heart rate originating above the ventricles. It is characterized by narrow QRS complexes on the ECG and a regular rhythm. This condition can be caused by various factors such as stress, caffeine, or certain medications. Treatment options for supraventricular tachycardia may include vagal maneuvers, medications, or in some cases, electrical cardioversion.

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  • 12. 

    Identify the ECG Rhythm

    • A.

      Supraventricular Tachycardia

    • B.

      Monomorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • C.

      Sinus Tachycardia

    • D.

      Polymorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • E.

      Atrial Fibrillation

    • F.

      Ventricular Fibrillation

    • G.

      Pulseless Electrical Activity

    • H.

      Asystole

    • I.

      Sinus Bradycardia

    • J.

      First Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • K.

      Third Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • L.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 1

    • M.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 2

    Correct Answer
    M. Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 2
  • 13. 

    Identify the ECG Rhythm

    • A.

      Supraventricular Tachycardia

    • B.

      Monomorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • C.

      Sinus Tachycardia

    • D.

      Polymorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • E.

      Atrial Fibrillation

    • F.

      Ventricular Fibrillation

    • G.

      Pulseless Electrical Activity

    • H.

      Asystole

    • I.

      Sinus Bradycardia

    • J.

      First Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • K.

      Third Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • L.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 1

    • M.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 2

    Correct Answer
    B. Monomorphic Ventricular Tachycardia
    Explanation
    Monomorphic Ventricular Tachycardia is a regular, rapid heart rhythm originating from the ventricles. It is characterized by a wide QRS complex with a consistent morphology. In this rhythm, the QRS complexes have the same shape and size, indicating that the electrical impulses are following a consistent pathway through the ventricles. This is different from polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, where the QRS complexes have varying shapes and sizes.

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  • 14. 

    Identify the ECG Rhythm

    • A.

      Supraventricular Tachycardia

    • B.

      Monomorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • C.

      Sinus Tachycardia

    • D.

      Polymorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • E.

      Atrial Fibrillation

    • F.

      Ventricular Fibrillation

    • G.

      Pulseless Electrical Activity

    • H.

      Asystole

    • I.

      Sinus Bradycardia

    • J.

      First Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • K.

      Third Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • L.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 1

    • M.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 2

    Correct Answer
    J. First Degree Atrioventricular Block
    Explanation
    A First Degree Atrioventricular Block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval on the ECG. This means that there is a delay in the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles. It is considered a mild form of heart block and usually does not cause any symptoms or require treatment.

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  • 15. 

    Identify the ECG Rhythm

    • A.

      Supraventricular Tachycardia

    • B.

      Monomorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • C.

      Sinus Tachycardia

    • D.

      Polymorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • E.

      Atrial Fibrillation

    • F.

      Ventricular Fibrillation

    • G.

      Pulseless Electrical Activity

    • H.

      Asystole

    • I.

      Sinus Bradycardia

    • J.

      First Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • K.

      Third Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • L.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 1

    • M.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 2

    Correct Answer
    I. Sinus Bradycardia
    Explanation
    Sinus Bradycardia is the correct answer because it is a rhythm characterized by a normal sinus rhythm but with a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. In this rhythm, the electrical impulses in the heart originate from the sinoatrial (SA) node, but the rate is slower than normal. This can be a normal variation in some individuals, or it can be caused by certain medications, vagal stimulation, or underlying medical conditions. It is important to note that sinus bradycardia can be asymptomatic or may cause symptoms such as dizziness, fatigue, or fainting.

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  • 16. 

    Identify the ECG Rhythm

    • A.

      Supraventricular Tachycardia

    • B.

      Monomorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • C.

      Sinus Tachycardia

    • D.

      Polymorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • E.

      Atrial Fibrillation

    • F.

      Ventricular Fibrillation

    • G.

      Pulseless Electrical Activity

    • H.

      Asystole

    • I.

      Sinus Bradycardia

    • J.

      First Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • K.

      Third Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • L.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 1

    • M.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 2

    Correct Answer
    F. Ventricular Fibrillation
    Explanation
    Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening cardiac rhythm where the ventricles of the heart quiver instead of contracting effectively. This results in the absence of a pulse and can lead to sudden cardiac arrest if not treated immediately. It is characterized by chaotic and irregular ECG waves with no discernible pattern. Prompt defibrillation is necessary to restore a normal heart rhythm and save the person's life.

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  • 17. 

    Identify the ECG Rhythm

    • A.

      Supraventricular Tachycardia

    • B.

      Monomorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • C.

      Sinus Tachycardia

    • D.

      Polymorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • E.

      Atrial Fibrillation

    • F.

      Ventricular Fibrillation

    • G.

      Pulseless Electrical Activity

    • H.

      Asystole

    • I.

      Sinus Bradycardia

    • J.

      First Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • K.

      Third Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • L.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 1

    • M.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 2

    Correct Answer
    D. Polymorphic Ventricular Tachycardia
  • 18. 

    Identify the ECG Rhythm

    • A.

      Supraventricular Tachycardia

    • B.

      Monomorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • C.

      Sinus Tachycardia

    • D.

      Polymorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • E.

      Atrial Fibrillation

    • F.

      Ventricular Fibrillation

    • G.

      Pulseless Electrical Activity

    • H.

      Asystole

    • I.

      Sinus Bradycardia

    • J.

      First Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • K.

      Third Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • L.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 1

    • M.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 2

    Correct Answer
    H. Asystole
    Explanation
    Asystole is a condition characterized by the absence of any electrical activity in the heart. It is often referred to as "flatline" and is a medical emergency. In this rhythm, there are no discernible P waves, QRS complexes, or T waves, indicating a complete absence of cardiac electrical activity. Asystole is associated with a lack of pulse and loss of consciousness, and immediate intervention is required to initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) measures.

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  • 19. 

    Identify the ECG Rhythm

    • A.

      Supraventricular Tachycardia

    • B.

      Monomorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • C.

      Sinus Tachycardia

    • D.

      Polymorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • E.

      Atrial Fibrillation

    • F.

      Ventricular Fibrillation

    • G.

      Pulseless Electrical Activity

    • H.

      Asystole

    • I.

      Sinus Bradycardia

    • J.

      First Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • K.

      Third Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • L.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 1

    • M.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 2

    Correct Answer
    G. Pulseless Electrical Activity
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Pulseless Electrical Activity.

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  • 20. 

    Identify the ECG Rhythm

    • A.

      Supraventricular Tachycardia

    • B.

      Monomorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • C.

      Sinus Tachycardia

    • D.

      Polymorphic Ventricular Tachycardia

    • E.

      Atrial Fibrillation

    • F.

      Ventricular Fibrillation

    • G.

      Pulseless Electrical Activity

    • H.

      Asystole

    • I.

      Sinus Bradycardia

    • J.

      First Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • K.

      Third Degree Atrioventricular Block

    • L.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 1

    • M.

      Second Degree Atrioventricular Block Type 2

    Correct Answer
    C. Sinus Tachycardia
    Explanation
    Sinus tachycardia is the correct answer because it is a rhythm characterized by a rapid heart rate (greater than 100 beats per minute) originating from the sinus node in the atria. This rhythm is regular and has normal QRS complexes. It is different from supraventricular tachycardia, which is a rapid heart rate originating above the ventricles, and ventricular tachycardia, which is a rapid heart rate originating from the ventricles. Atrial fibrillation, ventricular fibrillation, pulseless electrical activity, asystole, and other types of heart blocks are not consistent with the characteristics of sinus tachycardia.

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  • 21. 

    A responsive 75 year old patient with a BP of 100 / 70 mmHg is experiencing the ECG rhythm below. What would be the best management?

    • A.

      Carotid Sinus Massage

    • B.

      Synchronized Cardioversion of 50 Joules

    • C.

      Amiodarone 150 mg

    • D.

      Adenosine 6 mg

    Correct Answer
    D. Adenosine 6 mg
    Explanation
    In this scenario, the patient is a responsive 75-year-old with a blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg. The ECG rhythm is not mentioned, so we cannot determine the specific rhythm. However, adenosine is commonly used for the treatment of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), which is a possible rhythm that the patient may be experiencing. Adenosine works by briefly blocking the electrical conduction in the heart, which can help restore a normal rhythm. Therefore, administering adenosine 6 mg would be the best management option in this case.

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  • 22. 

    You are treating an individual who presented in ventricular fibrillation. After CPR and one attempt at defibrillation, his new rhythm is as shown and he has No pulse . What is the next step in management?

    • A.

      Defibrillation

    • B.

      CPR

    • C.

      Give Epinephrine 1 mg

    • D.

      Give Amiodarone 300 mg

    Correct Answer
    B. CPR
    Explanation
    After one attempt at defibrillation, if the patient's rhythm is shown as having no pulse, the next step in management is to continue with CPR. CPR helps to maintain blood circulation and oxygenation to vital organs until further interventions can be administered. It is crucial to continue CPR until a pulse is restored or advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) medications or interventions can be initiated.

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  • 23. 

    What is the Door to Balloon time for the Percutaneous Coronary Intervention?

    • A.

      30 mins

    • B.

      90 mins

    • C.

      120 mins

    • D.

      100 mins

    Correct Answer
    B. 90 mins
    Explanation
    The Door to Balloon time for the Percutaneous Coronary Intervention is 90 minutes. This refers to the time interval between a patient's arrival at the hospital (door) and the inflation of a balloon in the blocked coronary artery (balloon) during the procedure. This measure is crucial in treating heart attacks as it represents the efficiency of the healthcare system in providing timely intervention, reducing the risk of complications and improving patient outcomes. A Door to Balloon time of 90 minutes is considered a standard benchmark in many healthcare guidelines.

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  • 24. 

    A 50-year-old woman is complaining of dizziness and palpitations. Her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg and her ventilatory rate is 20 breaths/min. She denies chest pain. The cardiac monitor reveals as shown. You should: 

    • A.

      Start an IV and give a 300 mg dose of amiodarone

    • B.

      Establish vascular access and give 1 mg of 1:10,000 epinephrine

    • C.

      Attempt a vagal maneuver; if unsuccessful, give adenosine rapid IV push

    • D.

      Perform synchronized cardioversion with 100 joules

    Correct Answer
    D. Perform synchronized cardioversion with 100 joules
    Explanation
    The patient is presenting with dizziness, palpitations, and hypotension (blood pressure of 70/50 mm Hg). The ECG shows a wide complex tachycardia, which could be ventricular tachycardia. In this situation, synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice. Amiodarone is not the first-line treatment for unstable ventricular tachycardia. Epinephrine is used in cardiac arrest, not for stable ventricular tachycardia. Vagal maneuvers and adenosine are used for stable supraventricular tachycardia, not ventricular tachycardia.

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  • 25. 

    What is the priority medication for patient in cardiac arrest with the ECG Rhythm as shown.

    • A.

      Amiodarone 150 mg

    • B.

      Amiodarone 300 mg

    • C.

      Epinephrine 1 mg

    • D.

      Atropine 0.5 mg

    Correct Answer
    C. Epinephrine 1 mg
    Explanation
    Epinephrine is the priority medication for a patient in cardiac arrest with the ECG rhythm shown. Epinephrine is a vasopressor that increases blood flow to the heart and brain, helping to restore normal cardiac function. It is administered during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to improve the chances of successful resuscitation. While Amiodarone is used to treat certain cardiac arrhythmias, it is not the priority medication in this situation. Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia, not cardiac arrest. Therefore, Epinephrine 1 mg is the appropriate choice to administer in this scenario.

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  • 26. 

    What is the use of  Continious Waveform Capnography in intubated pt's during cardiac Arrest?

    • A.

      Confirm tube placement

    • B.

      Check for CPR Quality

    • C.

      Monitor the Cardiac Rhythm

    • D.

      Monitor patient's Oxygen level

    Correct Answer
    B. Check for CPR Quality
    Explanation
    Continious Waveform Capnography is used to check for CPR Quality in intubated patients during cardiac arrest. This technology measures the level of carbon dioxide in the exhaled breath, providing real-time feedback on the effectiveness of chest compressions. It helps ensure that the compressions are being performed correctly and with adequate depth and rate, optimizing the chances of successful resuscitation. By monitoring the waveform, healthcare providers can make adjustments to improve the quality of CPR and increase the likelihood of a positive outcome for the patient.

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  • 27. 

    A patient with 80/60 mmHg of Blood pressure is experiencing the ECG rhytm shown what will be the best management?

    • A.

      Atropine 0.5 mg

    • B.

      Adenosine 6 mg

    • C.

      Amiodarone 150 mg

    • D.

      Synchronized Cardioversion of 50 Joules

    Correct Answer
    A. Atropine 0.5 mg
    Explanation
    Given the patient's low blood pressure (80/60 mmHg) and the ECG rhythm shown, the best management would be to administer Atropine 0.5 mg. Atropine is a medication that increases heart rate and improves blood pressure by blocking the effects of the vagus nerve on the heart. This can help to stabilize the patient's blood pressure and improve cardiac output. Adenosine, Amiodarone, and synchronized cardioversion are not appropriate in this scenario as they are used for different types of arrhythmias and would not address the underlying issue of low blood pressure.

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  • 28. 

    What is the treatment of choice for this ECG rhythm?

    • A.

      Synchronized Cardioversion of 360 Joules

    • B.

      Start CPR

    • C.

      Give Amiodarone 150 mg

    • D.

      Give Epinephrine for 0.5 mg

    Correct Answer
    B. Start CPR
    Explanation
    The treatment of choice for this ECG rhythm is to start CPR. This suggests that the ECG rhythm is indicating a cardiac arrest or a life-threatening condition where the heart has stopped beating effectively. Starting CPR is essential in order to provide immediate chest compressions and rescue breaths to maintain blood circulation and oxygenation until further interventions can be administered.

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  • 29. 

    What action is recommended to help minimize interruptions during cardiac arrest?

    • A.

      Check pulse every 2 minutes

    • B.

      Stop CPR while waiting for the charge to be complete

    • C.

      Start CPR after defibrillation

    • D.

      Check breathing together with pulse check

    Correct Answer
    C. Start CPR after defibrillation
    Explanation
    Starting CPR after defibrillation is recommended to help minimize interruptions during cardiac arrest. This is because defibrillation is a critical intervention that can restore a normal heart rhythm. After defibrillation, the heart may still be in a vulnerable state, and starting CPR immediately helps to maintain blood flow and oxygenation to the vital organs. By starting CPR without delay, interruptions are minimized, and the chances of successful resuscitation are increased.

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  • 30. 

    During Cardiac arrest, the monitor displays this ECG rhythm what is the best management?

    • A.

      Shock the patient at 360 Joules

    • B.

      Administer Amiodarone 300 mg

    • C.

      Shock the patient at 100 Joues

    • D.

      Administer Epinephrine 1 mg

    Correct Answer
    A. Shock the patient at 360 Joules
    Explanation
    During cardiac arrest, the best management is to shock the patient at 360 Joules. This is because a higher energy shock is needed to restore normal heart rhythm during cardiac arrest. Administering medications like Amiodarone or Epinephrine may be necessary in certain cases, but the immediate priority is to deliver a high-energy shock to the heart using a defibrillator.

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  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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