Micro Exam 3

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DNA Quizzes & Trivia

Summer Micro Test 3 study quiz for the final.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include

    • A.

      Chromosomes

    • B.

      Plasmids

    • C.

      Mitochondrial DNA

    • D.

      Chloroplast DNA

    • E.

      All of the choices are correct

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the choices are correct
  • 2. 

    Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes because only eukaryotes have

    • A.

      Histone proteins

    • B.

      Chromosomes in a nucleus

    • C.

      Several to many chromosomes

    • D.

      Elongated, not circular, chromosomes

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
  • 3. 

    The antiparralel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to

    • A.

      Each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar

    • B.

      A purine always bonding to a pyrimidine

    • C.

      One helix strand that runs from 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction

    • D.

      An original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule

    • E.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. One helix strand that runs from 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction
  • 4. 

    Which enzyme fills in the spaces between the Okazaki fragments with the correct nucleotide

    • A.

      DNA ligase

    • B.

      DNA polymerases

    • C.

      DNA helicases

    • D.

      DNA gyrases

    • E.

      Primases

    Correct Answer
    A. DNA ligase
  • 5. 

    The enzymes that can proofread replicating DNA, detect incorrect bases, excise them, and correctly replace them are

    • A.

      DNA ligases

    • B.

      DNA polymerases

    • C.

      DNA helicases

    • D.

      DNA gyrases

    • E.

      Primases

    Correct Answer
    B. DNA polymerases
  • 6. 

    The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called

    • A.

      Ribosomal RNA

    • B.

      Messenger RNA

    • C.

      Transfer RNA

    • D.

      Primer RNA

    • E.

      Ribozymes

    Correct Answer
    C. Transfer RNA
  • 7. 

    This molecule is transcribed from the DNA template strand and later translated

    • A.

      Ribosomal RNA

    • B.

      Messenger RNA

    • C.

      Transfer RNA

    • D.

      Primer RNA

    • E.

      Protein

    Correct Answer
    B. Messenger RNA
  • 8. 

    RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA

    • A.

      Has ribose

    • B.

      Has uracil

    • C.

      Is typically one strand of nucleotides

    • D.

      Does not have thymine

    • E.

      All of the above are correct

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above are correct
  • 9. 

    If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anitcodon is

    • A.

      GCA

    • B.

      CGT

    • C.

      ACG

    • D.

      CGU

    • E.

      UGC

    Correct Answer
    D. CGU
  • 10. 

    Which is incorrect about inducible operons

    • A.

      They have genes turned offf by a buildup of end product

    • B.

      They are often for catabolic pathways

    • C.

      They are normally turned off

    • D.

      They are turned on by the substate of the enzyme

    • E.

      They include the lac operon

    Correct Answer
    A. They have genes turned offf by a buildup of end product
  • 11. 

    A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a

    • A.

      Point mutation

    • B.

      Silent mutation

    • C.

      Back mutation

    • D.

      Missense mutation

    • E.

      Nonsense mutation

    Correct Answer
    E. Nonsense mutation
  • 12. 

    T/F  Conjugation is that act at which two or more eukaryotic cells come together and exchange DNA. All cells must have a unique pilus in order for the cells to bind.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
  • 13. 

    This test is used to measure a chemicals capacity to cause mutation

    • A.

      Amos test

    • B.

      Griffith Test

    • C.

      Ames Test

    • D.

      Susceptibility test

    • E.

      The bar-bar test

    Correct Answer
    C. Ames Test
  • 14. 

    The use of an organism's biochemical processes to crate a product is

    • A.

      Genetic engineering

    • B.

      Biotechnology

    • C.

      Recombinant dna

    • D.

      Gel elctrophoreses

    • E.

      Gene probes

    Correct Answer
    B. Biotechnology
  • 15. 

    The various techniquest by which scientist manipulate DNA in the lab are called

    • A.

      Genetic engineering

    • B.

      Biotechnology

    • C.

      Recominant DNA

    • D.

      Gel electrophoresis

    • E.

      Gene probes

    Correct Answer
    A. Genetic engineering
  • 16. 

    A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragment is

    • A.

      Genetic engineering

    • B.

      Biotechnology

    • C.

      Recombinant DNA

    • D.

      Gel electrophoresis

    • E.

      Gene probes

    Correct Answer
    D. Gel electrophoresis
  • 17. 

    EcoRI and HindIII are

    • A.

      Palindromes

    • B.

      Reverse transcriptase

    • C.

      Restriction endonucleases

    • D.

      Ligases

    • E.

      DNA polymerases

    Correct Answer
    C. Restriction endonucleases
  • 18. 

    Sequences to DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are

    • A.

      Palindrones

    • B.

      Reverse transcriptases

    • C.

      Restriction endonucleases

    • D.

      Ligases

    • E.

      DNA polymerases

    Correct Answer
    A. Palindrones
  • 19. 

    Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis involves

    • A.

      Larger fragments move slowly and remain closer to the wells

    • B.

      DNA has an overall negative charge and moves to the positive pole

    • C.

      DNA fragments are stained to see them

    • D.

      An electric current through the gel causes DNA fragments to migrate

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
  • 20. 

    The Western Blot technique detects

    • A.

      DNA

    • B.

      RNA

    • C.

      Proteins

    • D.

      Recombinant DNA

    • E.

      Specific gentic marker sequence on genes

    Correct Answer
    C. Proteins
  • 21. 

    Ethidium bromide and malachite green do what to DNA

    • A.

      Are known carcinogens because they cause theymine dimmers

    • B.

      Are known carcinogens because they intercalate with DNA

    • C.

      Are known carcinogens because they inhibit repair enzyme

    • D.

      Are just mutagens

    Correct Answer
    B. Are known carcinogens because they intercalate with DNA
  • 22. 

    DNA polymerases used in PCR

    • A.

      Use an RNA template to make complementary DNA

    • B.

      Must remain active at very cold temperatures

    • C.

      Include Taq polymerase

    • D.

      Are labeled with fluorescent dyes

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Include Taq polymerase
  • 23. 

    The Southern Blot technique detects

    • A.

      DNA

    • B.

      RNA

    • C.

      Proteins

    • D.

      Recombinant DNA

    • E.

      Specific genetic marker sequence on genes

    Correct Answer
    A. DNA
  • 24. 

    The polymersase chain reaction (PCR) has been used in all of the following fields except

    • A.

      Forensics

    • B.

      Evolutionary studies

    • C.

      Gene mapping

    • D.

      Medicine

    • E.

      None of the choices, it is usefull in all of these fields

    Correct Answer
    E. None of the choices, it is usefull in all of these fields
  • 25. 

    T/F  Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
  • 26. 

    T/F Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to detect cells harboring the plasmid

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
  • 27. 

    The rate of migration of macromolecules in gel electrophoresis depends on what characteristics

    • A.

      Concentration of agarose gel

    • B.

      The voltage

    • C.

      Size of DNA fragment

    • D.

      Only a and b

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
  • 28. 

    T/F  Southern blots may be used to probe for specific gene sequences. Thus this is an alternative tool to use to ensure a host cell picked up the donor plasmid

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
  • 29. 

    T/F  It is important that an ideal vector have a point of replication and have relatively large genomes

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
  • 30. 

    Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all of the following except

    • A.

      Ultraviolet radiation

    • B.

      Boiling water

    • C.

      HEPA filters

    • D.

      Pasteurization

    • E.

      Hydrogen peroxide

    Correct Answer
    E. Hydrogen peroxide
  • 31. 

    Which of the following microbial froms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls

    • A.

      Naked viruses

    • B.

      Porozoan cyst

    • C.

      Fugal spores

    • D.

      Bacterial endospores

    • E.

      Yeast

    Correct Answer
    D. Bacterial endospores
  • 32. 

    The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens on fomites is

    • A.

      Disinfection

    • B.

      Sterilization

    • C.

      Antisepsis

    • D.

      Sanitization

    • E.

      Degermation

    Correct Answer
    A. Disinfection
  • 33. 

    The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegatative pathogens is

    • A.

      Disinfection

    • B.

      Sterilization

    • C.

      Antisepsis

    • D.

      Sanitization

    • E.

      Degermation

    Correct Answer
    C. Antisepsis
  • 34. 

    Sterilization is achieved by

    • A.

      Flash pasteurization

    • B.

      Hot water

    • C.

      Boiling water

    • D.

      Steam autoclave

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Steam autoclave
  • 35. 

    Dry heat

    • A.

      Is less efficient than moist heat

    • B.

      Cannot sterilize

    • C.

      Includes tyndalliztion

    • D.

      Is used in devices called autoclaves

    • E.

      Will sterilize at 121 degrees celcius for 15 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. Is less efficient than moist heat
  • 36. 

    The minimum sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are

    • A.

      121 C at 15 psi for 15 minutes

    • B.

      63 C for 30 minutes

    • C.

      160 C for 2 hours

    • D.

      71.6 C for 15 seconds

    • E.

      100 C for 30 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 121 C at 15 psi for 15 minutes
  • 37. 

    Iodophors include

    • A.

      Chloromines

    • B.

      Betadine

    • C.

      Tincture of idodine

    • D.

      Alcohols

    • E.

      Chlorhexidine

    Correct Answer
    B. Betadine
  • 38. 

    The sterilizing gas used in a special chamber that typically sterilizes soft plastics is

    • A.

      Ethylend oxide

    • B.

      Iodophor

    • C.

      Glutaraldehyde

    • D.

      Formaldehyde

    • E.

      Chlorine dioxide

    Correct Answer
    A. Ethylend oxide
  • 39. 

    All of the following are methods of disinfection or sterilization except

    • A.

      Gamma radiation

    • B.

      Dry oven

    • C.

      Lyophilization

    • D.

      Triclosan

    • E.

      Ethanold

    Correct Answer
    C. Lyophilization
  • 40. 

    Subastances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called

    • A.

      Antibiotics

    • B.

      Narrow-spectrum drugs

    • C.

      Semisynthetic drugs

    • D.

      Synthetic drugs

    • E.

      Broad spectrum drugs

    Correct Answer
    A. Antibiotics
  • 41. 

    Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed

    • A.

      Antibiotics

    • B.

      Narrow spectrum drugs

    • C.

      Semisynthetic drugs

    • D.

      Synthetic drugs

    • E.

      Broad spectrum drugs

    Correct Answer
    E. Broad spectrum drugs
  • 42. 

    Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include

    • A.

      Readily delivered to the site of infection

    • B.

      High toxicity against microbial cells

    • C.

      Do not casue serious side effects in humans

    • D.

      Remains active in body tissues and fluids

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. All of the above
  • 43. 

    Penicillins and cephalosporins

    • A.

      Interfere with elongation of pertidoglycan

    • B.

      Are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis

    • C.

      Attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protien synthesis

    • D.

      Damage cell membranes

    • E.

      Block peptidase that cross-link glycan molecules

    Correct Answer
    E. Block peptidase that cross-link glycan molecules
  • 44. 

    Aminoglycosides

    • A.

      Interfere with elongation of pertidoglycan

    • B.

      Are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis

    • C.

      Attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protien synthesis

    • D.

      Damage cell membranes

    • E.

      Block peptidase that cross-link glycan molecules

    Correct Answer
    C. Attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protien synthesis
  • 45. 

    Sulfonamides

    • A.

      Interfere with elongation of pertidoglycan

    • B.

      Are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis

    • C.

      Attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protien synthesis

    • D.

      Damage cell membranes

    • E.

      Block peptidase that cross-link glycan molecules

    Correct Answer
    B. Are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis
  • 46. 

    Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have

    • A.

      A beta-lactam ring

    • B.

      Resistance to the action of penicillinase

    • C.

      Semisynthetic structure

    • D.

      Expanded specturm of activity

    • E.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. A beta-lactam ring
  • 47. 

    Gram negative rods are often treated with

    • A.

      Penicillin G

    • B.

      Vancomycin

    • C.

      Aminoglycosides

    • D.

      Synercid

    • E.

      Isoniasid

    Correct Answer
    C. Aminoglycosides
  • 48. 

    This drug is used to treat cases of tuberculosis

    • A.

      Penicillin G

    • B.

      Vancomycin

    • C.

      Aminoglycosides

    • D.

      Synercid

    • E.

      Isoniasid

    Correct Answer
    E. Isoniasid
  • 49. 

    Antimicrobics that are macrolides

    • A.

      Disrupt cell membrane function

    • B.

      Include tetracyclines

    • C.

      Include azithromycin, clarithromycin, and erythromycin

    • D.

      Are very narrow spectrum

    • E.

      Are hepatoxic

    Correct Answer
    C. Include azithromycin, clarithromycin, and erythromycin
  • 50. 

    An antiviral that is a guanine analog would have an antiviral mode of action that

    • A.

      Blocks penetration

    • B.

      Blocks DNA replication

    • C.

      Inhibits peptidogycan cross linking

    • D.

      Blocks maturation

    • E.

      Bonds to ergosterol in cell wall

    Correct Answer
    B. Blocks DNA replication

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  • Jan 16, 2013
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