# Mhafb CDC 2a051t Vol. 2 F-15 And F-16 Test Equipment

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Volume 2 URE Questions for 5 level CDCs

• 1.

### (201) On the ESTS, how many independently programmable power supply modules does the AC power supply assembly (A3A3) contain?

• A.

1

• B.

2

• C.

3

• D.

4

D. 4
Explanation
The AC power supply assembly (A3A3) on the ESTS contains four independently programmable power supply modules.

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• 2.

### (201) On the ESTS, what voltage programming range do the AC power supply modules provide?

• A.

0 to 135 VDC

• B.

0 to 135 VAC

• C.

135 to 220 VDC

• D.

135 to 220 VAC

B. 0 to 135 VAC
Explanation
The AC power supply modules on the ESTS provide a voltage programming range of 0 to 135 VAC. This means that the modules can be adjusted to output any voltage within this range, allowing for flexibility and customization in power supply.

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• 3.

### (201) On the ESTS, how many independently programmable DC power supply modules does the DC power supply assembly (A4A3) contain?

• A.

3

• B.

4

• C.

5

• D.

6

C. 5
Explanation
The DC power supply assembly (A4A3) on the ESTS contains 5 independently programmable DC power supply modules.

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• 4.

### (201) On the ESTS, what is the voltage programming range of the high voltage DC power supply module (DCPS6/A4A2)?

• A.

0 to 100 VDC

• B.

0 to 200 VDC

• C.

100 to 200 VDC

• D.

100 to 500 VDC

B. 0 to 200 VDC
Explanation
The high voltage DC power supply module (DCPS6/A4A2) on the ESTS has a voltage programming range of 0 to 200 VDC.

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• 5.

### (201) On the ESTS, the DC power supply modules (A4A3A2 through A4A3A6) provide what voltage programming range?

• A.

0 to 32 VDC

• B.

0 to 50 VDC

• C.

0 to 100 VDC

• D.

0 to 200 VDC

A. 0 to 32 VDC
Explanation
The DC power supply modules on the ESTS provide a voltage programming range of 0 to 32 VDC.

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• 6.

### (202) On the ESTS, in what slot of the RF VXI assembly (A5) is the VXI bus extender module (A5A1) located?

• A.

0

• B.

1

• C.

2

• D.

3

A. 0
Explanation
The VXI bus extender module (A5A1) is located in slot 0 of the RF VXI assembly (A5) on the ESTS.

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• 7.

### (202) On the ESTS, which connector on the VXI bus extender module is a 52-pin connector?

• A.

TRIG OUT

• B.

EXT CLK

• C.

TRIG IN

• D.

MXI bus

D. MXI bus
Explanation
The correct answer is MXI bus. The MXI bus is a 52-pin connector on the VXI bus extender module. It is used to connect the VXI bus extender module to other devices or modules in the VXI system. This connector allows for communication and data transfer between different components of the system.

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• 8.

### (202) On the ESTS, what type of power meter is power meter (A5A8)?

• A.

Dual input

• B.

Dual output

• C.

Single input

• D.

Single output

A. Dual input
Explanation
The correct answer is "Dual input" because power meter (A5A8) on the ESTS has two input ports, allowing it to measure power from two different sources simultaneously.

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• 9.

### (202) On the ESTS, in what slots of the RF VXI assembly (A5) is the RF counter (A5A9) located?

• A.

1, 2, and 3

• B.

6, 7, and 8

• C.

9, 10, and 11

• D.

11, 12, and 13

C. 9, 10, and 11
Explanation
The RF counter (A5A9) is located in slots 9, 10, and 11 of the RF VXI assembly (A5) on the ESTS.

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• 10.

### (203) On the ESTS, the VXI bus extender module (A6A1) serves as the interface between the MXI bus and how many analog stimulus response modules?

• A.

4

• B.

6

• C.

8

• D.

10

D. 10
Explanation
The VXI bus extender module (A6A1) serves as the interface between the MXI bus and 10 analog stimulus response modules. This means that the module allows communication and data transfer between the MXI bus and 10 analog stimulus response modules, enabling them to interact and exchange information effectively.

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• 11.

### (203) On the ESTS, how many independent digital to analog converter channels does the digital to analog converter (A6A2) provide?

• A.

1

• B.

12

• C.

16

• D.

24

B. 12
Explanation
The digital to analog converter (A6A2) on the ESTS provides 12 independent digital to analog converter channels.

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• 12.

### (203) On the ESTS, each switch module No. 1 and No. 2 (A6A3 and A6A4) consist of 211 relays.  What type of relays are they?

• A.

SPST

• B.

SPDT

• C.

DPST

• D.

DPDT

D. DPDT
Explanation
The switch modules No. 1 and No. 2 (A6A3 and A6A4) on the ESTS consist of 211 relays, and these relays are DPDT (Double Pole Double Throw) type.

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• 13.

### (203) On the ESTS, the Form C relay module (A6A7) consist of how many independent Form C relays?

• A.

32

• B.

64

• C.

128

• D.

256

A. 32
Explanation
The ESTS Form C relay module (A6A7) consists of 32 independent Form C relays.

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• 14.

### (203) On the ESTS, the CDM (A6A11) has a counter-timer and digitizer instrument capability.  How many input channels does each instrument have?

• A.

1

• B.

2

• C.

3

• D.

4

B. 2
Explanation
On the ESTS, the CDM (A6A11) has a counter-timer and digitizer instrument capability. Each instrument has 2 input channels.

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• 15.

### (204) On the ESTS, the timing generator module (A7A8) provides basic timing for the digital word generators 1 through 5 and the

• A.

Bus simulator (A7A5)

• B.

H009 interface (A7A4)

• C.

• D.

VXI bus extender module (A7A1)

Explanation
The timing generator module (A7A8) on the ESTS provides basic timing for various components, including the digital word generators 1 through 5 and the advanced video system (A7A6). This means that the A7A6 module relies on the A7A8 module for its timing signals. The other options mentioned, such as the bus simulator (A7A5), H009 interface (A7A4), and VXI bus extender module (A7A1), are not directly related to the timing function of the A7A8 module.

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• 16.

### (204) On the ESTS, digital word generators 1, 2, and 3 are what type of digital word generators?

• A.

High-density

• B.

High-speed

• C.

Low-density

• D.

Low-speed

B. High-speed
Explanation
The digital word generators 1, 2, and 3 on the ESTS are classified as high-speed digital word generators.

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• 17.

### (204) On the ESTS, digital word generators 5 and 6 are what type of digital word generators?

• A.

High-density

• B.

High-speed

• C.

Low-density

• D.

Low-speed

A. High-density
Explanation
Digital word generators 5 and 6 on the ESTS are classified as high-density digital word generators. This means that they are capable of generating a large number of digital words in a given time period. High-density digital word generators are designed to produce a high volume of data, making them suitable for applications that require a large amount of information to be processed or transmitted quickly.

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• 18.

### (205) What are the power requirements for ESTS operation?

• A.

220 VAC single-phase

• B.

115 VAC single-phase

• C.

220 VAC 3-phase

• D.

115 VAC 3-phase

B. 115 VAC single-pHase
Explanation
The power requirements for ESTS operation are 115 VAC single-phase.

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• 19.

### (205) On the ESTS, which power control circuit breaker controls power to the AC and DC power equipment assemblies?

• A.

MAIN POWER ON/OFF

• B.

VXI POWER ON/OFF

• C.

RF POWER ON/OFF

• D.

PS POWER ON/OFF

D. PS POWER ON/OFF
Explanation
The correct answer is "PS POWER ON/OFF". PS stands for Power Supply, and in this context, it refers to the power control circuit breaker that controls power to both the AC and DC power equipment assemblies. This breaker is responsible for turning the power on or off to these equipment assemblies, ensuring their proper functioning.

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• 20.

### (206) On the ESTS, which connector(s) of the interconnect assembly A10 (SIA1) connects to power distribution internconnections?

• A.

P1 only

• B.

P1 and P2 only

• C.

P1, P2, and P3 only

• D.

P1, P2, P3, and P4

D. P1, P2, P3, and P4
Explanation
The interconnect assembly A10 (SIA1) connects to power distribution internconnections through connectors P1, P2, P3, and P4.

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• 21.

### (206) On the ESTS, which connections on the interconnect assembly A12 (SIA3) connect to the system controller (A9)?

• A.

P1 and P2

• B.

P3 and P4

• C.

J1 and J2

• D.

P1 and J1

C. J1 and J2
Explanation
The correct answer is J1 and J2.

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• 22.

### (207) On the ESTS, when installing the interconnecting box A15 (maintenance ITA), the A15 mating is completed by

• A.

Rotating the two connectors engagement handles one turn clockwise

• B.

Installing four locking bolts and tightening them

• C.

Securing the locking clamps on both sides

• D.

Locking the four engagement pins

A. Rotating the two connectors engagement handles one turn clockwise
Explanation
When installing the interconnecting box A15 (maintenance ITA) on the ESTS, the mating process is completed by rotating the two connectors engagement handles one turn clockwise. This action ensures a secure connection between the two connectors, allowing for proper functioning of the interconnecting box. The other options mentioned, such as installing locking bolts, tightening them, securing locking clamps, or locking engagement pins, are not mentioned as necessary steps in completing the mating process for the A15 connectors.

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• 23.

### (208) What kind of Pentium processor does the ESTS system controller have?

• A.

1 GHz

• B.

500 MHz

• C.

120 Mhz

• D.

90 MHz

D. 90 MHz
Explanation
The ESTS system controller has a 90 MHz Pentium processor.

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• 24.

### (208) The system controller operator interface on the ESTS consists of the flat panel display, integral resistive technology touchscreen, the 101-key keyboard, and

• A.

Sound card

• B.

Microphone

• C.

• D.

Explanation
The system controller operator interface on the ESTS consists of the flat panel display, integral resistive technology touchscreen, and the 101-key keyboard. The video graphics adapter is responsible for generating and displaying the visual output on the flat panel display. It connects the display to the computer system and ensures that the graphics are rendered correctly. Therefore, the video graphics adapter is an essential component of the system controller operator interface.

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• 25.

### (208) On the ESTS, the SCSI card controls the magneto-optical drive, the removeable hard drive, and

• A.

CD-ROM drive

• B.

Floppy controller

• C.

3.5 inch floppy disk drive

• D.

64 Mb RAM

A. CD-ROM drive
Explanation
The SCSI card on the ESTS controls the magneto-optical drive, the removable hard drive, and the CD-ROM drive. This means that the SCSI card is responsible for managing the communication and data transfer between the ESTS and these devices. The other options listed (floppy controller, 3.5 inch floppy disk drive, 64 Mb RAM) are not controlled by the SCSI card in this scenario.

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• 26.

### (209) The system controller front panel INT power indicators illuminate to indicate the voltages that are present.  What voltage levels are represented by each illuminated indicator?

• A.

-5 and -12 VDC only

• B.

+5 and +12 VDC only

• C.

+5, -5, +12, and -12 VDC

• D.

+5, -5, +12, -12, +28, and -28 VDC

C. +5, -5, +12, and -12 VDC
Explanation
The system controller front panel INT power indicators illuminate to indicate the voltages that are present. The correct answer is +5, -5, +12, and -12 VDC. This means that when these indicators are lit up, it indicates that these specific voltage levels are present in the system.

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• 27.

### (209) On the ESTS, on the system controller keyboard, what key(s) suspends display activity until another key is pressed?

• A.

Esc (Escape)

• B.

Pause (Break)

• C.

Enter (Carriage Return)

• D.

Ctrl, Alt, and Del (Control, Alternate, and Delete)

B. Pause (Break)
Explanation
The correct answer is Pause (Break). On the ESTS system controller keyboard, pressing the Pause (Break) key suspends display activity until another key is pressed. This key is commonly used to pause or interrupt the execution of a program or command.

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• 28.

### (209) On the ESTS, what is used on the system controller external CD-ROM when it is not possible to open the CD-ROM drive using the Open-Close pushbutton?

• A.

Reset power

• B.

Remove lock nut

• C.

Manual release lever

• D.

Emergency eject access hole

D. Emergency eject access hole
Explanation
The correct answer is "Emergency eject access hole." On the ESTS, when it is not possible to open the CD-ROM drive using the Open-Close pushbutton, the emergency eject access hole is used. This access hole allows manual ejection of the CD-ROM by inserting a small tool, such as a paperclip, into the hole and pushing it gently. This is a useful feature in case of a malfunction or power failure where the CD-ROM drive cannot be opened using the regular method.

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• 29.

### (209) On the ESTS, on the system controller external CD-ROM, what decrements the CD track selection?

• A.

SCSI ID select switch

• B.

Forward track pushbutton

• C.

Back track pushbutton

• D.

Feature selector switch

C. Back track pushbutton
Explanation
The back track pushbutton on the system controller external CD-ROM decrements the CD track selection.

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• 30.

### (209) On the ESTS, what type of switch is used to control the configuratioin on the system controller external CD-ROM's feature selector switch?

• A.

Dip

• B.

Toggle

• C.

Pushbutton

• D.

Thumbwheel

A. Dip
Explanation
The correct answer is Dip. A Dip switch, also known as a dual in-line package switch, is a type of switch that is commonly used to control the configuration settings on electronic devices. It consists of a series of tiny switches that can be set to either an on or off position. In the context of the ESTS system controller external CD-ROM's feature selector switch, a Dip switch would be used to control the configuration settings of the switch.

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• 31.

### (210) What does the ESTS main menu option TPS allow the operator to perform?

• A.

ESTS system shutdown

• B.

LRU testing

• C.

Copy, print, and display calibration data

• D.

Change voltage parameters and signal paths

B. LRU testing
Explanation
The ESTS main menu option TPS allows the operator to perform LRU testing. This means that the operator can test the Line Replaceable Units (LRUs) in the system to ensure their functionality and identify any issues or faults. This testing is important for maintaining the overall performance and reliability of the ESTS system.

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• 32.

### (210) On the ESTS, which F-15 TPS selection menu option is the best method if you only know the name (nomenclature) of the LRU you are about to bench check?

• A.

Alphabetical index listing

• B.

LRU work unit code

• C.

TPS list number

• D.

List scrolling

D. List scrolling
Explanation
List scrolling is the best method on the ESTS if you only know the name (nomenclature) of the LRU you are about to bench check. This option allows you to scroll through a list of LRUs to find the specific one you are looking for. It is a convenient and efficient way to locate the LRU without having to know its work unit code or TPS list number. The alphabetical index listing may not be as efficient if you do not know the exact alphabetical order of the LRU's name. The LRU work unit code and TPS list number options require prior knowledge of the specific codes or numbers assigned to the LRUs.

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• 33.

### (210) On the ESTS, which TPS main menu option performs a test on a specific LRU SRU?

• A.

• B.

• C.

INDIVIDUAL TESTING

• D.

END-TO-END

C. INDIVIDUAL TESTING
Explanation
The correct answer is "INDIVIDUAL TESTING". This option allows the user to perform a test on a specific Line Replaceable Unit (LRU) System Replaceable Unit (SRU) on the ESTS (Electronic System Test Set). This option is useful for troubleshooting and diagnosing issues with a particular LRU SRU, allowing the user to isolate and test individual components of the system.

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• 34.

### (210) Which ESTS main menu optioin provides ESTS configuration/status?

• A.

TPS (debug mode)

• B.

Resource management

• C.

System services

• D.

Shutdown

B. Resource management
Explanation
The correct answer is Resource management. This option in the ESTS main menu allows users to configure and check the status of the ESTS system. This includes managing resources such as memory, disk space, and network connections. It provides a way to monitor and control the overall performance and functionality of the ESTS system.

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• 35.

### (211) What RF equipment device provides the ESTS with its phase noise measurement capability?

• A.

Signal analyzer

• B.

Signal generator

• C.

Spectrum analyzer

• D.

Fuction select keys

A. Signal analyzer
Explanation
A signal analyzer is a RF equipment device that provides the ESTS (Electronic Support Measures Test Set) with its phase noise measurement capability. This device is specifically designed to analyze and measure the characteristics of RF signals, including phase noise. It can accurately measure the phase noise of a signal and provide valuable information about its frequency stability and spectral purity. Therefore, a signal analyzer is the correct device that enables the ESTS to perform phase noise measurements.

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• 36.

### (211) On the ESTS, at what internal temperature does the signal analyzers VOLT/TEMP indicator light?

• A.

50 degress Celsius

• B.

Between 50 and 75 degrees Celsius

• C.

75 degress Celsius

• D.

When it exceeds 75 degrees Celsius.

D. When it exceeds 75 degrees Celsius.
Explanation
The VOLT/TEMP indicator light on the ESTS signal analyzer lights up when the internal temperature exceeds 75 degrees Celsius.

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• 37.

### (211) On the ESTS, the RF generator No. 1 is capable of delivering what type of RF outputs(s)?

• A.

Amplitutde only

• B.

Amplitude and pulse modulated only

• C.

Frequency and pulse modulated only

• D.

Amplitude, frequency, and pulse modulated

D. Amplitude, frequency, and pulse modulated
Explanation
The RF generator No. 1 on the ESTS is capable of delivering RF outputs that are amplitude, frequency, and pulse modulated. This means that it can vary the amplitude (strength), frequency (rate), and pulse modulation (on-off pattern) of the RF signal it generates.

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• 38.

### (212) Regarding the RF equipment assembly No. 2, together the spectrum analyzer and what other device perform phase testing of line replacable units?

• A.

Oscilloscope

• B.

Signal analyzer

• C.

Signal generator

• D.

Frequency synthesizer

B. Signal analyzer
Explanation
The correct answer is signal analyzer. In RF equipment assembly No. 2, the spectrum analyzer and signal analyzer are used together to perform phase testing of line replaceable units. A signal analyzer is a device that measures and analyzes the characteristics of electrical signals, including phase. It is commonly used in RF testing to analyze and troubleshoot signal quality and performance.

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• 39.

### (212) Which spectrum analyzer MARKER key in RF equipment assembly No. 2, places a marker at the highest point on a signal trace and accesses a menu of marker functions?

• A.

MKR key

• B.

--> MKR Key

• C.

FREQ COUNT key

• D.

PEAK SEARCH key

D. PEAK SEARCH key
Explanation
The correct answer is the PEAK SEARCH key. This key in the spectrum analyzer MARKER menu allows the user to place a marker at the highest point on a signal trace and access a menu of marker functions. This function is useful for analyzing and measuring the peak levels of signals in RF equipment assembly No. 2.

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• 40.

### (213) Which tier(s) of the GPIU form the interface test connector?

• A.

A and B

• B.

B and C

• C.

A only

• D.

B only

A. A and B
Explanation
The GPIU form the interface test connector consists of tiers A and B. This means that both tiers A and B are involved in forming the interface test connector.

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• 41.

### (213) Which GPIU subsystem provides serial and parallel digital stimulus and measurement capability to the GPITM?

• A.

Serial bus

• B.

Digital test

• C.

Waveform stimulus

• D.

B. Digital test
Explanation
The GPIU subsystem that provides serial and parallel digital stimulus and measurement capability to the GPITM is the "Digital test" subsystem. This subsystem allows for the generation and measurement of digital signals, which is essential for testing and analyzing the performance of the GPITM.

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• 42.

### (213) Which GPIU subsystem is the interface between the test station computer test module and the CCA of the GPIU?

• A.

Serial bus

• B.

Digital test

• C.

Waveform stimulus

• D.

Explanation
The test module adapter is the interface between the test station computer test module and the CCA of the GPIU. This adapter allows communication and data transfer between the computer and the GPIU, enabling the test module to control and monitor the CCA during testing.

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• 43.

### Which GPIU CCA is not one of the tier C plug in CCAs?

• A.

1553 CCA

• B.

Display CCA

• C.

Manchester CCA

• D.

C. Manchester CCA
Explanation
The Manchester CCA is not one of the tier C plug in CCAs.

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• 44.

### (214) The GPITM power-on and initiated are two of the three types of BITs.  What is the third type?

• A.

Nonstop

• B.

Permanent

• C.

Continuous

• D.

Uninterrupted

C. Continuous
Explanation
The third type of BIT is Continuous. The question asks for the third type of BIT, and the options provided are Nonstop, Permanent, Continuous, and Uninterrupted. Out of these options, Continuous is the only one that matches the criteria.

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• 45.

### Which GPITM BIT operates independently of the other station assest by using GPIU stimulus and measurement resources other than the CCA being tested?

• A.

Initiated

• B.

Power-on

• C.

Continuous

• D.

Uninterrupted

A. Initiated
Explanation
The correct answer is "Initiated." This term refers to a GPITM BIT (Built-In Test) that operates independently from other station assets. It uses GPIU (General Purpose Interface Unit) stimulus and measurement resources, excluding the CCA (Circuit Card Assembly) being tested. This means that the test is initiated and carried out autonomously, without relying on any other components or resources.

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• 46.

### What two GPITM CCA are required to test every CCA withing the GPIU?

• A.

Special function interface and the signal conditioner

• B.

ICA I/F and the monitor select

• C.

ARB waveform generator and the HDR

• D.

TMA and the ICA A/F

D. TMA and the ICA A/F
Explanation
The TMA (Test Measurement Adapter) and the ICA A/F (Interface Control Assembly Analog/Frequency) are required to test every CCA (Circuit Card Assembly) within the GPIU (Generic Processor Interface Unit). These two components provide the necessary interface and control for conducting the tests on the CCAs.

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• 47.

### If a GPITM spurious overcurrent interrupt occurs during BIT, what symbol (indicator) will be displayed by the statur indicator for the circuit card assembly being tested when the interrupt occurred?

• A.

Dash (-)

• B.

Zero (0)

• C.

Percent (%)

• D.

Asterisk (*)

C. Percent (%)
Explanation
During the Built-In Test (BIT), if a GPITM (General Purpose Interrupt) spurious overcurrent interrupt occurs, the status indicator for the circuit card assembly being tested will display the symbol for percent (%).

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• 48.

### Within the GPITM GPIU, if multiple BIT failures occur for multiple CCAs and the I/F chassis bus extendor is one of the CCAs that has failed BIT, what action should be taken?

• A.

Ignore all other CCA BIT failures until the I/F chassis bus extender CCA fail is corrected

• B.

Start from tier A and reset each CCA one at a time and then rerun BIT after each reset

• C.

Reload system software because multiple CCA BIT fails indicate a software problem

• D.

Power down and back-up the test station, this will reset all CCA firmware

A. Ignore all other CCA BIT failures until the I/F chassis bus extender CCA fail is corrected
Explanation
When multiple BIT failures occur for multiple CCAs within the GPITM GPIU and the I/F chassis bus extender CCA is one of the failed CCAs, the correct action is to ignore all other CCA BIT failures until the I/F chassis bus extender CCA fail is corrected. This means that the focus should be on fixing the issue with the I/F chassis bus extender CCA before addressing any other CCA failures.

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• 49.

### The overall function of the RITM is to select and complete signal paths between the station RF automatic test equipment and what devices/component?

• A.

UUT

• B.

Digitizer oscilloscope

• C.

Frequency synthesizer

• D.

GPITM

A. UUT
Explanation
The RITM's main purpose is to choose and finalize signal paths between the station RF automatic test equipment and the UUT (Unit Under Test). This means that the RITM is responsible for connecting the test equipment to the specific device or component being tested, allowing for accurate and efficient testing processes. The other options, such as the digitizer oscilloscope, frequency synthesizer, and GPITM, are not directly related to the RITM's function of selecting and completing signal paths for the UUT.

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• 50.

### The TISS test station RF measurement instruments such as the power meter and spectrum analyzer acquire measurement waveforms supplied by what?

• A.

• B.

• C.

RITM

• D.

GPITM

C. RITM
Explanation
The RF measurement instruments such as the power meter and spectrum analyzer acquire measurement waveforms supplied by RITM.

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• Current Version
• Mar 21, 2023
Quiz Edited by
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• Aug 10, 2010
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