Fam 103 Quiz 2

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Aclonick2
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 69
Questions: 118 | Attempts: 69

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Development Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Describe SE "Functional Baseline" specifications.

    • A.

      System specifications; Identifies the total function of the system, basis for development contract

    • B.

      Defines ingredients and portions to make the item

    • C.

      Item performance specifications; "design to" baseline

    • D.

      Item detailed specifications; how to build components

    Correct Answer
    A. System specifications; Identifies the total function of the system, basis for development contract
    Explanation
    The SE "Functional Baseline" specifications refer to the system specifications that identify the overall function of the system. These specifications serve as the basis for the development contract, outlining the requirements and expectations for the system. They define the ingredients and portions required to create the system, as well as the performance specifications that the system should adhere to. Additionally, the "Functional Baseline" specifications provide detailed instructions on how to build the various components of the system.

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  • 2. 

    Describe the Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS).

    • A.

      Uses a strategy-to-task, capability gap identification process, ultimately "pushing" capability requirement down to the user.

    • B.

      Before buying something to close a capability gap we should look to see if there is something about the way we currently do business that could be changed to eliminate the gap.

    • C.

      Supports Material Solutions Analysis

    • D.

      Identifies the capabilities required to successfully execute the mission. It also identifies shortfalls within existing systems to deliver those capabilities and the associated risks, possible non-material approaches, and if necessary executing a material solution.

    Correct Answer
    A. Uses a strategy-to-task, capability gap identification process, ultimately "pushing" capability requirement down to the user.
    Explanation
    JCIDS is a system that identifies the capabilities needed to accomplish a mission and addresses any gaps in existing systems. It uses a strategy-to-task approach to determine the capability requirements and then pushes those requirements down to the user. Before purchasing new equipment or technology, JCIDS encourages evaluating if there are any changes in current practices that can eliminate the capability gap. It also supports Material Solutions Analysis, which involves identifying shortfalls, assessing risks, considering non-material approaches, and implementing a material solution if necessary.

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  • 3. 

    Describe the Capabilities Based Assessment (CBA) process.

    • A.

      Before buying something to close a capability gap we should look to see if there is something about the way we currently do business that could be changed to eliminate the gap.

    • B.

      It defines the tasks with current and planned capabilities. Additionally, it identifies what capabilities are missing.

    • C.

      Supports Material Solutions Analysis

    • D.

      Identifies the capabilities required to successfully execute the mission. It also identifies shortfalls within existing systems to deliver those capabilities and the associated risks, possible non-material approaches, and if necessary executing a material solution.

    Correct Answer
    D. Identifies the capabilities required to successfully execute the mission. It also identifies shortfalls within existing systems to deliver those capabilities and the associated risks, possible non-material approaches, and if necessary executing a material solution.
    Explanation
    The Capabilities Based Assessment (CBA) process is used to identify the capabilities needed to successfully execute a mission. It also aims to identify any gaps or shortfalls within existing systems that prevent the delivery of these capabilities. The process also assesses the associated risks and explores possible non-material approaches to address the gaps. If necessary, a material solution may be executed to bridge the capability gap. This process supports Material Solutions Analysis and helps determine if changes in current business practices can eliminate the capability gap before making a purchase.

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  • 4. 

    Explain the importance of DOTMLPF-P analysis.

    • A.

      Identifies the capabilities required to successfully execute the mission. It also identifies shortfalls within existing systems to deliver those capabilities and the associated risks, possible non-material approaches, and if necessary executing a material solution.

    • B.

      Before buying something to close a capability gap we should look to see if there is something about the way we currently do business that could be changed to eliminate the gap.

    • C.

      It defines the tasks with current and planned capabilities. Additionally, it identifies what capabilities are missing.

    • D.

      Supports Material Solutions Analysis

    Correct Answer
    B. Before buying something to close a capability gap we should look to see if there is something about the way we currently do business that could be changed to eliminate the gap.
    Explanation
    The importance of DOTMLPF-P analysis lies in its ability to identify the capabilities required for mission execution and to assess any existing shortfalls in delivering those capabilities. It also helps in identifying associated risks and potential non-material approaches to address the gaps. By conducting this analysis, we can determine if there are any changes in the current processes or systems that can eliminate the capability gap, without the need for purchasing new solutions. This approach promotes cost-effectiveness and efficiency in decision-making regarding capability enhancements.

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  • 5. 

    What is the common criteria for a good requirement?

    • A.

      Orderly, measurable, attainable, unnecessary, ambiguous, results-oriented, organized, correct

    • B.

      Orderly, measurable, attainable, necessary, unambiguous, results-oriented, organized, correct

    • C.

      Measurable, attainable, unnecessary, ambiguous, results-oriented

    • D.

      Attainable, necessary, unambiguous, results-oriented, organized

    Correct Answer
    B. Orderly, measurable, attainable, necessary, unambiguous, results-oriented, organized, correct
    Explanation
    A good requirement should be orderly, measurable, attainable, necessary, unambiguous, results-oriented, organized, and correct. These criteria ensure that the requirement is clear, specific, achievable, and aligned with the desired outcome. The requirement should be organized and structured in a logical manner, allowing for easy understanding and implementation. It should also be measurable, allowing for objective evaluation of its success. Additionally, the requirement should be necessary and aligned with the project's goals and objectives. Finally, it should be unambiguous and correct, leaving no room for misinterpretation or errors.

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  • 6. 

    Define objective requirements, threshold requirements, and key performance parameters (KPPs).

    • A.

      Objective-desired operational goal, but beyond is not necessary, threshold-min acceptable value achievable, performance beyond is not worth the additional money

    • B.

      Threshold-min acceptable value achievable, performance beyond is only required

    • C.

      Objective-desired operational goal, but beyond is not necessary

    • D.

      None of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. Objective-desired operational goal, but beyond is not necessary, threshold-min acceptable value achievable, performance beyond is not worth the additional money
    Explanation
    Objective requirements refer to the desired operational goals that need to be achieved. These goals are considered necessary but going beyond them is not required. Threshold requirements are the minimum acceptable values that can be achieved. Meeting these values is essential, but exceeding them is not necessary. Key Performance Parameters (KPPs) are the specific performance attributes that are critical to the success of a system or project. They define the minimum acceptable levels of performance that must be met. In this context, the correct answer suggests that objective requirements are desired but not necessary, threshold requirements must be achievable, and performance beyond the threshold is not worth the additional cost.

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  • 7. 

    What are the mandatory KPPs?

    • A.

      Force Protection, Survivability, Sustainment, Net Ready, Energy Efficiency, and System Training

    • B.

      Survivability, Sustainment, Net Ready, Energy Efficiency, and System Training

    • C.

      Force Protection, Survivability, Sustainment, and System Training

    • D.

      Force Protection, Survivability, Oversized Sustainment, Net Readiness, Energy Infficiency, and System Training

    Correct Answer
    A. Force Protection, Survivability, Sustainment, Net Ready, Energy Efficiency, and System Training
    Explanation
    The mandatory KPPs are Force Protection, Survivability, Sustainment, Net Ready, Energy Efficiency, and System Training. These KPPs are essential for ensuring the effectiveness and longevity of a system. Force Protection ensures the safety and security of personnel and assets. Survivability ensures the system's ability to withstand and recover from threats. Sustainment focuses on the system's ability to be maintained and supported throughout its lifecycle. Net Ready refers to the system's ability to effectively operate and communicate within a networked environment. Energy Efficiency aims to optimize the system's energy consumption. System Training ensures that operators and maintainers are properly trained to operate and maintain the system.

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  • 8. 

    Describe the roles (as they pertain to the acquisition community) of the POTUS

    • A.

      Develops policies for entire DoD, prepares defense budget, organize/train/equip DoD, oversees DAS

    • B.

      Military advisor, approves military requirements

    • C.

      Approves national security strategy, submits annual budget

    • D.

      Oversees AF acquisition policy and direction

    Correct Answer
    C. Approves national security strategy, submits annual budget
    Explanation
    The POTUS (President of the United States) has the role of approving the national security strategy and submitting the annual budget. This means that the POTUS has the authority to review and endorse the strategic plan for national security and is responsible for presenting the budget proposal to Congress. This role allows the POTUS to have a significant influence on the priorities and direction of the acquisition community, as the national security strategy and budget allocation are crucial factors in determining the acquisition policies and priorities of the Department of Defense.

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  • 9. 

    Describe the role (as they pertain to the acquisition community) of the Office of the Secretary of Defense.

    • A.

      Approves national security strategy, submits annual budget

    • B.

      Develops policies for entire DoD, prepares defense budget, organize/train/equip DoD, oversees DAS

    • C.

      Oversees all AF mil and civ personnel, train/equips AF

    • D.

      Manage and execute acquisition of a program

    Correct Answer
    B. Develops policies for entire DoD, prepares defense budget, organize/train/equip DoD, oversees DAS
    Explanation
    The Office of the Secretary of Defense plays a crucial role in the acquisition community by developing policies for the entire Department of Defense (DoD). They are responsible for preparing the defense budget, which determines the allocation of resources for various defense programs and initiatives. Additionally, they are involved in organizing, training, and equipping the DoD to ensure its operational readiness. The Office of the Secretary of Defense also oversees the Defense Acquisition System (DAS), which involves managing and executing the acquisition of programs within the DoD.

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  • 10. 

    Describe the roles (as they pertain to the acquisition community) of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS)

    • A.

      Manage and execute acquisition of a program

    • B.

      Oversees AF acquisition policy and direction

    • C.

      Develops policies for entire DoD, prepares defense budget, organize/train/equip DoD, oversees DAS

    • D.

      Military advisor to POTUS, approves military requirements

    Correct Answer
    D. Military advisor to POTUS, approves military requirements
    Explanation
    The Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) serve as military advisors to the President of the United States (POTUS) and have the authority to approve military requirements. They provide expert advice and recommendations to the President on military matters, ensuring that the military's needs and capabilities align with national security objectives. The JCS play a crucial role in shaping military policy and strategy, as well as overseeing the development and implementation of military requirements. They work closely with the Department of Defense (DoD) to ensure that the military is properly organized, trained, and equipped to carry out its missions effectively.

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  • 11. 

    Describe the roles (as they pertain to the acquisition community) of the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force (SAF)

    • A.

      Military advisor to POTUS, approves military requirements

    • B.

      Primary acquisition command for non-space systems

    • C.

      Oversees AF acquisition policy and direction

    • D.

      Provide military focused space and cyber capabilities

    Correct Answer
    C. Oversees AF acquisition policy and direction
    Explanation
    The Office of the Secretary of the Air Force (SAF) plays a crucial role in the acquisition community by overseeing the acquisition policy and direction of the Air Force. They are responsible for setting the guidelines and strategies for acquiring new systems and technologies. This includes establishing the policies and procedures that govern the acquisition process, as well as providing guidance on the direction the Air Force should take in terms of its acquisition priorities. By overseeing the acquisition policy and direction, the SAF ensures that the Air Force's acquisition efforts are aligned with its overall goals and objectives.

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  • 12. 

    Describe the role (as they pertain to the acquisition community) of the Air Staff (HQ USAF)

    • A.

      Oversees AF acquisition policy and direction

    • B.

      Military advisor to POTUS, approves military requirements

    • C.

      Develops policies for entire DoD, prepares defense budget, organize/train/equip DoD, oversees DAS

    • D.

      Oversees all AF mil and civ personnel, train/equips AF

    Correct Answer
    D. Oversees all AF mil and civ personnel, train/equips AF
    Explanation
    The Air Staff (HQ USAF) plays a crucial role in the acquisition community by overseeing all Air Force military and civilian personnel, as well as training and equipping the Air Force. This means that they are responsible for managing and supervising the personnel within the Air Force, ensuring that they are properly trained and equipped to carry out their duties effectively. This includes both military personnel and civilian employees. By overseeing the training and equipping of the Air Force, the Air Staff ensures that the Air Force has the necessary resources and capabilities to fulfill its mission.

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  • 13. 

    Describe the role (as they pertain to the acquisition community) of the Program Executive Officers (PEOs),

    • A.

      Oversees AF acquisition policy and direction

    • B.

      Develops policies for entire DoD, prepares defense budget, organize/train/equip DoD, oversees DAS

    • C.

      Responsible for overall execution of programs within their portfolio

    • D.

      Provide mil-focused space and cyber capabilities

    Correct Answer
    C. Responsible for overall execution of programs within their portfolio
    Explanation
    The Program Executive Officers (PEOs) are responsible for the overall execution of programs within their portfolio. This means that they oversee and manage all aspects of the programs, including planning, development, acquisition, and implementation. They ensure that the programs are executed efficiently and effectively, meeting the required objectives and delivering the desired capabilities. The PEOs work closely with stakeholders, including contractors, government agencies, and military personnel, to ensure that the programs are on track and aligned with the acquisition community's goals and objectives. They are accountable for the success of the programs and are responsible for making strategic decisions to ensure their successful execution.

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  • 14. 

    Describe the roles (as they pertain to the acquisition community) of the Program Managers (PMs)

    • A.

      Provide mil-focused space and cyber capabilities

    • B.

      Manage and execute acquisition of a program

    • C.

      Military advisor to POTUS, approves military requirements

    • D.

      Develops policies for entire DoD, prepares defense budget, organize/train/equip DoD, oversees DAS

    Correct Answer
    B. Manage and execute acquisition of a program
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Manage and execute acquisition of a program." Program Managers (PMs) are responsible for overseeing the acquisition process of a program, from the initial planning stages to the final execution. They are in charge of coordinating and managing all aspects of the program, including budgeting, scheduling, and resource allocation. PMs work closely with stakeholders, contractors, and other team members to ensure that the program is delivered on time, within budget, and meets the required specifications. They also monitor and evaluate the program's progress, making adjustments as necessary to ensure its successful completion.

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  • 15. 

    Describe the role (as they pertain to the acquisition community) of the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC),

    • A.

      Primary acquisition command for non-space systems

    • B.

      Oversees AF acquisition policy and direction

    • C.

      Oversees all AF mil and civ personnel, train/equips AF

    • D.

      Responsible for overall execution of programs within their portfolio

    Correct Answer
    A. Primary acquisition command for non-space systems
    Explanation
    The Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) plays a crucial role in the acquisition community as the primary acquisition command for non-space systems. This means that AFMC is responsible for overseeing the acquisition process for all non-space systems within the Air Force. They are also responsible for developing and implementing acquisition policies and providing direction to ensure efficient and effective acquisition practices. Additionally, AFMC oversees all Air Force military and civilian personnel, ensuring they are properly trained and equipped to support the acquisition process. Overall, AFMC is responsible for the successful execution of programs within their portfolio, ensuring that non-space systems are acquired and maintained to meet the needs of the Air Force.

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  • 16. 

    Describe the role (as they pertain to the acquisition community) of the Air Force Space Command (AFSPC).

    • A.

      Develops policies for entire DoD, prepares defense budget, organize/train/equip DoD, oversees DAS

    • B.

      Primary acquisition command for non-space systems

    • C.

      Provide mil-focused space and cyber capabilities

    • D.

      Oversees AF acquisition policy and direction

    Correct Answer
    C. Provide mil-focused space and cyber capabilities
    Explanation
    The Air Force Space Command (AFSPC) plays a crucial role in the acquisition community by providing military-focused space and cyber capabilities. This means that AFSPC is responsible for developing and acquiring technologies and systems that are specifically designed for space and cyber operations within the military. They work towards enhancing the military's capabilities in these domains, ensuring that the Air Force has the necessary resources and technologies to effectively operate in space and cyberspace.

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  • 17. 

    Describe the role of the Armed Services Committees.

    • A.

      Authorize dollars to programs up to the ceiling amount

    • B.

      Authorize programs and set funding ceiling for programs

    • C.

      Appropriate dollars to authorized programs, up to the ceiling amount

    • D.

      None of the Above

    Correct Answer
    B. Authorize programs and set funding ceiling for programs
    Explanation
    The role of the Armed Services Committees is to authorize programs and set the funding ceiling for those programs. This means that they have the power to approve or reject programs and determine the maximum amount of funding that can be allocated to them. They play a crucial role in ensuring that the military programs are properly funded and aligned with national defense priorities.

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  • 18. 

    Describe the role of the Appropriation Committees. 

    • A.

      Authorize programs and set funding ceiling for programs

    • B.

      Provide oversight, depending the size of program

    • C.

      Appropriate dollars to authorized programs, up to the ceiling amount

    • D.

      Authorize CAT III Programs

    Correct Answer
    C. Appropriate dollars to authorized programs, up to the ceiling amount
    Explanation
    The role of the Appropriation Committees is to allocate funds to authorized programs, but only up to the funding ceiling set for those programs. This means that they have the authority to determine how much money should be allocated to each program, ensuring that the programs are adequately funded but not exceeding the predetermined limit. Their responsibility is to carefully distribute the available funds in a way that maximizes their effectiveness and meets the needs of the authorized programs.

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  • 19. 

    Describe the role of the Government Accountability Office (GAO).

    • A.

      Appropriate dollars to authorized programs, up to the ceiling amount

    • B.

      Authorize programs and set funding ceiling for programs

    • C.

      Provide oversight, depending the size of the Program

    • D.

      Financial watchdog working for congress. Conducts audits and investigations. Issues reports to committees and reviews budget requests. Examines alternatives.

    Correct Answer
    D. Financial watchdog working for congress. Conducts audits and investigations. Issues reports to committees and reviews budget requests. Examines alternatives.
    Explanation
    The Government Accountability Office (GAO) is a financial watchdog working for Congress. Its role involves conducting audits and investigations, issuing reports to committees, reviewing budget requests, and examining alternatives. The GAO acts as an independent agency that provides oversight and ensures accountability in government spending. It plays a crucial role in ensuring transparency and efficiency in the use of taxpayer dollars by conducting thorough examinations and providing valuable insights to Congress.

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  • 20. 

    Describe Congress' influence over defense acquisition (laws, budgets, oversight).

    • A.

      Financial watchdog working for congress. Conducts audits and investigations. Issues reports to committees and reviews budget requests. Examines alternatives.

    • B.

      Appropriate dollars to authorized programs, up to the ceiling amount

    • C.

      Provide oversight, depending the size, Provide funds, Use’s GAO to gather info to support key decisions

    • D.

      Authorize programs and set funding ceiling for programs

    Correct Answer
    C. Provide oversight, depending the size, Provide funds, Use’s GAO to gather info to support key decisions
    Explanation
    Congress has influence over defense acquisition through several means. Firstly, they provide oversight, which can vary depending on the size of the acquisition. This means they monitor and review the acquisition process to ensure it is being conducted properly and efficiently. Secondly, Congress provides funds for defense acquisition, allocating the necessary budget for these programs. Additionally, Congress utilizes the Government Accountability Office (GAO) to gather information that supports key decisions related to defense acquisition. The GAO acts as a financial watchdog, conducting audits and investigations, issuing reports to committees, and reviewing budget requests. Overall, Congress plays a crucial role in providing oversight, funding, and information gathering for defense acquisition.

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  • 21. 

    Describe SMART, including both what it is and why it is needed. 

    • A.

      Support applications designed to assist project managers with day-to-day tasks and reports.

    • B.

      Support system applications

    • C.

      Web based support applications designed to assist program managers and acquisition pros with day-to-day tasks and reports on the health and status of a program throughout its life cycle

    • D.

      All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    C. Web based support applications designed to assist program managers and acquisition pros with day-to-day tasks and reports on the health and status of a program throughout its life cycle
    Explanation
    SMART stands for Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound. It is a framework used to set objectives and goals that are clear, quantifiable, attainable, relevant, and have a defined timeframe. SMART is needed because it helps individuals and organizations to set realistic and achievable goals, track progress, and evaluate success. By using the SMART criteria, project managers can ensure that their goals are well-defined, measurable, and aligned with the overall objectives of the project. This allows for better planning, resource allocation, and decision-making, ultimately leading to successful project outcomes. The given answer does not provide an explanation for the correct answer.

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  • 22. 

    Describe the Program Manager management reporting chain using SMART

    • A.

      Rate how healthy a program is.

    • B.

      Monitor how healthy a program is.

    • C.

      Monitor program status’ across the AF

    • D.

      All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. Rate how healthy a program is.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "All of the Above." This is because the question is asking for a description of the Program Manager management reporting chain using SMART, and all of the options provided - rating the program's health, monitoring the program's health, and monitoring program status across the AF - are valid ways to describe the management reporting chain using SMART.

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  • 23. 

    Describe the Program Executive Office management reporting level as it pertains to SMART

    • A.

      Monitor program status’ across the AF

    • B.

      Rate how healthy a program is.

    • C.

      Monitor how healthy a program is.

    • D.

      None of the Above

    Correct Answer
    C. Monitor how healthy a program is.
    Explanation
    The Program Executive Office management reporting level in SMART is designed to monitor the overall health of a program. This includes tracking and assessing various aspects such as performance, progress, risks, and resources. By monitoring these factors, the program managers can identify any issues or areas that need improvement and take appropriate actions to ensure the program's success. This reporting level provides valuable insights into the program's overall status and helps in making informed decisions and strategic planning.

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  • 24. 

    Describe how SAF/AQ management levels in the reporting chain use SMART.

    • A.

      Monitor program status’ across the AF

    • B.

      Monitor how healthy a program is.

    • C.

      Rate how healthy a program is.

    • D.

      All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. Monitor program status’ across the AF
    Explanation
    SAF/AQ management levels in the reporting chain use SMART to monitor program status across the Air Force. SMART stands for Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound. By using the SMART criteria, management levels can ensure that program status is being monitored in a specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound manner. This helps them track the progress and effectiveness of programs and make informed decisions based on the data collected.

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  • 25. 

    Identify key considerations in DoD/AF strategy formulation.

    • A.

      Classic model and starting point for most mil systems

    • B.

      Schedule dominates over cost and schedule, compress/eliminate phases, accept large risks

    • C.

      Business and technical risks, systems engineering approach, and test and evaluation.

    • D.

      User requirements, business and technical risks, systems engineering approach, test and evaluation, logistics, contract options, dynamic environments, etc.

    Correct Answer
    D. User requirements, business and technical risks, systems engineering approach, test and evaluation, logistics, contract options, dynamic environments, etc.
    Explanation
    The key considerations in DoD/AF strategy formulation include user requirements, business and technical risks, systems engineering approach, test and evaluation, logistics, contract options, and dynamic environments. These factors are crucial in ensuring that the strategy is effective and aligned with the goals and objectives of the organization. By considering user requirements, the strategy can be tailored to meet the needs and expectations of the end-users. Business and technical risks need to be assessed and managed to minimize potential negative impacts. The systems engineering approach ensures that the strategy is well-designed and integrated. Test and evaluation help in assessing the effectiveness and efficiency of the strategy. Logistics and contract options are important for resource allocation and management. Lastly, dynamic environments require the strategy to be adaptable and flexible to changing circumstances.

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  • 26. 

    Describe the Hardware Intensive Defense Acquisition Program Model.

    • A.

      Provides rapid delivery of a capability through several limited fielding's

    • B.

      Development of complex, usually defense unique, software programs that will not be deployed until several software builds are complete

    • C.

      Classic model and starting point for most mil systems

    • D.

      Schedule dominates over cost and schedule, compress/eliminate phases, accept large risks

    Correct Answer
    C. Classic model and starting point for most mil systems
    Explanation
    The Hardware Intensive Defense Acquisition Program Model is a classic model that serves as the starting point for most military systems. It focuses on providing rapid delivery of a capability through several limited fielding's. The model involves the development of complex software programs that are usually unique to defense and will not be deployed until several software builds are complete. In this model, the schedule dominates over cost and schedule, and there is a willingness to compress or eliminate phases and accept large risks.

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  • 27. 

    Describe the Defense unique software intensive Defense Acquisition Program Model.

    • A.

      Classic model and starting point for most mil systems

    • B.

      Hardware development as the basic structure with a simultaneous software development occurring.

    • C.

      Development of complex, usually defense unique, software programs that will not be deployed until several software builds are complete

    • D.

      Schedule dominates over cost and schedule, compress/eliminate phases, accept large risks

    Correct Answer
    C. Development of complex, usually defense unique, software programs that will not be deployed until several software builds are complete
    Explanation
    The Defense unique software intensive Defense Acquisition Program Model involves the development of complex software programs that are specific to defense needs. These programs are not deployed until multiple software builds are complete. This model prioritizes schedule over cost and schedule, often compressing or eliminating phases and accepting large risks. It is considered a classic model and is commonly used as a starting point for most military systems.

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  • 28. 

    Describe the incrementally fielded software intensive Defense Acquisition Program Models.

    • A.

      Development of complex, usually defense unique, software programs that will not be deployed until several software builds are complete

    • B.

      Provides rapid delivery of a capability through several limited fielding

    • C.

      Schedule dominates over cost and schedule, compress/eliminate phases, accept large risks

    • D.

      Hardware development as the basic structure with a simultaneous software development occurring.

    Correct Answer
    B. Provides rapid delivery of a capability through several limited fielding
    Explanation
    The incrementally fielded software intensive Defense Acquisition Program Models provide rapid delivery of a capability through several limited fielding. This means that instead of waiting for the entire software program to be completed before deployment, the program is delivered in increments or stages. This allows for quicker delivery of capabilities and enables the program to be fielded in smaller, manageable portions. This approach prioritizes schedule over cost and schedule, and may involve compressing or eliminating phases in order to meet deadlines. Additionally, hardware development and software development occur simultaneously, allowing for a more efficient and integrated development process.

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  • 29. 

    Describe the Accelerate Acquisition Approach Defense Acquisition Program Models.

    • A.

      Classic model and starting point for most mil systems

    • B.

      Development of complex, usually defense unique, software programs that will not be deployed until several software builds are complete

    • C.

      Provides rapid delivery of a capability through several limited fielding

    • D.

      Schedule dominates over cost and schedule, compress/eliminate phases, accept large risks

    Correct Answer
    D. Schedule dominates over cost and schedule, compress/eliminate phases, accept large risks
    Explanation
    The Accelerate Acquisition Approach Defense Acquisition Program Models prioritize the schedule over cost and schedule, compress or eliminate phases, and accept large risks. This approach is considered the classic model and is commonly used as the starting point for most military systems. It involves the development of complex software programs that are unique to defense and will not be deployed until several software builds are complete. The approach aims to provide rapid delivery of capabilities through limited fielding.

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  • 30. 

    Describe the Hybrid A Acquisition Program Model.

    • A.

      Software intensive product development

    • B.

      Schedule dominates over cost and schedule, compress/eliminate phases, accept large risks

    • C.

      Hardware development as the basic structure with a simultaneous software development occurring.

    • D.

      Provides rapid delivery of a capability through several limited fielding

    Correct Answer
    C. Hardware development as the basic structure with a simultaneous software development occurring.
    Explanation
    The Hybrid A Acquisition Program Model is a development approach that emphasizes hardware development as the foundation, while also incorporating simultaneous software development. This means that both hardware and software components are being developed concurrently, allowing for a more efficient and streamlined development process. Additionally, the model prioritizes schedule over cost and schedule, meaning that the focus is on delivering the product quickly, even if it means accepting higher risks. The model also emphasizes rapid delivery through limited fielding, meaning that the product is deployed in stages rather than all at once.

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  • 31. 

    Describe the Hybrid B, Hybrid Acquisition Program Model.  

    • A.

      Hardware development as the basic structure with a simultaneous software development occurring.

    • B.

      Schedule dominates over cost and schedule, compress/eliminate phases, accept large risks

    • C.

      Software intensive product development

    • D.

      Classic model and starting point for most mil systems

    Correct Answer
    C. Software intensive product development
    Explanation
    The given correct answer suggests that the Hybrid B, Hybrid Acquisition Program Model is a software intensive product development approach. This means that the focus of the model is on developing and integrating software into the product, with hardware development serving as the basic structure. This approach may prioritize schedule over cost and schedule, potentially compressing or eliminating certain phases of development. The Hybrid B model is considered a classic and commonly used starting point for most military systems.

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  • 32. 

    Describe the purpose, content, and importance of the Acquisition Strategy.

    • A.

      Identifying acquisition approach, describes business, technical support strategies managing risk and meeting objectives

    • B.

      Describes plan for integration and sustainment activities into acq. strategy and operational executions

    • C.

      Prepared by MDA, documents MDAs key decisions, done after milestones

    • D.

      Describes what will be done, when, and for how much

    Correct Answer
    A. Identifying acquisition approach, describes business, technical support strategies managing risk and meeting objectives
    Explanation
    The Acquisition Strategy serves the purpose of identifying the acquisition approach and describing the business and technical support strategies that will be used to manage risk and meet objectives. It also includes a plan for integrating and sustaining activities into the acquisition strategy and operational executions. The strategy is prepared by the MDA and documents key decisions made after milestones. It outlines what will be done, when it will be done, and the estimated cost. This document is important as it provides a roadmap for the acquisition process and ensures that all necessary steps are taken to achieve the desired outcomes.

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  • 33. 

    Describe the purpose, content, and importance of the Life Cycle Sustainment Plan (LCSP).

    • A.

      Identifying acquisition approach, describes business, technical support strategies managing risk and meeting objectives

    • B.

      Describes what will be done, when, and for how much

    • C.

      Prepared by MDA, documents MDAs key decisions, done after milestones

    • D.

      Describes plan for integration and sustainment activities into acquisition strategy and operational executions

    Correct Answer
    D. Describes plan for integration and sustainment activities into acquisition strategy and operational executions
    Explanation
    The Life Cycle Sustainment Plan (LCSP) is a document that describes the plan for integrating and sustaining activities into the acquisition strategy and operational execution. It identifies the acquisition approach, describes business and technical support strategies, manages risk, and ensures that objectives are met. The LCSP also outlines what will be done, when it will be done, and how much it will cost. It is prepared by the MDA (Milestone Decision Authority) and documents key decisions made by the MDA. Overall, the LCSP is important as it provides a roadmap for ensuring the long-term sustainment and success of a program or project.

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  • 34. 

    Describe the purpose, content, and importance of the Acquisition Decision Memorandum.

    • A.

      Prepared by MDA, documents MDAs key decisions, done after milestones

    • B.

      Identifying acquisition approach, describes business, technical support strategies managing risk and meeting objectives

    • C.

      Describes plan for integration and sustainment activities into acq. strategy and operational executions

    • D.

      Describes what will be done, when, and for how much

    Correct Answer
    A. Prepared by MDA, documents MDAs key decisions, done after milestones
    Explanation
    The Acquisition Decision Memorandum (ADM) is prepared by the MDA (Milestone Decision Authority) and serves to document the key decisions made by the MDA after reaching milestones in the acquisition process. The ADM identifies the acquisition approach and outlines the business and technical support strategies for managing risk and meeting objectives. Additionally, the ADM describes the plan for integrating and sustaining activities into the acquisition strategy and operational executions. It provides a clear roadmap of what will be done, when it will be done, and the estimated cost. The ADM is crucial in ensuring transparency, accountability, and effective decision-making in the acquisition process.

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  • 35. 

    Describe the purpose, content, and importance of the Acquisition Program Baseline.

    • A.

      Identifying acquisition approach, describes business, technical support strategies managing risk and meeting objectives

    • B.

      Prepared by MDA, documents MDAs key decisions, done after milestones

    • C.

      Describes what will be done, when, and for how much

    • D.

      Describes plan for integration and sustainment activities into acq. strategy and operational executions

    Correct Answer
    C. Describes what will be done, when, and for how much
    Explanation
    The Acquisition Program Baseline is a document that describes the plan for an acquisition program. It outlines what will be done, when it will be done, and how much it will cost. This baseline is important because it provides a clear roadmap for the program, ensuring that all stakeholders are on the same page and understand the objectives and timeline. It also helps in identifying the acquisition approach and managing risks. The baseline is prepared by the MDA and documents key decisions made after milestones. Additionally, it describes the plan for integrating and sustaining activities into the acquisition strategy and operational executions.

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  • 36. 

    Define a program deviation.

    • A.

      Future uncertainty with a negative consequence

    • B.

      Describes what will be done, when, and for how much

    • C.

      Describes plan for integration and sustainment activities into acq. strategy and operational executions

    • D.

      One or more of the APB threshold parameters will not be met

    Correct Answer
    A. Future uncertainty with a negative consequence
    Explanation
    A program deviation refers to future uncertainty with a negative consequence. This means that there is a lack of clarity or predictability regarding the outcome of a program, and this uncertainty is expected to result in negative consequences or outcomes. It implies that there may be obstacles, challenges, or unforeseen events that could hinder the success or progress of the program, leading to unfavorable outcomes.

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  • 37. 

    Describe a Nunn-McCurdy breach and the actions that take place when such a breach occurs.

    • A.

      Reportable to the PEO, Critical unit cost breach – Less than 25% current or less than 50% original

    • B.

      Significant unit cost breach – Less than or equal to15% current

    • C.

      Significant and Critical, Reportable to Congress, Significant unit cost breach – Less than or equal to15% current, less than 30% original, Critical unit cost breach – Less than 25% current or less than 50% original

    • D.

      Reportable to SAF/AQ, Critical and Significant unit cost breach – Less than or equal to 5% current, less than 35% original, Critical unit cost breach – Less than 15% current or less than 50% original

    Correct Answer
    C. Significant and Critical, Reportable to Congress, Significant unit cost breach – Less than or equal to15% current, less than 30% original, Critical unit cost breach – Less than 25% current or less than 50% original
    Explanation
    A Nunn-McCurdy breach refers to a situation where the cost of a defense acquisition program exceeds certain thresholds. When such a breach occurs, several actions are taken. Firstly, it is reported to Congress, as it is a significant and critical breach. Additionally, the breach is reportable to the Program Executive Officer (PEO). The breach is considered critical if the unit cost is less than 25% of the current cost or less than 50% of the original cost. Furthermore, if the breach is significant, the unit cost is less than or equal to 15% of the current cost. In some cases, the breach is also reportable to the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition (SAF/AQ).

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  • 38. 

    Define Risk

    • A.

      Uncertainty, positive outcome

    • B.

      Task items that do not meet the risk matrix

    • C.

      Future uncertainty, a negative consequence

    • D.

      None of the Above

    Correct Answer
    C. Future uncertainty, a negative consequence
    Explanation
    Risk can be defined as future uncertainty with the potential for a negative consequence. In other words, it refers to the possibility of something going wrong or not going as planned, which could result in adverse effects or losses. This definition highlights the inherent uncertainty and potential negative outcomes associated with risk.

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  • 39. 

    The Root Cause of Risk is defined as?

    • A.

      What causes there to be a risk

    • B.

      Probably of a root cause occurring

    • C.

      Worst case credible outcome

    • D.

      All of the Above

    Correct Answer
    A. What causes there to be a risk
    Explanation
    The root cause of risk refers to the underlying factor or factors that lead to the existence of a risk. It is the cause or causes that create the potential for a risk event to occur. Identifying and understanding the root cause of a risk is crucial in order to effectively manage and mitigate it. By determining what causes there to be a risk, organizations can take appropriate measures to prevent or minimize the likelihood and impact of potential risks.

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  • 40. 

    Define Likelihood as it applies to Risk.

    • A.

      Root Analysis

    • B.

      Worst case credible outcome

    • C.

      Probably of a root cause occurring

    • D.

      None of the Above

    Correct Answer
    C. Probably of a root cause occurring
    Explanation
    Answer: Probably of a root cause occurring

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  • 41. 

    Describe Consequence as it applies to Risk

    • A.

      Credible Outcome

    • B.

      Worst case credible outcome

    • C.

      Best case credible outcome

    • D.

      What causes there to be a risk

    Correct Answer
    B. Worst case credible outcome
    Explanation
    The worst case credible outcome refers to the most severe and plausible consequence that could occur as a result of a risk. It represents the potential negative impact or harm that could be experienced if the risk materializes. This outcome is considered credible because it is based on realistic and plausible scenarios, taking into account various factors such as probability and severity. Understanding the worst case credible outcome is crucial in risk assessment and management as it helps organizations prepare and implement appropriate measures to mitigate or prevent such consequences.

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  • 42. 

    Describe Risk management planning in the risk management process.

    • A.

      Collecting, updating, organizing, and analyzing risk data and reporting trends to determine is risks have changes

    • B.

      Estimate likelihood, quantify impact, determine risk rating, identify relationships between risks, asses the consequences of each risk

    • C.

      Determining and documenting an approach for each risk

    • D.

      Who, What, When, Where, and How risk management will be performed

    Correct Answer
    D. Who, What, When, Where, and How risk management will be performed
    Explanation
    The answer describes the components of risk management planning in the risk management process. It emphasizes the importance of identifying the individuals responsible for managing risks, the specific activities that will be performed, the timeline for executing these activities, the location where risk management will take place, and the methodology or approach that will be followed. This comprehensive approach ensures that all aspects of risk management are considered and documented, allowing for effective and efficient risk mitigation strategies to be implemented.

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  • 43. 

    Describe the Risk Identification in the risk management process.

    • A.

      Estimate likelihood, quantify impact, determine risk rating, identify relationships between risks, asses the consequences of each risk

    • B.

      Identifies the future event contributing to the uncertainty

    • C.

      Determining and documenting an approach for each risk

    • D.

      Collecting, updating, organizing, and analyzing risk data and reporting trends to determine is risks have changes

    Correct Answer
    B. Identifies the future event contributing to the uncertainty
    Explanation
    The risk identification process involves identifying future events that may contribute to uncertainty. This step helps in recognizing potential risks that may arise in the future and can have an impact on the project or organization. By identifying these events, the risk management team can assess the likelihood and quantify the impact of each risk. This information is then used to determine the risk rating and prioritize the risks. Identifying the future events is crucial in order to effectively manage and mitigate risks.

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  • 44. 

    Describe Risk Analysis in the risk management process.

    • A.

      Estimate likelihood, quantify impact, determine risk rating, identify relationships between risks, asses the consequences of each risk

    • B.

      Identifies the future event contributing to the uncertainty

    • C.

      Who, What, When, Where, and How risk management will be performed

    • D.

      Collecting, updating, organizing, and analyzing risk data and reporting trends to determine is risks have changes

    Correct Answer
    A. Estimate likelihood, quantify impact, determine risk rating, identify relationships between risks, asses the consequences of each risk
    Explanation
    Risk analysis is an essential step in the risk management process. It involves estimating the likelihood of a future event contributing to uncertainty and quantifying the impact it may have. By determining the risk rating, one can prioritize risks based on their severity. Identifying relationships between risks helps understand how they may interact and affect each other. Lastly, assessing the consequences of each risk allows for a better understanding of the potential outcomes. By following these steps, organizations can effectively analyze and manage risks to minimize their impact on their operations.

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  • 45. 

    Describe Risk Handling Planning and Implementation in the risk management process.

    • A.

      Who, What, When, Where, and How risk management will be performed

    • B.

      Estimate likelihood, quantify impact, determine risk rating, identify relationships between risks, asses the consequences of each risk

    • C.

      Determining and documenting an approach for each risk

    • D.

      Identifies the future event contributing to the uncertainty

    Correct Answer
    C. Determining and documenting an approach for each risk
    Explanation
    The correct answer explains that risk handling planning and implementation in the risk management process involves determining and documenting an approach for each risk. This means that for every identified risk, a specific plan or strategy is developed to address and mitigate the potential negative impact. This step is crucial in ensuring that risks are effectively managed and controlled, and that appropriate measures are in place to minimize their likelihood and impact. By documenting the approach, it becomes easier to communicate and implement the necessary actions to handle the identified risks.

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  • 46. 

    Describe Risk Tracking in the risk management process.

    • A.

      Collecting, updating, organizing, and analyzing risk data and reporting trends to determine is risks have changes

    • B.

      Determining and documenting an approach for each risk

    • C.

      Identifies the future event contributing to the uncertainty

    • D.

      Who, What, When, Where, and How risk management will be performed

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting, updating, organizing, and analyzing risk data and reporting trends to determine is risks have changes
    Explanation
    Risk tracking in the risk management process involves collecting, updating, organizing, and analyzing risk data. This includes monitoring and reporting on trends to determine if risks have changed. By regularly tracking and evaluating risk data, organizations can identify any shifts or developments that may impact their risk profile. This allows for proactive risk management, enabling timely adjustments to risk mitigation strategies and ensuring that risks are effectively managed throughout the project or business operation.

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  • 47. 

    Explain the Accept risk handling/mitigation response. 

    • A.

      Assuming the level of risk and continuing with the current program or project plan

    • B.

      Shift root cause elsewhere

    • C.

      Eliminate sources of high/moderate risk and replace with low risk options

    • D.

      Actively do something to reduce probability or consequence of risk

    Correct Answer
    A. Assuming the level of risk and continuing with the current program or project plan
    Explanation
    The accept risk handling/mitigation response involves acknowledging the level of risk and deciding to proceed with the current program or project plan despite the risks. This means that the risks are considered acceptable and the organization is willing to take them on. This response may be chosen when the potential consequences of the risks are deemed manageable or when the benefits outweigh the potential negative impacts. It is a proactive decision to continue with the plan while being aware of the risks involved.

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  • 48. 

    Explain the Monitor handling/mitigation response.

    • A.

      Shift root cause elsewhere

    • B.

      Eliminate sources of high/moderate risk and replace with low risk options

    • C.

      Taking no immediate action, but watch for changes

    • D.

      Actively do something to reduce probability or consequence of risk

    Correct Answer
    C. Taking no immediate action, but watch for changes
    Explanation
    This answer suggests that the monitor handling/mitigation response involves not taking immediate action but instead monitoring the situation for any changes. This approach may be chosen when the risk is not deemed high or moderate and there are no immediate actions that need to be taken. By closely observing the situation, any potential changes or developments can be identified, allowing for appropriate action to be taken if necessary.

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  • 49. 

    Explain the "Transfer"  risk handling/mitigation response.

    • A.

      Actively do something to reduce probability or consequence of risk

    • B.

      Eliminate sources of high/moderate risk and replace with low risk options

    • C.

      Shift root cause elsewhere

    • D.

      Have someone watch risk and inform team of issues

    Correct Answer
    C. Shift root cause elsewhere
    Explanation
    The "Shift root cause elsewhere" response refers to the strategy of identifying the root cause of a risk and transferring it to another party or entity. This can be done by assigning responsibility to a different department, outsourcing the task to a third party, or entering into a contractual agreement that transfers the risk to another party. By shifting the root cause elsewhere, the organization can reduce its own exposure to the risk and potentially mitigate its impact.

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  • 50. 

    Explain the "Mitigate" risk handling/mitigation responses 

    • A.

      Passive, not worth time and effort to solve

    • B.

      Shift root cause elsewhere

    • C.

      Have someone watch risk and inform team of issues

    • D.

      Apply methods aimed at eliminating the risk, or reducing the likelihood and/or consequences of the risk

    Correct Answer
    D. Apply methods aimed at eliminating the risk, or reducing the likelihood and/or consequences of the risk
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to apply methods aimed at eliminating the risk or reducing the likelihood and/or consequences of the risk. This means taking proactive measures to address the risk and prevent it from occurring or minimize its impact. This approach is more effective than passive responses or shifting the root cause elsewhere, as it actively works towards mitigating the risk and ensuring its impact is minimized. Having someone watch the risk and inform the team of issues is also a part of this active mitigation approach.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 05, 2016
    Quiz Created by
    Aclonick2
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