CDC 3S071 Volume 3. Personnel Career Field, Edit Code 02

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1. (401) The military member's physical address at the time of joining a particular Service is considered their

Explanation

The correct answer is "home of record". This means that the military member's physical address at the time of joining a particular service is considered their official place of residence for administrative purposes, including for retirement benefits. It is the location where the military member is considered to have a permanent connection or attachment, regardless of where they may currently be stationed.

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About This Quiz
Military Training Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz for CDC 3S071 Volume 3 in the Personnel Career Field evaluates knowledge on military residency, voting, and legal state of residence for service members. It aims... see moreto ensure readiness and compliance with military and federal guidelines. see less

2. (404) Which objective is not a Casualty Services Program objective?

Explanation

The objective "Assist the family with funeral arrangements" is not a Casualty Services Program objective because it does not directly relate to providing casualty representative reports, eliminating delays in benefits, or closely tracking casualty reports and notifications. While assisting the family with funeral arrangements may be a valuable and supportive service, it is not specifically mentioned as an objective of the program.

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3. (406) What module in the Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward is the process in which we collect data for the initial and subsequent supplement death messages?

Explanation

The module in the Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward that is responsible for collecting data for the initial and subsequent supplement death messages is the Casualty Report module. This module is specifically designed to gather information related to casualties and is used to generate reports and messages regarding casualties in the defense system.

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4. (409) Once the member receives an approval of separation e-mail, they will access Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) secure website and complete the online

Explanation

Once the member receives an approval of separation e-mail, they will access Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) secure website and complete the online Initial Separation Briefing.

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5. (409) Which discharge is considered an admirable reflection that the member has satisfactorily completed a commitment to military service?

Explanation

The discharge that is considered an admirable reflection of satisfactorily completing a commitment to military service is an Honorable discharge. This type of discharge is given to members who have met or exceeded the standards of military conduct and performance. It signifies that the individual has served their country with honor and distinction, and is usually associated with a positive military record.

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6. (410) Traits or conduct that may be grounds for disqualification or decertification of individuals from the personnel reliability program (PRP) do not include

Explanation

The traits or conduct that may be grounds for disqualification or decertification from the personnel reliability program (PRP) typically include actions that pose a risk to national security or compromise the individual's ability to perform their duties safely and effectively. This can include behaviors such as being arrested for illegal substances, using expired medications, or consuming too much alcohol. However, advising supervisors of factors that may have an adverse impact on performance is not typically a disqualifying factor, as it demonstrates responsible behavior and a commitment to maintaining performance standards.

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7. (406) The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward utilizes Microsoft Access for storing casualty information, and is designed to work on all computers as what type of application?

Explanation

The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward is designed to work on all computers as a stand-alone application. This means that it does not require any additional software or dependencies to function properly. It can be used independently without the need for internet connectivity or any other external resources. Microsoft Access is used for storing casualty information, but the application itself is self-contained and does not rely on any other systems or applications.

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8. (408) Which system advertises requirements for special duty assignments, joint and departmental assignments, short-notice overseas (OS) assignments, and all CMSgt assignments?

Explanation

EQUAL-Plus is the system that advertises requirements for special duty assignments, joint and departmental assignments, short-notice overseas (OS) assignments, and all CMSgt assignments. This means that EQUAL-Plus is the platform where these assignments are posted and made available for interested individuals to apply for.

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9. (416) The base monitor is responsible to conduct unit unfavorable information file (UIF) training

Explanation

The base monitor is responsible for conducting unit unfavorable information file (UIF) training on an annual basis. This means that the training is conducted once a year.

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10. (401) Per every 100 members, the unit commander will appoint in writing one Unit Voting Assistance Counselor (UVAC), at the minimum grade of

Explanation

The correct answer is E-7 because the question states that for every 100 members, the unit commander will appoint one Unit Voting Assistance Counselor (UVAC) at the minimum grade of E-4. Since E-7 is a higher grade than E-4, it is the correct answer.

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11. (405) In the case of a mass casualty, and by the order of the Force Support Squadron commander, who will the casualty assistance representative (CAR) contact?

Explanation

In the case of a mass casualty, the casualty assistance representative (CAR) will contact the casualty team. The casualty team is responsible for coordinating and providing support to the affected individuals and their families during a mass casualty event. They are trained to handle the logistics and emotional support required in such situations. Mortuary affairs representatives, security forces commander, and honor guard may also be involved in the response, but the primary contact for the CAR would be the casualty team.

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12. (406) The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward provides a userfriendly application designed to assist casualty personnel in preparing casualty reports without excessive

Explanation

The correct answer is "manual typing". This is because the Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward is a user-friendly application that helps casualty personnel in preparing casualty reports without excessive manual typing. This means that the system automates or simplifies the process of entering information into the reports, reducing the need for manual typing.

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13. (408) If a member's assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than the current security clearance on file, what does the Career Development element staff forward to the member's commander?

Explanation

When a member's assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than what is currently on file, the Career Development element staff forwards a Security Requirement Memorandum to the member's commander. This memorandum outlines the specific security clearance requirements needed for the assignment and serves as a request for the member's clearance to be upgraded or updated to meet those requirements.

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14. (409) When personal conduct falls significantly below acceptable military standards, the characterization for discharge is

Explanation

When personal conduct falls significantly below acceptable military standards, the characterization for discharge is "Under Other Than Honorable Conditions." This means that the individual's behavior or actions have been deemed unacceptable and do not meet the standards expected of a military member. This type of discharge may result in the loss of certain benefits and privileges that would have been granted with an honorable discharge.

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15. (409) When an officer is retirement eligible and desires to retire in an officer status, how many years of Total Active Federal Commissioned Service (TAFCS) must he or she have?

Explanation

When an officer is retirement eligible and desires to retire in an officer status, they must have at least 10 years of Total Active Federal Commissioned Service (TAFCS). This means that they must have served as a commissioned officer in the federal government for a minimum of 10 years in order to retire in an officer status.

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16. (410) When it becomes necessary to consider an individual for a critical position under the personnel reliability program (PRP) and the required investigation has not yet been completed, the member may receive certification as

Explanation

When an individual needs to be considered for a critical position under the personnel reliability program (PRP) before the required investigation is completed, they may receive certification as "interim." This means that they are temporarily approved for the position until the investigation is finished and a final determination can be made.

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17. (402) Married Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses, per calendar year, up to

Explanation

Married service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses. The maximum amount they can be reimbursed per calendar year is $5,000.

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18. (413) The percentage between the numbers assigned with the numbers authorized on the unit manpower document (UMD) will give you the manning

Explanation

The percentage between the numbers assigned with the numbers authorized on the unit manpower document (UMD) will give you the strength. This means that by comparing the assigned numbers with the authorized numbers on the UMD, you can determine the overall strength of the unit.

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19. (416) How many duty days does an active duty member (enlisted or officer) have to acknowledge the intended actions of a unfavorable information file (UIF) and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his or her final decision on placing optional documents in the UIF?

Explanation

An active duty member (enlisted or officer) has 3 duty days to acknowledge the intended actions of a unfavorable information file (UIF) and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his or her final decision on placing optional documents in the UIF.

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20. (409) Administrative discharge for cause applies to officers who fail to meet the prescribed standards of performance and conduct, for misconduct, moral or professional dereliction, and when they

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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21. (401) For voting purposes, when residing outside the United States (US), the address where you last resided immediately prior to your departure is considered your

Explanation

When residing outside the United States, the address where you last resided immediately prior to your departure is considered your legal state of residence for voting purposes. This means that even if you are currently living outside the US, your voting eligibility and registration will be based on your previous state of residence before leaving the country.

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22. (401) The Armed Forces may use military authority to

Explanation

The Armed Forces may provide or attempt to provide information regarding absentee voting for their home states. This means that they can offer guidance and resources to help members of the Armed Forces understand the process of voting by absentee ballot in their home states. This ensures that military personnel who are stationed away from their home states have the necessary information to exercise their right to vote.

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23. (412) The Career Development element staff issues written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing all of this information except

Explanation

The Career Development element staff issues written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing the name and rank of the most junior officer, the name and rank of the most senior officer, and the board convening date. However, they do not include the name and rank of the board president in the written notice.

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24. (408) If a member has a permanent change of station (PCS) to a stateside assignment, he or she can out-process no earlier than how many duty days prior to departure date?

Explanation

A member with a permanent change of station (PCS) to a stateside assignment can out-process no earlier than one duty day prior to the departure date. This means that they must complete all necessary administrative tasks and paperwork related to their move within one working day before they leave. This ensures that they have enough time to complete any last-minute preparations and hand in any required documentation before their departure.

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25. (417) The policy on training line numbers (TLN) is focused on the formal training office being located in the Force Support squadron under the Force Development flight (FSS/FSDE). If the formal training office is located outside of the FSS/FSDE, who is responsible for the requirements outlined in this process?

Explanation

The correct answer is "The responsibility remains with the FSS/FSDE." This means that regardless of the location of the formal training office, the FSS/FSDE is still responsible for the requirements outlined in this process.

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26. (401) When the installation commander appoints the Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) he or she must make sure the civilian's minimum grade is

Explanation

The correct answer is GS–12. The installation commander must ensure that the civilian appointed as the Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) has a minimum grade of GS–12. This grade level ensures that the IVAO has the necessary knowledge, skills, and experience to effectively carry out their duties and responsibilities related to voting assistance on the installation. A higher grade level also indicates a higher level of authority and decision-making ability, which is important for overseeing and implementing voting assistance programs.

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27. (401) When the installation commander appoints the Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) he or she must make sure the military member's minimum grade is

Explanation

The correct answer is O-4 because the installation commander must appoint an Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) who is at least an O-4 military member. This minimum grade requirement ensures that the IVAO has sufficient experience and knowledge to effectively carry out their responsibilities related to voting assistance on the installation.

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28. (402) Up to how many months after finalization of an adoption, can Service members submit a request for reimbursement of adoption expenses?

Explanation

Service members can submit a request for reimbursement of adoption expenses up to 12 months after the finalization of an adoption. This means that they have one year from the date of finalization to request reimbursement for any adoption expenses they incurred.

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29. (406) If there is reportable information available on the casualty report that would be of interest to family members or of value to the addresses of the report, do not label any item

Explanation

The correct answer is "TO BE SUPPLEMENTED" because if there is reportable information available on the casualty report that would be of interest to family members or of value to the addresses of the report, it means that some information is missing or incomplete and needs to be supplemented or added later. Using terms like "UNDETERMINED," "UNCONFIRMED," or "UNKNOWN" would imply that the information is not available at all, which is not the case here.

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30. (414) When there is a need to initiate routine duty status change requests into the Case Management System (CMS), what system will your commander utilize?

Explanation

The correct answer is Base-Level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM). This system is utilized by commanders to initiate routine duty status change requests into the Case Management System (CMS). It is a tool that helps in managing and tracking personnel actions and provides a streamlined process for commanders to submit requests and track their progress. The BLSDM ensures that duty status changes are accurately recorded and processed in a timely manner. The other options mentioned, Assignment Management System (AMS), Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS), and Case Management System (CMS), are not specifically designed for initiating routine duty status change requests.

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31. (415) An initial Air Force specialty code (AFSC) classification is given to a military member upon their completion of

Explanation

Upon completion of basic training, military members are given an initial Air Force specialty code (AFSC) classification. This classification is based on the specific technical training they receive. This indicates that the correct answer is "technical training."

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32. (411) The promotion cycle begins with Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Weighted Airmen Promotion System (WAPS) database where the eligibility file is

Explanation

The promotion cycle starts with the AFPC WAPS database where the eligibility file is created. This means that the database is responsible for generating the eligibility file for each individual who is being considered for promotion. The file is likely created based on certain criteria or qualifications that need to be met in order to be eligible for promotion.

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33. (414) Duty status reporting is event oriented and serves as a personnel function of

Explanation

Duty status reporting is a personnel function that involves keeping track of the status of individuals' duties or assignments. This includes reporting when someone is on duty, off duty, or on leave. It is important for accounting purposes as it helps in accurately tracking and accounting for personnel costs and resources. By knowing the duty status of individuals, organizations can ensure that they are properly allocating resources and managing their personnel effectively.

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34. (406) When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, what information is not considered reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived?

Explanation

When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, the location of the incident is not considered reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived. The location of the incident alone does not provide evidence of whether or not someone could have survived. It is the statements of witnesses, circumstances of the incident, and search results that provide more concrete evidence in determining if an individual could have survived or not.

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35. (416) Which code do you use in the military personnel data system (MilPDS) to reflect that a member has an unfavorable information file (UIF) only?

Explanation

In the military personnel data system (MilPDS), code 1 is used to reflect that a member has an unfavorable information file (UIF) only. This code is specifically assigned to indicate the presence of a UIF and does not encompass any other types of information or files.

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36. (410) For personnel assigned to a controlled personnel reliability program (PRP) position, they must possess all of these attributes except

Explanation

The correct answer is "has a master key to all outside entry ways and inside doors." This attribute is not necessary for personnel assigned to a controlled personnel reliability program (PRP) position. The other attributes mentioned are important for these personnel. They need to have access to certain areas but not necessarily technical knowledge, they need to control access into areas containing nuclear weapons, and they may need to be designated as a certifying official at an operational unit. However, having a master key to all outside entry ways and inside doors is not a requirement for a PRP position.

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37. (404) Once the casualty assistance representative (CAR) notifies the family members of casualties, he or she provides the mortuary services officers and the public affairs (PA) office the member's

Explanation

The CAR notifies the mortuary services officers and the public affairs office about the member's name, age, home of record, race, and awards. This information is important for the proper handling of the deceased member's remains and for public communication regarding the casualty. The religion, date of birth, and gender of the member are not mentioned in the given correct answer.

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38. (406) After learning of a casualty, the casualty assistance representative (CAR) must ensure the casualty message is transmitted or delivered to the base telecommunications center as determined by AFPC/DPWCS, within how many hours?

Explanation

The casualty assistance representative (CAR) must ensure that the casualty message is transmitted or delivered to the base telecommunications center within 4 hours after learning of a casualty. This is important to ensure that the necessary notifications and actions can be taken in a timely manner.

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39. (407) Which publication does not apply to releasing information on Air Force casualties?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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40. (416) Which code do you use in the military personnel data system (MilPDS) to reflect that a member has an Article 15 with suspended punishment?

Explanation

In the military personnel data system (MilPDS), code 3 is used to reflect that a member has an Article 15 with suspended punishment. This means that the member has been found guilty of an offense but the punishment has been temporarily suspended, allowing the member a chance to demonstrate good behavior and avoid the punishment.

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41. (416) What promotion eligibility status code is associated with adverse actions?

Explanation

Promotion eligibility status code G is associated with adverse actions. This means that employees who have received adverse actions such as disciplinary actions or poor performance evaluations are not eligible for promotion. This code indicates that there are certain issues or concerns with the employee's performance or behavior that need to be addressed before they can be considered for promotion.

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42. (410) If the reviewing official (RO) needs to review the medical records of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program (PRP) to determine disqualifying conditions, he or she works with the

Explanation

The reviewing official (RO) needs to review the medical records of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program (PRP) to determine disqualifying conditions. The competent medical authority would be the appropriate person to work with in this situation, as they have the knowledge and expertise to accurately assess and interpret the medical records. The primary care manager, medical group commander, and medical records technician may have roles in the process, but the competent medical authority is the one responsible for making the final determination.

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43. (417) If you are looking for the source of record for all Air Force professional military education (PME) and formal training, what system would you use?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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44. (401) Voting in an election for what type of office may not be used as the sole basis to determine residency for the purposes of imposing state and local taxes?

Explanation

Voting in an election for federal office may not be used as the sole basis to determine residency for the purposes of imposing state and local taxes. This is because residency requirements for state and local taxes are determined by factors such as physical presence, domicile, or the length of time an individual spends in a particular jurisdiction. Voting in a federal election does not necessarily establish residency in a specific state or locality.

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45. (401) Who is responsible for providing details on elections and recorded messages from candidates, governors, United Stated Senators and Representatives?

Explanation

The Voting Information Center staff is responsible for providing details on elections and recorded messages from candidates, governors, United States Senators and Representatives. They are the ones who ensure that voters have access to accurate and up-to-date information about the election process and the candidates running for office. They play a crucial role in promoting transparency and facilitating citizen engagement in the democratic process.

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46. (412) The fundamental purpose of an officer promotion is to select officers through a process that is

Explanation

The correct answer is fair and competitive. Officer promotions aim to select individuals through a process that is both fair and competitive. This means that all officers should have an equal opportunity to compete for promotion based on their qualifications and performance. The process should be fair, ensuring that all officers are treated impartially and without bias. At the same time, it should be competitive, allowing officers to demonstrate their abilities and compete against their peers for promotion. This ensures that the most deserving and qualified individuals are selected for promotion.

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47. (408) Which AF IMT form is used to contract an active duty service commitment?

Explanation

The correct answer is 63. This AF IMT form is used to contract an active duty service commitment.

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48. (408) The Career Development element personnelist will provide all members relocating overseas with the opportunity to elect tour options on the AF IMT

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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49. (401) You may only have one legal residence at a time, but each time you are transferred to a new location you may change your

Explanation

The correct answer is residency. Residency refers to the place where a person lives and has established their permanent home. While you may only have one legal residence at a time, you can change your residency each time you are transferred to a new location. This means that you can establish a new permanent home and legal address in the new location, which may have implications for various legal matters, including voting.

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50. (411) Commanders have the ability to access the AFPC secure/link on the AF Portal Website to query enlisted promotions results by name

Explanation

Commanders have the ability to access the AFPC secure/link on the AF Portal Website to query enlisted promotions results by name, MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code, and state/country. This means that commanders can search for enlisted promotions results by entering the individual's name as well as their MAJCOM, unit, line number, AFSC, PAS code, and state/country.

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51. (414) Regarding contingency, exercise, or deployment duty status reporting, which is not a deployment availability code (DAV) category?

Explanation

The question is asking for the category that is not a deployment availability code (DAV) category in contingency, exercise, or deployment duty status reporting. The options provided are Time, Legal, Physical, and Personal. Time, Legal, and Physical can all be DAV categories as they relate to factors that may affect an individual's availability for deployment. However, Personal is not a DAV category as it refers to personal reasons that may not be categorized under any specific DAV category. Therefore, the correct answer is Personal.

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52. (407) For deceased casualties, what personal information may not be released?

Explanation

The personal information that may not be released for deceased casualties is any information on the member's family. This includes details such as the names, addresses, and contact information of their family members. The other options listed, such as pay date, military base pay, allowances, age, date of birth, and home of record, are not restricted and can be released.

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53. (408) For short-notice assignments of 90 calendar days or less until the report no later than date (RNLTD), the Career Development element and unit notification periods are reduced to how many calendar days?

Explanation

For short-notice assignments of 90 calendar days or less until the report no later than date (RNLTD), both the Career Development element and unit notification periods are reduced to 3 calendar days.

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54. (413) Which document contains personnel assigned, position numbers, duty Air Force specialty codes (DAFSC), authorized grades, functional account codes, personnel accounting symbols, and required security clearance levels?

Explanation

The Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR) contains information about personnel assigned to a unit, including their position numbers, duty Air Force specialty codes (DAFSC), authorized grades, functional account codes, personnel accounting symbols, and required security clearance levels. This document serves as a comprehensive record of the unit's personnel and their qualifications and clearances. The other options listed do not provide the same level of detail and scope as the UPMR.

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55. (411) Before the Weighted Airmen Promotion System (WAPS) testing cycle begins, HQ AFPC flows a request for career development course (CDC) reference material for each promotion eligible Airman to the

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Career Development Academy (AFCDA) because HQ AFPC sends a request for career development course (CDC) reference material for each promotion eligible Airman to AFCDA.

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56. (402) Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses, per adoptive child, up to

Explanation

Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses, per adoptive child, up to $2,000. This means that if a service member adopts a child, they can submit receipts for adoption expenses such as legal fees, medical expenses, and travel costs up to a maximum of $2,000, and they will be reimbursed for these expenses.

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57. (408) If there is a permanent change of station (PCS) ineligibility condition and there is no indication a waiver or exception has been granted, what action will the military personnel section (MPS) take regarding the assignment selection?

Explanation

If there is a permanent change of station (PCS) ineligibility condition and there is no indication a waiver or exception has been granted, the military personnel section (MPS) will reclama the assignment and not forward rip. This means that they will reject or dispute the assignment and not send the request for personnel action to the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

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58. (415) When awarding an enlisted Air Force specialty code (AFSC), which factor is not a criteria for eligibility?

Explanation

When awarding an enlisted Air Force specialty code (AFSC), special duty submission is not a criteria for eligibility. The AFSC is typically awarded based on factors such as retraining, initial classification, and downgrade or withdrawal. Special duty submission refers to the process of applying for and being selected for a specific special duty assignment within the Air Force, which is separate from the AFSC eligibility criteria.

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59. (409) What should rarely be the deciding factor in making a recommendation on a tendered resignation as a result of a pending court-martial?

Explanation

When making a recommendation on a tendered resignation as a result of a pending court-martial, expense should rarely be the deciding factor. This means that the cost involved in the situation should not heavily influence the decision-making process. Other factors such as timeliness, availability, and embarrassment may be more important considerations in this context.

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60. (412) Which organization implements the approved promotion program through a fair and impartial process to ensure the officer corps has confidence in the integrity of the selection process?

Explanation

HQ AFPC implements the approved promotion program through a fair and impartial process to ensure the officer corps has confidence in the integrity of the selection process. This means that HQ AFPC is responsible for overseeing and conducting promotions in a way that is unbiased and transparent, instilling trust and confidence among officers in the fairness of the selection process.

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61. (413) A product that provides the authorized positions that a unit is allowed to recruit, train, and promote to in the execution of its wartime and peacetime mission describes the

Explanation

The correct answer is the unit manpower document (UMD). This document provides information on the authorized positions that a unit can recruit, train, and promote to in both wartime and peacetime situations. It helps in managing the personnel within the unit and ensuring that the right individuals are assigned to the appropriate positions. The UMD is an essential tool for effective personnel management within a unit.

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62. (403) Which organization does not have the authority under the Air Force memorialization program to name streets, buildings, rooms and facilities?

Explanation

Numbered Air Force does not have the authority under the Air Force memorialization program to name streets, buildings, rooms, and facilities. The other options, Major command, Wing command, and Air Force Chief of Staff's office, have the authority to name these elements under the program.

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63. (409) Which is not a reason that warrants an administrative separation?

Explanation

A progressively downward trend in performance ratings is not a reason that warrants an administrative separation. This means that even if an individual's performance ratings have been consistently declining over a period of time, it is not sufficient grounds for them to be separated administratively. However, parenthood, erroneous enlistment, and entry-level performance and conduct can all be valid reasons for administrative separation.

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64. (416) When performing system updates, it is crucial to ensure the correct code is applied for the correct incident, duration, and for the correct person. Which code would you use in the military personnel data system (MilPDS) to reflect a member on a control roster?

Explanation

In the military personnel data system (MilPDS), code 2 is used to reflect a member on a control roster. This code would be applied when performing system updates to accurately indicate that a member is on a control roster. It is crucial to ensure the correct code is applied for the correct incident, duration, and for the correct person to maintain accurate and up-to-date records in the MilPDS.

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65. (416) What assignment availability codes (AAC) are associated with adverse actions?

Explanation

Assignment availability codes (AAC) are used to indicate the availability of military personnel for assignment. Adverse actions are disciplinary actions taken against military personnel for misconduct or poor performance. AAC 12 indicates that the individual is under investigation for misconduct, while AAC 16 indicates that the individual is pending disciplinary action or has received a disciplinary action. Therefore, both AAC 12 and AAC 16 are associated with adverse actions.

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66. (413) Which document is used to outline the Military Personnel Section (MPS) requirements to ensure personnel are assigned a valid position number, and to facilitate timely and accurate input of current data after a member's arrival?

Explanation

The Initial Duty Assignment (IDA) worksheet is used to outline the Military Personnel Section (MPS) requirements to ensure personnel are assigned a valid position number and to facilitate timely and accurate input of current data after a member's arrival. This document helps in managing the personnel's initial duty assignments and ensures that the necessary information is recorded and updated correctly. The UPMR, UMD, and Alpha roster may contain personnel information, but they do not specifically outline the MPS requirements for assigning position numbers and facilitating timely and accurate data input.

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67. (405) When a commander determines that a person's absence is involuntary and there is insufficient evidence to declare the person deceased, the casualty status is known as

Explanation

When a commander determines that a person's absence is involuntary and there is insufficient evidence to declare the person deceased, the casualty status is known as Missing (Non-hostile). This means that the person is missing but it is not believed to be due to hostile action. They may have become lost, gone AWOL, or encountered some other non-hostile situation that resulted in their absence. The status of Missing (Non-hostile) allows for continued search and rescue efforts to locate and recover the individual.

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68. (406) Who must obtain conclusive evidence before reporting the death of an individual?

Explanation

The installation commander must obtain conclusive evidence before reporting the death of an individual. This is because the installation commander is responsible for overseeing all operations and activities on the military installation, including the reporting of deaths. They have the authority to ensure that the information is accurate and verified before it is reported. The Force Support Squadron commander, Air Force Casualty Service Branch chief, and Major command staff may play a role in the process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the installation commander.

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69. (415) When determining the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that an individual is most qualified to perform in; one that reflects their skill level, experience, complexity, education and training, equipment, and interests is called their

Explanation

The correct answer is "primary." When determining the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that an individual is most qualified to perform in, their primary specialty is considered. This specialty reflects their skill level, experience, complexity, education and training, equipment, and interests. The primary specialty is the main area of expertise for the individual.

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70. (416) Which type(s) of court-martial only tries enlisted service members?

Explanation

Summary court-martial (SCM) only tries enlisted service members. General court-martial (GCM) can try both enlisted service members and officers, while special court-martial (SPCM) can try both enlisted service members and officers, but with less severe penalties than a GCM. Therefore, the correct answer is that only SCM tries enlisted service members.

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71. (417) The total force development program will produce a total force and guide development through levels of leadership. Which is not considered a level of leadership?

Explanation

Functional leadership is not considered a level of leadership in the total force development program. The program focuses on developing leadership at the tactical, strategic, and operational levels. Functional leadership refers to the expertise and knowledge required to perform specific functions within an organization, rather than a specific level of leadership.

Submit
72. (411) The system used to select and classify individuals and assess their skills and knowledge in various areas is called

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Military Personnel Testing System (AFMPTS). This system is used in the Air Force to select and classify individuals based on their skills and knowledge in various areas. It is specifically designed for military personnel and is used to assess their abilities for promotion and advancement within the Air Force. It helps in identifying the most qualified individuals for different positions and ranks within the military.

Submit
73. (404) Casualty reporting is an important responsibility function of

Explanation

Casualty reporting is an important responsibility function that falls under the command's jurisdiction. As the commanding officer, they are responsible for overseeing and managing all aspects of their unit, including casualty reporting. This involves promptly and accurately reporting any injuries, deaths, or missing personnel within the command. By having command as the correct answer, it implies that casualty reporting is a crucial task that requires the authority and oversight of the commanding officer to ensure effective and efficient communication and coordination during critical situations.

Submit
74. (407) For ill or injured casualties, what personal information may not be released without permission?

Explanation

Personal information such as gross pay and basic allowance for housing may not be released without permission for ill or injured casualties. This information is considered private and should not be disclosed without the individual's consent.

Submit
75. (410) In order for a military member to obtain a critical personnel reliability program (PRP) position, that member must possess all of these attributes except

Explanation

The correct answer is "is armed and assigned duties to protect and/or guard nuclear weapons." This is because the question asks for an attribute that a military member must not possess in order to obtain a critical PRP position. While possessing access and technical knowledge, being designated as a certifying official, and having the ability to cause the launch or use of a nuclear weapon are all necessary attributes for a critical PRP position, being armed and assigned duties to protect and/or guard nuclear weapons is not a requirement.

Submit
76. (411) For promotions to SSgt, TSgt, and MSgt, Airmen compete and test under the Weighted Airmen Promotion System (WAPS) in their

Explanation

The correct answer is Control Air Force Specialty Code (CAFSC). In the Weighted Airmen Promotion System (WAPS), Airmen compete and test under their CAFSC. This code represents the specific job or career field in which an Airman is trained and qualified to perform. It is used to determine eligibility and qualification for promotions to the ranks of SSgt, TSgt, and MSgt. The CAFSC is an important factor in the WAPS process as it reflects an Airman's level of expertise and experience in their respective career field.

Submit
77. (401) Which organization has the responsibility to include the voting program as an annual item for review, to evaluate the effectiveness, and ensure compliance with Department of Defense (DOD) regulations and public law?

Explanation

The Air Force Inspector General office is responsible for including the voting program as an annual item for review, evaluating its effectiveness, and ensuring compliance with Department of Defense (DOD) regulations and public law.

Submit
78. (411) What action begins with the announcement by AFPC/DPSOE via a Personnel Delivery Memorandum (PSDM) with processing instructions for that upcoming cycle?

Explanation

The correct answer is Promotion file build. This action begins with the announcement by AFPC/DPSOE via a Personnel Delivery Memorandum (PSDM) with processing instructions for that upcoming cycle. This indicates that the process of building promotion files for eligible individuals will begin, which is an important step in the promotion cycle.

Submit
79. (408) Under normal circumstances, the Career Development element publishes permanent change of station (PCS) orders not later than how many days prior to departure?

Explanation

The Career Development element typically publishes permanent change of station (PCS) orders 60 days prior to departure. This allows individuals enough time to make necessary arrangements and preparations for their move.

Submit
80. (412) Which element or function identifies all assigned officers and verifies their eligibility status for promotion?

Explanation

The Career Development element is responsible for identifying all assigned officers and verifying their eligibility status for promotion. This element plays a crucial role in assessing the qualifications and potential of officers for promotion within the Air Force. It ensures that only eligible officers are considered for promotion, helping to maintain the integrity and fairness of the promotion process.

Submit
81. (410) Which commander is responsible for representing the reviewing official (RO) on personnel reliability program (PRP) matters and appointing an installation monitor to assist in PRP duties?

Explanation

The Force Support Squadron is responsible for representing the reviewing official (RO) on personnel reliability program (PRP) matters. They also appoint an installation monitor to assist in PRP duties.

Submit
82. (404) Ensuring all casualty services personnel at serviced geographically separated units (GSU), and casualty augmentation support team (CAST) members are trained to handle supplemental instructions, messages for reporting casualties, and notification is the responsibility of the

Explanation

The casualty assistance representative is responsible for ensuring that all casualty services personnel at serviced geographically separated units (GSU) and casualty augmentation support team (CAST) members are trained to handle supplemental instructions, messages for reporting casualties, and notification. They are specifically trained to provide support and assistance to families of deceased or injured service members, and their role includes coordinating and facilitating casualty reporting and notification processes.

Submit
83. (404) Who has overall responsibility for the program objectives and for the management and operation of the Air Force Casualty Program?

Explanation

The Chief, Casualty Matters Division is responsible for the program objectives and the management and operation of the Air Force Casualty Program. This role oversees the overall functioning of the program and ensures that the objectives are met.

Submit
84. (409) Without retaining for six months, who may directly discharge an officer that is considered a threat to good order and discipline?

Explanation

The Secretary of the Air Force may directly discharge an officer that is considered a threat to good order and discipline without retaining for six months. This means that the Secretary has the authority to remove an officer from their position if they are deemed to pose a risk to the overall discipline and functioning of the Air Force. This power is given specifically to the Secretary of the Air Force and not to other officials such as the Air Force Chief of Staff, Secretary of Defense, or Joint Chief of Staff.

Submit
85. (407) For Duty Status Whereabouts Unknown (DUSTWUN) and Missing casualties in peacetime, do not share personal information that pertains to

Explanation

For Duty Status Whereabouts Unknown (DUSTWUN) and Missing casualties in peacetime, it is important not to share personal information that pertains to age and date of birth. This is because sharing this information could potentially compromise the privacy and security of the individual involved. It is important to respect their confidentiality and only share information that is necessary for official purposes.

Submit
86. (408) When the Career Development element receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel (RIP) from HQ AFPC, how many calendar days does the outbound assignment technician have to verify the member's eligibility?

Explanation

The outbound assignment technician has 7 calendar days to verify the member's eligibility after receiving an assignment notification report on individual personnel (RIP) from HQ AFPC.

Submit
87. (415) Who has the authority to authorize the use of personnel outside their control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC) up to 130 days in a 12-month period?

Explanation

The Force Management Operations element has the authority to authorize the use of personnel outside their control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC) up to 130 days in a 12-month period.

Submit
88. (417) Oracle Training Administration (OTA) is used for all of these formal training requirements except

Explanation

Oracle Training Administration (OTA) is a system used for managing and organizing formal training requirements. It helps with controlling the training process, planning the training sessions, and allocating funds for training activities. However, it is not used for establishing the training requirements. This means that OTA does not determine or set the initial training needs for an organization.

Submit
89. (408) After the Assignment Notification report on individual personnel (RIP) is forwarded to the unit commander, the initial relocation briefing is conducted within how many calendar days?

Explanation

The initial relocation briefing is conducted within 15 calendar days after the Assignment Notification report on individual personnel (RIP) is forwarded to the unit commander.

Submit
90. (410) Coordinating with the security manager to ensure personnel reliability program (PRP) personnel security investigation (PSI) requests are submitted in a timely and accurate manner, and followed up for adjudication is the responsibility of the

Explanation

The responsibility of coordinating with the security manager to ensure personnel reliability program (PRP) personnel security investigation (PSI) requests are submitted in a timely and accurate manner, and followed up for adjudication falls under the unit PRP monitor. This individual is responsible for overseeing the PRP within their specific unit and ensuring that all necessary security measures are being taken. The reviewing official (RO), certifying official (CO), and installation PRP monitor do not have the specific responsibility mentioned in the question.

Submit
91. (415) Designating the primary Air Force specialty code (PAFSC) for each officer and enlisted Airman is the responsibility of the

Explanation

The correct answer is Military Personnel Section (MPS). The MPS is responsible for designating the primary Air Force specialty code (PAFSC) for each officer and enlisted Airman. They handle the personnel management and administrative functions related to the career development and progression of Air Force personnel. This includes assigning and updating specialty codes based on individual qualifications and career goals. The MPS plays a crucial role in ensuring that the right personnel are assigned to the right positions and have the necessary skills and qualifications for their roles in the Air Force.

Submit
92. (410) Making judgment on the reliability factors of each individual identified for personnel reliability program (PRP) duties is the responsibility of the

Explanation

The certifying official is responsible for making judgments on the reliability factors of each individual identified for personnel reliability program (PRP) duties. This role involves assessing the trustworthiness and dependability of personnel who have access to sensitive information or perform critical tasks. The certifying official is tasked with ensuring that individuals meet the necessary requirements and standards to be deemed reliable for PRP duties.

Submit
93. (403) In unusual circumstances, it may be appropriate to honor deceased military members other than Air Force personnel (Army, Navy, or Marine Corps). In such instances, the approval authority is the

Explanation

In unusual circumstances, when it is necessary to honor deceased military members from other branches of the military (Army, Navy, or Marine Corps), the approval authority is the Air Force Chief of Staff. This means that if the Air Force wants to honor a deceased member from another branch, they would need to seek approval from the Air Force Chief of Staff. The Secretary of the Air Force, Secretary of Defense, and Joint Chief of Staff do not have the authority to approve such honors in these circumstances.

Submit
94. (403) All requests under the Air Force memorialization program to name medical facilities must be staffed for approval by the

Explanation

The correct answer is Air Force Chief of Staff. In the Air Force memorialization program, all requests to name medical facilities must be approved by the Air Force Chief of Staff. This indicates that the highest authority within the Air Force is responsible for approving these requests, rather than the Joint Chief of Staff, Secretary of Defense, or Secretary of the Air Force.

Submit
95. (415) Changes to the control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC) other than initial, retraining, normal skill-level upgrade, and special duty identifier (SDI) actions are reviewed for propriety by both the gaining and losing

Explanation

Changes to the control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC) other than initial, retraining, normal skill-level upgrade, and special duty identifier (SDI) actions are reviewed for propriety by Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) assignment managers. These managers are responsible for ensuring that the changes are appropriate and in line with the needs and requirements of the Air Force. They have the expertise and authority to review and approve or disapprove the changes, making them the most suitable choice for this task.

Submit
96. (410) Within how many work days following the review of a permanent decertification, does the reviewing official (RO) notify the individual and certifying official (CO) of the findings and conclusion?

Explanation

Within 15 work days following the review of a permanent decertification, the reviewing official (RO) notifies the individual and certifying official (CO) of the findings and conclusion.

Submit
97. (408) Once the unit commander receives the assignment report on individual personnel (RIP) on a member, how many calendar days does he or she have before the RIP is required back to the Military Personnel Section (MPS)?

Explanation

Once the unit commander receives the assignment report on individual personnel (RIP) on a member, he or she has 14 calendar days before the RIP is required back to the Military Personnel Section (MPS).

Submit
98. (404) Which organization ensures squadron commanders are provided casualty services information and training during the Commander's Orientation Program?

Explanation

The major command ensures that squadron commanders are provided casualty services information and training during the Commander's Orientation Program. This is because the major command is responsible for overseeing and coordinating the activities of multiple squadrons within a specific area of responsibility. They have the authority and resources to ensure that squadron commanders have access to the necessary information and training to effectively handle casualty services.

Submit
99. (412) Who issues written instructions to officer selection boards to announce competitive categories, promotion zones, eligibility, and selection criteria?

Explanation

The Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) issues written instructions to officer selection boards to announce competitive categories, promotion zones, eligibility, and selection criteria. This individual holds the authority and responsibility to provide guidance and direction to the selection boards, ensuring a fair and transparent process for officer selection and promotion within the Air Force.

Submit
100. (401) Who has the responsibility to ensure each base Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) completes a Federal Voting Assistance Program (FVAP) designated training workshop or media training course?

Explanation

The major command staff has the responsibility to ensure that each base Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) completes a Federal Voting Assistance Program (FVAP) designated training workshop or media training course. This means that it is the duty of the higher-level command staff to ensure that the IVAOs at each base receive the necessary training to fulfill their role in the voting assistance program.

Submit
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(401) The military member's physical address at the time of joining a...
(404) Which objective is not a Casualty Services Program objective?
(406) What module in the Defense Casualty Information Processing...
(409) Once the member receives an approval of separation e-mail, they...
(409) Which discharge is considered an admirable reflection that the...
(410) Traits or conduct that may be grounds for disqualification or...
(406) The Defense Casualty Information Processing System...
(408) Which system advertises requirements for special duty...
(416) The base monitor is responsible to conduct unit unfavorable...
(401) Per every 100 members, the unit commander will appoint in...
(405) In the case of a mass casualty, and by the order of the Force...
(406) The Defense Casualty Information Processing System...
(408) If a member's assignment requires a higher or more current...
(409) When personal conduct falls significantly below acceptable...
(409) When an officer is retirement eligible and desires to retire in...
(410) When it becomes necessary to consider an individual for a...
(402) Married Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed...
(413) The percentage between the numbers assigned with the numbers...
(416) How many duty days does an active duty member (enlisted or...
(409) Administrative discharge for cause applies to officers who fail...
(401) For voting purposes, when residing outside the United States...
(401) The Armed Forces may use military authority to
(412) The Career Development element staff issues written notice to...
(408) If a member has a permanent change of station (PCS) to a...
(417) The policy on training line numbers (TLN) is focused on the...
(401) When the installation commander appoints the Installation Voting...
(401) When the installation commander appoints the Installation Voting...
(402) Up to how many months after finalization of an adoption, can...
(406) If there is reportable information available on the casualty...
(414) When there is a need to initiate routine duty status change...
(415) An initial Air Force specialty code (AFSC) classification is...
(411) The promotion cycle begins with Air Force Personnel Center...
(414) Duty status reporting is event oriented and serves as a...
(406) When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, what information is...
(416) Which code do you use in the military personnel data system...
(410) For personnel assigned to a controlled personnel reliability...
(404) Once the casualty assistance representative (CAR) notifies the...
(406) After learning of a casualty, the casualty assistance...
(407) Which publication does not apply to releasing information on Air...
(416) Which code do you use in the military personnel data system...
(416) What promotion eligibility status code is associated with...
(410) If the reviewing official (RO) needs to review the medical...
(417) If you are looking for the source of record for all Air Force...
(401) Voting in an election for what type of office may not be used as...
(401) Who is responsible for providing details on elections and...
(412) The fundamental purpose of an officer promotion is to select...
(408) Which AF IMT form is used to contract an active duty service...
(408) The Career Development element personnelist will provide all...
(401) You may only have one legal residence at a time, but each time...
(411) Commanders have the ability to access the AFPC secure/link on...
(414) Regarding contingency, exercise, or deployment duty status...
(407) For deceased casualties, what personal information may not be...
(408) For short-notice assignments of 90 calendar days or less until...
(413) Which document contains personnel assigned, position numbers,...
(411) Before the Weighted Airmen Promotion System (WAPS) testing cycle...
(402) Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable...
(408) If there is a permanent change of station (PCS) ineligibility...
(415) When awarding an enlisted Air Force specialty code (AFSC), which...
(409) What should rarely be the deciding factor in making a...
(412) Which organization implements the approved promotion program...
(413) A product that provides the authorized positions that a unit is...
(403) Which organization does not have the authority under the Air...
(409) Which is not a reason that warrants an administrative...
(416) When performing system updates, it is crucial to ensure the...
(416) What assignment availability codes (AAC) are associated with...
(413) Which document is used to outline the Military Personnel Section...
(405) When a commander determines that a person's absence is...
(406) Who must obtain conclusive evidence before reporting the death...
(415) When determining the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) that an...
(416) Which type(s) of court-martial only tries enlisted service...
(417) The total force development program will produce a total force...
(411) The system used to select and classify individuals and assess...
(404) Casualty reporting is an important responsibility function of
(407) For ill or injured casualties, what personal information may not...
(410) In order for a military member to obtain a critical personnel...
(411) For promotions to SSgt, TSgt, and MSgt, Airmen compete and test...
(401) Which organization has the responsibility to include the voting...
(411) What action begins with the announcement by AFPC/DPSOE via a...
(408) Under normal circumstances, the Career Development element...
(412) Which element or function identifies all assigned officers and...
(410) Which commander is responsible for representing the reviewing...
(404) Ensuring all casualty services personnel at serviced...
(404) Who has overall responsibility for the program objectives and...
(409) Without retaining for six months, who may directly discharge an...
(407) For Duty Status Whereabouts Unknown (DUSTWUN) and Missing...
(408) When the Career Development element receives an assignment...
(415) Who has the authority to authorize the use of personnel outside...
(417) Oracle Training Administration (OTA) is used for all of these...
(408) After the Assignment Notification report on individual personnel...
(410) Coordinating with the security manager to ensure personnel...
(415) Designating the primary Air Force specialty code (PAFSC) for...
(410) Making judgment on the reliability factors of each individual...
(403) In unusual circumstances, it may be appropriate to honor...
(403) All requests under the Air Force memorialization program to name...
(415) Changes to the control Air Force specialty code (CAFSC) other...
(410) Within how many work days following the review of a permanent...
(408) Once the unit commander receives the assignment report on...
(404) Which organization ensures squadron commanders are provided...
(412) Who issues written instructions to officer selection boards to...
(401) Who has the responsibility to ensure each base Installation...
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