CDC 3S071 Volume 3. Personnel Career Field, Edit Code 02
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(401) The military member’s physical address at the time of joining a particular Service is considered their
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Retirement designation.
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Place of residency.
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Desired location.
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Home of record.
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This quiz for CDC 3S071 Volume 3 in the Personnel Career Field evaluates knowledge on military residency, voting, and legal state of residence for service members. It aims to ensure readiness and compliance with military and federal guidelines.
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- 2.
(404) Which objective is not a Casualty Services Program objective?
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Provide casualty representative reports of casualties to ensure timely notification.
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Eliminate delays in providing benefits to the next of kin (NOK).
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Closely track all casualty reports and notifications.
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Assist the family with funeral arrangements.
Correct Answer
A. Assist the family with funeral arrangements.Explanation
The objective "Assist the family with funeral arrangements" is not a Casualty Services Program objective because it does not directly relate to providing casualty representative reports, eliminating delays in benefits, or closely tracking casualty reports and notifications. While assisting the family with funeral arrangements may be a valuable and supportive service, it is not specifically mentioned as an objective of the program.Rate this question:
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- 3.
(406) What module in the Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward is the process in which we collect data for the initial and subsequent supplement death messages?
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Casualty Report.
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Casualty Repeat.
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Casualty Release.
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Casualty Identify.
Correct Answer
A. Casualty Report.Explanation
The module in the Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward that is responsible for collecting data for the initial and subsequent supplement death messages is the Casualty Report module. This module is specifically designed to gather information related to casualties and is used to generate reports and messages regarding casualties in the defense system.Rate this question:
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- 4.
(409) Once the member receives an approval of separation e-mail, they will access Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) secure website and complete the online
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Request for Terminal Leave.
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Initial Separation Briefing.
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Separation Incentive Briefing.
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Release from Duty Counseling.
Correct Answer
A. Initial Separation Briefing.Explanation
Once the member receives an approval of separation e-mail, they will access Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) secure website and complete the online Initial Separation Briefing.Rate this question:
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- 5.
(409) Which discharge is considered an admirable reflection that the member has satisfactorily completed a commitment to military service?
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Favorable.
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Honorable.
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Under Honorable (General) Conditions.
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Under Other Than Honorable Conditions.
Correct Answer
A. Honorable.Explanation
The discharge that is considered an admirable reflection of satisfactorily completing a commitment to military service is an Honorable discharge. This type of discharge is given to members who have met or exceeded the standards of military conduct and performance. It signifies that the individual has served their country with honor and distinction, and is usually associated with a positive military record.Rate this question:
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- 6.
(410) Traits or conduct that may be grounds for disqualification or decertification of individuals from the personnel reliability program (PRP) do not include
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Advising supervisors of factors that may have an adverse impact on your performance.
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Being arrested at the installation gate for an illegal substance in your vehicle.
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Using expired prescription medications after the intended use.
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Hitting a parked car after consuming too much alcohol.
Correct Answer
A. Advising supervisors of factors that may have an adverse impact on your performance.Explanation
The traits or conduct that may be grounds for disqualification or decertification from the personnel reliability program (PRP) typically include actions that pose a risk to national security or compromise the individual's ability to perform their duties safely and effectively. This can include behaviors such as being arrested for illegal substances, using expired medications, or consuming too much alcohol. However, advising supervisors of factors that may have an adverse impact on performance is not typically a disqualifying factor, as it demonstrates responsible behavior and a commitment to maintaining performance standards.Rate this question:
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- 7.
(401) Per every 100 members, the unit commander will appoint in writing one Unit Voting Assistance Counselor (UVAC), at the minimum grade of
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E–4.
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E–5.
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E–6.
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E–7.
Correct Answer
A. E–7.Explanation
The correct answer is E-7 because the question states that for every 100 members, the unit commander will appoint one Unit Voting Assistance Counselor (UVAC) at the minimum grade of E-4. Since E-7 is a higher grade than E-4, it is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 8.
(406) The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward utilizes Microsoft Access for storing casualty information, and is designed to work on all computers as what type of application?
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Independently sourced.
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Minimally operated.
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Well equipped.
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Stand alone.
Correct Answer
A. Stand alone.Explanation
The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward is designed to work on all computers as a stand-alone application. This means that it does not require any additional software or dependencies to function properly. It can be used independently without the need for internet connectivity or any other external resources. Microsoft Access is used for storing casualty information, but the application itself is self-contained and does not rely on any other systems or applications.Rate this question:
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- 9.
(408) Which system advertises requirements for special duty assignments, joint and departmental assignments, short-notice overseas (OS) assignments, and all CMSgt assignments?
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EQUAL.
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EQUAL-Plus.
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Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
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Base-level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM).
Correct Answer
A. EQUAL-Plus.Explanation
EQUAL-Plus is the system that advertises requirements for special duty assignments, joint and departmental assignments, short-notice overseas (OS) assignments, and all CMSgt assignments. This means that EQUAL-Plus is the platform where these assignments are posted and made available for interested individuals to apply for.Rate this question:
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- 10.
(416) The base monitor is responsible to conduct unit unfavorable information file (UIF) training
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Monthly.
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Quarterly.
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Annually.
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Every two years.
Correct Answer
A. Annually.Explanation
The base monitor is responsible for conducting unit unfavorable information file (UIF) training on an annual basis. This means that the training is conducted once a year.Rate this question:
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- 11.
(405) In the case of a mass casualty, and by the order of the Force Support Squadron commander, who will the casualty assistance representative (CAR) contact?
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Mortuary affairs representatives.
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Security forces commander.
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Casualty team.
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Honor guard.
Correct Answer
A. Casualty team.Explanation
In the case of a mass casualty, the casualty assistance representative (CAR) will contact the casualty team. The casualty team is responsible for coordinating and providing support to the affected individuals and their families during a mass casualty event. They are trained to handle the logistics and emotional support required in such situations. Mortuary affairs representatives, security forces commander, and honor guard may also be involved in the response, but the primary contact for the CAR would be the casualty team.Rate this question:
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- 12.
(406) The Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward provides a userfriendly application designed to assist casualty personnel in preparing casualty reports without excessive
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Manual guidance.
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Manual typing.
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Documents.
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Usage.
Correct Answer
A. Manual typing.Explanation
The correct answer is "manual typing". This is because the Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS)-Forward is a user-friendly application that helps casualty personnel in preparing casualty reports without excessive manual typing. This means that the system automates or simplifies the process of entering information into the reports, reducing the need for manual typing.Rate this question:
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- 13.
(408) If a member’s assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than the current security clearance on file, what does the Career Development element staff forward to the member’s commander?
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Statement of service.
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Memorandum of agreement.
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Security verification checklist.
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Security requirement memorandum.
Correct Answer
A. Security requirement memorandum.Explanation
When a member's assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than what is currently on file, the Career Development element staff forwards a Security Requirement Memorandum to the member's commander. This memorandum outlines the specific security clearance requirements needed for the assignment and serves as a request for the member's clearance to be upgraded or updated to meet those requirements.Rate this question:
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- 14.
(402) Married Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses, per calendar year, up to
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$3,000.
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$4,000.
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$5,000.
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$6,000.
Correct Answer
A. $5,000.Explanation
Married service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses. The maximum amount they can be reimbursed per calendar year is $5,000.Rate this question:
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- 15.
(409) When personal conduct falls significantly below acceptable military standards, the characterization for discharge is
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Under Other Than Honorable Conditions.
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Under Honorable Conditions.
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Honorable.
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Favorable.
Correct Answer
A. Under Other Than Honorable Conditions.Explanation
When personal conduct falls significantly below acceptable military standards, the characterization for discharge is "Under Other Than Honorable Conditions." This means that the individual's behavior or actions have been deemed unacceptable and do not meet the standards expected of a military member. This type of discharge may result in the loss of certain benefits and privileges that would have been granted with an honorable discharge.Rate this question:
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- 16.
(409) When an officer is retirement eligible and desires to retire in an officer status, how many years of Total Active Federal Commissioned Service (TAFCS) must he or she have?
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5.
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10.
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15.
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20.
Correct Answer
A. 10.Explanation
When an officer is retirement eligible and desires to retire in an officer status, they must have at least 10 years of Total Active Federal Commissioned Service (TAFCS). This means that they must have served as a commissioned officer in the federal government for a minimum of 10 years in order to retire in an officer status.Rate this question:
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- 17.
(410) When it becomes necessary to consider an individual for a critical position under the personnel reliability program (PRP) and the required investigation has not yet been completed, the member may receive certification as
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Initial.
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Interim.
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Controlled.
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Disqualified.
Correct Answer
A. Interim.Explanation
When an individual needs to be considered for a critical position under the personnel reliability program (PRP) before the required investigation is completed, they may receive certification as "interim." This means that they are temporarily approved for the position until the investigation is finished and a final determination can be made.Rate this question:
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- 18.
(413) The percentage between the numbers assigned with the numbers authorized on the unit manpower document (UMD) will give you the manning
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Capability.
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Required.
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Strength.
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Allowed.
Correct Answer
A. Strength.Explanation
The percentage between the numbers assigned with the numbers authorized on the unit manpower document (UMD) will give you the strength. This means that by comparing the assigned numbers with the authorized numbers on the UMD, you can determine the overall strength of the unit.Rate this question:
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- 19.
(401) For voting purposes, when residing outside the United States (US), the address where you last resided immediately prior to your departure is considered your
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Legal federal residence.
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Legal state of residence.
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Desired state residence.
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Desired federal residence.
Correct Answer
A. Legal state of residence.Explanation
When residing outside the United States, the address where you last resided immediately prior to your departure is considered your legal state of residence for voting purposes. This means that even if you are currently living outside the US, your voting eligibility and registration will be based on your previous state of residence before leaving the country.Rate this question:
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- 20.
(401) The Armed Forces may use military authority to
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Prescribe or fix, or attempt to prescribe or fix, the qualifications of voters.
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Influence or attempt to influence the vote of a member of the Armed Forces.
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Require or attempt to require a member of the Armed Forces to march to a polling place.
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Provide or attempt to provide information regarding absentee voting for their home states.
Correct Answer
A. Provide or attempt to provide information regarding absentee voting for their home states.Explanation
The Armed Forces may provide or attempt to provide information regarding absentee voting for their home states. This means that they can offer guidance and resources to help members of the Armed Forces understand the process of voting by absentee ballot in their home states. This ensures that military personnel who are stationed away from their home states have the necessary information to exercise their right to vote.Rate this question:
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- 21.
(409) Administrative discharge for cause applies to officers who fail to meet the prescribed standards of performance and conduct, for misconduct, moral or professional dereliction, and when they
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Pose a threat to themselves.
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Pose a threat to national security.
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Fail to meet the commander’s suspense.
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Fail to meet the minimum fitness standards.
Correct Answer
A. Pose a threat to national security. -
- 22.
(412) The Career Development element staff issues written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing all of this information except
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The board convening date.
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Name and rank of the board president.
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Name and rank of the most junior officer.
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Name and rank of the most senior officer.
Correct Answer
A. Name and rank of the board president.Explanation
The Career Development element staff issues written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing the name and rank of the most junior officer, the name and rank of the most senior officer, and the board convening date. However, they do not include the name and rank of the board president in the written notice.Rate this question:
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- 23.
(416) How many duty days does an active duty member (enlisted or officer) have to acknowledge the intended actions of a unfavorable information file (UIF) and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his or her final decision on placing optional documents in the UIF?
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3.
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5.
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6.
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7.
Correct Answer
A. 3.Explanation
An active duty member (enlisted or officer) has 3 duty days to acknowledge the intended actions of a unfavorable information file (UIF) and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his or her final decision on placing optional documents in the UIF.Rate this question:
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- 24.
(401) When the installation commander appoints the Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) he or she must make sure the civilian’s minimum grade is
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GS–07.
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GS–09.
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GS–11.
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GS–12.
Correct Answer
A. GS–12.Explanation
The correct answer is GS–12. The installation commander must ensure that the civilian appointed as the Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) has a minimum grade of GS–12. This grade level ensures that the IVAO has the necessary knowledge, skills, and experience to effectively carry out their duties and responsibilities related to voting assistance on the installation. A higher grade level also indicates a higher level of authority and decision-making ability, which is important for overseeing and implementing voting assistance programs.Rate this question:
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- 25.
(401) When the installation commander appoints the Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) he or she must make sure the military member’s minimum grade is
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O–2.
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O–3.
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O–4.
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O–5.
Correct Answer
A. O–4.Explanation
The correct answer is O-4 because the installation commander must appoint an Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) who is at least an O-4 military member. This minimum grade requirement ensures that the IVAO has sufficient experience and knowledge to effectively carry out their responsibilities related to voting assistance on the installation.Rate this question:
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- 26.
(402) Up to how many months after finalization of an adoption, can Service members submit a request for reimbursement of adoption expenses?
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12.
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15.
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18.
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24.
Correct Answer
A. 12.Explanation
Service members can submit a request for reimbursement of adoption expenses up to 12 months after the finalization of an adoption. This means that they have one year from the date of finalization to request reimbursement for any adoption expenses they incurred.Rate this question:
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- 27.
(408) If a member has a permanent change of station (PCS) to a stateside assignment, he or she can out-process no earlier than how many duty days prior to departure date?
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1.
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2.
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3.
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4.
Correct Answer
A. 1.Explanation
A member with a permanent change of station (PCS) to a stateside assignment can out-process no earlier than one duty day prior to the departure date. This means that they must complete all necessary administrative tasks and paperwork related to their move within one working day before they leave. This ensures that they have enough time to complete any last-minute preparations and hand in any required documentation before their departure.Rate this question:
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- 28.
(417) The policy on training line numbers (TLN) is focused on the formal training office being located in the Force Support squadron under the Force Development flight (FSS/FSDE). If the formal training office is located outside of the FSS/FSDE, who is responsible for the requirements outlined in this process?
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Customer support element.
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Force Management Operations element.
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The responsibility remains with the FSS/FSDE.
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HQ Air Force Personnel Center Education and Training Branch.
Correct Answer
A. The responsibility remains with the FSS/FSDE.Explanation
The correct answer is "The responsibility remains with the FSS/FSDE." This means that regardless of the location of the formal training office, the FSS/FSDE is still responsible for the requirements outlined in this process.Rate this question:
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- 29.
(406) If there is reportable information available on the casualty report that would be of interest to family members or of value to the addresses of the report, do not label any item
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TO BE SUPPLEMENTED.
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UNDETERMINED.
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UNCONFIRMED.
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UNKNOWN.
Correct Answer
A. TO BE SUPPLEMENTED.Explanation
The correct answer is "TO BE SUPPLEMENTED" because if there is reportable information available on the casualty report that would be of interest to family members or of value to the addresses of the report, it means that some information is missing or incomplete and needs to be supplemented or added later. Using terms like "UNDETERMINED," "UNCONFIRMED," or "UNKNOWN" would imply that the information is not available at all, which is not the case here.Rate this question:
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- 30.
(411) The promotion cycle begins with Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Weighted Airmen Promotion System (WAPS) database where the eligibility file is
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Monitored.
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Confirmed.
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Accepted.
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Created.
Correct Answer
A. Created.Explanation
The promotion cycle starts with the AFPC WAPS database where the eligibility file is created. This means that the database is responsible for generating the eligibility file for each individual who is being considered for promotion. The file is likely created based on certain criteria or qualifications that need to be met in order to be eligible for promotion.Rate this question:
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- 31.
(414) When there is a need to initiate routine duty status change requests into the Case Management System (CMS), what system will your commander utilize?
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Base-Level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM).
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Assignment Management System (AMS).
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Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).
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Case Management System (CMS).
Correct Answer
A. Base-Level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM).Explanation
The correct answer is Base-Level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM). This system is utilized by commanders to initiate routine duty status change requests into the Case Management System (CMS). It is a tool that helps in managing and tracking personnel actions and provides a streamlined process for commanders to submit requests and track their progress. The BLSDM ensures that duty status changes are accurately recorded and processed in a timely manner. The other options mentioned, Assignment Management System (AMS), Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS), and Case Management System (CMS), are not specifically designed for initiating routine duty status change requests.Rate this question:
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- 32.
(415) An initial Air Force specialty code (AFSC) classification is given to a military member upon their completion of
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Basic training.
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Technical training.
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Skill level upgrade.
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In-processing actions.
Correct Answer
A. Technical training.Explanation
Upon completion of basic training, military members are given an initial Air Force specialty code (AFSC) classification. This classification is based on the specific technical training they receive. This indicates that the correct answer is "technical training."Rate this question:
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- 33.
(406) When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, what information is not considered reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived?
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Statements of witnesses to the incident.
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Circumstances of the incident.
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Location of the incident.
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Search results.
Correct Answer
A. Location of the incident.Explanation
When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, the location of the incident is not considered reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived. The location of the incident alone does not provide evidence of whether or not someone could have survived. It is the statements of witnesses, circumstances of the incident, and search results that provide more concrete evidence in determining if an individual could have survived or not.Rate this question:
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- 34.
(410) For personnel assigned to a controlled personnel reliability program (PRP) position, they must possess all of these attributes except
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Has access, but no technical knowledge.
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Controls access into areas containing nuclear weapons.
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Has a master key to all outside entry ways and inside doors.
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Has been designated as a certifying official at operational unit.
Correct Answer
A. Has a master key to all outside entry ways and inside doors.Explanation
The correct answer is "has a master key to all outside entry ways and inside doors." This attribute is not necessary for personnel assigned to a controlled personnel reliability program (PRP) position. The other attributes mentioned are important for these personnel. They need to have access to certain areas but not necessarily technical knowledge, they need to control access into areas containing nuclear weapons, and they may need to be designated as a certifying official at an operational unit. However, having a master key to all outside entry ways and inside doors is not a requirement for a PRP position.Rate this question:
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- 35.
(414) Duty status reporting is event oriented and serves as a personnel function of
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Accounting.
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Operations.
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Acquisition.
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Navigating.
Correct Answer
A. Accounting.Explanation
Duty status reporting is a personnel function that involves keeping track of the status of individuals' duties or assignments. This includes reporting when someone is on duty, off duty, or on leave. It is important for accounting purposes as it helps in accurately tracking and accounting for personnel costs and resources. By knowing the duty status of individuals, organizations can ensure that they are properly allocating resources and managing their personnel effectively.Rate this question:
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- 36.
(416) Which code do you use in the military personnel data system (MilPDS) to reflect that a member has an unfavorable information file (UIF) only?
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0.
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1.
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2.
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3.
Correct Answer
A. 1.Explanation
In the military personnel data system (MilPDS), code 1 is used to reflect that a member has an unfavorable information file (UIF) only. This code is specifically assigned to indicate the presence of a UIF and does not encompass any other types of information or files.Rate this question:
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- 37.
(401) Voting in an election for what type of office may not be used as the sole basis to determine residency for the purposes of imposing state and local taxes?
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State.
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Local.
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Federal.
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Municipal.
Correct Answer
A. Federal.Explanation
Voting in an election for federal office may not be used as the sole basis to determine residency for the purposes of imposing state and local taxes. This is because residency requirements for state and local taxes are determined by factors such as physical presence, domicile, or the length of time an individual spends in a particular jurisdiction. Voting in a federal election does not necessarily establish residency in a specific state or locality.Rate this question:
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- 38.
(401) Who is responsible for providing details on elections and recorded messages from candidates, governors, United Stated Senators and Representatives?
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Air Force Inspector General employees.
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Voting Information Center staff.
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Installation commanders.
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Major command staff.
Correct Answer
A. Voting Information Center staff.Explanation
The Voting Information Center staff is responsible for providing details on elections and recorded messages from candidates, governors, United States Senators and Representatives. They are the ones who ensure that voters have access to accurate and up-to-date information about the election process and the candidates running for office. They play a crucial role in promoting transparency and facilitating citizen engagement in the democratic process.Rate this question:
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- 39.
(404) Once the casualty assistance representative (CAR) notifies the family members of casualties, he or she provides the mortuary services officers and the public affairs (PA) office the member’s
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Religion, age, home address, date of birth, and gender.
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Name, age, home of record, and marital status.
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Name, age, home of record, race, and awards.
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Age, home of record, race, and gender.
Correct Answer
A. Name, age, home of record, race, and awards.Explanation
The CAR notifies the mortuary services officers and the public affairs office about the member's name, age, home of record, race, and awards. This information is important for the proper handling of the deceased member's remains and for public communication regarding the casualty. The religion, date of birth, and gender of the member are not mentioned in the given correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 40.
(406) After learning of a casualty, the casualty assistance representative (CAR) must ensure the casualty message is transmitted or delivered to the base telecommunications center as determined by AFPC/DPWCS, within how many hours?
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2.
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4.
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6.
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12.
Correct Answer
A. 4.Explanation
The casualty assistance representative (CAR) must ensure that the casualty message is transmitted or delivered to the base telecommunications center within 4 hours after learning of a casualty. This is important to ensure that the necessary notifications and actions can be taken in a timely manner.Rate this question:
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- 41.
(407) Which publication does not apply to releasing information on Air Force casualties?
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AFI 35–101, Public Affairs Policies and Procedures.
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AFSUPDODR 5400.7, Freedom of Information Act Program.
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AFI 33–332, Air Force Privacy Act Program.
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AFI 36–3002, Casualty Services.
Correct Answer
A. AFI 36–3002, Casualty Services. -
- 42.
(410) If the reviewing official (RO) needs to review the medical records of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program (PRP) to determine disqualifying conditions, he or she works with the
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Primary care manager.
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Medical group commander.
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Medical records technician.
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Competent medical authority.
Correct Answer
A. Competent medical authority.Explanation
The reviewing official (RO) needs to review the medical records of candidates and members of the personnel reliability program (PRP) to determine disqualifying conditions. The competent medical authority would be the appropriate person to work with in this situation, as they have the knowledge and expertise to accurately assess and interpret the medical records. The primary care manager, medical group commander, and medical records technician may have roles in the process, but the competent medical authority is the one responsible for making the final determination.Rate this question:
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- 43.
(412) The fundamental purpose of an officer promotion is to select officers through a process that is
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Fair and equitable.
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Fair and competitive.
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Eligible and qualified.
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Eligible and deserving.
Correct Answer
A. Fair and competitive.Explanation
The correct answer is fair and competitive. Officer promotions aim to select individuals through a process that is both fair and competitive. This means that all officers should have an equal opportunity to compete for promotion based on their qualifications and performance. The process should be fair, ensuring that all officers are treated impartially and without bias. At the same time, it should be competitive, allowing officers to demonstrate their abilities and compete against their peers for promotion. This ensures that the most deserving and qualified individuals are selected for promotion.Rate this question:
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- 44.
(416) Which code do you use in the military personnel data system (MilPDS) to reflect that a member has an Article 15 with suspended punishment?
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0.
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1.
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2.
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3.
Correct Answer
A. 3.Explanation
In the military personnel data system (MilPDS), code 3 is used to reflect that a member has an Article 15 with suspended punishment. This means that the member has been found guilty of an offense but the punishment has been temporarily suspended, allowing the member a chance to demonstrate good behavior and avoid the punishment.Rate this question:
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- 45.
(416) What promotion eligibility status code is associated with adverse actions?
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E.
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F.
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G.
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H.
Correct Answer
A. G.Explanation
Promotion eligibility status code G is associated with adverse actions. This means that employees who have received adverse actions such as disciplinary actions or poor performance evaluations are not eligible for promotion. This code indicates that there are certain issues or concerns with the employee's performance or behavior that need to be addressed before they can be considered for promotion.Rate this question:
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- 46.
(417) If you are looking for the source of record for all Air Force professional military education (PME) and formal training, what system would you use?
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Personnel data training system (PDTS).
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Oracle training administration (OTA).
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Military personnel data system (MilPDS).
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Automated records management system (ARMS).
Correct Answer
A. Oracle training administration (OTA). -
- 47.
(401) You may only have one legal residence at a time, but each time you are transferred to a new location you may change your
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Legal voting residence.
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Home of record.
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Citizenship.
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Residency.
Correct Answer
A. Residency.Explanation
The correct answer is residency. Residency refers to the place where a person lives and has established their permanent home. While you may only have one legal residence at a time, you can change your residency each time you are transferred to a new location. This means that you can establish a new permanent home and legal address in the new location, which may have implications for various legal matters, including voting.Rate this question:
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- 48.
(408) Which AF IMT form is used to contract an active duty service commitment?
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63.
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93.
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899.
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965.
Correct Answer
A. 63.Explanation
The correct answer is 63. This AF IMT form is used to contract an active duty service commitment.Rate this question:
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- 49.
(408) The Career Development element personnelist will provide all members relocating overseas with the opportunity to elect tour options on the AF IMT
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63.
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899.
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965.
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1466.
Correct Answer
A. 965. -
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Mar 17, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Apr 24, 2013Quiz Created by
Jcrown
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