CDC 3S071 Volume 2. Personnel Career Field, Edit Code 02

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Quizzes Created: 3 | Total Attempts: 6,077

Questions: 100 | Attempts: 1,941 | Updated: Mar 20, 2023

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Questions and Answers

1.

(201) Challenges and threats of those who are opposed to United States values and interests may arise from
- A.
  
  Adversaries.
- B.
  
  Dignitaries.
- C.
  
  Diplomats.
- D.
  
  Allies.
Correct Answer
A. Adversaries.

Explanation
The correct answer is "adversaries." Challenges and threats to United States values and interests often come from adversaries, who are individuals or groups that oppose or compete with the US. Adversaries may include hostile nations, terrorist organizations, or other entities that pose a threat to the US and its values. Dignitaries and diplomats, on the other hand, typically represent foreign governments and engage in diplomatic relations, while allies are countries or organizations that work together with the US towards common goals.

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2.

(201) What are the four basic instruments of national power the US relies on for its security?
- A.
  
  Informational, strategic, diplomatic, and economic.
- B.
  
  Diplomatic, strategic, informational, and doctrinal.
- C.
  
  Diplomatic, economic, informational, and military.
- D.
  
  Economic, diplomatic, strategic, and military.
Correct Answer
C. Diplomatic, economic, informational, and military.

Explanation
The US relies on four basic instruments of national power for its security: diplomatic, economic, informational, and military. These instruments work together to protect and promote the country's interests both domestically and internationally. Diplomatic power involves engaging with other nations through negotiations, treaties, and alliances. Economic power refers to the country's ability to influence global markets and trade. Informational power involves the use of media, intelligence, and propaganda to shape public opinion and gather information. Lastly, military power includes the use of armed forces and defense capabilities to protect the country and its interests.

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3.

(201) The United States Armed Forces shape and employ the military instrument to defend interest and objectives guided by
- A.
  
  Demobilization planning.
- B.
  
  National security policy.
- C.
  
  Mobilization planning.
- D.
  
  Joint tactical policy.
Correct Answer
B. National security policy.

Explanation
The correct answer is national security policy. The United States Armed Forces shape and employ the military instrument to defend interest and objectives guided by national security policy. This means that their actions and strategies are aligned with the overall goal of protecting the nation's security and interests. This policy provides a framework for decision-making and prioritization of military actions.

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4.

(201) What presents the fundamental principle that guides the armed forces in support of national objectives and shapes the way the armed forces think about the use of the military instrument of national power?
- A.
  
  Joint force concepts.
- B.
  
  Operations planning.
- C.
  
  Security strategy.
- D.
  
  Doctrine.
Correct Answer
D. Doctrine.

Explanation
Doctrine presents the fundamental principle that guides the armed forces in support of national objectives and shapes the way the armed forces think about the use of the military instrument of national power. Joint force concepts, operations planning, and security strategy are all important aspects of military operations, but they are not the overarching guiding principle that doctrine provides. Doctrine outlines the principles, tactics, techniques, and procedures that military forces use to accomplish their mission and achieve national objectives.

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5.

(201) What provides authoritative guidance based upon existing capabilities of our Armed Forces?
- A.
  
  Joint doctrine.
- B.
  
  Basic doctrine.
- C.
  
  Execution planning.
- D.
  
  Operations planning.
Correct Answer
A. Joint doctrine.

Explanation
Joint doctrine provides authoritative guidance based upon existing capabilities of our Armed Forces. It is a set of principles and fundamental concepts that guides the actions and operations of our military forces. Joint doctrine is developed through a collaborative process involving all branches of the military and is regularly updated to reflect changes in technology, tactics, and strategies. It provides a common framework for planning, executing, and assessing military operations, ensuring that all branches of the Armed Forces work together effectively and efficiently. Basic doctrine, execution planning, and operations planning are important components of military operations, but they are not specifically focused on providing authoritative guidance based on existing capabilities like joint doctrine does.

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6.

(201) The type of doctrine that states the most fundamental and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use of Air Forces in military action is known as
- A.
  
  Basic.
- B.
  
  Joint.
- C.
  
  Tactical.
- D.
  
  Operational.
Correct Answer
A. Basic.

Explanation
The correct answer is "basic". The question is asking for the type of doctrine that describes and guides the proper use of Air Forces in military action. The term "basic" implies that this doctrine includes the most fundamental and enduring beliefs. The other options, joint, tactical, and operational, do not necessarily encompass the same level of fundamental and enduring beliefs as the basic doctrine.

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7.

(201) Doctrine that guides the proper organization and employment of forces in the context of distinct objectives, force capabilities, functional areas, and environments is referred to as
- A.
  
  Basic.
- B.
  
  Joint.
- C.
  
  Tactical.
- D.
  
  Operational.
Correct Answer
D. Operational.

Explanation
Operational doctrine refers to the principles and guidelines that guide the organization and utilization of military forces in the context of specific objectives, capabilities, functional areas, and environments. It focuses on the overall planning and execution of military operations and provides a framework for commanders to make decisions and allocate resources effectively. The other options - basic doctrine, joint doctrine, and tactical doctrine - do not encompass the broader scope of operational doctrine.

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8.

(202) Which process is considered a sequential process performed simultaneously at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war?
- A.
  
  Joint contingency planning.
- B.
  
  Joint operations planning.
- C.
  
  Mobilization planning.
- D.
  
  Deployment planning.
Correct Answer
B. Joint operations planning.

Explanation
Joint operations planning is considered a sequential process performed simultaneously at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war. This process involves the development and coordination of plans for joint military operations, taking into account various factors such as mission objectives, available resources, and potential risks. It ensures that all levels of command are aligned and working towards a common goal, facilitating effective decision-making and execution of military operations.

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9.

(202) At what level does joint operation planning involve developing military objectives and tasks to support National Security Strategy (NSS) and developing requirements necessary to accomplish these tasks?
- A.
  
  Tactical.
- B.
  
  Strategic.
- C.
  
  Functional
- D.
  
  Operational.
Correct Answer
B. Strategic.

Explanation
Joint operation planning involves developing military objectives and tasks to support the National Security Strategy (NSS) and developing the requirements necessary to accomplish these tasks at the strategic level. This level of planning focuses on long-term goals and aligning military actions with the overall national security objectives. Tactical planning, on the other hand, deals with the execution of specific tasks and operations on the battlefield. Functional planning refers to planning within a specific functional area, such as logistics or intelligence. Operational planning falls in between strategic and tactical planning and involves the coordination and synchronization of military actions and resources.

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10.

(202) Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command that runs from the president through the
- A.
  
  Vice president.
- B.
  
  Chief of staff.
- C.
  
  Secretary of defense.
- D.
  
  Chief master sergeant of the Air Force.
Correct Answer
C. Secretary of defense.

Explanation
Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command that runs from the president through the secretary of defense. The secretary of defense is a key position in the U.S. Department of Defense and is responsible for formulating and implementing defense policy. As such, they play a crucial role in joint operations planning, which involves coordinating and integrating the efforts of multiple military services to achieve a common objective. The vice president, chief of staff, and chief master sergeant of the Air Force are not directly involved in the chain of command for joint operations planning.

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11.

(202) What are the joint operation planning activities that support the development of operations plans, concept plans, functional plans, and operation orders?
- A.
  
  Sustainment, reconstitution, mobilization, and employment.
- B.
  
  Mobilization, deployment, reconstitution, and sustainment.
- C.
  
  Employment, sustainment, redeployment, and reconstitution.
- D.
  
  Mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment.
Correct Answer
D. Mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment.

Explanation
The joint operation planning activities that support the development of operations plans, concept plans, functional plans, and operation orders are mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment. These activities involve preparing and organizing personnel, equipment, and resources for deployment, executing the deployment process, utilizing resources in the operational environment, ensuring the continuous support and maintenance of forces, and finally, redeploying forces after the mission is complete.

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12.

(202) The planning process by which the armed forces or part of them are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency describes which joint operation planning activity?
- A.
  
  Sustainment.
- B.
  
  Mobilization.
- C.
  
  Employment.
- D.
  
  Reconstitution.
Correct Answer
B. Mobilization.

Explanation
Mobilization is the correct answer because it refers to the planning process of bringing the armed forces to a state of readiness for war or national emergency. This involves activating and deploying military personnel, equipment, and resources to ensure preparedness and effectiveness in response to a crisis. Sustainment, Employment, and Reconstitution are not the correct answers as they do not specifically describe the process of readiness for war or national emergency.

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13.

(202) Planning that encompasses the movement of forces and their sustainment resources from their original locations to a specific destination to conduct joint operations describes which joint operation planning activity?
- A.
  
  Redeployment.
- B.
  
  Employment.
- C.
  
  Mobilization.
- D.
  
  Deployment.
Correct Answer
D. Deployment.

Explanation
Deployment is the correct answer because it refers to the planning process of moving forces and their sustainment resources from their original locations to a specific destination in order to conduct joint operations. Redeployment refers to the movement of forces after the completion of a mission, employment refers to the utilization of forces in a specific operation, and mobilization refers to the process of assembling and organizing resources for military operations.

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14.

(202) The joint operation planning activity that describes how to apply military force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area is
- A.
  
  Redeployment.
- B.
  
  Employment.
- C.
  
  Mobilization.
- D.
  
  Deployment.
Correct Answer
B. Employment.

Explanation
The correct answer is employment. Employment refers to the joint operation planning activity that describes how to apply military force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area. It involves the allocation of resources, coordination of forces, and execution of military operations to achieve the desired objectives. Redeployment refers to the movement of forces from one operational area to another, mobilization refers to the process of assembling and organizing military forces for active duty, and deployment refers to the movement of forces into a specific operational area.

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15.

(202) What type of plan includes all required annexes, appendices, and a supporting time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD)?
- A.
  
  Concept.
- B.
  
  Operational.
- C.
  
  Functional.
- D.
  
  Supporting.
Correct Answer
B. Operational.

Explanation
An operational plan includes all required annexes, appendices, and a supporting time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD). This type of plan provides detailed information on how a specific operation will be conducted and includes the necessary resources, tasks, and timelines. It is designed to guide the execution of military operations and ensure the efficient deployment of forces. Functional plans, on the other hand, focus on specific functions or activities within an organization, while supporting plans provide additional support and resources for the execution of operational plans.

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16.

(202) A plan to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary describes which type of plan?
- A.
  
  Concept.
- B.
  
  Operation.
- C.
  
  Functional.
- D.
  
  Supporting.
Correct Answer
A. Concept.

Explanation
The correct answer is Concept. A concept plan is a plan that outlines the basic operational and support concepts for a specific operation. It provides a framework for developing more detailed plans, such as an operation order (OPORD), if necessary. In this case, the plan is focused on developing sound operational and support concepts that can be quickly expanded into an OPORD if needed. This suggests that the plan is at the conceptual stage and is not yet a fully developed operational plan.

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17.

(202) Which joint and service planning system is the Department of Defense (DOD)-directed single, integrated joint command and control (C2) for conventional operation planning and execution?
- A.
  
  Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
- B.
  
  Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
- C.
  
  Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
- D.
  
  War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).
Correct Answer
B. Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

Explanation
JOPES is the correct answer because it is the joint and service planning system that the Department of Defense (DOD) uses for conventional operation planning and execution. It is a single, integrated command and control system that helps in the coordination and synchronization of military operations. DCAPES is a separate system used for deliberate and crisis action planning and execution. SORTS is used for reporting the status of resources and training, and WMP is a plan for war and mobilization.

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18.

(202) Which joint and service planning system’s objective is to enable Air Force-unique operation planning process which includes associated joint policy procedures?
- A.
  
  Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
- B.
  
  Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
- C.
  
  Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
- D.
  
  War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).
Correct Answer
A. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

Explanation
The correct answer is Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES). DCAPES is a joint and service planning system that focuses on enabling the Air Force's unique operation planning process, including associated joint policy procedures. It helps in the planning and execution of deliberate and crisis action operations by providing a comprehensive view of resources, training, and readiness. JOPES, SORTS, and WMP are not specifically designed to enable the Air Force's unique operation planning process.

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19.

(202) Which joint and service planning system provides the Air Staff, Air Force planners, and Air Force commanders with current policies, apportioned forces, and planning factors for conducting and supporting operations?
- A.
  
  Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
- B.
  
  Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
- C.
  
  Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
- D.
  
  War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).
Correct Answer
D. War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).
20.

(202) Which joint and service planning system is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DOD) functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the United States armed forces and certain foreign organizations?
- A.
  
  Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).
- B.
  
  Joint Operations Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
- C.
  
  Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).
- D.
  
  War and Mobilization Plan (WMP).
Correct Answer
C. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

Explanation
The correct answer is Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS). SORTS is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DOD) that functions as the central registry of all operational units of the United States armed forces and certain foreign organizations. It provides information on the status of resources, personnel, and training readiness of these units, allowing for effective joint and service planning.

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21.

(203) Who develops procedures for administrative support of active, reserve components, and retirees?
- A.
  
  Functional directorates.
- B.
  
  Functional dignitaries.
- C.
  
  Functional managers.
- D.
  
  Functional leaders.
Correct Answer
A. Functional directorates.

Explanation
Functional directorates are responsible for developing procedures for administrative support of active, reserve components, and retirees. They oversee the implementation of these procedures and ensure that they are followed effectively. Functional dignitaries, functional managers, and functional leaders may have other roles and responsibilities within an organization, but they are not specifically tasked with developing procedures for administrative support.

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22.

(203) Which military department was not established by The National Security Act of 1947?
- A.
  
  Air Force.
- B.
  
  Marines.
- C.
  
  Army.
- D.
  
  Navy.
Correct Answer
B. Marines.

Explanation
The National Security Act of 1947 established the Department of Defense and the Air Force as separate military departments. However, the Marines were not established as a separate department by this act. They are instead a component of the Department of the Navy.

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23.

(203) American military power plays a vital role in all of the following except
- A.
  
  Crisis.
- B.
  
  Peace.
- C.
  
  Politics.
- D.
  
  Conflict.
Correct Answer
C. Politics.

Explanation
American military power plays a vital role in crisis management, maintaining peace, and engaging in conflicts. However, it does not directly influence politics. While military actions can indirectly impact political decisions, such as in the case of war or defense strategies, politics primarily involves the governance and decision-making processes within a country, which are influenced by a variety of factors beyond military power.

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24.

(204) The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both
- A.
  
  Federal and state missions.
- B.
  
  Federal and overseas missions.
- C.
  
  State and community missions.
- D.
  
  Overseas and community missions.
Correct Answer
A. Federal and state missions.

Explanation
The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution because it has responsibilities at both the federal and state levels. It serves as a reserve component of the United States Air Force and can be called upon by the federal government for national defense missions. Additionally, the ANG also has a state mission, where it can be activated by the governor to respond to emergencies and provide support to local communities. This dual role allows the ANG to fulfill both federal and state missions.

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25.

(204) Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to the
- A.
  
  1910s and 20s.
- B.
  
  1920s and 30s.
- C.
  
  1930s and 40s.
- D.
  
  1940s and 50s.
Correct Answer
B. 1920s and 30s.

Explanation
Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to the 1920s and 30s. This indicates that these units have a long history and have been in existence for several decades. It also suggests that the establishment and development of these units took place during the 1920s and 30s, which was a significant period of growth and expansion for aviation in general.

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26.

(204) The Reserves defend the United States through control and exploitation of air and space by supporting what type of engagement?
- A.
  
  Regional.
- B.
  
  National.
- C.
  
  Global.
- D.
  
  Local.
Correct Answer
C. Global.

Explanation
The Reserves defend the United States through control and exploitation of air and space by supporting global engagements. This means that they are involved in operations and activities that extend beyond national borders and have a worldwide impact. They contribute to the defense and security of the United States on a global scale, working alongside other military forces to protect national interests and maintain international stability.

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27.

(204) The readiness of the Reserves allows for rapid expansion of the total force through what form of movement?
- A.
  
  Deployment.
- B.
  
  Employment.
- C.
  
  Mobilization.
- D.
  
  Demobilization.
Correct Answer
C. Mobilization.

Explanation
The readiness of the Reserves allows for rapid expansion of the total force through mobilization. Mobilization refers to the process of assembling and organizing military personnel and resources in preparation for war or other emergencies. It involves activating and deploying Reserve forces to supplement the active duty forces and increase the overall strength of the military. By mobilizing the Reserves, the military can quickly and effectively respond to any threats or crises that may arise, ensuring the readiness and capability of the total force.

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28.

(204) The Reserves bring what three things to the military environment from their civilian employment?
- A.
  
  Citizen Airmen, community connections, and personnel stability.
- B.
  
  Family, personnel stability, and community connections.
- C.
  
  Manpower, people, and camaraderie.
- D.
  
  Talent, depth, and experience.
Correct Answer
D. Talent, depth, and experience.

Explanation
The Reserves bring talent, depth, and experience to the military environment from their civilian employment. This means that they bring their unique skills and abilities, a deep understanding of their respective fields, and valuable experience that can contribute to the overall effectiveness and success of the military.

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29.

(204) The depth of experience the Reserve forces bring to the mission and the Air Force is an invaluable
- A.
  
  Responsibility.
- B.
  
  Commodity.
- C.
  
  Opportunity.
- D.
  
  Job.
Correct Answer
B. Commodity.

Explanation
The phrase "depth of experience" suggests that the Reserve forces possess a wealth of knowledge and skills. In this context, the word "commodity" refers to something that is valuable or useful. Therefore, the correct answer implies that the Reserve forces' experience is highly valuable and beneficial to the mission and the Air Force.

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30.

(204) Reserve friendships and team work that develop over time provide esprit-de-corps to the unit along with what other strength?
- A.
  
  Stability.
- B.
  
  Liability.
- C.
  
  Reliability.
- D.
  
  Responsibility.
Correct Answer
A. Stability.

Explanation
Reserve friendships and team work that develop over time provide stability to the unit. This means that the unit is able to maintain a consistent and reliable foundation, allowing for smoother operations and a sense of security. Stability is an important strength as it ensures that the unit can withstand challenges and changes without being easily disrupted or destabilized.

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31.

(205) To meet the national security challenges of the 21st century the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept was designed to do what for air and space forces?
- A.
  
  Train, manage, and equip.
- B.
  
  Equip, train, deploy, and sustain.
- C.
  
  Organize, train, equip, and sustain.
- D.
  
  Organize, manage, train, and equip.
Correct Answer
C. Organize, train, equip, and sustain.

Explanation
The correct answer is "organize, train, equip, and sustain." This means that the AEF concept was designed to establish a structured organization, provide training for personnel, supply them with necessary equipment, and ensure the sustainability of air and space forces. This approach aims to meet the national security challenges of the 21st century effectively.

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32.

(205) Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept provides trained and ready air and space forces for what type of defense?
- A.
  
  Aerial.
- B.
  
  Global.
- C.
  
  Regional.
- D.
  
  National.
Correct Answer
D. National.

Explanation
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept provides trained and ready air and space forces for national defense. This means that these forces are prepared to protect and defend the country's airspace and national security interests. They are equipped to respond to any threats or attacks that may occur within the nation's borders. The AEF concept ensures that the air and space forces are organized and ready to support national defense operations whenever and wherever they are needed.

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33.

(205) The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) primary purpose is to provide
- A.
  
  War-fighter support.
- B.
  
  Stability to Airmen.
- C.
  
  Predictability to Airmen.
- D.
  
  Fair share tempo band support.
Correct Answer
A. War-fighter support.

Explanation
The primary purpose of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) is to provide war-fighter support. This means that the AEF is focused on supporting military personnel who are actively engaged in combat or warfare. Their main goal is to ensure that these war-fighters have the necessary resources, equipment, and support to carry out their missions effectively. This includes tasks such as providing air support, logistics, intelligence, and other forms of assistance to the war-fighters on the ground.

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34.

(205) The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) doctrine is vital to understanding how best to employ air and space power along with understanding the proper way to do what with air and space forces?
- A.
  
  Organize, present, deploy, and sustain.
- B.
  
  Organize, present, and deploy.
- C.
  
  Deploy, present, and sustain.
- D.
  
  Organize and sustain.
Correct Answer
B. Organize, present, and deploy.

Explanation
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) doctrine is important for understanding how to effectively use air and space power. It involves organizing the forces, presenting them in a coordinated manner, and deploying them to the appropriate locations. This ensures that the air and space forces are properly utilized and can carry out their missions effectively. Sustaining the forces is not mentioned in relation to the AEF doctrine, so it is not part of the proper way to employ air and space forces according to the given information.

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35.

(205) The Air Force organized its total force into how many air and space expeditionary forces?
- A.
  
  10.
- B.
  
  15.
- C.
  
  20.
- D.
  
  25.
Correct Answer
A. 10.

Explanation
The Air Force organized its total force into 10 air and space expeditionary forces.

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36.

(205) In order for the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) to maintain a sustainable rotational rhythm, how many AEFs are tasked at any time?
- A.
  
  One.
- B.
  
  Two.
- C.
  
  Three.
- D.
  
  Four.
Correct Answer
B. Two.

Explanation
The correct answer is two because in order to maintain a sustainable rotational rhythm, there needs to be at least two AEFs tasked at any time. This allows for one AEF to be deployed and engaged in operations while the other AEF is in the reset and reconstitution phase, preparing for the next deployment. This rotational cycle ensures that there is a continuous presence and readiness of forces without overburdening any one AEF.

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37.

(205) The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to
- A.
  
  Win the war.
- B.
  
  Place capable personnel in the area of responsibility.
- C.
  
  Equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities.
- D.
  
  Equitably align available Air Force UTCs across 15 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities.
Correct Answer
C. Equitably align available Air Force unit type codes (UTC) across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities.

Explanation
The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to ensure that each of the 10 AEFs has an equitable alignment of available Air Force unit type codes (UTC), so that each possesses equal capabilities. This means that the AEFs will have a fair distribution of resources and personnel, allowing them to effectively carry out their missions and contribute to the overall success of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force concept.

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38.

(205) When the air and space expeditionary task force is responsible for sustaining all base operating and support functions, it normally organizes as a/an
- A.
  
  Air and space expeditionary squadron.
- B.
  
  Air and space expeditionary group.
- C.
  
  Numbered expeditionary air force.
- D.
  
  Air and expeditionary wing.
Correct Answer
D. Air and expeditionary wing.

Explanation
When the air and space expeditionary task force is responsible for sustaining all base operating and support functions, it normally organizes as an air and expeditionary wing. This is because an air and expeditionary wing is a larger organizational unit compared to a squadron or group, and it is capable of providing the necessary resources and support for sustaining all base operations and functions. The other options, such as air and space expeditionary squadron, air and space expeditionary group, and numbered expeditionary air force, do not have the same level of organizational capacity and may not be able to effectively sustain all base operating and support functions.

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39.

(205) What group in the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct is the basic warfighting organization of the Air Force and is the building block of the air and space expeditionary task force (AETF)?
- A.
  
  Air and space expeditionary squadron.
- B.
  
  Air and space expeditionary element.
- C.
  
  Air and space expeditionary group.
- D.
  
  Air and space expeditionary wing.
Correct Answer
A. Air and space expeditionary squadron.

Explanation
The correct answer is Air and space expeditionary group. This is because the air and space expeditionary group is the basic warfighting organization of the Air Force and is the building block of the air and space expeditionary task force (AETF). The air and space expeditionary squadron is a smaller unit within the group, and the air and space expeditionary element is even smaller, typically consisting of a single aircraft type. The air and space expeditionary wing is a larger unit that is composed of multiple groups.

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40.

(206) Once an Airman arrives at a base, he or she is required to report to the
- A.
  
  Financial services office (FSO).
- B.
  
  Military personnel section (MPS).
- C.
  
  Medical treatment facility (MTF).
- D.
  
  Unit deployment manager (UDM).
Correct Answer
B. Military personnel section (MPS).

Explanation
Once an Airman arrives at a base, they are required to report to the military personnel section (MPS). This is because the MPS is responsible for managing and maintaining the personnel records of all military personnel stationed at the base. They handle tasks such as personnel actions, promotions, awards, and evaluations. Reporting to the MPS ensures that the Airman's arrival is properly documented and that they are integrated into the base's personnel system. The financial services office (FSO) handles financial matters, the medical treatment facility (MTF) provides healthcare services, and the unit deployment manager (UDM) is responsible for coordinating deployments.

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41.

(206) The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) operates on a how many month life cycle?
- A.
  
  14-month.
- B.
  
  18-month.
- C.
  
  20-month.
- D.
  
  24-month.
Correct Answer
D. 24-month.

Explanation
The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) operates on a 24-month life cycle. This means that the AEF is organized and deployed for a period of 24 months before being replaced by a new AEF. This cycle allows for effective planning and coordination of resources, as well as ensuring that personnel have sufficient time for training and preparation before deployment.

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42.

(206) What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and publish the associated Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP)?
- A.
  
  Air Staff.
- B.
  
  Joint Staff.
- C.
  
  Headquarters Air Force (HAF).
- D.
  
  Department of Defense (DOD).
Correct Answer
B. Joint Staff.

Explanation
The Joint Staff is the agency responsible for publishing a planning order that outlines the milestones required to staff and publish the Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP). The GFMAP is an important document that outlines the allocation of forces and resources for military operations. The Joint Staff is a key component of the Department of Defense and plays a crucial role in coordinating and planning military operations across different branches and agencies.

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43.

(206) Which capability library contains a fixed capability that at any given time identifies forces that constitute the total force that has been made available or allocated for scheduling?
- A.
  
  Unit type code (UTC).
- B.
  
  Air expeditionary force (AEF).
- C.
  
  Global Force Management (GFM).
- D.
  
  Unit manpower document (UMD).
Correct Answer
B. Air expeditionary force (AEF).

Explanation
The correct answer is Air expeditionary force (AEF). The AEF capability library contains a fixed capability that identifies forces that constitute the total force available or allocated for scheduling. This means that the AEF library provides information on the forces that are currently available for deployment or tasking, allowing for effective planning and allocation of resources. The other options, UTC, GFM, and UMD, do not specifically pertain to the identification of forces for scheduling purposes.

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44.

(206) At any given time, how many air and space expeditionary force (AEF) block(s) and or pair(s) from each tempo band is in the AEF vulnerability period?
- A.
  
  One.
- B.
  
  Two.
- C.
  
  Four.
- D.
  
  Six.
Correct Answer
A. One.

Explanation
During the AEF vulnerability period, there is only one AEF block and/or pair from each tempo band present. This means that at any given time, there is only one AEF block and/or pair in the AEF vulnerability period.

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45.

(207) A guideline used to determine when a unit type code (UTC) must be developed is when
- A.
  
  New equipment needs to be replaced.
- B.
  
  New equipment types enter the inventory.
- C.
  
  No program changes occur in manpower or equipment.
- D.
  
  Deployable units experience no change in either operational concept or mission.
Correct Answer
B. New equipment types enter the inventory.

Explanation
A unit type code (UTC) is developed when new equipment types enter the inventory. This means that when new equipment is introduced, a UTC needs to be created to account for the specific requirements and capabilities of the new equipment. This ensures that the unit is properly organized and equipped to effectively utilize the new equipment.

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46.

(207) In addition to Headquarters Air Force (HAF), which agencies usually initiate the development of a unit type code (UTC)?
- A.
  
  Functional area manager (FAM), Direct Reporting Unit (DRU), and Numbered Air Force (NAF).
- B.
  
  Major command (MAJCOM), Field Operating Agency (FOA), and NAF.
- C.
  
  FAM, MAJCOM, Air National Guard (ANG), FOA, and DRU
- D.
  
  ANG, FAM, MAJCOM, FOA, and NAF.
Correct Answer
C. FAM, MAJCOM, Air National Guard (ANG), FOA, and DRU

Explanation
The correct answer is FAM, MAJCOM, Air National Guard (ANG), FOA, and DRU. These agencies are responsible for initiating the development of a unit type code (UTC) in addition to Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

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47.

(207) What is the basic building block used in force planning and the deployment of air and space expeditionary task forces?
- A.
  
  Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning Execution Segment (DCAPES).
- B.
  
  Air and space expeditionary force mapping documents.
- C.
  
  Time phased force deployment data.
- D.
  
  Unit type code.
Correct Answer
D. Unit type code.

Explanation
The basic building block used in force planning and the deployment of air and space expeditionary task forces is the unit type code. Unit type codes are standardized codes that represent specific types of units, such as aircraft squadrons or support units. These codes are used to identify and organize units during the planning and deployment process, ensuring that the right units are assigned to the right tasks and missions.

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48.

(207) Deviations to the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct may be implemented on a case-by-case basis with whose approval?
- A.
  
  President.
- B.
  
  Chief of staff.
- C.
  
  Secretary of defense.
- D.
  
  Secretary of the Air Force.
Correct Answer
B. Chief of staff.

Explanation
Deviations to the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct can be implemented on a case-by-case basis with the approval of the Chief of Staff. This means that any changes or variations from the standard AEF construct must be authorized by the Chief of Staff, who holds the authority to grant or deny such deviations. The President, Secretary of Defense, and Secretary of the Air Force do not have the specific authority mentioned in the question to approve these deviations.

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49.

(208) The concept of mobilization is associated with “calling up” Reserve Component forces. What does “calling up” do, if anything, to the active duty’s military capability?
- A.
  
  Increases military capability.
- B.
  
  Decreases military capability.
- C.
  
  Military capability stays the same.
- D.
  
  Enhances the number of Reserve Component forces.
Correct Answer
A. Increases military capability.

Explanation
Calling up Reserve Component forces increases the active duty's military capability. By mobilizing and deploying these additional forces, the active duty military can augment their existing capabilities and increase their overall strength. This allows for a larger and more robust military presence, which can be beneficial in various operational scenarios and missions.

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50.

(208) The concept of mobilization can be associated with all activities necessary for the orderly transition of both active and Reserve Component forces from peacetime to
- A.
  
  Partial mobilization.
- B.
  
  Full mobilization.
- C.
  
  Wartime posture.
- D.
  
  Reconstitution.
Correct Answer
C. Wartime posture.

Explanation
The concept of mobilization refers to the activities required for the transition of military forces from peacetime to a wartime posture. This includes the activation of both active and Reserve Component forces, as well as the preparation and deployment of troops, equipment, and resources for combat operations. Partial and full mobilization are stages within the broader concept of mobilization, but the specific question asks for the association with the transition to a wartime posture, making "wartime posture" the correct answer.

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CDC 3S071 Volume 2. Personnel Career Field, Edit Code 02

(201) Challenges and threats of those who are opposed to United States values and interests may arise from

(201) What are the four basic instruments of national power the US relies on for its security?

(201) The United States Armed Forces shape and employ the military instrument to defend interest and objectives guided by

(201) What presents the fundamental principle that guides the armed forces in support of national objectives and shapes the way the armed forces think about the use of the military instrument of national power?

(201) What provides authoritative guidance based upon existing capabilities of our Armed Forces?

(201) The type of doctrine that states the most fundamental and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use of Air Forces in military action is known as

(201) Doctrine that guides the proper organization and employment of forces in the context of distinct objectives, force capabilities, functional areas, and environments is referred to as

(202) Which process is considered a sequential process performed simultaneously at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war?

(202) At what level does joint operation planning involve developing military objectives and tasks to support National Security Strategy (NSS) and developing requirements necessary to accomplish these tasks?

(202) Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command that runs from the president through the

(202) What are the joint operation planning activities that support the development of operations plans, concept plans, functional plans, and operation orders?

(202) The planning process by which the armed forces or part of them are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency describes which joint operation planning activity?

(202) Planning that encompasses the movement of forces and their sustainment resources from their original locations to a specific destination to conduct joint operations describes which joint operation planning activity?

(202) The joint operation planning activity that describes how to apply military force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area is

(202) What type of plan includes all required annexes, appendices, and a supporting time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD)?

(202) A plan to develop sound operational and support concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary describes which type of plan?

(202) Which joint and service planning system is the Department of Defense (DOD)-directed single, integrated joint command and control (C2) for conventional operation planning and execution?

(202) Which joint and service planning system’s objective is to enable Air Force-unique operation planning process which includes associated joint policy procedures?

(202) Which joint and service planning system provides the Air Staff, Air Force planners, and Air Force commanders with current policies, apportioned forces, and planning factors for conducting and supporting operations?

(202) Which joint and service planning system is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DOD) functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the United States armed forces and certain foreign organizations?

(203) Who develops procedures for administrative support of active, reserve components, and retirees?

(203) Which military department was not established by The National Security Act of 1947?

(203) American military power plays a vital role in all of the following except

(204) The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both

(204) Most Air National Guard flying units can trace their lineage back to the

(204) The Reserves defend the United States through control and exploitation of air and space by supporting what type of engagement?

(204) The readiness of the Reserves allows for rapid expansion of the total force through what form of movement?

(204) The Reserves bring what three things to the military environment from their civilian employment?

(204) The depth of experience the Reserve forces bring to the mission and the Air Force is an invaluable

(204) Reserve friendships and team work that develop over time provide esprit-de-corps to the unit along with what other strength?

(205) To meet the national security challenges of the 21st century the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept was designed to do what for air and space forces?

(205) Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept provides trained and ready air and space forces for what type of defense?

(205) The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) primary purpose is to provide

(205) The Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) doctrine is vital to understanding how best to employ air and space power along with understanding the proper way to do what with air and space forces?

(205) The Air Force organized its total force into how many air and space expeditionary forces?

(205) In order for the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) to maintain a sustainable rotational rhythm, how many AEFs are tasked at any time?

(205) The goal of the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept is to

(205) When the air and space expeditionary task force is responsible for sustaining all base operating and support functions, it normally organizes as a/an

(205) What group in the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct is the basic warfighting organization of the Air Force and is the building block of the air and space expeditionary task force (AETF)?

(206) Once an Airman arrives at a base, he or she is required to report to the

(206) The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) operates on a how many month life cycle?

(206) What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and publish the associated Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP)?

(206) Which capability library contains a fixed capability that at any given time identifies forces that constitute the total force that has been made available or allocated for scheduling?

(206) At any given time, how many air and space expeditionary force (AEF) block(s) and or pair(s) from each tempo band is in the AEF vulnerability period?

(207) A guideline used to determine when a unit type code (UTC) must be developed is when

(207) In addition to Headquarters Air Force (HAF), which agencies usually initiate the development of a unit type code (UTC)?

(207) What is the basic building block used in force planning and the deployment of air and space expeditionary task forces?

(207) Deviations to the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) construct may be implemented on a case-by-case basis with whose approval?

(208) The concept of mobilization is associated with “calling up” Reserve Component forces. What does “calling up” do, if anything, to the active duty’s military capability?

(208) The concept of mobilization can be associated with all activities necessary for the orderly transition of both active and Reserve Component forces from peacetime to