# Astronomy 101 Review For Final Exam

34 Questions | Total Attempts: 257  Settings  300 Question Review for Final Exam in Astronomy 101 class at TAMU for Shelby

Related Topics
• 1.
Scientific notation is used in science because
• A.

It makes conversions between units easy.

• B.

All astronomical distances are expressed in metric units.

• C.

It makes it easy to write big or small numbers.

• D.

All of the above

• 2.
The average distance from Earth to the sun is...
• A.

1 million km

• B.

1 million miles

• C.

1 light year

• D.

1 AU

• E.

1 billion km

• 3.
The sun is...
• A.

A star

• B.

1 AU from Earth

• C.

More than 100 times the diameter of Earth

• D.

All of the above

• 4.
A galaxy contains...
• A.

Primarily planets.

• B.

Lots of gas and dust but very few stars.

• C.

Gas, dust, and stars, and a lot of dark matter.

• D.

A single star and planets.

• E.

Thousands of superclusters.

• 5.
2.9x10^7 is the same as...
• A.

2.9 thousand

• B.

29 thousand

• C.

290 thousand

• D.

2.9 million

• E.

29 million

• 6.
Newton concluded that some force had to act on the moon because...
• A.

A force is needed to keep the moon in motion.

• B.

The moon moved at a constant velocity

• C.

A force is needed to pull the moon outward

• D.

A force is needed to pull the moon away from straight-line motion

• E.

All of the above

• 7.
Kepler's second law implies that...
• A.

The deferent and the epicycle have to be attached to the sun and not the Earth.

• B.

The speed of a planet in its orbit depends on the size of the epicycle.

• C.

The mass of the planet determines how far the planet is from the sun.

• D.

A planet should move at its greatest speed when it is closest to the sun.

• E.

The most massive planets will have the greatest speed in their orbits.

• 8.
• A.

A planet moves at a constant speed at all points in its orbit.

• B.

Uniform circular motion is adequate to describe the motion of all planets.

• C.

The distance between the planet and the sun changes as the planet orbits the sun.

• D.

The distance that a planet is from the sun depends on the mass of the planet.

• E.

Planets closer to the sun than Earth will show retrograde motion

• 9.
• A.

Will decrease as the square of the distance between the two masses increases.

• B.

Will increase as the distance between the two masses increases.

• C.

Will cause the two masses to orbit each other

• D.

Will cause the two masses to move in a straight line.

• E.

Will cause the two masses to move away from each other.

• 10.
An object has been located orbiting the sun at a distance from the sun of 65 AU, what is the approximate orbital period of this object?
• A.

65 years

• B.

275,000 years

• C.

4,225 years

• D.

8.1 years

• E.

524 years

• 11.
Saturn is on average 10 AU from the sun.  What is the approximate orbital period of Saturn?
• A.

10 years

• B.

32 years

• C.

100 years

• D.

1000 years

• E.

1,000,000 years

• 12.
• A.

The planets traveled in elliptical orbits about the Earth.

• B.

The center of the universe was the Sun with the Milky Way representing other distant planets.

• C.

The Earth was at the center of the universe.

• D.

The Sun was at the center of the universe.

• 13.
When Mars is located directly behind the Earth with respect to the Sun in its orbit, it is...
• A.

Not visible in the night sky.

• B.

At the midpoint in the sky between east and west at sunrise.

• C.

At the midpoint in the sky between east and west at sunset.

• D.

At the midpoint in the sky between east and west at midnight.

• E.

At the midpoint in the sky between east and west at noon.

• 14.
The greatest inaccuracy in Copernicus' model of the solar system was that the planets...
• A.

Travel in circular orbits with uniform motion

• B.

Were allowed to travel backwards in their orbits.

• C.

The planets orbited the Sun.

• D.

Traveled in elliptical orbits.

• E.

Traveled on epicycles whose centers followed orbits around the Sun

• 15.
Which of the following statements best describes Kelper's 3rd law of planetary motion?
• A.

The smaller the orbit, the longer its orbital period

• B.

The larger the orbit, the longer its orbital period.

• C.

The smaller the diameter of a planet, the faster its rotational period

• D.

The orbital period of a planet is directly proportional to the diameter of the planet

• 16.
The energy of a photon...
• A.

Depends only on the speed of light

• B.

Depends only on the mass of the photon

• C.

Depends on both the mass and speed of the photon

• D.

Is proportional to the wavelength of the light.

• E.

Is inversely proportional to the wavelength of the light.

• 17.
• A.

Will have a greater energy than short wavelength visible light

• B.

Will have a speed that is faster than short wavelength light.

• C.

Will appear blue in color to the average human eye

• D.

Will appear red in color to the average human eye

• E.

Has a higher frequency than short wavelength visible light

• 18.
Photons of blue light...
• A.

Have a greater energy than photons of red light

• B.

Have a greater energy than photons of ultraviolet light

• C.

Have a longer wavelength than photons of red light

• D.

Have a lower frequency than photons of red light

• E.

Travel at a greater speed than photons of red light

• 19.
A nanometer is...
• A.

A unit of frequency

• B.

A unit of energy

• C.

A unit of mass

• D.

A unit of resolving power

• E.

A unit of length

• 20.
In which way does a photon of blue light NOT differ from a photon of red light?
• A.

Speed

• B.

Wavelength

• C.

Color

• D.

Energy

• E.

Frequency

• 21.
What is the relationship between color and wavelength for light?
• A.

Wavelength decreases from blue light to red light

• B.

Wavelength increases from blue light to red light

• C.

All colors of light have the same wavelength

• D.

Wavelength depends on intensity not color

• 22.
The neutral hydrogen atom consists of...
• A.

One proton and one neutron

• B.

One proton and one electron

• C.

One proton, one neutron, and one electron

• D.

One proton

• E.

An isotope and an ion

• 23.
Which of the following statements is correct?
• A.

There are about 10^11 stars in the Milky Way Galaxy, but there are ten times more stars that are made of dark matter

• B.

There are about 10^11 stars in the Milky Way Galaxy, but the mass of the Milky Way is about 10^12 times that of the Sun

• C.

There are about 10^13 stars in the Milky Way Galaxy, but the mass of the Milky Way is about 10^14 times that of the Sun

• D.

There are about 10^10 stars in the Milky Way Galaxy, but the mass of the Milky Way is about 10^12 times that of the Sun

• 24.
The period of the Milky Way to circle the Sun is about...
• A.

125 million years

• B.

125 billion years

• C.

450 million years

• D.

225 million years

• 25.
A galaxy is found to be at a redshift 9,100 km/sec.  Assuming a Hubble constant of 70 km/sec/Mpc, the distance to the galaxy is found to be...
• A.

130 Mpc

• B.

637 Mpc

• C.

30.3 Mpc

• D.

130 Kpc

• 26.
Why are fossils of early life on Earth more rare than fossils of plants and animals from the past few hundred million years?
• A.

We find fossils in sedimentary layers, and no sediments were deposited until just a few hundred million years ago.

• B.

Life was far less abundant prior to a few hundred million years ago

• C.

Fossils could not form before there was oxygen in the atmosphere

• D.

Early organisms lacked skeletons and other hard structures that are most likely to be fossilized

• 27.
How do we determine the conditions that existed in the very early universe?
• A.

From the current expansion rate we can work backward to estimate temperature and densities at various times in the early universe.

• B.

By looking all the way to the cosmological horizon, we can see the actual conditions that prevailed all the way back to the first instant of the Big Bang

• C.

The conditions in the very early universe must have been much like those found in stars today, so we learn about them by studying stars

• D.

We can only guess at the conditions, since we have no way to calculate or observe what they were.

• 28.
When we say that the electroweak and strong forces "freeze out" at 10^-35 seconds after the Big Bang, we mean that...
• A.

"freezing out" was a term coined by particle physicists who think that the Big Bang theory is the ultimate theory for the Universe

• B.

These forces are important only at temperatures below the freezing point of water --- a temperature that the universe reached at an age of about 10^-35 seconds.

• C.

Prior to this time, the electroweak and strong forces were indistinguishable from each other, but after this time they behaved differently from each other

• D.

Following this time, neither the strong nor electroweak forces are ever important in the universe again

• 29.
According to the Big Bang theory, how many forces --- and which ones --- operated in the universe during the GUT era?
• A.

3: gravity, the strong force, and the electroweak force

• B.

1 force that represented the unification of all four forces that operate today

• C.

2: the strong force and the electroweak force

• D.

2: gravity and a single force that later became the strong, weak, and electromagnetic forces

• 30.
The Milky Way Galaxy...
• A.

• B.

Is the largest known object in the universe.

• C.

Is about 200 light-years in diameter.

• 31.
The force due to gravity between two objects depends on...
• A.

The mass of each object

• B.

The distance each object is from Earth.

• C.

The distance between two objects.

• D.

The speed of light.

• 32.
_____________ has/have wavelengths that are longer than visible light.
• A.

Gamma-rays

• B.

Ultraviolet light

• C.

• D.

X-rays

• 33.
________________ has/have wavelengths that are shorter than visible light.
• A.

Gamma-rays

• B.

Ultraviolet light

• C.