Assessment Practice Quiz For Final Exam

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Final Assessment Quizzes & Trivia

Review of material for final exam in Assessment class.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A 42 year old waitress presents to your office for evaluation of shortness of breath.  She has had a fever as high as 103F for the last few days and has a cough productive of green sputum.  On physical examination, you hear crackles in her lungs.  A chest radiograph reveals a consolidation in the left lower lobe.  You diagnose her with lobar pneumonia.  When you perform tactile fremitus of the left lower thorax, you would expect the fremitus to be:

    • A.

      Increased

    • B.

      Decreased

    • C.

      Unchanged

    • D.

      Displaced

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased
  • 2. 

    What would you expect to hear when percussing the left lower throax of a pt with lobar pneumonia?

    • A.

      Dull

    • B.

      Resonant

    • C.

      Flat

    • D.

      Hyperresonant

    Correct Answer
    A. Dull
    Explanation
    When percussing the left lower thorax of a patient with lobar pneumonia, you would expect to hear a dull sound. This is because lobar pneumonia is characterized by consolidation of lung tissue, which causes the air-filled spaces to be filled with fluid or inflammatory exudate. This results in a loss of the normal resonance and a dull sound upon percussion.

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  • 3. 

    When performing a test for Egophony on a pt with lobar pneumonia, what would you expect to hear?

    • A.

      Eeeee

    • B.

      Aaay

    • C.

      Ooooo

    • D.

      Whisper Petriloquoy

    Correct Answer
    B. Aaay
    Explanation
    When performing a test for Egophony on a patient with lobar pneumonia, the expected sound is "Aaay." Egophony is a clinical test used to assess lung consolidation, and in the case of lobar pneumonia, it causes the lung tissue to become denser. This density alters the transmission of sound waves, resulting in a change in the quality of sound heard during auscultation. The "Aaay" sound is characteristic of increased transmission of high-frequency sounds, indicating lung consolidation.

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  • 4. 

    In a patient with lobar pneumonia, you would expect breath sounds on auscultation to reveal:

    • A.

      Rhonchi

    • B.

      Egophany

    • C.

      Decreased Resonance

    • D.

      Increased Air Movement

    Correct Answer
    B. Egophany
    Explanation
    In a patient with lobar pneumonia, the consolidation of lung tissue leads to a decrease in air movement and increased density of the affected area. This can cause a change in the transmission of sound through the lungs, resulting in an abnormal sound known as egophany. Egophany is characterized by the increased intensity and clarity of spoken words heard through a stethoscope, resembling the sound of a bleating goat. It occurs due to the transmission of sound through consolidated lung tissue, which is denser than normal air-filled lung tissue.

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  • 5. 

    A 65 year old smoker presents for evaluation of dyspnea.  He has a 100-pack/year history of tobacco use.  The dyspnea is exacerbated by exertion.  He denies fever or chills; he has not had recent contact with anyone who is sick.  You diagnose chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).  On physical examination of the thorax, you would expect to find:

    • A.

      Increased AP diameter

    • B.

      Decreased AP diameter

    • C.

      No change in AP diameter

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased AP diameter
  • 6. 

    A 19 year old college student presents to the emergency room for sudden onset of dyspnea.  The general survey reveals that she is 6 feet 2 inches tall and weighs 135 pounds.  She denies fever, chills, cough, and sore throat.  She is a nonsmoker.  You suspect that she has a pneumothorax.  What findings would you expect with percussion of the thorax?

    • A.

      Decreased resonance on the affected side

    • B.

      Increased resonance (hyperresonance) on the affected side

    • C.

      Increased resonance on the nonaffected side

    • D.

      Dullness

    Correct Answer
    B. Increased resonance (hyperresonance) on the affected side
  • 7. 

    In a patient with pneumothorax, what findings would you expect with auscultation of the thorax on the affected side?

    • A.

      Wheezes

    • B.

      Rhonchi

    • C.

      Absence of Breath Sounds

    • D.

      Hyperresonance

    Correct Answer
    C. Absence of Breath Sounds
    Explanation
    In a patient with pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural space causes the lung to collapse partially or completely. This leads to a loss of contact between the lung and the chest wall, resulting in the absence of breath sounds on auscultation of the affected side. The absence of breath sounds is a key finding in diagnosing pneumothorax and indicates the need for further evaluation and treatment.

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  • 8. 

     In a healthy adult, the expected measurement of descent of the diaphragm is:

    • A.

      1-2 cm

    • B.

      5-6 cm

    • C.

      7-8 cm

    • D.

      10-12 cm

    Correct Answer
    B. 5-6 cm
    Explanation
    The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity. During normal breathing, the diaphragm contracts and moves downward, allowing the lungs to expand and fill with air. The expected measurement of descent of the diaphragm in a healthy adult is typically around 5-6 cm. This indicates that the diaphragm is functioning properly and able to create enough space for adequate lung expansion during breathing.

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  • 9. 

    In a healthy adult, the respiratory rate is:

    • A.

      4 to 14 breaths per minute

    • B.

      14-16 breaths per minute

    • C.

      14 - 20 breaths per minute

    • D.

      26-40 breaths per minute

    Correct Answer
    C. 14 - 20 breaths per minute
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 14 - 20 breaths per minute. This range is considered normal for a healthy adult. A respiratory rate below 14 or above 20 breaths per minute may indicate an underlying health condition.

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  • 10. 

    What is the preferred order for examination of the abdomen?

    • A.

      Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation

    • B.

      Percussion, auscultation, palpation, inspection

    • C.

      Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion

    • D.

      Inspection, palpation, auscultation, percussion

    Correct Answer
    A. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
  • 11. 

    You are in the emergency room assessing a patient with abdominal pain and fever.  You are performing an abdominal examination to assess for peritoneal signs.  Which one of the following is NOT a peritoneal sign?

    • A.

      Rebound tenderness

    • B.

      Involuntary guarding

    • C.

      Rigidity of the abdomen

    • D.

      Voluntary guarding

    Correct Answer
    D. Voluntary guarding
    Explanation
    Voluntary guarding is not a peritoneal sign because it is a conscious and intentional contraction of the abdominal muscles by the patient in an attempt to protect the underlying organs from pain or discomfort. Peritoneal signs, on the other hand, are involuntary and indicate inflammation or irritation of the peritoneum, such as rebound tenderness, involuntary guarding, and rigidity of the abdomen.

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  • 12. 

    A 15 year old high school student presents to the clinic with a 1 day history of nausea and anorexia.  He describes the pain as generalized yesterday, but today it has localized to his right lower quadrant.  You palpate the left lower quadrant and the patient experiences pain in the right lower quadrant.  What is the name of this sign?

    • A.

      Psoas sign

    • B.

      Obturator sign

    • C.

      Rovsing’s sign

    • D.

      Cuteaneuos hyperesthesia

    Correct Answer
    C. Rovsing’s sign
    Explanation
    Rovsing's sign refers to the presence of pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen when pressure is applied to the left lower quadrant. This sign is suggestive of appendicitis, as the pain typically starts in the periumbilical area and then localizes to the right lower quadrant. The fact that the patient experiences pain in the right lower quadrant when pressure is applied to the left lower quadrant indicates irritation of the peritoneum, which is a characteristic finding in appendicitis.

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  • 13. 

    A 25 year old veterinarian presents to the clinic for evaluation of flank pain, dysuria, nausea and fever.  A urine pregnancy test is negative.  A urine dipstick is positive for leukocyte esterase.  On physical examination, what would be the most likely sign?

    • A.

      Psoas sign

    • B.

      CVA (costovertebral angle) tenderness

    • C.

      Rosving’s sign

    • D.

      Murphy’s sign

    Correct Answer
    B. CVA (costovertebral angle) tenderness
    Explanation
    The most likely sign on physical examination for a 25-year-old veterinarian presenting with flank pain, dysuria, nausea, and fever, along with a positive urine dipstick for leukocyte esterase, would be CVA (costovertebral angle) tenderness. CVA tenderness refers to pain or tenderness in the area of the back overlying the kidneys, which can indicate inflammation or infection in the kidneys or urinary tract. This finding is often associated with conditions such as pyelonephritis or kidney stones.

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  • 14. 

    A 40 year old flight attendant presents to your office for evaluation of abdominal pain.  It is worse after eating, especially if she has a meal that is spicy or high in fat.  She has tried over the counter antacids, but they have not helped the pain.  After examining her abdomen, you strongly suspect cholecystitis.  Which sign on examination increases your suspicion for this diagnosis?

    • A.

      Psoas sign

    • B.

      Rovsing’s sign

    • C.

      Murphy’s sign

    • D.

      Grey Turner’s sign

    Correct Answer
    C. Murphy’s sign
    Explanation
    Murphy's sign is a sign used to assess for cholecystitis. It is elicited by palpating the right upper quadrant of the abdomen while the patient takes a deep breath. If the patient experiences pain and abruptly stops breathing due to the pain, it is considered a positive Murphy's sign. This indicates inflammation of the gallbladder, which is a characteristic feature of cholecystitis. Therefore, the presence of Murphy's sign increases the suspicion for cholecystitis in this patient.

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  • 15. 

    A 22 year old celebrity with a known history of intravenous drug use presents to the emergency room for evaluation of a 5 day history of nausea, emesis, and right upper quadrant abdominal pain.  On general survey, he appears ill and his skin is distinctly yellow.  He has a temperature of 102.5 F and a heart rate of 112 bpm.  You provisionally diagnose him with acute hepatitis.  What would you expect to find on abdominal examination?

    • A.

      Liver edge is tender and 4 to 5 finger breadths below RCM

    • B.

      Liver edge is nonpalpable

    • C.

      Liver edge is tender and 1 finger breadth below the RCM

    • D.

      Liver edge is non tender and 4 to 5 finger breadths below the RCM

    Correct Answer
    A. Liver edge is tender and 4 to 5 finger breadths below RCM
    Explanation
    In a patient with acute hepatitis, the liver is often enlarged and tender. The tenderness is typically felt on palpation of the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. The liver edge is also expected to be palpable and may be found to be 4 to 5 finger breadths below the right costal margin (RCM). This finding is consistent with hepatomegaly, which is commonly seen in acute hepatitis. The combination of the patient's symptoms, including nausea, emesis, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice, along with the physical examination findings of a tender and palpable liver, supports the provisional diagnosis of acute hepatitis.

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  • 16. 

    A 25 year old truck driver presents to the ER for evaluation of pain in his left groin.  He has noticed that the pain increases after lifting several boxes, each weighing more than 100 lbs, to fill up his truck.  He has had this pain intermittently over the past 5 years, but it has gone away on its own.  He is here because the pain has not gone away, and he is becoming nauseated.  He denies fever, chills, constipation, or diarrhea.  He denis urethral discharge; he is married and states he is faithful to his wife.  On physical examination of the left testicular area, you note there is a buldge when you palpate the inguinal canal as you ask the patient to strain.  You listen to the left testicular area and hear bowel sounds.  Your most likely diagnosis is:

    • A.

      Appendicitis

    • B.

      Testicular torsion

    • C.

      Hernia

    • D.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease

    Correct Answer
    C. Hernia
  • 17. 

    A 19 year old college athlete presents to the student health center for evaluation of penile pain.  He is sexually active and his last sexual encounter was one week ago.  He has had more than 5 partners in his lifetime to date.  You inspect his penis and see a cluster of small vesicles and a few swallow ulcerated areas.  Your diagnosis based on this history and the physical examination is:

    • A.

      Carcinoma of the penis

    • B.

      Venereal Wart

    • C.

      Syphilitic chancre

    • D.

      Genital herpes

    Correct Answer
    D. Genital herpes
  • 18. 

    A 15 year old high school student wishing to join the school’s football and basketball teams presents to your office for a sports physical.  As a part of the physical, you perform a hernia check.  You notice that his right scrotum is markedly larger than his left.  He denies pain or tenderness, as well as fever, night sweats, and weight loss.  On palpitation, you feel a fluid filled mass in the scrotum but can’t get above the mass with your fingers.  What is your most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      Hydrocele

    • B.

      Testicular tumor

    • C.

      Varicocele

    • D.

      Epidermoid inclusion cyst

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydrocele
  • 19. 

    A 18 year old high school student presents to his family doctor’s office for evaluation of acute onset of pain in the left testicle.  He has had no problems until this morning.  The pain has been intermittent, sharp, and radiates into the left groin.  On physical examination, the testicle feels swollen and is tender to palpation.  What is your most likely diagnosis

    • A.

      Epididymytis

    • B.

      Testicular torsion

    • C.

      Acute orchitis

    • D.

      Testicular cancer

    Correct Answer
    B. Testicular torsion
  • 20. 

    What is Phimosis?

    • A.

      Undescended testicle

    • B.

      Ventral displacement of the urethral meatus on the penis

    • C.

      Tight prepuce; once retracted, cannot be returned

    • D.

      Tight prepuce that cannot be retracted over the glans

    • E.

      Inflammation of the glans

    Correct Answer
    D. Tight prepuce that cannot be retracted over the glans
  • 21. 

    What is Paraphimosis?

    • A.

      Undescended testicle

    • B.

      Ventral displacement of the urethral meatus on the penis

    • C.

      Tight prepuce; once retracted, cannot be returned

    • D.

      Tight prepuce that cannot be retracted over the glans

    • E.

      Inflammation of the glans

    Correct Answer
    C. Tight prepuce; once retracted, cannot be returned
    Explanation
    Paraphimosis refers to a condition where the foreskin of the penis becomes trapped behind the glans and cannot be returned to its normal position. This can occur when the foreskin is retracted and then becomes stuck, leading to swelling and constriction of blood flow. It is important to seek medical attention for paraphimosis as it can cause complications if left untreated.

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  • 22. 

    What is Balanitis?

    • A.

      Undescended testicle

    • B.

      Ventral displacement of the urethral meatus on the penis

    • C.

      Tight prepuce; once retracted, cannot be returned

    • D.

      Tight prepuce that cannot be retracted over the glans

    • E.

      Inflammation of the glans

    Correct Answer
    E. Inflammation of the glans
    Explanation
    Balanitis is the inflammation of the glans, which is the rounded tip of the penis. It can be caused by various factors such as poor hygiene, infections, or irritation. Symptoms of balanitis include redness, swelling, pain, and discharge. Treatment may involve proper hygiene, topical medications, or antibiotics depending on the underlying cause.

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  • 23. 

    What is Cryptorchidism?

    • A.

      Undescended testicle

    • B.

      Ventral displacement of the urethral meatus on the penis

    • C.

      Tight prepuce; once retracted, cannot be returned

    • D.

      Tight prepuce that cannot be retracted over the glans

    • E.

      Inflammation of the glans

    Correct Answer
    A. Undescended testicle
    Explanation
    Cryptorchidism refers to the condition of having an undescended testicle. This means that one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum from the abdomen during fetal development. Instead, they remain in the abdomen or get stuck along the path of descent, such as in the inguinal canal. This condition is commonly seen in newborns and may resolve on its own within the first year of life. However, if the testicle does not descend spontaneously, medical intervention may be required to prevent potential complications such as infertility or an increased risk of testicular cancer.

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  • 24. 

    What is hypospadius?

    • A.

      Undescended testicle

    • B.

      Ventral displacement of the urethral meatus on the penis

    • C.

      Tight prepuce; once retracted, cannot be returned

    • D.

      Tight prepuce that cannot be retracted over the glans

    • E.

      Inflammation of the glans

    Correct Answer
    B. Ventral displacement of the urethral meatus on the penis
    Explanation
    Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the urethral opening is located on the ventral side of the penis, instead of the tip. This results in a ventral displacement of the urethral meatus on the penis. The condition can vary in severity, with the opening being located anywhere along the ventral surface, from near the tip to the base of the penis. It can cause difficulties with urination and may require surgical correction.

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  • 25. 

    A 19 y/o sexually active college student presents for evaluation of a vaginal discharge. She has been in a monogamous relationship since becoming sexually active and is married to her partner. She denies that he has been unfaithful. She denies fever or shills. She states that the discharge is thick, white, and curd like and although there is no bad odor, she does experience some itching. Upon physical examination of the vagina, you see an inflamed vulva, with a slightly red vaginal mucosa. The discharge is thick and white. There is no cervical motion tenderness. The uterus is normal in size without adnexal masses. Based on this information, what is your most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      Bacterial vaginosis

    • B.

      Trichomonas vaginalis infection

    • C.

      Candida vaginitis

    • D.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease

    Correct Answer
    C. Candida vaginitis
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the most likely diagnosis is Candida vaginitis. The patient's symptoms of thick, white, curd-like discharge, itching, and inflamed vulva are consistent with a yeast infection caused by Candida. The absence of cervical motion tenderness and adnexal masses suggests that pelvic inflammatory disease and other sexually transmitted infections like trichomoniasis are less likely. Bacterial vaginosis typically presents with a thin, grayish discharge and a fishy odor, which the patient does not report. Therefore, Candida vaginitis is the most probable diagnosis in this case.

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  • 26. 

    A 28 y/o housewife presents for an annual checkup. When queried, she mentions that she has noticed bleeding in between her periods for the past several months. She has been pregnant five times and has given birth to five infants. She is sexually active in a monogamous relationship with her husband. On physical exam of the uterus, you palpate an irregular nodule that is approximately 3 cm in diameter. Based on this information, what is your most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      Leiomyoma or fibroid

    • B.

      Cervical cancer

    • C.

      Uterine cancer

    • D.

      Cystocele

    Correct Answer
    A. Leiomyoma or fibroid
    Explanation
    Based on the information provided, the most likely diagnosis for the patient is Leiomyoma or fibroid. This is suggested by the presence of an irregular nodule on physical examination of the uterus, coupled with the patient's symptoms of bleeding in between periods. Leiomyomas are benign tumors that commonly occur in the uterus and can cause abnormal bleeding. The patient's history of multiple pregnancies and births is also consistent with leiomyoma, as they are more common in women who have been pregnant. Cervical cancer, uterine cancer, and cystocele are less likely diagnoses based on the given information.

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  • 27. 

    A 23 y/o sex worker presents to the ER for evaluation of pelvic pain and fever. You obtain a pregnancy test, which is negative. Her last menstrual period was 1 week ago and was normal. You obtain a complete blood count, and the white blood cell count is elevated. On pelvic exam, she has cervical motion tenderness and a right adnexal mass that is larger than 5 cm in diameter and is extremely tender to palpation. What is the most likely cause of this adnexal mass?

    • A.

      Ovarian tumor

    • B.

      Ruptured ovarian cyst

    • C.

      Ruptured tubal pregnancy

    • D.

      Tubo-ovarian abscess

    Correct Answer
    D. Tubo-ovarian abscess
    Explanation
    The most likely cause of the adnexal mass in this scenario is a tubo-ovarian abscess. The patient's symptoms, including pelvic pain, fever, elevated white blood cell count, and cervical motion tenderness, are consistent with an infection in the fallopian tubes and ovaries. The presence of a large, tender mass on pelvic exam further supports this diagnosis. Ovarian tumors typically do not present with acute symptoms such as fever and tenderness, while a ruptured ovarian cyst would not typically cause such a large and tender mass. A ruptured tubal pregnancy would also be a possibility, but the absence of a positive pregnancy test makes this less likely.

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  • 28. 

    Which one of the following positions is acceptable for examining the anus and rectum?

    • A.

      Patient lying down on his or her side on the examining table

    • B.

      Patient sitting down with arms forward, leaning over the examining table

    • C.

      Patient standing upright with feet together and arms extended

    • D.

      Patient sitting upright with arms braced backward

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient lying down on his or her side on the examining table
  • 29. 

    As part of a routine checkup, you are examining the prostate of a 55 y/o man. He denies nocturia and urinary hesitancy. On physical exam, you palpate the prostate gland and feel a mass. Which of the following descriptors would you use to characterize this mass?

    • A.

      Color

    • B.

      Size

    • C.

      Presence of Discharge

    • D.

      Presence of Rash

    Correct Answer
    B. Size
  • 30. 

    You are performaing a routine physical exam on a 70 y/o retired banker. On exam of the prostate, you palpate a mass that is 1 cm in diameter, hard and non tender. The pt has had a 6 mo history of fatigue. He denies weight loss and night sweats. What is your most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia

    • B.

      Internal hemmorrhoid

    • C.

      Prostatitis

    • D.

      Prostate cancer

    Correct Answer
    D. Prostate cancer
  • 31. 

    An 18 y/o college student presents to your office for evaluation of rectal bleeding. You obtain a more thorough history and find that the blood was seen when she wiped after having a bowel movement; she has been constipated and has needed to strain to move her bowels. She denies a family history of colon cancer of inflammatory bowel disease. On physical examination, you note a 1 cm round mass at the 10 o’clock position at the rectum externally. What is your most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      External hemorrhoids

    • B.

      Rectal prolapse

    • C.

      Uterine prolapse

    • D.

      Crohn’s disease

    Correct Answer
    A. External hemorrhoids
  • 32. 

    An 80 y/o retired secretary presents to the emergency room because of difficulty having a bowel movement, stating that “it feels like something is coming out.” She denies fever or chills and weight loss. She has had constipation and has used an over-the-counter stool softener and increased her water intake. She denies pain with defecation. On physical examination of the anus, you see a doughnut of red tissue, with concentrically circular folds where the anus should be. What is your most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      Thrombosed external hemorrhoid

    • B.

      Anal fissure

    • C.

      Rectal prolapse

    • D.

      Rectal cancer

    Correct Answer
    C. Rectal prolapse
  • 33. 

      A 24 y/o computer programmer presents to your office for evaluation of pain in the anal region. He is sexually active with the opposite sex. He denies bleeding from the rectum. He denies fever or chills. On physical exam, you note a tender, shallow, ulcerated lesion at the 10 o’clock position on the external anal region. What is your most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      Human papilloma virus (general warts)

    • B.

      Syphilis

    • C.

      Herpes

    • D.

      External hemorrhoid

    Correct Answer
    C. Herpes
  • 34. 

    According to our notes, which of the following pts would qualify as abusing alcohol?

    • A.

      44 yr old Male who has 12 drinks per week, 2 per ocassion

    • B.

      17 yr old patient who drinks 3 drinks per week.

    • C.

      32 yr old female who drinks 10 drinks per week, 4-5 per ocassion

    • D.

      67 yr old female who drinks 6 drinks per week, but feels very ashamed of it because her religious convictions do not look kindly on this.

    Correct Answer
    C. 32 yr old female who drinks 10 drinks per week, 4-5 per ocassion
    Explanation
    The 32-year-old female who drinks 10 drinks per week, 4-5 per occasion would qualify as abusing alcohol. This is because she is consuming a high amount of alcohol per week and per occasion, which exceeds the recommended limits for moderate alcohol consumption. Abusing alcohol can have negative effects on physical and mental health, and can increase the risk of developing alcohol-related problems such as liver disease, addiction, and impaired judgment.

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  • 35. 

    You are doing a visual inspection on the abdomen of a patient with an abdominal Aortic aneurysm, what might you expect to see & hear?

    • A.

      Swollen stomach, dull to percussion

    • B.

      Increased pulsations in the stomach

    • C.

      Scaphoid stomach, hypoactive bowel sounds

    • D.

      Increased vascularity of stomach & bruits

    Correct Answer
    B. Increased pulsations in the stomach
    Explanation
    In a patient with an abdominal aortic aneurysm, increased pulsations in the stomach can be expected during a visual inspection. This is because the aneurysm causes the abdominal aorta to enlarge, leading to visible pulsations in the stomach area. The increased pulsations are a result of the weakened wall of the aorta and the turbulent blood flow within the aneurysm. It is important to note that an abdominal aortic aneurysm can be a potentially life-threatening condition and requires medical attention.

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  • 36. 

    You are visually assessing a 48 yr old Male in the ER. He came in for abdominal pain and nausea/vomitting. He states he has a lot of pain after eating and his stomach is swollen. You notice a small red circle around his belly button. What is your most likely diagnosis?

    • A.

      Pancreatitis

    • B.

      Peritonitis

    • C.

      Hepatitis

    • D.

      Stomach Flu

    Correct Answer
    A. Pancreatitis
    Explanation
    Based on the symptoms described, such as abdominal pain after eating, nausea/vomiting, and a swollen stomach, along with the presence of a small red circle around the belly button, the most likely diagnosis is pancreatitis. Pancreatitis is inflammation of the pancreas, which can cause abdominal pain, digestive issues, and swelling. The red circle around the belly button could be a manifestation of Cullen's sign, which is associated with pancreatitis. Peritonitis, hepatitis, and stomach flu do not typically present with these specific symptoms and signs.

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  • 37. 

    What is the first thing we ask the client before assessing the abdomen?

    • A.

      If they have any pain which would prevent us from palpating.

    • B.

      If they emptied their bladder.

    • C.

      If they have any contagious diseases

    • D.

      If they are ticklish.

    Correct Answer
    B. If they emptied their bladder.
    Explanation
    Before assessing the abdomen, it is important to ask the client if they have emptied their bladder. This is because a full bladder can interfere with the accuracy of the assessment and make it difficult to palpate the abdominal organs properly. By ensuring that the client has emptied their bladder, the healthcare provider can obtain more accurate information during the assessment.

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  • 38. 

    What areas do we auscultate for bowel sounds and for how long?

    • A.

      Only the RLQ for 30 seconds.

    • B.

      All four quadrants for 2 minutes each.

    • C.

      On all 4 quadrants and for 15 – 20 seconds each.

    • D.

      Only the RUQ and LUQ for 15 seconds each.

    Correct Answer
    C. On all 4 quadrants and for 15 – 20 seconds each.
  • 39. 

    What are normal bowel sounds?

    • A.

      20-55 per minutes

    • B.

      You should only hear them within 2 hours of eating.

    • C.

      < 10 per minute.

    • D.

      5- 34 per min

    Correct Answer
    D. 5- 34 per min
    Explanation
    Normal bowel sounds refer to the sounds produced by the movement of the intestines. These sounds can vary in frequency, but they are typically heard between 5 and 34 times per minute. The range of 5-34 per minute encompasses the normal range of bowel sounds and indicates healthy intestinal activity.

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  • 40. 

    What is Ascites?

    • A.

      Accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.

    • B.

      An abnormally high level of bilirubin in the blood leading to golden brown coloration of urine.

    • C.

      Yellow discoloration of the sclera

    • D.

      An abnormally large palpable liver.

    Correct Answer
    A. Accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.
    Explanation
    Ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, which is the space between the abdominal organs and the abdominal wall. This condition can be caused by various factors such as liver disease, heart failure, kidney disease, or cancer. The excess fluid leads to abdominal swelling and discomfort. Treatment options for ascites include diuretics, changes in diet and lifestyle, and in severe cases, drainage of the fluid through a procedure called paracentesis.

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  • 41. 

    You are performing an abdominal auscultation on a patient with gastroenteritis, what sort of bowel sounds would you expect to hear?

    • A.

      Hypoactive

    • B.

      Normal

    • C.

      Hyperactive

    • D.

      None

    Correct Answer
    C. Hyperactive
    Explanation
    In patients with gastroenteritis, the intestines can become inflamed and irritated, leading to increased motility and hyperactive bowel sounds. This is because the muscles in the intestines are working harder than normal to move the contents along. Therefore, it is expected to hear hyperactive bowel sounds during an abdominal auscultation in a patient with gastroenteritis.

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  • 42. 

    All of the following may cause dullness upon abdominal percussion EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Pregnancy

    • B.

      Ascites

    • C.

      Abdominal Tumor

    • D.

      Intestinal Obstruction

    Correct Answer
    D. Intestinal Obstruction
    Explanation
    Dullness upon abdominal percussion is a sign of fluid or solid mass in the abdomen. Pregnancy, ascites, and abdominal tumor can all cause accumulation of fluid or the presence of a mass, leading to dullness upon percussion. However, intestinal obstruction does not typically cause dullness upon percussion. Intestinal obstruction is characterized by bowel distension and increased bowel sounds, which would result in a tympanic or hyperresonant sound upon percussion.

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  • 43. 

    After what age should all men start receiving yearly PSA's and colonoscopy's?

    • A.

      40

    • B.

      50

    • C.

      60

    • D.

      35

    Correct Answer
    B. 50
    Explanation
    Men should start receiving yearly PSA's (Prostate-Specific Antigen tests) and colonoscopies after the age of 50. These screenings are important for detecting prostate cancer and colorectal cancer, which are more common in older men. Starting these screenings at age 50 allows for early detection and treatment if necessary, improving the chances of successful outcomes. It is important to note that the recommended age may vary based on individual risk factors and medical history, so it is best to consult with a healthcare professional for personalized advice.

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  • 44. 

    You are interviewing a 32 yr old Female. She had been pregnant 5 times, she has 3 children (twin girls, and a boy). She also has had 2 miscarriages and one premature stillborn child. What is her gravida/para classification?

    • A.

      Gravida 5 Para 4

    • B.

      Gravida 3 Para 5

    • C.

      Gravida 5 Para 3

    • D.

      Gravida 5 Para 2

    Correct Answer
    C. Gravida 5 Para 3
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Gravida 5 Para 3. This classification indicates that the woman has been pregnant a total of 5 times (gravida 5) and has given birth to 3 children (para 3). The 2 miscarriages and one premature stillborn child do not count towards the para classification, as they did not result in a live birth.

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  • 45. 

    A patient who suffers from a chronic cough in the AM probably has a past history of....

    • A.

      Cardiac Issues

    • B.

      Pneumonia

    • C.

      Smoker

    • D.

      Allergies

    Correct Answer
    C. Smoker
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Smoker" because chronic cough in the morning is a common symptom of smoking-related respiratory conditions such as chronic bronchitis. Smoking damages the airways and causes inflammation, leading to excessive mucus production and coughing. This symptom is often worse in the morning due to the accumulation of mucus during sleep. Therefore, a patient with a chronic morning cough is likely to have a history of smoking.

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  • 46. 

    A patient with a history of cardiac problems will most commonly display what type of cough?

    • A.

      Hacking cough

    • B.

      Coughing in AM

    • C.

      Barking cough

    • D.

      Dry Cough

    Correct Answer
    D. Dry Cough
    Explanation
    A patient with a history of cardiac problems will most commonly display a dry cough. This type of cough is usually non-productive, meaning there is no phlegm or mucus being expelled. It is often caused by irritation or inflammation in the airways due to heart failure or fluid buildup in the lungs. The dry cough may worsen at night or when lying down, and can be a symptom of congestive heart failure. It is important for patients with cardiac problems to seek medical attention if they experience a persistent dry cough.

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  • 47. 

    You are assessing for tactile fremitus on a patient you suspect has a pneumothorax. Which finding would help to cofirm your suspicion?

    • A.

      Decreased Fremitus

    • B.

      Increased Fremitus

    • C.

      Presence of Fremitus

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreased Fremitus
    Explanation
    A pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse partially or completely. Tactile fremitus refers to the vibrations felt by the examiner's hand on the patient's chest while the patient speaks. In a normal lung, these vibrations are transmitted well and felt strongly. However, in a pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural space disrupts the transmission of vibrations, leading to a decrease in tactile fremitus. Therefore, a finding of decreased fremitus would support the suspicion of a pneumothorax.

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  • 48. 

    You are percussing the chest of a patient with emphysema, what sound would you expect to hear?

    • A.

      Resonant

    • B.

      Hyperresonant

    • C.

      Dull

    • D.

      Wheezing

    Correct Answer
    B. Hyperresonant
    Explanation
    In patients with emphysema, the lungs become hyperinflated due to the destruction of the alveoli. This causes increased air trapping and decreased lung elasticity. When percussing the chest of a patient with emphysema, a hyperresonant sound would be expected. This is because the hyperinflated lungs produce a more resonant sound than normal lungs. The increased air in the lungs creates a more hollow and booming sound upon percussion.

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  • 49. 

    You are reading an ABG for a patient who has overdosed cocaine. The ABG looks like this:pH 7.30     CO2 60      HCO3    26     What is this indicative of?

    • A.

      Metabolic Acidosis

    • B.

      Metabolic Alkalosis

    • C.

      Respiratory Acidosis

    • D.

      Respiratory Alkalosis

    Correct Answer
    C. Respiratory Acidosis
    Explanation
    The ABG results show a low pH (7.30) and an elevated CO2 level (60), indicating respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, there is a buildup of carbon dioxide in the blood due to inadequate ventilation or impaired gas exchange in the lungs. This leads to an increase in carbonic acid, resulting in a decrease in pH. The HCO3 level (26) is within the normal range, suggesting that there is no compensatory metabolic response. Therefore, the ABG results are indicative of respiratory acidosis.

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  • 50. 

    What would you expect to see on an ABG for a patient who has had severe nauseau and vomitting for several days & NG suctioning of their stomach?

    • A.

      Respiratory Acidosis

    • B.

      Respiratory Alkalosis

    • C.

      Metabolic Acidosis

    • D.

      Metabolic Alkalosis

    Correct Answer
    D. Metabolic Alkalosis
    Explanation
    Severe nausea and vomiting can lead to loss of stomach acid through the process of NG suctioning. This loss of stomach acid can result in a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration and an increase in bicarbonate levels in the blood, leading to metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by an elevated pH and bicarbonate levels, and it can be caused by excessive vomiting or loss of gastric acid. Therefore, it is expected to see metabolic alkalosis on an ABG for a patient who has had severe nausea and vomiting for several days and NG suctioning of their stomach.

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