Annual AML Training And Testing

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1. There are generally three stages of money laundering

Explanation

The statement is True. Placement, Layering and Integration

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About This Quiz
Annual AML Training And Testing - Quiz

In this quiz on Annual AML Training and Testing, we’ll be taking a look at a handful of question regarding such topics as exposed persons, suspicious transactions, undue... see morerelationships, enhanced due diligence and much more. What can you tell us? Let’s find out right now! see less

2. How does the home address on a utility bill, best assist in identifying the prospect

Explanation

The correct answer is C. While the bank may want to visit the prospect, that is not the common reason for requesting a utility bill and personal visits are not the norm. Further the monthly expenses (b) has no real relevance.

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3. Reputation may be affected by a) Quality of clients accepted b) Quality of service offered

Explanation

The correct answer is C. Your reputation may be affected by both the quality of clients accepted, and the quality of service offered.

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4. Who are categorized as exposed persons?

Explanation

The correct answer is C. Exposed persons are individuals who have a level of influence (authority, perceived immunities, means and resources) and due to their public office, are quite visible and accessible. Choices A and C are not valid descriptions of exposed persons in relation to AML.

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5. Less due diligence is required for charities and non-profit entities

Explanation

The statement is False. Equal or greater due diligence is required for Charities and Non-profit entities.

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6. An employee has a duty to report a transaction as a suspicious transaction when he/she a) Knows b) Suspects c) Is advised d) Has reasonable grounds to suspect  

Explanation

The correct answer is C.

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7. The preferable and more effective transaction monitoring system is one that is

Explanation

The Correct answer is A. A combined automated system (which identifies transactions out of a profile) and manual (which investigates transactions identified) is more effective than separate systems.

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8. Reputation Risk is only the responsibility of the client facing and Compliance staff

Explanation

The statement is False. Reputation Risk is the responsibility of all staff

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9. Where an employee acts in such a way as to notify a client that a STR has been filed on their account, this is classified as

Explanation

The correct answer is C.

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10. How is a prospective client best identified

Explanation

The correct answer is A. A passport, being an accepted document for entry into foreign countries, is more complete than a driver's license, containing information such as Nationality, Home Address and Travel history. A credit card is not a valid ID.

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11. What is enhanced due diligence?

Explanation

The answer is C. Specific circumstances (which are defined) require enhanced due diligence, such as limited interaction with the prospect, an exposed person, a high risk country.

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12. Occasional transactions are permitted under law, and require proper identification and declaration of source of funds

Explanation

The statement is True.

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13. A bank with a tarnished reputation is more likely to lose customer accounts

Explanation

The statement is True. A bank with a damaged reputation is more likely to lose accounts than one with its reputation intact.

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14. Corporations, being non-personal entities, are held to a lesser standard in due diligence

Explanation

The statement is False. Corporations (and beneficial owners) are held to similar standards in due diligence as personal prospects.

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15. It is important to document training records so that

Explanation

The correct answer is A. Choices B and C are not valid reasons for documenting training records.

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16. When considering a cash transaction, and having verified the identity of the depositor, the bank is most concerned with

Explanation

The correct answer is C. Having identified the depositor, the source of the funds is very relevant, more so than the deposit amount, or ultimate intended use.

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17. The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is

Explanation

The correct answer is C, since both A (there are least 34 member countries) and B (it is headquartered in Paris) are incorrect.

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18. Who do you report a Suspicious Transaction to in your office

Explanation

The correct answer is C. Suspicious Transactions should be reported to the Money Laundering Reporting Officer.

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19. Client accounts on the 'Watch-list' are normally considered Low to Moderate Risk

Explanation

The statement is False. Clients on a 'watch list' are generally considered High Risk.

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20. Our laws regarding money laundering is not specific to our geographical area, being the Caribbean and Americas, but follows international standards.

Explanation

The statement is True. Our laws are framed to follow international standards, and not specific to our geographical area.

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21. To be classified as an eligible introducer, local entities should be:

Explanation

The correct answer is A. Local entities licensed under a financial services regulator qualify as eligible introducers.

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22. In determining whether a transaction is suspicious, the best question to ask is if the transaction is outside the profile

Explanation

The statement is True.

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23. To be labeled a PEP, one must be a Member of Parliament

Explanation

The statement is False. Politically Exposed Persons are not limited to Members of Parliament.

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24. Where undue relationships are forged with bank employees, a common objective is for the purpose of

Explanation

The correct answer is A. Most attempts to forge undue relationships with bank employees is for the intent to commit fraud.

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25. For efficient service, new client acceptance is usually conducted and approved by one peron

Explanation

The statement is False.. Acceptance of new clients should be a process which is independent, meaning that the decision is a joint one either directly or through the approval process.

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26. The threats we face as a jurisdiction relate only to accepting the proceeds of crime

Explanation

The statement is False. Our threats also include the use of funds within the system, and our reputation for competent customer service and a global partner in the effort against Money Laundering.

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27. Which experiences below are not likely to have a negative effect on a bank's reputation?

Explanation

The correct answer is B. The other choices are valid, while B, is mostly disregarded.

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28. Generally speaking, the lower a client account is risk rated, the lower the frequency of reviews.

Explanation

The statement is True. Higher risk rated accounts are reviewed more regularly.

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29. A company shows evidence of being duly formed by producing a

Explanation

The correct answer is A. The issuance of a Certificate of Incorporation by a Registrar is proof of a duly formed company. Items B and C are documents which are required in forming a company, but not evidence that is has been registered.

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30. Which of the following is not considered law subject to penalties, but for advice and direction which if ignored, may lead to sanctions under applicable law?

Explanation

The correct answer is C. Laws and Regulations are enforceable by penalties, while Guidelines are intended to present practical advice on how the bank licensee should conduct itself. In the absence of evidence that the bank is following advice, the regulator may conclude that the bank is carrying on business in a manner which may give rise to sanctions under the applicable law.

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31. The effort to combat money laundering is cultural and specific to jurisdictions, and there is little global cooperation given the diversity of countries and cultures

Explanation

The statement is False. The effort is global, with international bodies and standards, encouraging and enabling cooperation despite diversity of countries and cultures.

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32. The best time to intercept a Suspicious Transaction is at the time of integration

Explanation

The statement is False. The best time to intercept a Suspicious Transaction is at Placement.

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33. The periodic client review is conducted not to determine

Explanation

The correct answer is D. All of the other answers are valid reasons why a periodic client review is performed.

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34. What is not considered an element of a new client profile?

Explanation

The correct answer is C. The client's political persuasion has no rlevant effect on the profile, except if the client is an exposed person. A, B and D are all factors in establishing a profile.

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35. Why is it so important to know that your client is the person they claim to be

Explanation

The correct answer is B. The relationship to be established is based on the integrity of the representations made to the bank on the prospect and a complete reliance that the person is who they represent themselves to be.

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36. Reputation risk refers to what type of publicity

Explanation

The correct answer is B. Risk to your reputation result from negative publicity, while positive publicitiy (answers A and C) should generally help your company.

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37. Should a staff member not report a suspicious transaction, they are in contravention of which legislation

Explanation

The correct answer is C. The FIU Act authorizes enforcement of penalties under the POCA, while The Central Bank of The Bahamas Act establishes the Central Bank as the regulatory body with defined duties and powers.

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38. Cash transactions which are broken into small segments, to comply with a limit requirement is referred to as

Explanation

The correct answer is C.

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39. Reputation Risk is measured by

Explanation

The correct answer is A. Reputation Risk is measured by the potential that negative publicity about your company may result in negative consequences. Both B and C are incorrect, because Risk is measured in likelihood not unlikelihood, and not in actual events, but the potential that an event may occur.

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40. Risk to your reputation may result from  a) Business decisions made in good faith b) Poor ethical decisions

Explanation

The correct answer is C. Decisions made in good faith and poor ethical decisions can result in risks to your reputation.

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41. What component is the most important element in the prevention of money laundering?

Explanation

The correct answer is C. The most important component in the prevention of Money Laundering is the people who operate the systems intended to facilitate compliance with the laws. Without the people, the systems would be inoperable, and the laws unenforceable.

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42. The overriding Act which makes money laundering unlawful within The Bahamas is the

Explanation

The correct answer is B, the Proceeds of Crime Act which grants the authorities power over the proceeds of crime related to money laundering and connected purposes; both A and C relate to proceedings in foreign jurisdiction.

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43. The transaction monitoring program is most dependent on

Explanation

The correct answer is A. The transaction monitoring program should be structured in relation to the risk rating; higher risk rated accounts require more extensive monitoring. While B and C are relevant, they are not most relevant.

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44. In considering a prospective client, the bank is more concerned with the source of wealth than the legal structure of the proposed entity.

Explanation

The statement is True. The origin and legality of the wealth being offered takes precedence to the legal structure being proposed.

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45. Unincorporated entities compared to incorporated, attract an equal standard of due diligence.

Explanation

This statement is True. Equal due diligence is required whether the entity is incorporated or not.

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46. Risk Rating assignment is required when the first transaction occur

Explanation

The statement is False. Risk Rating assignment is required before the first transaction occurs.

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47. For high-risk prospects, regulations require that the source of wealth is

Explanation

The correct answer is C. All the others may have a connection with the prospect, and would be considered less than independent.

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48. In terminating a client relationship, a company should seek advice on its duty owed to a) The client b) Third parties c) The regulator

Explanation

The correct answer is C. A. company should act to limit its liability to clients and third parties; and independent professional advice is recommended; with regard to the regulator, a company may simply consult the regulator with any queries.

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49. The Wolfsberg Principles were composed by a consortium of Compliance Officers

Explanation

The statement is False. The Wolfsberg Principles were established by a consortium of 11 global banks.

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50. Do the regulations allow you to rely on KYC procedures performed by third parties?

Explanation

The statement is True. The regulations allow for reliance on KYC procedures performed by third parties who qualify as 'eligible introducers'

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51. In determining whether a transaction is suspicious, the employee should ask themselves which question

Explanation

The correct answer is A. While B and C is recommended. D is not relevant.

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52. The group of Financial Intelligence Units who collaborate for information sharing and assistance is called the

Explanation

The correct answer is A, formed during 1995 for information sharing and exchange.

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53. Deposits may be accepted and placed on 'suspense' until the account is formally accepted.

Explanation

The statement is False. Deposits should be accepted only upon the account being duly accepted.

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54. International initiatives are issued to achieve all of the following, except

Explanation

The correct answer is D, since international initiatives cannot impose law in foreign jurisdictions, but encourage the other three (A, B and C) which may result in laws being enacted within the foreign jurisdiction.

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55. The regulatory bodies within The Bahamas (for the purpose of Money Laundering does not include

Explanation

The correct answer is B. The regulatory bodies include both The Gaming Board and the Insurance Commission; the Business Licensing Authority is concerned with the issuance of Business Licenses for specific activity, and has no role in regulating Money Laundering.

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56. The Acts which do not deal specifically with foreign jurisdictional proceedings are

Explanation

The correct answer is C. the FIU Act grants power to enforce penalties within The Bahamas. Both A and B deal with foreign proceedings.

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57. If wealth is gotten in a foreign jurisdiction by a business activity that is illegal in The Bahamas, but not in the foreign jurisdiction, it would be illegal to accept the funds here

Explanation

The statement is False because funds are accepted based on a premise that the funds were legally gotten in the home country; in spite of an activity being illegal within The Bahamas, should it be legal in the home country, and The Bahamas accepts that country as a business introducer, then it is legal to accept such funds within The Bahamas

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58. The Compliance Officer is duty bound to make reports of Suspicious Transaction Reports to the Financial Intelligence Unit.

Explanation

The statement is False. The MLRO is duty bound to report to the FIU, not the compliance officer.

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59. How many years should a record of transactions be held according to the law

Explanation

The correct answer is C. A transaction should be held for seven years after its process date.

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60. The profile of the prospective client determines a) Whether the prospect will be accepted b) The risk rating to be assigned, if accepted c) Whether mitigating controls should be considered

Explanation

The answer is A. Choice C is incorrect because every account has an element of risk, hence mitigating controls should always be considered regardless of the profile.

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There are generally three stages of money laundering
How does the home address on a utility bill, best assist in...
Reputation may be affected by...
Who are categorized as exposed persons?
Less due diligence is required for charities and non-profit entities
An employee has a duty to report a transaction as a suspicious...
The preferable and more effective transaction monitoring system is one...
Reputation Risk is only the responsibility of the client facing and...
Where an employee acts in such a way as to notify a client that a STR...
How is a prospective client best identified
What is enhanced due diligence?
Occasional transactions are permitted under law, and require proper...
A bank with a tarnished reputation is more likely to lose...
Corporations, being non-personal entities, are held to a lesser...
It is important to document training records so that
When considering a cash transaction, and having verified the identity...
The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is
Who do you report a Suspicious Transaction to in your office
Client accounts on the 'Watch-list' are normally considered...
Our laws regarding money laundering is not specific to our...
To be classified as an eligible introducer, local entities should be:
In determining whether a transaction is suspicious, the best question...
To be labeled a PEP, one must be a Member of Parliament
Where undue relationships are forged with bank employees, a common...
For efficient service, new client acceptance is usually conducted and...
The threats we face as a jurisdiction relate only to accepting the...
Which experiences below are not likely to have a negative effect on a...
Generally speaking, the lower a client account is risk rated, the...
A company shows evidence of being duly formed by producing a
Which of the following is not considered law subject to penalties, but...
The effort to combat money laundering is cultural and specific to...
The best time to intercept a Suspicious Transaction is at the time of...
The periodic client review is conducted not to determine
What is not considered an element of a new client profile?
Why is it so important to know that your client is the person they...
Reputation risk refers to what type of publicity
Should a staff member not report a suspicious transaction, they are in...
Cash transactions which are broken into small segments, to comply with...
Reputation Risk is measured by
Risk to your reputation may result from ...
What component is the most important element in the prevention of...
The overriding Act which makes money laundering unlawful within The...
The transaction monitoring program is most dependent on
In considering a prospective client, the bank is more concerned with...
Unincorporated entities compared to incorporated, attract an equal...
Risk Rating assignment is required when the first transaction occur
For high-risk prospects, regulations require that the source of wealth...
In terminating a client relationship, a company should seek advice on...
The Wolfsberg Principles were composed by a consortium of Compliance...
Do the regulations allow you to rely on KYC procedures performed by...
In determining whether a transaction is suspicious, the employee...
The group of Financial Intelligence Units who collaborate for...
Deposits may be accepted and placed on 'suspense' until the...
International initiatives are issued to achieve all of the following,...
The regulatory bodies within The Bahamas (for the purpose of Money...
The Acts which do not deal specifically with foreign jurisdictional...
If wealth is gotten in a foreign jurisdiction by a business activity...
The Compliance Officer is duty bound to make reports of Suspicious...
How many years should a record of transactions be held according to...
The profile of the prospective client determines...
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