Gwt

1. All self check findings corrective actions must be verified by_________.

Unit CO/S4

Unit OC

Unit quality facilitator

Appointed checker

2. What are the following information to be posted on the quality information board?

FIndings

Corrective actions or follow up action

Next self check

All of the above

3. What is the purpose of issuing label to all aircraft and weapon system components, ground upport equipment and test equipment?

Inform user of the component or quiopment confirmity or non comformity status

Allow tracebility and analysis when problems arise during the later stages of usage

To ensure that only scvable components and quipment are released for installation or operation

All

4. FOr non repiarable accountable/non accountable piece part spares should be tagged with

F1911

F1432

F1410

F166

5. All self check findings corrective actions must be verified by_________.

Unit CO/S4

Unit OC

Unit quality facilitator

Appointed checker

6. Who is authorised to perform self check for a workcentre?

Unit CO

Unit OC

Unit Quality facilitator

Appointed checker/spec

7. Who is authorised to perform self check for a workcentre?

Unit CO

Unit OC

Unit Quality facilitator

Appointed checker/spec

8. What are the following information to be posted on the quality information board?

FIndings

Corrective actions or follow up action

Next self check

All of the above

9. Which of the following party you are supposed to refer and/or report to when there is a discrepancy or ambiguity found in the LIF?

Specialist Branch in ALD

System Branch in ALD

Quality Assurance Branch in ALD

Formation Quality Assurance Centre

10. Which of the following party you are supposed to refer and/or report to when there is a discrepancy or ambiguity found in the LIF?

Specialist Branch in ALD

System Branch in ALD

Quality Assurance Branch in ALD

Formation Quality Assurance Centre

11. Refresher traininf for basic work practices for relevant trades are to be conducted________ during maintenance day

Once a week

Monthly

6 monthly

Once a year

12. Refresher traininf for basic work practices for relevant trades are to be conducted________ during maintenance day

Once a week

Monthly

6 monthly

Once a year

13. What are the details of the measurements taken should be recorded i the saf 1400?

Measuremnet/data of te final functional checks only

In process critucal task as well as specifying ref to the relevant manuals only

Measurements/data of the final functional checks as well as specifying ref to the relvant manuals only

Measurements/data of the final functional checks and in process critical tasks as well as specifying ref og relevant manauals.

14. What are the details of the measurements taken should be recorded i the saf 1400?

Measuremnet/data of te final functional checks only

In process critucal task as well as specifying ref to the relevant manuals only

Measurements/data of the final functional checks as well as specifying ref to the relvant manuals only

Measurements/data of the final functional checks and in process critical tasks as well as specifying ref og relevant manauals.

15. What is the purpose of issuing label to all aircraft and weapon system components, ground upport equipment and test equipment?

Inform user of the component or quiopment confirmity or non comformity status

Allow tracebility and analysis when problems arise during the later stages of usage

To ensure that only scvable components and quipment are released for installation or operation

All

16. FOr non repiarable accountable/non accountable piece part spares should be tagged with

F1911

F1432

F1410

F166

17. To operate a component on the aircraft beyond its operational lifge or finite life, the concession can be approved by

CO ALS

S4 QAC

ALD spec branch/QAB

DHAL(A)

18. Training and work qualification of technical specialist are designed with the following consideration

"just enought" training

Skilled based

Minimum time for work "immersion"

All of the above

19. How many parts of question areas area there in the Professional Knowledge Examination?

2 parts

3 parts

4 parts

5 parts

20. Part 1 of the Professional Knowledge Examination consist of 50 questions which is based on

System related questions on respective waepon/equipment type

Basic questions common to all trade

System related questions and basic questions

General engineering, safety practices and RSAF logistics management and procedures

21. Part 1 of the Professional Knowledge Examination consist of 50 questions which is based on

System related questions on respective waepon/equipment type

Basic questions common to all trade

System related questions and basic questions

General engineering, safety practices and RSAF logistics management and procedures

22. The criteria to assess the technicians or senior technicians competency level in skill and knowledge are

Technical Skill and Professional Knowledge Examination (PKE)

Professional Knowledge Examinaion (PKE) and Continuation Trade Training (CTT)

Technical Skill and Continuation Trade Training (CTT)

Technical Skill, Professional Knowledge Examination (PKE) and Continuation Trade Training (CTT)

23. The criteria to assess the technicians or senior technicians competency level in skill and knowledge are

Technical Skill and Professional Knowledge Examination (PKE)

Professional Knowledge Examinaion (PKE) and Continuation Trade Training (CTT)

Technical Skill and Continuation Trade Training (CTT)

Technical Skill, Professional Knowledge Examination (PKE) and Continuation Trade Training (CTT)

24. What is the Training requirement for the initial authorization of technician/senior technician to qualify them for the assigned duties

Both practical hands-on and theoretical course

Practical hands-on only

Teroretical course only

Continuation Trade Training

25. What is the Training requirement for the initial authorization of technician/senior technician to qualify them for the assigned duties

Both practical hands-on and theoretical course

Practical hands-on only

Teroretical course only

Continuation Trade Training

26. Which of the following TMDE does not require traceability record?

TMDE classified as "No Calibration Required"

Automatic Test Equipment (ATE) where all tasks accomplished by them are documented in the SAF 1392

TMDE that is special and is only used for a specific equipment or task for which its traceabilty is implied

Alll of the above

27. Which of the following party you are supposed to refer and/or report to when is a discerpancy or ambiguity found in the Local Instruction Folder?

Specialist Branch in ALD

System Branch in ALD

Quality Assurance Branch in ALD

Formation Quality Assurance Centre

28. Which of the following party you are supposed to refer and/or report to when is a discerpancy or ambiguity found in the Local Instruction Folder?

Specialist Branch in ALD

System Branch in ALD

Quality Assurance Branch in ALD

Formation Quality Assurance Centre

29. The num of self checks, freq and emphasis of checks aredetermined by_____________.

Unit CO/S4

Unit OC

Unit Quality Facilitator

Work Centre OIC/Specalist

30. The num of self checks, freq and emphasis of checks aredetermined by_____________.

Unit CO/S4

Unit OC

Unit Quality Facilitator

Work Centre OIC/Specalist

31. Which technical instruction was issued for compliance in a recurrent basis?

LTO

MIF

STI

SI

32. Which technical instruction was issued for compliance in a recurrent basis?

LTO

MIF

STI

SI

33. Adhoc/interim local maintenance procedures and logisics administrative procedures for specific purposes and duration are maintained in

LIF

MIF

AFLO

AFLR

34. Which of these are RSAF work instructions?

Servicing Procedures (SP) and Modification Leaflet

LTO, SI and STI

SI, STI and Modifications leaflets

LTO,SI,STI, Servicing Procedures (SP) and modification Leaflets

35. Which of these are RSAF work instructions?

Servicing Procedures (SP) and Modification Leaflet

LTO, SI and STI

SI, STI and Modifications leaflets

LTO,SI,STI, Servicing Procedures (SP) and modification Leaflets

36. What is the purpose for developing and maintaining instrustions to prescribe the performance of all work.

To hold the tradesmen to refer to if they are unsure of the procedures when performing their assigned tasks

For the tradesmen to refer to if they are unsure of the procedures when performing their assigned tasks.

Strictly for stating the criteria for acceptance and rejection of inspections carried out

37. Aircraft log book and SAF 1400 of the weapon systems or equipment detaining modifications, structural changes replacement of components schedule serving etc carried out are to be retained _________.

2 years after completion of work

10 years after completion of work

Permanently

2 years after the aircraft or equipment is retired from service

38. Aircraft log book and SAF 1400 of the weapon systems or equipment detaining modifications, structural changes replacement of components schedule serving etc carried out are to be retained _________.

2 years after completion of work

10 years after completion of work

Permanently

2 years after the aircraft or equipment is retired from service

39. What are quality records?

Records which provide objective evidence pertaining to past and historic maintenance work carried out the weapon systems equipment and components

Records which are kept permanently

Records which are kept and destroyed afetr 2 years of the weapon system in service

Records which provide objective evidences of only significant work carried out within 1 year

40. An aircraft had undergone a major structural upgrade and the records are promptly updated. This form of record is classified as ______ records.

Category A

Category B

Category C

Category D

41. What are quality records?

Weapon systems or equipment log book detailing maintenance life history

Record wih inherent legal status e.g F1400 etc

Record provides supply technical data e.g Serving checklists

All of the above

42. An aircraft had undergone a major structural upgrade and the records are promptly updated. This form of record is classified as ______ records.

Category A

Category B

Category C

Category D

43. Which of the following is False. In the event that all or part of the JI cannot be complied with

The workcentre shall inform OC MCF after the completion date

The workcentre shall inform OC MCF before the completion date

ULC shall return the original JI to MCF

After approval, a new JI will be issue to the workcentre

44. Which label should be used for items removed for accessiblity from A/C and /or its next higher assembly

F1911

F1431

F166

F1410

45. Which label should be used for items removed for accessiblity from A/C and /or its next higher assembly

F1911

F1431

F166

F1410

46. Which label should be used for scverble role equipment used in flight line/workcentre

F1431

F1410C

F1911

47. Which label should be used for scverble role equipment used in flight line/workcentre

F1431

F1410C

F1911

48. What typr of label should be used for "G" items which haved passed inspection?

F1410

F1432

F1431

F1911

49. Concession has different category and they are to be investigated and recommended for approval in the following manner:

QAC is to investigate cat B and ALD- HQ RSAF is to investigate into for concession cat A

QAC is to investigate cat A and ALD- HQ RSAF is to investigate into for concession cat B

QAB is to grant concession cat C and recommned to CO ALS and S4 for approval

QAC is to investigate cat A,B,C before recommening to CO ALS or S4 for approval

50. Concession has different category and they are to be investigated and recommended for approval in the following manner:

QAC is to investigate cat B and ALD- HQ RSAF is to investigate into for concession cat A

QAC is to investigate cat A and ALD- HQ RSAF is to investigate into for concession cat B

QAB is to grant concession cat C and recommned to CO ALS and S4 for approval

QAC is to investigate cat A,B,C before recommening to CO ALS or S4 for approval

51. To operate a component on the aircraft beyond its operational lifge or finite life, the concession can be approved by

CO ALS

S4 QAC

ALD spec branch/QAB

DHAL(A)

52. For components(Lifed or non lifed), the compliance schedule of approved STI/SI should not be pegged against?

Date

Aircraft or Equiment scvg

A) & b)

None of the above

53. What is the difference between STI and SI?

STI is non-recurring and scvg instruction is recurring

STI is recurring and SI is non recurring

STI is for non safety issue and SI is for safety issues

STI is restricted to components only and SI is for aircraft

54. What is the difference between STI and SI?

STI is non-recurring and scvg instruction is recurring

STI is recurring and SI is non recurring

STI is for non safety issue and SI is for safety issues

STI is restricted to components only and SI is for aircraft

55. What technical instruction is to be issued for immediate action to correct serious faults that are urgent and non-reccurent?

SI

MAintenance instruction

Job instruction

STI

56. Which technical instruction is to be issued for compliance on recurrent basis

SI

Maintenance Instruction

Job Instruction

STI

57. Within what time frame must STI/SI leaflets to routed to PUB by system/Spec officer after arproval by respective branch head?

10 weeks

2 weeks

3 days

1 week

58. Based on urgency of the compliance schedule, approved STI/SI are classidfied under

Normal STI/SI

Flight safety STI/SI

Safety or mandatory STI/SI

All

59. Based on urgency of the compliance schedule, approved STI/SI are classidfied under

Normal STI/SI

Flight safety STI/SI

Safety or mandatory STI/SI

All

60. When should SI be withdrawn?

When incorporated into scvg schedule

Made redundant by improvment thru modification

Found to be non recurrent by issuing authority

All

61. Who is the approving authority for STI/SI?

Respective system/spec branch head

Respective system/spec flight OC

Respective system/spec officer

Pub branch

62. When should SI be withdrawn?

When incorporated into scvg schedule

Made redundant by improvment thru modification

Found to be non recurrent by issuing authority

All

63. STI/SI compliance schedule is by

DAte

On oppurtunity when STI/SI kits are recieved but not later than next scheduled scvg

On opputunity but not later than next scheduled scvg

All

64. Who is the approving authority for STI/SI?

Respective system/spec branch head

Respective system/spec flight OC

Respective system/spec officer

Pub branch

65. Which technical instruction is issed for compliance in recurrent basis?

LTO

MIF

STI

SI

66. STI/SI compliance schedule is by

DAte

On oppurtunity when STI/SI kits are recieved but not later than next scheduled scvg

On opputunity but not later than next scheduled scvg

All

67. Who is responsible to record STI/SI in CML list

Pub branch

System/spec brancg

Maintenance control centre

Base technical lib

68. Which technical instruction is issed for compliance in recurrent basis?

LTO

MIF

STI

SI

69. Who is responsible to record STI/SI in CML list

Pub branch

System/spec brancg

Maintenance control centre

Base technical lib

70. Once the MMDR is raised, the affected munitions shall be

Approved for use

Suspended from use

Disposed off

Approved for use with limitation

71. Why is there a need for a Munitions Defect Reporting System?

So as to maintain a high standard of safety and reliability level in the weapons system and munitions

So that a proper investigation can be carried out to determined and rectify the caused of the problem

So as to ensure that all relevant agencies are aware of responsibilities towards reporting of munitions

All of the above

72. Why is there a need for a Munitions Defect Reporting System?

So as to maintain a high standard of safety and reliability level in the weapons system and munitions

So that a proper investigation can be carried out to determined and rectify the caused of the problem

So as to ensure that all relevant agencies are aware of responsibilities towards reporting of munitions

All of the above

73. Defects or incidents are considered major under which of the following circumstances?

All munitions incidents that occur during flight and which affects safety

Premature detonation / functioning of munitions during usage

Accidental explosion during storage and transportation

All of the above

74. For airbase, the investigation agency of the MMDR is

QAC

USO

BSO

S4

75. For airbase, the investigation agency of the MMDR is

QAC

USO

BSO

S4

76. NSF Tech will be trained and qualified up to a level of

Artisan

Tech

Snr Tech

Not at all

77. The Q-Tech requirement consists of (i) Pass Basic type course (ii) Complete predetermined work task in OJT booklet (iii) Complete 3 months OJT immersion time (iv) paa assessment test conducted by OLTC

(i)

(i),(ii)

(i),(ii),(iii)

(i),(ii),(iii),(iv)

78. For those Snr Tech whose technical currency on system have lapsed for less than 2 years, tey can have their basic QST authorization reinstated by

Having the OC interview/recommendation

Sitting ans passing the relevant QST exam

Having the OC interviewing the personnel, sitting and passing the relevant QST exam

Completing a customized OJT programme stipulated by the unit OC

79. The Q-Tech requirement consists of (i) Pass Basic type course (ii) Complete predetermined work task in OJT booklet (iii) Complete 3 months OJT immersion time (iv) paa assessment test conducted by OLTC

(i)

(i),(ii)

(i),(ii),(iii)

(i),(ii),(iii),(iv)

80. The maximum time for an aircraft trade initial OJT to be qualified as a Q-Snr Tech is

4 months

6 months

8 months

12 months

81. For those Snr Tech whose technical currency on system have lapsed for less than 2 years, tey can have their basic QST authorization reinstated by

Having the OC interview/recommendation

Sitting ans passing the relevant QST exam

Having the OC interviewing the personnel, sitting and passing the relevant QST exam

Completing a customized OJT programme stipulated by the unit OC

82. With the Qualified Senior Tech qualification status, one can perform:

Closing job by signing in the SAF From1400 Worker's (Tradesman's) column only

Closing job by signing in the SAF From1400 both Worker's (Tradesman's) and Supervisor's column

Approving and signing of all ADDs in the SAF Form1400-3 (Aircraft Defect Deferred Log)

Countersigning job done by a Qualified Tech without checking

83. Training and work qualification of technical specialist are designed with the following consideration

"just enought" training

Skilled based

Minimum time for work "immersion"

All of the above

84. Defects or incidents are considered major under which of the following circumstances?

All munitions incidents that occur during flight and which affects safety

Premature detonation / functioning of munitions during usage

Accidental explosion during storage and transportation

All of the above

85. If the re-authorization pre-requisitions are not met and concerned technicians and senior technicians are still competent enough after the interview and passed the professional Knowledge Examination (PKE), who can sign the waiver of requirement?

Flight OC

Secion OIC

Flight WOIC

Section WOIC

86. Self check workplan must be endorsed by______________.

Unit CO/S4

Unit OC

Unit quality facilitator

Workcentre QIC/OIC

87. How long shall the RAM records be retained after execution of hazardous task?

At least 7 days

To be destroyed immediately after completion of task

Min period of 1 month

Min period of 12 months.

88. In the event that MOD/STI/SI could not be carried out or completed by the compliance date due to valid reasons,_ can request for extension of compliance date using the form in Annex A. The completed form is to be submitted to OC MCF. ___ if the approving authority for such requests.

Log Flight OC/ Dy OC, CO ALS

CO ALS, WSD-DSTA

CO ALS, HLB

Logs Flight OC/ Dy OC, WSD-DSTA

89. In the event that MOD/STI/SI could not be carried out or completed by the compliance date due to valid reasons,_ can request for extension of compliance date using the form in Annex A. The completed form is to be submitted to OC MCF. ___ if the approving authority for such requests.

Log Flight OC/ Dy OC, CO ALS

CO ALS, WSD-DSTA

CO ALS, HLB

Logs Flight OC/ Dy OC, WSD-DSTA

90. When is independent check required and why>

Performed on critical systems; for correct fitment sense of directiona nd function

Performed when an incomplete job is handed over to next shift; ensure a job is well done

Performed when supervisor thinks it necessary; just to make sure

Performed when an inexperienced spec is tasked to perform a rectification; to check on the spec

91. When is independent check required and why>

Performed on critical systems; for correct fitment sense of directiona nd function

Performed when an incomplete job is handed over to next shift; ensure a job is well done

Performed when supervisor thinks it necessary; just to make sure

Performed when an inexperienced spec is tasked to perform a rectification; to check on the spec

92. An example of a Cetegory A quality record is _______.

Aircraft Log Book

F1400

Serving Checklists

Certificates of Conformance

93. What need to be done prior to carrying out hazardous jobs

Raise Job instruction thru base maintenance centre

Perform RAM

Raise GAIR

No actions required

94. What need to be done prior to carrying out hazardous jobs

Raise Job instruction thru base maintenance centre

Perform RAM

Raise GAIR

No actions required

95. How are vccritical tasks defined in non-aircraft related workcentres?

They are defined by the respective system/spec branches and documented in the FLO vol 3 of the respective workcentres

They are defined by the respective workcentre and documented in the AFLO

They are defined by the respective system/spec branches and documented in the AFLO

Unlike the aircraft related workcenter there;'s a no requirement to identify them

96. What are quality records?

Weapon systems or equipment log book detailing maintenance life history

Record wih inherent legal status e.g F1400 etc

Record provides supply technical data e.g Serving checklists

All of the above

97. How are vccritical tasks defined in non-aircraft related workcentres?

They are defined by the respective system/spec branches and documented in the FLO vol 3 of the respective workcentres

They are defined by the respective workcentre and documented in the AFLO

They are defined by the respective system/spec branches and documented in the AFLO

Unlike the aircraft related workcenter there;'s a no requirement to identify them

98. With regards to filling of entries in the F1400, which of the following practices are prohibited: i) removal of page ii) pasting over or over-writing of entries to make corrections iii) use of correction fluid or erasure of entries iv) use of reed ink to cancel/annotate entries v) signing on another tradesman's behalf

All of the above

Ii,iii,iv and v

Ii,iii and v

I,iii,iv,v

99. Which technical instruction is to be issued for compliance on recurrent basis

SI

Maintenance Instruction

Job Instruction

STI

100. Which of the following required concession to be granted?

Maintenance activity deviation affecting aircraft critical system

Maintenance activity deviation from a minor nature which do not affect flight operation

Maintenance activity deviation affecting flight safety

All

101. The maximum time for an aircraft trade initial OJT to be qualified as a Q-Snr Tech is

4 months

6 months

8 months

12 months

102. Why the qualified technicians and senior technicians are subjected to periodic re-validation?

This is to ensure that their training is up to standard

This is to ensure that their competency level is maintained at an acceptable standard

This is to ensure that they know the RSAF training police

This is to ensure that they know all relevant aircraft publications

103. The Authorization of the technicians or senior technicians for the assigned duties is not definite, what is the frequency of re-authorization for the technicians or senior technicians?

Half yearly

9 monthly

1 yearly

2 yearly

104. What is the minimum attendance required for the Continuation Trade Training to be considered for re-authorization?

60%

70%

80%

100%

105. The Authorization of the technicians or senior technicians for the assigned duties is not definite, what is the frequency of re-authorization for the technicians or senior technicians?

Half yearly

9 monthly

1 yearly

2 yearly

106. What is the minimum attendance required for the Continuation Trade Training to be considered for re-authorization?

60%

70%

80%

100%

107. How many parts of question areas area there in the Professional Knowledge Examination?

2 parts

3 parts

4 parts

5 parts

108. If the re-authorization pre-requisitions are not met and concerned technicians and senior technicians are still competent enough after the interview and passed the professional Knowledge Examination (PKE), who can sign the waiver of requirement?

Flight OC

Secion OIC

Flight WOIC

Section WOIC

109. What are the passing marks for Professional Knowledge Examination?

75% for each part

85% for each part

75% for both part

85% for both part

110. What need to be done if a qualified Snr Tech does not meet the re-authorization criteria?

Re-vocationalise the Snr Tech immediately

Interview the Snr Tech, by unit management, to gauge his/her suitability and needs for re-training

Post the Snr Tech out to ALD branches for further exposure

No action is required since the Snr Tech is still Productive and re-authorization is just a paper work exercise

111. What need to be done if a qualified Snr Tech does not meet the re-authorization criteria?

Re-vocationalise the Snr Tech immediately

Interview the Snr Tech, by unit management, to gauge his/her suitability and needs for re-training

Post the Snr Tech out to ALD branches for further exposure

No action is required since the Snr Tech is still Productive and re-authorization is just a paper work exercise

112. Who is authorised to delay scheduled maintenance of aircraft / equipment and clibration of equipment/ test sets (excluding engine) up to a maximum of 10%?

HAL

DHAL

CO ALS

OC MCF

113. Only critical measurements require TMDE traceability records. Such Criticality can be defined as ________.

When the flight safety of aircraft systems can be affected by the inaccuracy of the TMDE used

When the TMDE only requires calibration by external agency

When there is no calibration report provided after thye TMDE has been calibrated

When there is only quantity one (qty:01) such TMDE left in the unit

114. Only critical measurements require TMDE traceability records. Such Criticality can be defined as ________.

When the flight safety of aircraft systems can be affected by the inaccuracy of the TMDE used

When the TMDE only requires calibration by external agency

When there is no calibration report provided after thye TMDE has been calibrated

When there is only quantity one (qty:01) such TMDE left in the unit

115. Which of the following TMDE does not require traceability record?

TMDE classified as "No Calibration Required"

Automatic Test Equipment (ATE) where all tasks accomplished by them are documented in the SAF 1392

TMDE that is special and is only used for a specific equipment or task for which its traceabilty is implied

Alll of the above

116. Which is the interim technical instruction that is issued for immediate compliance within SEVEN working days?

Local Technical Order (LTO)

Local Instructions Folder (LIF)

Special Technical Instructions (STI)

Servicing Instructions (SI)

117. Which is the interim technical instruction that is issued for immediate compliance within SEVEN working days?

Local Technical Order (LTO)

Local Instructions Folder (LIF)

Special Technical Instructions (STI)

Servicing Instructions (SI)

118. There is a requirement to fomalize an adhoc procedure in maintenance activity. However, there is no requirement for immediate compliance within certain time frame. This type of procedure can be issued as

Local Technical Order (LTO)

Local Instruction Folder (LIF)

Special Technical Instruction (STI)

Servicing Instruction (SI)

119. There is a requirement to fomalize an adhoc procedure in maintenance activity. However, there is no requirement for immediate compliance within certain time frame. This type of procedure can be issued as

Local Technical Order (LTO)

Local Instruction Folder (LIF)

Special Technical Instruction (STI)

Servicing Instruction (SI)

120. Who has the authority to deviate from the planned work plan elements in the self check?

Unit CO

S4

Unit OC

Unit Quality Facilitator

121. Who has the authority to deviate from the planned work plan elements in the self check?

Unit CO

S4

Unit OC

Unit Quality Facilitator

122. LTO (Local Technical Orders) are interim technical instructions which require compliance within how many working days?

3 working days

5 working days

7 working days

14 working days

123. Orders and instructions that are unique to the formation and which are not covered in AFLO are found in

FLO

LTO

Quality Notice

AFLR

124. LTO are interim technical instructions that are issued under the authority of

HAL

Base commander

CO ALS/S4

OIC

125. Orders and instructions that are unique to the formation and which are not covered in AFLO are found in

FLO

LTO

Quality Notice

AFLR

126. LTO are interim technical instructions that are issued under the authority of

HAL

Base commander

CO ALS/S4

OIC

127. Adhoc/interim local maintenance procedures and logisics administrative procedures for specific purposes and duration are maintained in

LIF

MIF

AFLO

AFLR

128. Which department use quality notices to expeditiously notify bases/formation of significant quality concerns?

AFI

QAB & QAC

AIB

APB

129. There was a requirment to formalise a new procedure in a maintenance activity and the incorporation process was taking too long. Meanwhile, where can this new procedure be issed as?

Local Technical Order (LTO)

Local Instruction Folder (LIF)

Special Technical Instructions (STI)

Servicing Instructions (SI)

130. Which department use quality notices to expeditiously notify bases/formation of significant quality concerns?

AFI

QAB & QAC

AIB

APB

131. The Air Force Logistics Regulations (AFLR) are issued under the authority of

HAL

Base commander

CO ALS

S4

132. There was a requirment to formalise a new procedure in a maintenance activity and the incorporation process was taking too long. Meanwhile, where can this new procedure be issed as?

Local Technical Order (LTO)

Local Instruction Folder (LIF)

Special Technical Instructions (STI)

Servicing Instructions (SI)

133. All RSAF logistics working policies, requirements and procedures are documented in

AFLR

AFLO

Quality Notice

LTO

134. What is the purpose for developing and maintaining instrustions to prescribe the performance of all work.

To hold the tradesmen to refer to if they are unsure of the procedures when performing their assigned tasks

For the tradesmen to refer to if they are unsure of the procedures when performing their assigned tasks.

Strictly for stating the criteria for acceptance and rejection of inspections carried out

135. Any erroneous entries in the manual quality records, for example SAF 14000, should be corrected by _________.

Using liquid paper and initialled by the person making the correction

Crossing out and initialled by the person making the correction

Crossing the entries several time till the words cannot be seen

Using red ink to share the erroneous words

136. Any erroneous entries in the manual quality records, for example SAF 14000, should be corrected by _________.

Using liquid paper and initialled by the person making the correction

Crossing out and initialled by the person making the correction

Crossing the entries several time till the words cannot be seen

Using red ink to share the erroneous words

137. Category A quality records are to be retained for ____ years after the equipment is retired from service.

2

3

4

5

138. Category A quality records are to be retained for ____ years after the equipment is retired from service.

2

3

4

5

139. Category C quality records are to be retained for ____ years after the records were closed.

1

2

3

4

140. Category B quality records are to be retained for ____ years after the records were closed.

5

6

7

8

141. Tje approving authority for destruction of category D quality records is _________.

DHAL (A)

SA/CO ALS

Head QAB

OC Flight

142. Who is final approving authiority for the release of non comforming components and installaition on the aircraft

CO ALS or base S4

Base QAC

ALD system/ spec branch

CO of flying sqn whose aircraft is affected

143. Who is final approving authiority for the release of non comforming components and installaition on the aircraft

CO ALS or base S4

Base QAC

ALD system/ spec branch

CO of flying sqn whose aircraft is affected

144. Who is approving authoruty for the release non conforming equipment/product found during inspection or test>

CO ALS

S4

OC flight

Respective ALD system or spec branch

145. Who is approving authoruty for the release non conforming equipment/product found during inspection or test>

CO ALS

S4

OC flight

Respective ALD system or spec branch

146. Once the concession is approved, the following step needs to be taken

The RSAF concession form, annex A is to be attached to the applicable equipment or material

The RSAF concession card, SAF 1994 is to be attached to the applicable equipment or material

No concession form or card needs to be attached to the applicable equipment or material

All personnel need to read and sign for awareness of approval

147. The approved concession ref number is given by

Formation/ unit QAC

Formation/ unit CO ALS/ S4

QAB- ALD HQ RSAF

Spec branch - ALD HQ RSAF

148. A concession can only be granted by__________.

CO ALS / S4

HQ RSAF

HQ RSAF or formation/unit QAC

Formation/unit QAC

149. A concession can only be granted by__________.

CO ALS / S4

HQ RSAF

HQ RSAF or formation/unit QAC

Formation/unit QAC

150. If you are not able to adopt the maintenance procedure laid down in the manufacturers instruction manuals, you have to _________________.

Highlight to the manufacturer, thru ALD system/spec branch and ask for the manufacturer concession

Do nothing and just try one best to adopt the maintenance procedure.

151. For components(Lifed or non lifed), the compliance schedule of approved STI/SI should not be pegged against?

Date

Aircraft or Equiment scvg

A) & b)

None of the above

152. Based on the urgency of the compliance schedule, approved STI/SI are classified under which two categories?

Flight Safety and Mandatory STI/SI

Flight safety and urgent STI/SI

Mandatory and normal STI/SI

Urgent STI/SI and Noral STI/SI

153. Under what type of circumtances a STI is issued?

When instructions issued for compliance on a recurrent basis

WHen instruction issued for immediate actions to correct a serious fault. The actions required are urgnet and non-recurrent

When instruction issued for immediate actions to correct a serious fault. The actions required are urgent and recurrent basis.

None of the above

154. Based on the urgency of the compliance schedule, approved STI/SI are classified under which two categories?

Flight Safety and Mandatory STI/SI

Flight safety and urgent STI/SI

Mandatory and normal STI/SI

Urgent STI/SI and Noral STI/SI

155. Under what type of circumtances a STI is issued?

When instructions issued for compliance on a recurrent basis

WHen instruction issued for immediate actions to correct a serious fault. The actions required are urgnet and non-recurrent

When instruction issued for immediate actions to correct a serious fault. The actions required are urgent and recurrent basis.

None of the above

156. What technical instruction is to be issued for immediate action to correct serious faults that are urgent and non-reccurent?

SI

MAintenance instruction

Job instruction

STI

157. All completed concession cards are to be kept by the respective______ as Qualit Records throughout the useful lift of the equipment/material

Spec flight

MC

QAC

Spec branch-ALD

158. Within what time frame must STI/SI leaflets to routed to PUB by system/Spec officer after arproval by respective branch head?

10 weeks

2 weeks

3 days

1 week

159. All completed concession cards are to be kept by the respective______ as Qualit Records throughout the useful lift of the equipment/material

Spec flight

MC

QAC

Spec branch-ALD

160. The absence of which type of STI/SI would limit the operational use of system or equipment with regards to safety reasons?

Normal STI/SI

Operational STI/SI

Safety STI/SI

Priority STI/SI

161. The absence of which type of STI/SI would limit the operational use of system or equipment with regards to safety reasons?

Normal STI/SI

Operational STI/SI

Safety STI/SI

Priority STI/SI

162. In the event of a recurred/ repeated defect case but not subjected to FAIR, who should the crew chief / PDS IC report to ?

WOIC and commanding officer

Base safety officer and S4

Flight Maintenance Centre and Sqn Log Cell

FMC and CO ALS

163. Recrred Defect will apply __________.

When a symptom reported, cannot be simulated later in the course of maintenance actions taken to rectify it

A symptom reported, cannot be simulated later in the course of maintenance actions taken to rectify it

164. In the event of a recurred/ repeated defect case but not subjected to FAIR, who should the crew chief / PDS IC report to ?

WOIC and commanding officer

Base safety officer and S4

Flight Maintenance Centre and Sqn Log Cell

FMC and CO ALS

165. In major CND case, what report is to be raised?

Component investigation report

Investigation analysis report

CND investigation report

Defect investigation report

166. For aircraft defect management, the term 'Recurrent Defect' applies when the same symptom of a defect occurs within________.

12 operating hours for transport aircraft types and 6 sorties for other aircraft types

20 operating hours for transport aircraft types and 5 sorties for other aircraft types

5 operating hours for transport aircraft types and 3 sorties for other aircraft types

After the next flight for transport aircraft and other aircraft types

167. For aircraft defect management, the term 'Recurrent Defect' applies when the same symptom of a defect occurs within________.

12 operating hours for transport aircraft types and 6 sorties for other aircraft types

20 operating hours for transport aircraft types and 5 sorties for other aircraft types

5 operating hours for transport aircraft types and 3 sorties for other aircraft types

After the next flight for transport aircraft and other aircraft types

168. Which of the following statement is CORRECT when dealing with a reported aircraft defect that is subjected to FAIR investigation?

No component should be removed from the FAIR aircraft unless it is confirmed that it contributes to the FAIR defect

None of the above

169. Major defect applies when it affects___________.

Flight safety directly

Flight safety within 10 flying hours

Ground safety only

None of the above

170. Which of the following statement is CORRECT when dealing with a reported aircraft defect that is subjected to FAIR investigation?

No component should be removed from the FAIR aircraft unless it is confirmed that it contributes to the FAIR defect

None of the above

171. Aircraft under FAIR investigation can be released _____________.

By officer commanding even though the completion of the FAIR investigation / rectification is not finish

Only by officer commanding of the flight

By CO ALS when there are special or urgent operational requirements to fly the aircraft

None of the above

172. Major defect applies when it affects___________.

Flight safety directly

Flight safety within 10 flying hours

Ground safety only

None of the above

173. Simulated Defect applies when it can be simulated ____________.

On ground during investigation/ rectification

On flight during investigation/ rectification

Either on flight or ground during investigation / rectification

None of the above

174. Aircraft under FAIR investigation can be released _____________.

By officer commanding even though the completion of the FAIR investigation / rectification is not finish

Only by officer commanding of the flight

By CO ALS when there are special or urgent operational requirements to fly the aircraft

None of the above

175. Repeated Defect will apply ____________.

When the same symptom of a defect repeats in the next immediate

A symptom reported, cannot be simulated later in the course of maintenance actions taken to rectify it

176. Simulated Defect applies when it can be simulated ____________.

On ground during investigation/ rectification

On flight during investigation/ rectification

Either on flight or ground during investigation / rectification

None of the above

177. Minor Defect applies when it ___________.

Directly affects flight safety

Has big impact on flight / operational safety

Has minimal or no impact on flight / operational safety

None of the above

178. Repeated Defect will apply ____________.

When the same symptom of a defect repeats in the next immediate

A symptom reported, cannot be simulated later in the course of maintenance actions taken to rectify it

179. Minor Defect applies when it ___________.

Directly affects flight safety

Has big impact on flight / operational safety

Has minimal or no impact on flight / operational safety

None of the above

180. Who is the central recording agency for all MMDR?

Weapons Branch

AFAB QAC

GLLO

AFIRC

181. Once the MMDR is raised, the affected munitions shall be

Approved for use

Suspended from use

Disposed off

Approved for use with limitation

182. Failure of the munitions resulting in or may cause injury to personnel or damage to equipment requires a

Munitions Routine defect Reporting

Munitions Major defect Reporting

No Reporting Required

SAF 1443 to be raised

183. Failure of the munitions resulting in or may cause injury to personnel or damage to equipment requires a

Munitions Routine defect Reporting

Munitions Major defect Reporting

No Reporting Required

SAF 1443 to be raised

184. The agency that is allowed to close the MMDR is

ALD

AFAB

DSTA

QAC

185. For airbase, the originator of the MMDR is

QAC

WOF

Any Log Flight

S4

186. If the maximum time limit for Q is exceeded, approval for extension can be given by

OIC

OC

CO ALS only

CO ALS or S4

187. NSF Tech will be trained and qualified up to a level of

Artisan

Tech

Snr Tech

Not at all

188. If the maximum time limit for Q is exceeded, approval for extension can be given by

OIC

OC

CO ALS only

CO ALS or S4

189. For those SNr Tech whose technical currency on a system have lapsed for between 2 and 3 years, they can have their QST authorised reinstated by

Having the WOIC interviewing the personnel

Sitting and passing the relevent QST exam

Having the OC interviewing the personnel, sitting and passing the relevant QST exam

Completing a customized OJT programme stipulated by the unit OC

190. The maximum time for non-aircraft OJT to be qualified as a Q-Snr Tech is

4 months

6 months

8 months

12 months

191. For those SNr Tech whose technical currency on a system have lapsed for between 2 and 3 years, they can have their QST authorised reinstated by

Having the WOIC interviewing the personnel

Sitting and passing the relevent QST exam

Having the OC interviewing the personnel, sitting and passing the relevant QST exam

Completing a customized OJT programme stipulated by the unit OC

192. With the initial Qualified Senior Tech qualification status, one can perform

Closing job by signing in the Worker's (tradesman's) column only

Closing job by signing in both the Worker's (tradesman's) and Supervision's columns

Independent checking on a task done by another qualified senior tech

Countersigning job done by a qualified tech without checking

193. With the initial Qualified Senior Tech qualification status, one can perform

Closing job by signing in the Worker's (tradesman's) column only

Closing job by signing in both the Worker's (tradesman's) and Supervision's columns

Independent checking on a task done by another qualified senior tech

Countersigning job done by a qualified tech without checking

194. The maximum time for an initial OJT to be qualified as a Q-tech is

4 months

6 months

8 months

12 months

195. The workcentre management is satisfied that a Tech or Senior Tech is still competent although the re-authorization pre-requisites are not met. A waiver or requirement of re-authorization should be submitted to _____ for approval if the Tech or Senior Tech has failed the PKE.

Unit CO or Base S4 or Head Log Branch (For ADSD units)

Unit OC

Head Air Manpower (HAM)

No action is needed since he cannot be re-authorized at all

196. Why the qualified technicians and senior technicians are subjected to periodic re-validation?

This is to ensure that their training is up to standard

This is to ensure that their competency level is maintained at an acceptable standard

This is to ensure that they know the RSAF training police

This is to ensure that they know all relevant aircraft publications

197. How long shall the RAM records be retained after execution of hazardous task?

At least 7 days

To be destroyed immediately after completion of task

Min period of 1 month

Min period of 12 months.

198. What is the procedure for classified modification submission?

There is no special procedure for classified modification submission and the normal channel applies

There is only one classification for modification, i.e. Normal

All classified modification is to be submitted directly to HAL for approval after evaluation by the project team

199. With regards to filling of entries in the F1400, which of the following practices are prohibited: i) removal of page ii) pasting over or over-writing of entries to make corrections iii) use of correction fluid or erasure of entries iv) use of reed ink to cancel/annotate entries v) signing on another tradesman's behalf

All of the above

Ii,iii,iv and v

Ii,iii and v

I,iii,iv,v

200. A general guide for re-authorization cycle of a Tech and Senior Tech is

6 monthly

9 monthly

12 monthly

Re-authorization pending on requirement

1. All self check findings corrective actions must be verified by_________.

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. What are the following information to be posted on the quality information board?

3. What is the purpose of issuing label to all aircraft and weapon system components, ground upport equipment and test equipment?

4. FOr non repiarable accountable/non accountable piece part spares should be tagged with

5. All self check findings corrective actions must be verified by_________.

6. Who is authorised to perform self check for a workcentre?

7. Who is authorised to perform self check for a workcentre?

8. What are the following information to be posted on the quality information board?

9. Which of the following party you are supposed to refer and/or report to when there is a discrepancy or ambiguity found in the LIF?

10. Which of the following party you are supposed to refer and/or report to when there is a discrepancy or ambiguity found in the LIF?

11. Refresher traininf for basic work practices for relevant trades are to be conducted________ during maintenance day

12. Refresher traininf for basic work practices for relevant trades are to be conducted________ during maintenance day

13. What are the details of the measurements taken should be recorded i the saf 1400?

14. What are the details of the measurements taken should be recorded i the saf 1400?

15. What is the purpose of issuing label to all aircraft and weapon system components, ground upport equipment and test equipment?

16. FOr non repiarable accountable/non accountable piece part spares should be tagged with

17. To operate a component on the aircraft beyond its operational lifge or finite life, the concession can be approved by

18. Training and work qualification of technical specialist are designed with the following consideration

19. How many parts of question areas area there in the Professional Knowledge Examination?

20. Part 1 of the Professional Knowledge Examination consist of 50 questions which is based on

21. Part 1 of the Professional Knowledge Examination consist of 50 questions which is based on

22. The criteria to assess the technicians or senior technicians competency level in skill and knowledge are

23. The criteria to assess the technicians or senior technicians competency level in skill and knowledge are

24. What is the Training requirement for the initial authorization of technician/senior technician to qualify them for the assigned duties

25. What is the Training requirement for the initial authorization of technician/senior technician to qualify them for the assigned duties

26. Which of the following TMDE does not require traceability record?

27. Which of the following party you are supposed to refer and/or report to when is a discerpancy or ambiguity found in the Local Instruction Folder?

28. Which of the following party you are supposed to refer and/or report to when is a discerpancy or ambiguity found in the Local Instruction Folder?

29. The num of self checks, freq and emphasis of checks aredetermined by_____________.

30. The num of self checks, freq and emphasis of checks aredetermined by_____________.

31. Which technical instruction was issued for compliance in a recurrent basis?

32. Which technical instruction was issued for compliance in a recurrent basis?

33. Adhoc/interim local maintenance procedures and logisics administrative procedures for specific purposes and duration are maintained in

34. Which of these are RSAF work instructions?

35. Which of these are RSAF work instructions?

36. What is the purpose for developing and maintaining instrustions to prescribe the performance of all work.

37. Aircraft log book and SAF 1400 of the weapon systems or equipment detaining modifications, structural changes replacement of components schedule serving etc carried out are to be retained _________.

38. Aircraft log book and SAF 1400 of the weapon systems or equipment detaining modifications, structural changes replacement of components schedule serving etc carried out are to be retained _________.

39. What are quality records?

40. An aircraft had undergone a major structural upgrade and the records are promptly updated. This form of record is classified as ______ records.

41. What are quality records?

42. An aircraft had undergone a major structural upgrade and the records are promptly updated. This form of record is classified as ______ records.

43. Which of the following is False. In the event that all or part of the JI cannot be complied with

44. Which label should be used for items removed for accessiblity from A/C and /or its next higher assembly

45. Which label should be used for items removed for accessiblity from A/C and /or its next higher assembly

46. Which label should be used for scverble role equipment used in flight line/workcentre

47. Which label should be used for scverble role equipment used in flight line/workcentre

48. What typr of label should be used for "G" items which haved passed inspection?

49. Concession has different category and they are to be investigated and recommended for approval in the following manner:

50. Concession has different category and they are to be investigated and recommended for approval in the following manner:

51. To operate a component on the aircraft beyond its operational lifge or finite life, the concession can be approved by

52. For components(Lifed or non lifed), the compliance schedule of approved STI/SI should not be pegged against?

53. What is the difference between STI and SI?

54. What is the difference between STI and SI?

55. What technical instruction is to be issued for immediate action to correct serious faults that are urgent and non-reccurent?

56. Which technical instruction is to be issued for compliance on recurrent basis

57. Within what time frame must STI/SI leaflets to routed to PUB by system/Spec officer after arproval by respective branch head?

58. Based on urgency of the compliance schedule, approved STI/SI are classidfied under

59. Based on urgency of the compliance schedule, approved STI/SI are classidfied under

60. When should SI be withdrawn?

61. Who is the approving authority for STI/SI?

62. When should SI be withdrawn?

63. STI/SI compliance schedule is by

64. Who is the approving authority for STI/SI?

65. Which technical instruction is issed for compliance in recurrent basis?

66. STI/SI compliance schedule is by

67. Who is responsible to record STI/SI in CML list

68. Which technical instruction is issed for compliance in recurrent basis?

69. Who is responsible to record STI/SI in CML list

70. Once the MMDR is raised, the affected munitions shall be

71. Why is there a need for a Munitions Defect Reporting System?

72. Why is there a need for a Munitions Defect Reporting System?

73. Defects or incidents are considered major under which of the following circumstances?

74. For airbase, the investigation agency of the MMDR is

75. For airbase, the investigation agency of the MMDR is

76. NSF Tech will be trained and qualified up to a level of

77. The Q-Tech requirement consists of (i) Pass Basic type course (ii) Complete predetermined work task in OJT booklet (iii) Complete 3 months OJT immersion time (iv) paa assessment test conducted by OLTC

88. In the event that MOD/STI/SI could not be carried out or completed by the compliance date due to valid reasons,_ can request for extension of compliance date using the form in Annex A. The completed form is to be submitted to OC MCF. ___ if the approving authority for such requests.

89. In the event that MOD/STI/SI could not be carried out or completed by the compliance date due to valid reasons,_ can request for extension of compliance date using the form in Annex A. The completed form is to be submitted to OC MCF. ___ if the approving authority for such requests.