Vol 1

1. What defensive store from the A–10 aircraft may lodge in your skin or eyes and cause permanent damage when deployed?

Chaff.

Flare.

Fuels.

Liquid oxygen.

2. Which hazardous liquid has a hazard of extreme cold temperature when exposed to air?

Oils.

Fuels.

Hydraulic fluid.

Liquid oxygen.

3. What hazard is present for personnel standing in the area of an A–10 aircraft if a canopy is jettisoned on the ground?

Burning.

Crushing.

Shocking.

Explosion.

4. Which major aircraft system is responsible for cockpit pressurization and crewmember anti-g suit pressurization?

Electrical (24).

Flight control (27).

Environmental control (21).

Pneudraulics/hydraulics (29).

5. Which major aircraft system does the master caution system fall under?

Electrical (24).

Flight control (27).

Environmental control (21).

Pneudraulics/hydraulics (29).

6. Which A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) built-in test must be performed while the aircraft is on the ground?

Initiated.

Periodic.

Power-on.

Continuous.

7. The A–10 stick shaker activation warns the pilot of

Fuel quantity imbalance.

Impending stall conditions.

Attitude hold autopilot failure.

Left or right hydraulic failure.

8. On the A–10 aircraft, what does the countermeasures set (CMS) deploy for missile warning set (MWS) threats?

Chaff.

Flare.

Aim–9 missile.

AGM–65 missile.

9. Which A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) related component contains the WEAPONS RELEASE button, NOSE WHEEL STEERING button, and MASTER MODE CONTROL button?

Stick grip.

Left throttle grip.

Right throttle grip.

Armament head-up display (HUD) control panel (AHCP).

10. Under which major aircraft system does the Sniper XR targeting pod fall?

Electrical (24).

Navigation (34).

Communication (23).

Electronic warfare (93).

11. Which test set is used to perform an operational checkout of the A–10 infrared countermeasures AAR–47 system?

PATS tester.

PLM–3 tester.

CAPRE tester.

IR CMS tester.

12. Which inherent error results from the imperfect flexing of aneroid capsules and springs within the pitot-static system, and is present during rapid altitude changes and for a short time afterward?

Density.

Hysteresis.

Mechanical.

Compressibility.

13. Which A–10 infrared countermeasures AAR–47 system component senses in-band ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the rocket motor exhaust of a missile?

Computer processor (CP).

Optical sensor converter (OSC).

Countermeasures set control (CMSC).

Countermeasures set processor (CMSP).

14. Which A–10 aircraft control surfaces are used with aft or forward movement of the control stick?

Ailerons.

Rudders.

Elevators.

Speed brakes.

15. Which position is the A–10 FUEL DISPLAY SELECT switch set to if the fuel quantity indicator's (FQI) left pointer has a fuel reading and the right pointer reads zero?

INT.

MAIN.

EXT CTR.

EXT WING.

16. Which section of the A–10 aircraft consists of a horizontal and two vertical stabilizers?

Empennage.

Fuselage aft section.

Fuselage center section.

Fuselage forward section.

17. What page on the A–10 multifunction color display (MFCD) displays threat symbology to alert the pilot of potential threat?

Threat alert display page.

Countermeasure defense page.

Tactical awareness display (TAD) page.

Countermeasures set (CMS) alert page.

18. On an A–10, the Stability Augmentation System (SAS) computer will drive the elevators trailing edge down between 0° and –3.5° to counteract a nose up pitch during

Speedbrake deployment.

Yaw SAS disengagement.

Lowering the landing gear.

Airspeed exceeding 255 knots indicated airspeed.

19. Which A–10 remote control panel switch position will cause the color cockpit television sensor/ digital video airborne data recorder (CCTVS/DVADR) system to stop recording?

OFF.

REC.

STBY.

STOP.

20. Which type of stability is around the longitudinal axis?

Lateral (roll) stability.

Directional (yaw) stability.

Horizontal (vertical) stability.

Longitudinal (pitch) stability.

21. On the A–10 aircraft, to determine the stall margin, the alpha/Mach computer compares wing lift inputs received from the lift transducer with inputs from the

Stick shaker.

Pitot-static system.

Altitude/airspeed switch.

Slat electrical safety switch.

22. On the A–10, pitot icing can occur at a relatively slow rate and cause a gradual

Increase in indicated altitude.

Decrease in indicated altitude.

Increase in indicated airspeed.

Decrease in indicated airspeed.

23. On the A–10 aircraft, at what knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) is the yaw stability augmentation system (SAS) authority limited?

220 KIAS.

240 KIAS.

260 KIAS.

280 KIAS.

24. The A–10 cockpit color television video sensor (CCTVS) records a video of the

Control display unit (CDU).

Television (TV) monitor.

Right and left multifunction color display (MFCD).

View through the head-up display (HUD).

25. What is the recording time of the A–10 removable mass memory device?

1.5 hours.

2.5 hours.

3.5 hours.

4.5 hours.

26. The A–10 fuel quantity alternating current (AC) filter is necessary because it

Eliminates high frequency spurious signals from the capacitors output.

Eliminates high frequency spurious signals from the compensators output.

Reduces pointer fluctuation by eliminating high frequency spurious signals.

Reduces totalizer oscillations by eliminating high frequency spurious signals.

27. What does the A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) provide to allow the targeting pod to operate properly?

Location and speed.

Altitude and airspeed.

Current date and time.

Azimuth and elevation signals.

28. On the A–10, which turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) detected level event will always ground the aircraft until the event is resolved?

Level 1.

Level 2.

Level 3.

Level 4.

29. On the A–10, what is the turbine engine monitoring system's (TEMS) vertical accelerometer operating range?

–1,200 to 80,000 ft with an acceleration range for –3 to +9 Gs (gravity).

–1,500 to 50,000 ft with an acceleration range for –2 to +8 Gs.

+1,200 to 80,000 ft with an acceleration range for +3 to +9 Gs.

+1,500 to 50,000 ft with an acceleration range for +2 to +8 Gs.

30. Which A–10 heading attitude reference system (HARS) mode is selected on the compass system controller (CSC) and allows the heading to be sensed by the magnetic azimuth detector (MAD) and corrected for errors?

Horizontal situation indicator (HSI) mode.

Displacement gyroscope (DG) mode.

Fast erect mode.

Slave mode.

31. What A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) related component senses aircraft pitch, yaw, and roll rates?

LASTE control panel.

Avionics auxiliary panel.

Stability augmentation system (SAS) control panel.

Armament head-up display (HUD) control panel (AHCP).

32. On the A–10 aircraft, which component prevents the situation awareness data link (SADL) radio and ARC–210–2 radio from interfering with one another?

VHF/UHF/SADL unit.

VHF/UHF/SADL blanker.

VHF/UHF/SADL diplexer.

VHF/UHF/SADL diode box.

33. During the A–10 low altitude safety targeting enhancement (LASTE) precision attitude control (PAC)–2 engagement, LASTE is able to stabilize the aircraft for up to

4 seconds.

5 seconds.

6 seconds.

7 seconds.

34. What size fuse does the A–10 heading attitude reference system (HARS) fuse box use to fuse protect the electronic control amplifier (ECA) and displacement gyro (DG) from the excess current of a defective magnetic azimuth detector (MAD)?

0.25 amp.

0.50 amp.

0.75 amp.

1.25 amp.

35. On the A–10 aircraft, what component commands the attitude director indicator (ADI) to display the course warning flag?

Horizontal situation indicator (HSI).

Flight director computer (FDC).

Nav mode relay box (NMRB).

Nav mode select panel (NMSP).

36. Which section of the A–10 aircraft extends from approximately 2 feet aft of the canopy to approximately 18 inches aft of the trailing edge of the wings?

Empennage.

Fuselage aft section.

Fuselage center section.

Fuselage forward section.

37. How can you perform an operational checkout of the A–10 improved data modem (IDM)?

Initialize the system and ensure communication capability between 2 aircraft using the SADL system and antenna.

Initialize the system and run a system BIT by pressing the self-test button on the MFCD System Status Page menu.

Initialize the system and run a system BIT by pressing the self-test button on the IDM control panel.

Initialize the system and ensure communication capability between 2 aircraft using the ARC–164 and ARC–210 radios.

38. Which A–10 multifunction color display (MFCD) page is used to receive, transmit, and manage tactical data link (TDL) text messages?

Text page.

TAD MA page.

TDL/SADL page.

Message (MSG) page.

39. Which condition must be met in order for the A–10 enhanced attitude control (EAC) to arm?

Radar altitude must be on and operational.

Low altitude autopilot (LAAP) must be engaged with no failures.

Pitch and yaw stability augmentation system (SAS) must be engaged with no SAS failures.

Heading attitude reference system (HARS) must be selected on the NAV mode select panel and its data valid.

40. On the A–10, what turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) detected event occurs with core speed above 99.4 percent but less than 102 percent?

Level 1.

Level 2.

Level 3.

Level 4.

41. How many output video interfaces does the A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) provide to drive high resolution multifunction color displays (MFCD)?

1.

2.

3.

4.

42. The data transfer system (DTS) is part of which major aircraft system?

Electrical (24).

Navigation (34).

Communication (23).

Electronic warfare (93).

43. On the A–10 aircraft, pitch stability augmentation system (SAS) authority is mechanically limited to between

20° elevator trailing edge up and 10° elevator trailing edge down.

10° elevator trailing edge up and 10° elevator trailing edge down.

20° elevator trailing edge up and 5° elevator trailing edge down.

10° elevator trailing edge up and 5° elevator trailing edge down.

44. The A–10 stick shaker will activate when angle of attack (AOA) is 16 ° or more and the landing gear is up and locked with

Weight on wheels.

Weight off wheels.

Flaps extended to 7°.

Flaps extended to 20°.

45. Which A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) component's function is to turn on the radar altimeter, arm the enhanced attitude control (EAC) function, and control the low altitude autopilot (LAAP)?

LASTE control panel.

Up-front controller (UFC).

Armament HUD control panel (AHCP).

Stability augmentation system (SAS) control panel.

46. On the A–10, which turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) component contains two externally mounted batteries used to retain stored data?

Resistor box.

TEMS data unit.

Electronic processor unit.

Fuel flow signal converter.

47. Which A–10 stability augmentation system (SAS) function is disengaged by the heading attitude reference system (HARS)/SAS power detector?

Roll.

Yaw.

Trim.

Pitch.

48. What assumes control of the A–10 digital data bus if the master bus controller (MBC) fails?

Control display unit (CDU).

Flight director computer (FDC).

Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC).

Embedded global positioning/inertial navigation system (EGI).

49. On the A–10 aircraft, which component provides Tactical Data Network (TDN) communication, utilizing the variable message format (VMF) message set?

Enhanced precision location reporting system (EPLRS) receiver-transmitter (R/T).

Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC).

Central interface control unit (CICU).

Improved data modem (IDM).

50. Pressure being applied to the front of the airplane as it moves through the air is represented by

Pitot pressure.

Static pressure.

Impact pressure.

Dynamic pressure.

51. On an A–10, how much left and right elevator displacement difference is required before pitch Stability Augmentation System (SAS) is shut down?

2.5°.

3.2°.

0.5°.

0.95°.

52. What navigation (NAV) operating mode does the A–10 head-up display low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (HUD LASTE) system default to as its backup?

Embedded global positioning and inertial navigation system (EGI) mode.

Heading attitude reference system (HARS) mode.

Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC) mode.

Normal mode.

53. Where is the A–10 master bus controller (MBC) located?

Control display unit (CDU).

Flight director computer (FDC).

Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC).

Embedded global positioning/inertial navigation system (EGI).

54. On the A–10 data transfer system, weapons events and ground collision avoidance system (GCAS) events are recorded by the

Control display unit (CDU).

Flight director computer (FDC).

Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC).

Embedded global positioning/inertial navigation system (EGI).

55. On an A–10, how much left and right rudder displacement difference is required before yaw Stability Augmentation System (SAS) is shut down?

0.5°.

0.95°.

2.5°.

3.2°.

56. What A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) related component contains the integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC) ON/OFF switch?

LASTE control panel.

Up-front controller (UFC).

Stability augmentation system (SAS) control panel.

Armament head-up display (HUD) control panel (AHCP).

57. Which A–10 line replaceable unit (LRU) is primarily a weapons system processor?

Head-up display (HUD).

Central interface control unit (CICU).

Armament HUD control panel (AHCP).

Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC).

58. Which A–10 component contains the data link processor (DLP) which allows the pilot to control the tactical data link (TDL)/enhanced precision location reporting system (EPLRS)/situation awareness data link (SADL) functionality?

Improved data modem (IDM).

EPLRS receiver-transmitter (R/T).

Central interface control unit (CICU).

Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC).

Vol 1

1. What defensive store from the A–10 aircraft may lodge in your skin or eyes and cause permanent damage when deployed?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. Which hazardous liquid has a hazard of extreme cold temperature when exposed to air?

3. What hazard is present for personnel standing in the area of an A–10 aircraft if a canopy is jettisoned on the ground?

4. Which major aircraft system is responsible for cockpit pressurization and crewmember anti-g suit pressurization?

5. Which major aircraft system does the master caution system fall under?

6. Which A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) built-in test must be performed while the aircraft is on the ground?

7. The A–10 stick shaker activation warns the pilot of

8. On the A–10 aircraft, what does the countermeasures set (CMS) deploy for missile warning set (MWS) threats?

9. Which A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) related component contains the WEAPONS RELEASE button, NOSE WHEEL STEERING button, and MASTER MODE CONTROL button?

10. Under which major aircraft system does the Sniper XR targeting pod fall?

11. Which test set is used to perform an operational checkout of the A–10 infrared countermeasures AAR–47 system?

12. Which inherent error results from the imperfect flexing of aneroid capsules and springs within the pitot-static system, and is present during rapid altitude changes and for a short time afterward?

13. Which A–10 infrared countermeasures AAR–47 system component senses in-band ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the rocket motor exhaust of a missile?

14. Which A–10 aircraft control surfaces are used with aft or forward movement of the control stick?

15. Which position is the A–10 FUEL DISPLAY SELECT switch set to if the fuel quantity indicator's (FQI) left pointer has a fuel reading and the right pointer reads zero?

16. Which section of the A–10 aircraft consists of a horizontal and two vertical stabilizers?

17. What page on the A–10 multifunction color display (MFCD) displays threat symbology to alert the pilot of potential threat?

18. On an A–10, the Stability Augmentation System (SAS) computer will drive the elevators trailing edge down between 0° and –3.5° to counteract a nose up pitch during

19. Which A–10 remote control panel switch position will cause the color cockpit television sensor/ digital video airborne data recorder (CCTVS/DVADR) system to stop recording?

20. Which type of stability is around the longitudinal axis?

21. On the A–10 aircraft, to determine the stall margin, the alpha/Mach computer compares wing lift inputs received from the lift transducer with inputs from the

22. On the A–10, pitot icing can occur at a relatively slow rate and cause a gradual

23. On the A–10 aircraft, at what knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) is the yaw stability augmentation system (SAS) authority limited?

24. The A–10 cockpit color television video sensor (CCTVS) records a video of the

25. What is the recording time of the A–10 removable mass memory device?

26. The A–10 fuel quantity alternating current (AC) filter is necessary because it

27. What does the A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) provide to allow the targeting pod to operate properly?

28. On the A–10, which turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) detected level event will always ground the aircraft until the event is resolved?

29. On the A–10, what is the turbine engine monitoring system's (TEMS) vertical accelerometer operating range?

30. Which A–10 heading attitude reference system (HARS) mode is selected on the compass system controller (CSC) and allows the heading to be sensed by the magnetic azimuth detector (MAD) and corrected for errors?

31. What A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) related component senses aircraft pitch, yaw, and roll rates?

32. On the A–10 aircraft, which component prevents the situation awareness data link (SADL) radio and ARC–210–2 radio from interfering with one another?

33. During the A–10 low altitude safety targeting enhancement (LASTE) precision attitude control (PAC)–2 engagement, LASTE is able to stabilize the aircraft for up to

34. What size fuse does the A–10 heading attitude reference system (HARS) fuse box use to fuse protect the electronic control amplifier (ECA) and displacement gyro (DG) from the excess current of a defective magnetic azimuth detector (MAD)?

35. On the A–10 aircraft, what component commands the attitude director indicator (ADI) to display the course warning flag?

36. Which section of the A–10 aircraft extends from approximately 2 feet aft of the canopy to approximately 18 inches aft of the trailing edge of the wings?

37. How can you perform an operational checkout of the A–10 improved data modem (IDM)?

38. Which A–10 multifunction color display (MFCD) page is used to receive, transmit, and manage tactical data link (TDL) text messages?

39. Which condition must be met in order for the A–10 enhanced attitude control (EAC) to arm?

40. On the A–10, what turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) detected event occurs with core speed above 99.4 percent but less than 102 percent?

41. How many output video interfaces does the A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) provide to drive high resolution multifunction color displays (MFCD)?

42. The data transfer system (DTS) is part of which major aircraft system?

43. On the A–10 aircraft, pitch stability augmentation system (SAS) authority is mechanically limited to between

44. The A–10 stick shaker will activate when angle of attack (AOA) is 16 ° or more and the landing gear is up and locked with

45. Which A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) component's function is to turn on the radar altimeter, arm the enhanced attitude control (EAC) function, and control the low altitude autopilot (LAAP)?

46. On the A–10, which turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) component contains two externally mounted batteries used to retain stored data?

47. Which A–10 stability augmentation system (SAS) function is disengaged by the heading attitude reference system (HARS)/SAS power detector?

48. What assumes control of the A–10 digital data bus if the master bus controller (MBC) fails?

49. On the A–10 aircraft, which component provides Tactical Data Network (TDN) communication, utilizing the variable message format (VMF) message set?

50. Pressure being applied to the front of the airplane as it moves through the air is represented by

51. On an A–10, how much left and right elevator displacement difference is required before pitch Stability Augmentation System (SAS) is shut down?

52. What navigation (NAV) operating mode does the A–10 head-up display low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (HUD LASTE) system default to as its backup?

53. Where is the A–10 master bus controller (MBC) located?

54. On the A–10 data transfer system, weapons events and ground collision avoidance system (GCAS) events are recorded by the

55. On an A–10, how much left and right rudder displacement difference is required before yaw Stability Augmentation System (SAS) is shut down?

56. What A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) related component contains the integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC) ON/OFF switch?

57. Which A–10 line replaceable unit (LRU) is primarily a weapons system processor?

58. Which A–10 component contains the data link processor (DLP) which allows the pilot to control the tactical data link (TDL)/enhanced precision location reporting system (EPLRS)/situation awareness data link (SADL) functionality?