Vol 1

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  • 1/58 Questions

    What defensive store from the A–10 aircraft may lodge in your skin or eyes and cause permanent damage when deployed?

    • Chaff.
    • Flare.
    • Fuels.
    • Liquid oxygen.
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  • 2. 

    Which hazardous liquid has a hazard of extreme cold temperature when exposed to air?

    • Oils.

    • Fuels.

    • Hydraulic fluid.

    • Liquid oxygen.

    Correct Answer
    A. Liquid oxygen.
  • 3. 

    What hazard is present for personnel standing in the area of an A–10 aircraft if a canopy is jettisoned on the ground?

    • Burning.

    • Crushing.

    • Shocking.

    • Explosion.

    Correct Answer
    A. Crushing.
  • 4. 

    Which major aircraft system is responsible for cockpit pressurization and crewmember anti-g suit pressurization?

    • Electrical (24).

    • Flight control (27).

    • Environmental control (21).

    • Pneudraulics/hydraulics (29).

    Correct Answer
    A. Environmental control (21).
  • 5. 

    Which major aircraft system does the master caution system fall under?

    • Electrical (24).

    • Flight control (27).

    • Environmental control (21).

    • Pneudraulics/hydraulics (29).

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrical (24).
  • 6. 

    Which A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) built-in test must be performed while the aircraft is on the ground?

    • Initiated.

    • Periodic.

    • Power-on.

    • Continuous.

    Correct Answer
    A. Initiated.
  • 7. 

    The A–10 stick shaker activation warns the pilot of

    • Fuel quantity imbalance.

    • Impending stall conditions.

    • Attitude hold autopilot failure.

    • Left or right hydraulic failure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Impending stall conditions.
  • 8. 

    Under which major aircraft system does the Sniper XR targeting pod fall?

    • Electrical (24).

    • Navigation (34).

    • Communication (23).

    • Electronic warfare (93).

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic warfare (93).
  • 9. 

    Which A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) related component contains the WEAPONS RELEASE button, NOSE WHEEL STEERING button, and MASTER MODE CONTROL button?

    • Stick grip.

    • Left throttle grip.

    • Right throttle grip.

    • Armament head-up display (HUD) control panel (AHCP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Stick grip.
  • 10. 

    On the A–10 aircraft, what does the countermeasures set (CMS) deploy for missile warning set (MWS) threats?

    • Chaff.

    • Flare.

    • Aim–9 missile.

    • AGM–65 missile.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flare.
  • 11. 

    Which test set is used to perform an operational checkout of the A–10 infrared countermeasures AAR–47 system?

    • PATS tester.

    • PLM–3 tester.

    • CAPRE tester.

    • IR CMS tester.

    Correct Answer
    A. PLM–3 tester.
  • 12. 

    Which inherent error results from the imperfect flexing of aneroid capsules and springs within the pitot-static system, and is present during rapid altitude changes and for a short time afterward?

    • Density.

    • Hysteresis.

    • Mechanical.

    • Compressibility.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hysteresis.
  • 13. 

    Which position is the A–10 FUEL DISPLAY SELECT switch set to if the fuel quantity indicator’s (FQI) left pointer has a fuel reading and the right pointer reads zero?

    • INT.

    • MAIN.

    • EXT CTR.

    • EXT WING.

    Correct Answer
    A. EXT CTR.
  • 14. 

    Which A–10 aircraft control surfaces are used with aft or forward movement of the control stick?

    • Ailerons.

    • Rudders.

    • Elevators.

    • Speed brakes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Elevators.
  • 15. 

    Which A–10 infrared countermeasures AAR–47 system component senses in-band ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the rocket motor exhaust of a missile?

    • Computer processor (CP).

    • Optical sensor converter (OSC).

    • Countermeasures set control (CMSC).

    • Countermeasures set processor (CMSP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Optical sensor converter (OSC).
  • 16. 

    Which section of the A–10 aircraft consists of a horizontal and two vertical stabilizers?

    • Empennage.

    • Fuselage aft section.

    • Fuselage center section.

    • Fuselage forward section.

    Correct Answer
    A. Empennage.
  • 17. 

    On an A–10, the Stability Augmentation System (SAS) computer will drive the elevators trailing edge down between 0° and –3.5° to counteract a nose up pitch during

    • Speedbrake deployment.

    • Yaw SAS disengagement.

    • Lowering the landing gear.

    • Airspeed exceeding 255 knots indicated airspeed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Speedbrake deployment.
  • 18. 

    What page on the A–10 multifunction color display (MFCD) displays threat symbology to alert the pilot of potential threat?

    • Threat alert display page.

    • Countermeasure defense page.

    • Tactical awareness display (TAD) page.

    • Countermeasures set (CMS) alert page.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tactical awareness display (TAD) page.
  • 19. 

    Which A–10 remote control panel switch position will cause the color cockpit television sensor/ digital video airborne data recorder (CCTVS/DVADR) system to stop recording?

    • OFF.

    • REC.

    • STBY.

    • STOP.

    Correct Answer
    A. STBY.
  • 20. 

    Which type of stability is around the longitudinal axis?

    • Lateral (roll) stability.

    • Directional (yaw) stability.

    • Horizontal (vertical) stability.

    • Longitudinal (pitch) stability.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lateral (roll) stability.
  • 21. 

    What does the A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) provide to allow the targeting pod to operate properly?

    • Location and speed.

    • Altitude and airspeed.

    • Current date and time.

    • Azimuth and elevation signals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Current date and time.
  • 22. 

    The A–10 cockpit color television video sensor (CCTVS) records a video of the

    • Control display unit (CDU).

    • Television (TV) monitor.

    • Right and left multifunction color display (MFCD).

    • View through the head-up display (HUD).

    Correct Answer
    A. View through the head-up display (HUD).
  • 23. 

    What is the recording time of the A–10 removable mass memory device?

    • 1.5 hours.

    • 2.5 hours.

    • 3.5 hours.

    • 4.5 hours.

    Correct Answer
    A. 2.5 hours.
  • 24. 

    The A–10 fuel quantity alternating current (AC) filter is necessary because it

    • Eliminates high frequency spurious signals from the capacitors output.

    • Eliminates high frequency spurious signals from the compensators output.

    • Reduces pointer fluctuation by eliminating high frequency spurious signals.

    • Reduces totalizer oscillations by eliminating high frequency spurious signals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduces pointer fluctuation by eliminating high frequency spurious signals.
  • 25. 

    On the A–10, which turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) detected level event will always ground the aircraft until the event is resolved?

    • Level 1.

    • Level 2.

    • Level 3.

    • Level 4.

    Correct Answer
    A. Level 2.
  • 26. 

    On the A–10 aircraft, at what knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) is the yaw stability augmentation system (SAS) authority limited?

    • 220 KIAS.

    • 240 KIAS.

    • 260 KIAS.

    • 280 KIAS.

    Correct Answer
    A. 240 KIAS.
  • 27. 

    On the A–10, pitot icing can occur at a relatively slow rate and cause a gradual

    • Increase in indicated altitude.

    • Decrease in indicated altitude.

    • Increase in indicated airspeed.

    • Decrease in indicated airspeed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Decrease in indicated airspeed.
  • 28. 

    On the A–10 aircraft, to determine the stall margin, the alpha/Mach computer compares wing lift inputs received from the lift transducer with inputs from the

    • Stick shaker.

    • Pitot-static system.

    • Altitude/airspeed switch.

    • Slat electrical safety switch.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pitot-static system.
  • 29. 

    On the A–10, what is the turbine engine monitoring system’s (TEMS) vertical accelerometer operating range?

    • –1,200 to 80,000 ft with an acceleration range for –3 to +9 Gs (gravity).

    • –1,500 to 50,000 ft with an acceleration range for –2 to +8 Gs.

    • +1,200 to 80,000 ft with an acceleration range for +3 to +9 Gs.

    • +1,500 to 50,000 ft with an acceleration range for +2 to +8 Gs.

    Correct Answer
    A. –1,200 to 80,000 ft with an acceleration range for –3 to +9 Gs (gravity).
  • 30. 

    Which A–10 heading attitude reference system (HARS) mode is selected on the compass system controller (CSC) and allows the heading to be sensed by the magnetic azimuth detector (MAD) and corrected for errors?

    • Horizontal situation indicator (HSI) mode.

    • Displacement gyroscope (DG) mode.

    • Fast erect mode.

    • Slave mode.

    Correct Answer
    A. Slave mode.
  • 31. 

    What A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) related component senses aircraft pitch, yaw, and roll rates?

    • LASTE control panel.

    • Avionics auxiliary panel.

    • Stability augmentation system (SAS) control panel.

    • Armament head-up display (HUD) control panel (AHCP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Stability augmentation system (SAS) control panel.
  • 32. 

    During the A–10 low altitude safety targeting enhancement (LASTE) precision attitude control (PAC)–2 engagement, LASTE is able to stabilize the aircraft for up to

    • 4 seconds.

    • 5 seconds.

    • 6 seconds.

    • 7 seconds.

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 seconds.
  • 33. 

    On the A–10 aircraft, which component prevents the situation awareness data link (SADL) radio and ARC–210–2 radio from interfering with one another?

    • VHF/UHF/SADL unit.

    • VHF/UHF/SADL blanker.

    • VHF/UHF/SADL diplexer.

    • VHF/UHF/SADL diode box.

    Correct Answer
    A. VHF/UHF/SADL diplexer.
  • 34. 

    Which section of the A–10 aircraft extends from approximately 2 feet aft of the canopy to approximately 18 inches aft of the trailing edge of the wings?

    • Empennage.

    • Fuselage aft section.

    • Fuselage center section.

    • Fuselage forward section.

    Correct Answer
    A. Fuselage center section.
  • 35. 

    Which condition must be met in order for the A–10 enhanced attitude control (EAC) to arm?

    • Radar altitude must be on and operational.

    • Low altitude autopilot (LAAP) must be engaged with no failures.

    • Pitch and yaw stability augmentation system (SAS) must be engaged with no SAS failures.

    • Heading attitude reference system (HARS) must be selected on the NAV mode select panel and its data valid.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pitch and yaw stability augmentation system (SAS) must be engaged with no SAS failures.
  • 36. 

    What size fuse does the A–10 heading attitude reference system (HARS) fuse box use to fuse protect the electronic control amplifier (ECA) and displacement gyro (DG) from the excess current of a defective magnetic azimuth detector (MAD)?

    • 0.25 amp.

    • 0.50 amp.

    • 0.75 amp.

    • 1.25 amp.

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.25 amp.
  • 37. 

    On the A–10 aircraft, what component commands the attitude director indicator (ADI) to display the course warning flag?

    • Horizontal situation indicator (HSI).

    • Flight director computer (FDC).

    • Nav mode relay box (NMRB).

    • Nav mode select panel (NMSP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight director computer (FDC).
  • 38. 

    Which A–10 multifunction color display (MFCD) page is used to receive, transmit, and manage tactical data link (TDL) text messages?

    • Text page.

    • TAD MA page.

    • TDL/SADL page.

    • Message (MSG) page.

    Correct Answer
    A. Message (MSG) page.
  • 39. 

    How can you perform an operational checkout of the A–10 improved data modem (IDM)?

    • Initialize the system and ensure communication capability between 2 aircraft using the SADL system and antenna.

    • Initialize the system and run a system BIT by pressing the self-test button on the MFCD System Status Page menu.

    • Initialize the system and run a system BIT by pressing the self-test button on the IDM control panel.

    • Initialize the system and ensure communication capability between 2 aircraft using the ARC–164 and ARC–210 radios.

    Correct Answer
    A. Initialize the system and ensure communication capability between 2 aircraft using the ARC–164 and ARC–210 radios.
  • 40. 

    On the A–10, what turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) detected event occurs with core speed above 99.4 percent but less than 102 percent?

    • Level 1.

    • Level 2.

    • Level 3.

    • Level 4.

    Correct Answer
    A. Level 1.
  • 41. 

    How many output video interfaces does the A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) provide to drive high resolution multifunction color displays (MFCD)?

    • 1.

    • 2.

    • 3.

    • 4.

    Correct Answer
    A. 4.
  • 42. 

    The data transfer system (DTS) is part of which major aircraft system?

    • Electrical (24).

    • Navigation (34).

    • Communication (23).

    • Electronic warfare (93).

    Correct Answer
    A. Navigation (34).
  • 43. 

    On the A–10 aircraft, pitch stability augmentation system (SAS) authority is mechanically limited to between

    • 20° elevator trailing edge up and 10° elevator trailing edge down.

    • 10° elevator trailing edge up and 10° elevator trailing edge down.

    • 20° elevator trailing edge up and 5° elevator trailing edge down.

    • 10° elevator trailing edge up and 5° elevator trailing edge down.

    Correct Answer
    A. 20° elevator trailing edge up and 5° elevator trailing edge down.
  • 44. 

    The A–10 stick shaker will activate when angle of attack (AOA) is 16° or more and the landing gear is up and locked with

    • Weight on wheels.

    • Weight off wheels.

    • Flaps extended to 7°.

    • Flaps extended to 20°.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flaps extended to 20°.
  • 45. 

    Which A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) component’s function is to turn on the radar altimeter, arm the enhanced attitude control (EAC) function, and control the low altitude autopilot (LAAP)?

    • LASTE control panel.

    • Up-front controller (UFC).

    • Armament HUD control panel (AHCP).

    • Stability augmentation system (SAS) control panel.

    Correct Answer
    A. LASTE control panel.
  • 46. 

    On the A–10, which turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) component contains two externally mounted batteries used to retain stored data?

    • Resistor box.

    • TEMS data unit.

    • Electronic processor unit.

    • Fuel flow signal converter.

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic processor unit.
  • 47. 

    Which A–10 stability augmentation system (SAS) function is disengaged by the heading attitude reference system (HARS)/SAS power detector?

    • Roll.

    • Yaw.

    • Trim.

    • Pitch.

    Correct Answer
    A. Yaw.
  • 48. 

    What assumes control of the A–10 digital data bus if the master bus controller (MBC) fails?

    • Control display unit (CDU).

    • Flight director computer (FDC).

    • Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC).

    • Embedded global positioning/inertial navigation system (EGI).

    Correct Answer
    A. Embedded global positioning/inertial navigation system (EGI).
  • 49. 

    On the A–10 aircraft, which component provides Tactical Data Network (TDN) communication, utilizing the variable message format (VMF) message set?

    • Enhanced precision location reporting system (EPLRS) receiver-transmitter (R/T).

    • Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC).

    • Central interface control unit (CICU).

    • Improved data modem (IDM).

    Correct Answer
    A. Improved data modem (IDM).

Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 11, 2015 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 11, 2015
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 03, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Blake
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