Vol 1

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Vol 1 - Quiz

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which section of the A–10 aircraft extends from approximately 2 feet aft of the canopy to approximately 18 inches aft of the trailing edge of the wings?

    • A.

      Empennage.

    • B.

      Fuselage aft section.

    • C.

      Fuselage center section.

    • D.

      Fuselage forward section.

    Correct Answer
    C. Fuselage center section.
  • 2. 

    Which section of the A–10 aircraft consists of a horizontal and two vertical stabilizers?

    • A.

      Empennage.

    • B.

      Fuselage aft section.

    • C.

      Fuselage center section.

    • D.

      Fuselage forward section.

    Correct Answer
    A. Empennage.
  • 3. 

    What hazard is present for personnel standing in the area of an A–10 aircraft if a canopy is jettisoned on the ground?

    • A.

      Burning.

    • B.

      Crushing.

    • C.

      Shocking.

    • D.

      Explosion.

    Correct Answer
    B. Crushing.
  • 4. 

    What defensive store from the A–10 aircraft may lodge in your skin or eyes and cause permanent damage when deployed?

    • A.

      Chaff.

    • B.

      Flare.

    • C.

      Fuels.

    • D.

      Liquid oxygen.

    Correct Answer
    A. Chaff.
  • 5. 

    Which hazardous liquid has a hazard of extreme cold temperature when exposed to air?

    • A.

      Oils.

    • B.

      Fuels.

    • C.

      Hydraulic fluid.

    • D.

      Liquid oxygen.

    Correct Answer
    D. Liquid oxygen.
  • 6. 

    Which major aircraft system is responsible for cockpit pressurization and crewmember anti-g suit pressurization?

    • A.

      Electrical (24).

    • B.

      Flight control (27).

    • C.

      Environmental control (21).

    • D.

      Pneudraulics/hydraulics (29).

    Correct Answer
    C. Environmental control (21).
  • 7. 

    Which major aircraft system does the master caution system fall under?

    • A.

      Electrical (24).

    • B.

      Flight control (27).

    • C.

      Environmental control (21).

    • D.

      Pneudraulics/hydraulics (29).

    Correct Answer
    A. Electrical (24).
  • 8. 

    The data transfer system (DTS) is part of which major aircraft system?

    • A.

      Electrical (24).

    • B.

      Navigation (34).

    • C.

      Communication (23).

    • D.

      Electronic warfare (93).

    Correct Answer
    B. Navigation (34).
  • 9. 

    Under which major aircraft system does the Sniper XR targeting pod fall?

    • A.

      Electrical (24).

    • B.

      Navigation (34).

    • C.

      Communication (23).

    • D.

      Electronic warfare (93).

    Correct Answer
    D. Electronic warfare (93).
  • 10. 

    On the A–10 data transfer system, weapons events and ground collision avoidance system (GCAS) events are recorded by the

    • A.

      Control display unit (CDU).

    • B.

      Flight director computer (FDC).

    • C.

      Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC).

    • D.

      Embedded global positioning/inertial navigation system (EGI).

    Correct Answer
    C. Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC).
  • 11. 

    Where is the A–10 master bus controller (MBC) located?

    • A.

      Control display unit (CDU).

    • B.

      Flight director computer (FDC).

    • C.

      Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC).

    • D.

      Embedded global positioning/inertial navigation system (EGI).

    Correct Answer
    A. Control display unit (CDU).
  • 12. 

    What assumes control of the A–10 digital data bus if the master bus controller (MBC) fails?

    • A.

      Control display unit (CDU).

    • B.

      Flight director computer (FDC).

    • C.

      Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC).

    • D.

      Embedded global positioning/inertial navigation system (EGI).

    Correct Answer
    D. Embedded global positioning/inertial navigation system (EGI).
  • 13. 

    Which A–10 line replaceable unit (LRU) is primarily a weapons system processor?

    • A.

      Head-up display (HUD).

    • B.

      Central interface control unit (CICU).

    • C.

      Armament HUD control panel (AHCP).

    • D.

      Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC).

    Correct Answer
    B. Central interface control unit (CICU).
  • 14. 

    How many output video interfaces does the A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) provide to drive high resolution multifunction color displays (MFCD)?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      3.

    • D.

      4.

    Correct Answer
    D. 4.
  • 15. 

    Which A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) built-in test must be performed while the aircraft is on the ground?

    • A.

      Initiated.

    • B.

      Periodic.

    • C.

      Power-on.

    • D.

      Continuous.

    Correct Answer
    A. Initiated.
  • 16. 

    What does the A–10 central interface control unit (CICU) provide to allow the targeting pod to operate properly?

    • A.

      Location and speed.

    • B.

      Altitude and airspeed.

    • C.

      Current date and time.

    • D.

      Azimuth and elevation signals.

    Correct Answer
    C. Current date and time.
  • 17. 

    Which A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) component’s function is to turn on the radar altimeter, arm the enhanced attitude control (EAC) function, and control the low altitude autopilot (LAAP)?

    • A.

      LASTE control panel.

    • B.

      Up-front controller (UFC).

    • C.

      Armament HUD control panel (AHCP).

    • D.

      Stability augmentation system (SAS) control panel.

    Correct Answer
    A. LASTE control panel.
  • 18. 

    What A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) related component senses aircraft pitch, yaw, and roll rates?

    • A.

      LASTE control panel.

    • B.

      Avionics auxiliary panel.

    • C.

      Stability augmentation system (SAS) control panel.

    • D.

      Armament head-up display (HUD) control panel (AHCP).

    Correct Answer
    C. Stability augmentation system (SAS) control panel.
  • 19. 

    What A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) related component contains the integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC) ON/OFF switch?

    • A.

      LASTE control panel.

    • B.

      Up-front controller (UFC).

    • C.

      Stability augmentation system (SAS) control panel.

    • D.

      Armament head-up display (HUD) control panel (AHCP).

    Correct Answer
    D. Armament head-up display (HUD) control panel (AHCP).
  • 20. 

    Which A–10 low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (LASTE) related component contains the WEAPONS RELEASE button, NOSE WHEEL STEERING button, and MASTER MODE CONTROL button?

    • A.

      Stick grip.

    • B.

      Left throttle grip.

    • C.

      Right throttle grip.

    • D.

      Armament head-up display (HUD) control panel (AHCP).

    Correct Answer
    A. Stick grip.
  • 21. 

    What navigation (NAV) operating mode does the A–10 head-up display low altitude safety and targeting enhancement (HUD LASTE) system default to as its backup?

    • A.

      Embedded global positioning and inertial navigation system (EGI) mode.

    • B.

      Heading attitude reference system (HARS) mode.

    • C.

      Integrated flight and fire control computer (IFFCC) mode.

    • D.

      Normal mode.

    Correct Answer
    B. Heading attitude reference system (HARS) mode.
  • 22. 

    Which condition must be met in order for the A–10 enhanced attitude control (EAC) to arm?

    • A.

      Radar altitude must be on and operational.

    • B.

      Low altitude autopilot (LAAP) must be engaged with no failures.

    • C.

      Pitch and yaw stability augmentation system (SAS) must be engaged with no SAS failures.

    • D.

      Heading attitude reference system (HARS) must be selected on the NAV mode select panel and its data valid.

    Correct Answer
    C. Pitch and yaw stability augmentation system (SAS) must be engaged with no SAS failures.
  • 23. 

    During the A–10 low altitude safety targeting enhancement (LASTE) precision attitude control (PAC)–2 engagement, LASTE is able to stabilize the aircraft for up to

    • A.

      4 seconds.

    • B.

      5 seconds.

    • C.

      6 seconds.

    • D.

      7 seconds.

    Correct Answer
    B. 5 seconds.
  • 24. 

    The A–10 cockpit color television video sensor (CCTVS) records a video of the

    • A.

      Control display unit (CDU).

    • B.

      Television (TV) monitor.

    • C.

      Right and left multifunction color display (MFCD).

    • D.

      View through the head-up display (HUD).

    Correct Answer
    D. View through the head-up display (HUD).
  • 25. 

    What is the recording time of the A–10 removable mass memory device?

    • A.

      1.5 hours.

    • B.

      2.5 hours.

    • C.

      3.5 hours.

    • D.

      4.5 hours.

    Correct Answer
    B. 2.5 hours.
  • 26. 

    Which A–10 remote control panel switch position will cause the color cockpit television sensor/ digital video airborne data recorder (CCTVS/DVADR) system to stop recording?

    • A.

      OFF.

    • B.

      REC.

    • C.

      STBY.

    • D.

      STOP.

    Correct Answer
    C. STBY.
  • 27. 

    The A–10 fuel quantity alternating current (AC) filter is necessary because it

    • A.

      Eliminates high frequency spurious signals from the capacitors output.

    • B.

      Eliminates high frequency spurious signals from the compensators output.

    • C.

      Reduces pointer fluctuation by eliminating high frequency spurious signals.

    • D.

      Reduces totalizer oscillations by eliminating high frequency spurious signals.

    Correct Answer
    C. Reduces pointer fluctuation by eliminating high frequency spurious signals.
  • 28. 

    Which position is the A–10 FUEL DISPLAY SELECT switch set to if the fuel quantity indicator’s (FQI) left pointer has a fuel reading and the right pointer reads zero?

    • A.

      INT.

    • B.

      MAIN.

    • C.

      EXT CTR.

    • D.

      EXT WING.

    Correct Answer
    C. EXT CTR.
  • 29. 

    On the A–10, which turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) component contains two externally mounted batteries used to retain stored data?

    • A.

      Resistor box.

    • B.

      TEMS data unit.

    • C.

      Electronic processor unit.

    • D.

      Fuel flow signal converter.

    Correct Answer
    C. Electronic processor unit.
  • 30. 

    On the A–10, what is the turbine engine monitoring system’s (TEMS) vertical accelerometer operating range?

    • A.

      –1,200 to 80,000 ft with an acceleration range for –3 to +9 Gs (gravity).

    • B.

      –1,500 to 50,000 ft with an acceleration range for –2 to +8 Gs.

    • C.

      +1,200 to 80,000 ft with an acceleration range for +3 to +9 Gs.

    • D.

      +1,500 to 50,000 ft with an acceleration range for +2 to +8 Gs.

    Correct Answer
    A. –1,200 to 80,000 ft with an acceleration range for –3 to +9 Gs (gravity).
  • 31. 

    On the A–10, what turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) detected event occurs with core speed above 99.4 percent but less than 102 percent?

    • A.

      Level 1.

    • B.

      Level 2.

    • C.

      Level 3.

    • D.

      Level 4.

    Correct Answer
    A. Level 1.
  • 32. 

    On the A–10, which turbine engine monitoring system (TEMS) detected level event will always ground the aircraft until the event is resolved?

    • A.

      Level 1.

    • B.

      Level 2.

    • C.

      Level 3.

    • D.

      Level 4.

    Correct Answer
    B. Level 2.
  • 33. 

    What size fuse does the A–10 heading attitude reference system (HARS) fuse box use to fuse protect the electronic control amplifier (ECA) and displacement gyro (DG) from the excess current of a defective magnetic azimuth detector (MAD)?

    • A.

      0.25 amp.

    • B.

      0.50 amp.

    • C.

      0.75 amp.

    • D.

      1.25 amp.

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.25 amp.
  • 34. 

    Which A–10 heading attitude reference system (HARS) mode is selected on the compass system controller (CSC) and allows the heading to be sensed by the magnetic azimuth detector (MAD) and corrected for errors?

    • A.

      Horizontal situation indicator (HSI) mode.

    • B.

      Displacement gyroscope (DG) mode.

    • C.

      Fast erect mode.

    • D.

      Slave mode.

    Correct Answer
    D. Slave mode.
  • 35. 

    On the A–10 aircraft, what component commands the attitude director indicator (ADI) to display the course warning flag?

    • A.

      Horizontal situation indicator (HSI).

    • B.

      Flight director computer (FDC).

    • C.

      Nav mode relay box (NMRB).

    • D.

      Nav mode select panel (NMSP).

    Correct Answer
    B. Flight director computer (FDC).
  • 36. 

    Which type of stability is around the longitudinal axis?

    • A.

      Lateral (roll) stability.

    • B.

      Directional (yaw) stability.

    • C.

      Horizontal (vertical) stability.

    • D.

      Longitudinal (pitch) stability.

    Correct Answer
    A. Lateral (roll) stability.
  • 37. 

    Which A–10 aircraft control surfaces are used with aft or forward movement of the control stick?

    • A.

      Ailerons.

    • B.

      Rudders.

    • C.

      Elevators.

    • D.

      Speed brakes.

    Correct Answer
    C. Elevators.
  • 38. 

    Which A–10 stability augmentation system (SAS) function is disengaged by the heading attitude reference system (HARS)/SAS power detector?

    • A.

      Roll.

    • B.

      Yaw.

    • C.

      Trim.

    • D.

      Pitch.

    Correct Answer
    B. Yaw.
  • 39. 

    On the A–10 aircraft, at what knots indicated airspeed (KIAS) is the yaw stability augmentation system (SAS) authority limited?

    • A.

      220 KIAS.

    • B.

      240 KIAS.

    • C.

      260 KIAS.

    • D.

      280 KIAS.

    Correct Answer
    B. 240 KIAS.
  • 40. 

    On the A–10 aircraft, pitch stability augmentation system (SAS) authority is mechanically limited to between

    • A.

      20° elevator trailing edge up and 10° elevator trailing edge down.

    • B.

      10° elevator trailing edge up and 10° elevator trailing edge down.

    • C.

      20° elevator trailing edge up and 5° elevator trailing edge down.

    • D.

      10° elevator trailing edge up and 5° elevator trailing edge down.

    Correct Answer
    C. 20° elevator trailing edge up and 5° elevator trailing edge down.
  • 41. 

    On an A–10, how much left and right elevator displacement difference is required before pitch Stability Augmentation System (SAS) is shut down?

    • A.

      2.5°.

    • B.

      3.2°.

    • C.

      0.5°.

    • D.

      0.95°.

    Correct Answer
    D. 0.95°.
  • 42. 

    On an A–10, the Stability Augmentation System (SAS) computer will drive the elevators trailing edge down between 0° and –3.5° to counteract a nose up pitch during

    • A.

      Speedbrake deployment.

    • B.

      Yaw SAS disengagement.

    • C.

      Lowering the landing gear.

    • D.

      Airspeed exceeding 255 knots indicated airspeed.

    Correct Answer
    A. Speedbrake deployment.
  • 43. 

    On an A–10, how much left and right rudder displacement difference is required before yaw Stability Augmentation System (SAS) is shut down?

    • A.

      0.5°.

    • B.

      0.95°.

    • C.

      2.5°.

    • D.

      3.2°.

    Correct Answer
    D. 3.2°.
  • 44. 

    Which inherent error results from the imperfect flexing of aneroid capsules and springs within the pitot-static system, and is present during rapid altitude changes and for a short time afterward?

    • A.

      Density.

    • B.

      Hysteresis.

    • C.

      Mechanical.

    • D.

      Compressibility.

    Correct Answer
    B. Hysteresis.
  • 45. 

    On the A–10, pitot icing can occur at a relatively slow rate and cause a gradual

    • A.

      Increase in indicated altitude.

    • B.

      Decrease in indicated altitude.

    • C.

      Increase in indicated airspeed.

    • D.

      Decrease in indicated airspeed.

    Correct Answer
    D. Decrease in indicated airspeed.
  • 46. 

    Pressure being applied to the front of the airplane as it moves through the air is represented by

    • A.

      Pitot pressure.

    • B.

      Static pressure.

    • C.

      Impact pressure.

    • D.

      Dynamic pressure.

    Correct Answer
    A. Pitot pressure.
  • 47. 

    The A–10 stick shaker activation warns the pilot of

    • A.

      Fuel quantity imbalance.

    • B.

      Impending stall conditions.

    • C.

      Attitude hold autopilot failure.

    • D.

      Left or right hydraulic failure.

    Correct Answer
    B. Impending stall conditions.
  • 48. 

    On the A–10 aircraft, to determine the stall margin, the alpha/Mach computer compares wing lift inputs received from the lift transducer with inputs from the

    • A.

      Stick shaker.

    • B.

      Pitot-static system.

    • C.

      Altitude/airspeed switch.

    • D.

      Slat electrical safety switch.

    Correct Answer
    B. Pitot-static system.
  • 49. 

    The A–10 stick shaker will activate when angle of attack (AOA) is 16° or more and the landing gear is up and locked with

    • A.

      Weight on wheels.

    • B.

      Weight off wheels.

    • C.

      Flaps extended to 7°.

    • D.

      Flaps extended to 20°.

    Correct Answer
    D. Flaps extended to 20°.
  • 50. 

    On the A–10 aircraft, which component prevents the situation awareness data link (SADL) radio and ARC–210–2 radio from interfering with one another?

    • A.

      VHF/UHF/SADL unit.

    • B.

      VHF/UHF/SADL blanker.

    • C.

      VHF/UHF/SADL diplexer.

    • D.

      VHF/UHF/SADL diode box.

    Correct Answer
    C. VHF/UHF/SADL diplexer.

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 11, 2015
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 03, 2015
    Quiz Created by
    Blake
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