Reviewer 1-3
- 1.
A customer-based Service Level Agreement structure includes:
- A.
An SLA covering all Customer groups and all the services they use
- B.
SLAs for each service that are Customer-focused and written in business language
- C.
An SLA for each service type, covering all those Customer groups that use that Service
- D.
An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the services they use
Correct Answer
D. An SLA with each individual Customer group, covering all of the services they use -
- 2.
Which of the following would normally be included in a Capacity Plan? 1 Options 2 Management summary 3 Business workload forecasts 4 Backout plans
- A.
2, 3 and 4
- B.
All of them
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3 -
- 3.
An IT department is seeking to set its prices to match those of external suppliers selling the same services. Which one of the following is the best description of this approach?
- A.
The going rate that is agreed with Customers
- B.
Market rate
- C.
Cost-plus
- D.
Profitable
Correct Answer
B. Market rate -
- 4.
Which of the following is not an element of Availability Management?
- A.
Verification
- B.
Security
- C.
Reliability
- D.
Maintainability
Correct Answer
A. Verification -
- 5.
The extent of CI information held in the CMDB should:
- A.
Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced to avoid spending a lot of money
- B.
Be as high level as possible
- C.
Match the organisation’s requirement for information to be held
- D.
Vary according to cost
Correct Answer
A. Be as detailed as possible so that frequent reports can be produced to avoid spending a lot of money -
- 6.
To enable a new Service Desk management tool to be implemented, the capacity of the servers has to be extended. Who is responsible for managing the request for additional capacity?
- A.
Service Level Manager
- B.
Capacity Manager
- C.
Change Manager
- D.
Financial Manager
Correct Answer
C. Change Manager -
- 7.
Which one of the following is NOT necessarily a direct benefit of implementing a formal Incident Management process?
- A.
Improved user satisfaction
- B.
Incident volume reduction
- C.
Elimination of lost incidents
- D.
Less disruption to both IT support staff and users
Correct Answer
B. Incident volume reduction -
- 8.
Configuration Management plans should be integrated with those of:
- A.
Change & Release Management
- B.
Service Level Management
- C.
IT Service Financial & Continuity Management.
- D.
Change & Capacity Management
Correct Answer
A. Change & Release Management -
- 9.
Possible problems with Change Management include:
- A.
Lack of ownership of impacted services
- B.
Increased visibility and communication of changes
- C.
Better alignment of IT services to actual business needs
- D.
The ability to absorb a larger volume of change
Correct Answer
A. Lack of ownership of impacted services -
- 10.
Which of the following activities is NOT included in the Operational Management stage of the Continuity Management Life-cycle?
- A.
Develop Procedures and Initial Testing
- B.
Education and Awareness
- C.
Review, Audit and Assurance
- D.
Ongoing Training and Testing
Correct Answer
A. Develop Procedures and Initial Testing -
- 11.
Which of the following are likely to be members of the CAB? 1 Problem Manager 2 Customer representatives 3 Change Manager 4 Senior IT technical managers
- A.
2 and 3 only
- B.
All of them
- C.
1, 2 &4
- D.
1, 3 &4
Correct Answer
B. All of them -
- 12.
Consider the following activities: 1 The analysis of raw data2 The identification of trends3 The definition of Service Management processes4 The implementation of preventive measuresWhich of the above should be easier after implementing a good IT Service Management software tool?
- A.
1, 2 & 4
- B.
2 & 3
- C.
All of them
- D.
None of them
Correct Answer
A. 1, 2 & 4 -
- 13.
The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an organisation resulting from disruption to critical business processes is:
- A.
Root Cause Analysis
- B.
Business Impact Analysis
- C.
Service Outage Analysis
- D.
Component Failure Impact Analysis
Correct Answer
B. Business Impact Analysis -
- 14.
Intermediate Recovery is initially concerned with which of the following time periods?
- A.
4 to 24 hours
- B.
More than 72 hours
- C.
24 to 72 hours
- D.
4 to 8 hours
Correct Answer
C. 24 to 72 hours -
- 15.
What is SOA within Availability Management?
- A.
System Optimisation Approach
- B.
Systematic Operational Adjustment
- C.
Serviceability of Applications
- D.
Service Outage Analysis
Correct Answer
D. Service Outage Analysis -
- 16.
Serviceability is an element of Availability Management. How is it best defined?
- A.
The prevention of failure, and the ability to keep services and components operable
- B.
The ability to restore services or components back to normal operation
- C.
The percentage of the agreed service hours for which the service is available
- D.
The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide for parts of the IT infrastructure
Correct Answer
D. The support which external suppliers can be contracted to provide for parts of the IT infrastructure -
- 17.
Which one of the following statements is NOT FALSE?
- A.
Depreciation is used to calculate how maintenance can be offset against tax
- B.
Staff costs are capital costs because of their high value
- C.
Cost centres are used to measure ROCE (Return on Capital Employed)
- D.
Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or activity
Correct Answer
D. Direct costs can be allocated to a single customer, service or activity -
- 18.
Which one of the following is NOT a major CI type?
- A.
Documentation
- B.
Software
- C.
Purchase order
- D.
Accommodation
Correct Answer
C. Purchase order -
- 19.
Where would the information relating to software release components be stored?
- A.
DSL
- B.
CMDB
- C.
AMDB
- D.
CDB
Correct Answer
B. CMDB -
- 20.
The following activities are involved in implementing a Service Management function: 1 Tool selection 2 Tool specification 3 Process design 4 Functional requirements analysisIn which order should the above activities be taken?
- A.
4 2 1 3
- B.
4 3 2 1
- C.
2 1 4 3
- D.
2 1 3 4
Correct Answer
B. 4 3 2 1 -
- 21.
Which of the following best describes the goal of Service Level Management?
- A.
To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirements
- B.
To provide IT services at the lowest possible cost by agreeing with Customers their minimum requirements for service availability and ensuring performance does not exceed these targets.
- C.
To provide the highest possible level of service to Customers and continuously improve on this through ensuring all services operate at maximum availability.
- D.
To ensure that IT delivers the same standard of service at the least cost
Correct Answer
A. To maintain and improve IT service quality in line with business requirements -
- 22.
The process to implement SLAs comprises of the following activities in sequence:
- A.
Draft SLAs, catalogue services, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLRs, negotiate, agree SLAs
- B.
Draft SLAs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate, catalogue services,
- C.
Review underpinning contracts and OLAs, draft SLAs, catalogue services, negotiate, agree SLAs
- D.
Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate service levels, agree SLAs
Correct Answer
D. Catalogue services, establish SLRs, review underpinning contracts and OLAs, negotiate service levels, agree SLAs -
- 23.
Which of the following statements is true?
- A.
An urgent release is always a delta release
- B.
A full release may contain package and delta releases
- C.
Package release may contain full and delta releases
- D.
A full release may contain several delta releases
Correct Answer
C. Package release may contain full and delta releases -
- 24.
Which of these best describes the purpose of Capacity Management?
- A.
To reduce costs and performance levels to a minimum
- B.
To ensure that there is always sufficient capacity available to meet all customer demands
- C.
To ensure that business demands are affordable and achievable
- D.
To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed service levels
Correct Answer
D. To provide cost-effective IT capacity to meet agreed service levels -
- 25.
A remote site has recently had its network upgraded. The users are now complaining of slow responses and have heard that this is due to problems with capacity. Who should they contact for assistance?
- A.
Network Management
- B.
The Service Desk
- C.
Capacity Management
- D.
Problem Management
Correct Answer
B. The Service Desk -
- 26.
Consider the following: 1 Incident diagnostic scripts 2 A knowledge base of previously recorded incidents 3 A Configuration Management Database covering the infrastructure supported 4 A Forward Schedule of ChangeWhich of the above should be available to the Service Desk?
- A.
All four
- B.
1&2
- C.
3&4
- D.
1, 2 &3
Correct Answer
A. All four -
- 27.
Which of these is NOT a recognised Service Desk structure?
- A.
Remedial Service Desk
- B.
Virtual Service Desk
- C.
Local Service Desk
- D.
Central Service Desk
Correct Answer
A. Remedial Service Desk -
- 28.
The wording of SLAs and OLAs should be
- A.
Technically focused, so that they may be understood by IT professionals
- B.
A mixture of business, technical and legal language, so that they can be understood by everyone
- C.
Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity.
- D.
Legally worded as they must be contractually binding
Correct Answer
C. Clear and concise, leaving no room for ambiguity. -
- 29.
Consider the following list: 1 Modelling 2 Risk Analysis 3 Application Sizing 4 DSL maintenanceWhich two from the above list are among the main responsibilities of Capacity Management?
- A.
1 & 2
- B.
1 & 3
- C.
3 & 4
- D.
2 & 4
Correct Answer
B. 1 & 3 -
- 30.
At what point does an Incident turn into a Problem?
- A.
When it is urgent
- B.
When it is a Major Incident
- C.
If the person reporting the incident is very senior
- D.
Never
Correct Answer
D. Never -
- 31.
There are strong links between Service Level Management and: 1 Incident Management 2 Availability Management 3 Configuration Management 4 IT Service Continuity Management 5 Change Management
- A.
1, 3 & 5
- B.
2 & 4
- C.
2, 3 & 5
- D.
All of them
Correct Answer
D. All of them -
- 32.
Does Problem Management depend entirely on having a mature Incident Management process in place?
- A.
Yes, because without a mature Incident Management process in place there is no reliable information available
- B.
No, because the quality of Incident Management information is of little importance to proactive Problem Management
- C.
No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems
- D.
Yes, because trend analysis cannot be undertaken without a lot of accurate Incident Management information
Correct Answer
C. No, because progress can still be made on solving long-standing Problems -
- 33.
The scope of a Release can best be defined by:
- A.
The RFCs that it satisfies
- B.
The number of updates to the OHS
- C.
Service Level metrics
- D.
The DSL configuration
Correct Answer
A. The RFCs that it satisfies -
- 34.
For which of these activities is the Change Manager responsible?
- A.
Chairing the CAB
- B.
Establishing the root cause of a Capacity Incident which has led to an RFC being raised
- C.
Devising the backout plan for a significant Change
- D.
Ensuring a Release has reached the target CIs
Correct Answer
A. Chairing the CAB -
- 35.
The Service Desk can act as the focal point for: 1 Receiving Incidents & Service Requests from users 2 Recording Change Requests from users 3 Handling complaints and queries
- A.
1 Only
- B.
2 Only
- C.
1 & 3
- D.
1, 2 & 3
Correct Answer
C. 1 & 3 -
- 36.
Which of these statements is true when deciding on the initial scope and depth of the information to be held in a CMDB?
- A.
You should try to capture as much information as possible about all types of CIs
- B.
You shouldn’t collect detailed information about CIs that are not under Change Control
- C.
You shouldn’t worry too much about Change Control; the main objective is to get the database loaded
- D.
You should try to satisfy all the wishes of the IT staff
Correct Answer
B. You shouldn’t collect detailed information about CIs that are not under Change Control -
- 37.
Within a CMDB, which relationships are most likely to exist between Incidents and Problems? 1 One Incident to one Problem 2 One Incident to many Problems 3 Many Incidents to one Problem
- A.
1 & 2only
- B.
2 & 3 only
- C.
1 & 3 only
- D.
All of them
Correct Answer
C. 1 & 3 only -
- 38.
Which of the following metrics is most relevant in determining the value added by Problem Management to the Service Desk?
- A.
The number of Problems raised
- B.
The number of Known Errors identified
- C.
The number of Problems correctly categorised
- D.
The number of RFCs raised
Correct Answer
B. The number of Known Errors identified -
- 39.
Which of these is a DIRECT benefit of having a Service Desk?
- A.
Customer Service Level Requirements are established
- B.
Changes taking place are properly coordinated
- C.
All the information in the CMDB is kept up to date.
- D.
Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted to deal with user’s calls
Correct Answer
D. Technical support staff are less likely to be interrupted to deal with user’s calls -
- 40.
An ‘unabsorbed’ cost is best described as:
- A.
A capital cost
- B.
A type of charging policy
- C.
An uplift to allocated costs
- D.
A revenue stream
Correct Answer
C. An uplift to allocated costs -
- 41.
Which of the following is NOT a step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model?
- A.
What is the vision?
- B.
Did we get there?
- C.
Is there budget?
- D.
Where are we now?
Correct Answer
C. Is there budget? -
- 42.
What is the RACI model used for?
- A.
Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity
- B.
Defining requirements for a new service or process
- C.
Analyzing the business impact of an incident
- D.
Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service Management
Correct Answer
A. Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a process or activity -
- 43.
What is the main reason for establishing a baseline?
- A.
To standardize operation
- B.
For knowing the cost of services provided
- C.
For roles and responsibility to be clear
- D.
For later comparison
Correct Answer
D. For later comparison -
- 44.
Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service Operation?
- A.
Through testing, to ensure that services are designed to meet business needs
- B.
To deliver and support IT services
- C.
To manage the technology used to deliver services
- D.
To monitor the performance of technology and processes
Correct Answer
A. Through testing, to ensure that services are designed to meet business needs -
- 45.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT about patterns of demand generated by the customer’s business?
- A.
They are driven by patterns of business activity
- B.
It is impossible to predict how they behave
- C.
It is impossible to influence demand patterns
- D.
They are driven by the delivery schedule generated by capacity management
Correct Answer
A. They are driven by patterns of business activity -
- 46.
Which of the following is NOT one of the ITIL core publications?
- A.
Service Optimization
- B.
Service Transition
- C.
Service Design
- D.
Service Strategy
Correct Answer
A. Service Optimization -
- 47.
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? 1. Only one person can be responsible for an activity 2. Only one person can be accountable for an activity
- A.
All of the above
- B.
1 only
- C.
2 only
- D.
None of the above
Correct Answer
C. 2 only -
- 48.
Which is the correct sequence of events in the selection of a technology tool?
- A.
Select Product, Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product
- B.
Selection Criteria, Requirements, Evaluate Product, Select Product
- C.
Requirements, Selection Criteria, Select Product, Evaluate Product
- D.
Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product, Select Product
Correct Answer
D. Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product, Select Product -
- 49.
Which of the following are the three main types of metrics as defined in Continual Service Improvement (CSI)? 1. Process Metrics 2. Supplier Metrics 3. Service Metrics 4. Technology Metrics 5. Business Metrics
- A.
1, 2 and 3
- B.
2, 4 and 5
- C.
1, 3 and 4
- D.
1, 2 and 4
Correct Answer
C. 1, 3 and 4 -
- 50.
The priority of an Incident refers to?
- A.
The relative importance of the Incident based on impact and urgency
- B.
The speed with which the Incident needs to be resolved
- C.
The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the Incident so that it is resolved in time
- D.
The escalation path that will be followed to ensure resolution of the incident
Correct Answer
A. The relative importance of the Incident based on impact and urgency -
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Mar 18, 2022Quiz Edited by
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