MCSE 70-291: Microsoft 70 291 Practice Questions

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MCSE 70-291: Microsoft 70 291 Practice Questions

MCSE 70-291:Implementing, Managing, and Maintaining a Server 2003 Network Infrastructure. These are practice questions for MCSE 70-291 that will help you prepare for the exam. The practice questions are based on Latest Microsoft MCSE Certification Exam pattern. Try these first followed by the MCSE practice exams.


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  • 1. 
    Which of the following is the correct duration for the first DHCP Renewal message to be sent by the client?
    • A. 

      50% of lease duration

    • B. 

      85% of lease duration

    • C. 

      After lease expiry

    • D. 

      Immediately after receiving the lease

  • 2. 
    When the DHCP is declining a clients’ renewal request, it informs so with the help of DHCPACK. T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 3. 
    A DHCP server running Windows Server 2003 initialize without authorization. T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 4. 
    Authorization of DHCP servers is not mandatory. T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 5. 
    When Active Directory is deployed you cannot implement UNIX based DHCP servers in the network. T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 6. 
    DHCP Authorization is a must to initialize DHCP servers in Active Directory environment. T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 7. 
    Which of the following is capable of authorizing a DHCP server?
    • A. 

      Windows 2000

    • B. 

      Windows NT Server 4.0

    • C. 

      Windows XP

    • D. 

      Windows Server 2003

  • 8. 
    Which of the following is used to seclude a range of IP addresses from getting assigned to clients on a network?
    • A. 

      MX

    • B. 

      Subnet mask

    • C. 

      Exclusion range

    • D. 

      Router

  • 9. 
    Which of the following property will assign a default gateway to a scope?
    • A. 

      Network IP address range

    • B. 

      Subnet mask

    • C. 

      Exclusion range

    • D. 

      Router

  • 10. 
    Which of the following differentiates a network portion from the host portion of the IP address for a given scope?
    • A. 

      Network IP address range

    • B. 

      Subnet mask

    • C. 

      Exclusion range

    • D. 

      Router

  • 11. 
    Which of the following options has the least impact on an entire scope when configured?
    • A. 

      Server-level option

    • B. 

      Scope-level option

    • C. 

      Class-level option

    • D. 

      Reserved client-level option

  • 12. 
    Which of the following can be used to classify clients on the network based on the hardware?
    • A. 

      Vendor-class level

    • B. 

      User-class level

    • C. 

      Scope level

    • D. 

      Reserved client level

  • 13. 
    It is mandatory for a DHCP relay agent to send broadcast messages to communicate with the DHCP server. T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 14. 
    In a network that has one main office and 4 branches, which of the following would you recommend?
    • A. 

      One DHCP server with 4 relay agents

    • B. 

      At least 2 DHCP servers and 4 relay agents.

    • C. 

      2 DHCP servers in the main office and one each in the branch.

    • D. 

      2 DHCP servers each for the branch as well as main offices

  • 15. 
    When a couple of subnets separate a DHCP server from the client, a hop count is significant factor for the client to reach the server. T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 16. 
    The __________factor helps to analyze the wait time required before transmitting DHCP request to a remote DHCP server when the local one is down.
    • A. 

      Network

    • B. 

      Boot threshold level

    • C. 

      Downtime

    • D. 

      Uptime

  • 17. 
    The DHCP server first grants the lease period to the client and then send the acknowledgement. T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 18. 
    Which of the following would help to configure hop count?
    • A. 

      DHCP Relay Properties

    • B. 

      RRAS console

    • C. 

      TCP?IP properties

    • D. 

      Routing table

  • 19. 
    • A. 

      DHCP.tmp

    • B. 

      DHCP.dbx

    • C. 

      DHCP.mdb

    • D. 

      DHCP.db

  • 20. 
    Why is it required to maintain the DHCP database as per schedule?
    • A. 

      Because it is a dynamic environment

    • B. 

      Because it is very inconsistent by default

    • C. 

      Because it is very susceptible to virus

    • D. 

      It can get corrupted very easily

  • 21. 
    Jetpack is used to backup the DHCP database. T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 22. 
    Which of the following will maintain a log of the DHCP database?
    • A. 

      DHCP.log

    • B. 

      J50.log

    • C. 

      Error.log

    • D. 

      Setup.log

  • 23. 
    When is a manual backup of the DHCP database necessary?
    • A. 

      When the DHCP server has just crashed

    • B. 

      When the DHCP server has just been installed

    • C. 

      As a precaution against database failure

    • D. 

      When the hard disk on which the DHCP service resides has been utilized to the maximum.

  • 24. 
    Which of the following will help you purge the remote NetBIOS names cache?
    • A. 

      Nbtstat –n command

    • B. 

      Nbtstat –A command

    • C. 

      Ipconfig/all command

    • D. 

      Nbtstat –R command

  • 25. 
    Which of the following is a service dedicated to resolving host names to IP address and vice versa?
    • A. 

      DNS

    • B. 

      Host file

    • C. 

      WINS

    • D. 

      LMHOSTS file

  • 26. 
    Which of the following will help you cler the DNS cache on the client side?
    • A. 

      Ipconfig/flushdns

    • B. 

      Ipconfig/displaydns

    • C. 

      Ipconfig/release

    • D. 

      Ipconfig/registerdns

  • 27. 
    How is a NetBIOS name resolved in the absence of a WINS service?
    • A. 

      Using the LMHOSTS service

    • B. 

      Using the hosts service

    • C. 

      Broadcasts

    • D. 

      Using hosts file

  • 28. 
    Which of the following is correct about a DNS query?
    • A. 

      It is a request that a DNS client resolver makes to a DNS server to obtain the IP address of a host name.

    • B. 

      It is a request to locate the DNS server.

    • C. 

      It is a request to maintain a session with the DNS server

    • D. 

      It is a request to terminate the existing session with the DNS server

  • 29. 
    A DNS resource record that points to the parent level is known as a SOA record. T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 30. 
    Which of the following is true about a forwarder?
    • A. 

      It is the DNS server designated to receive a request from another DNS that was unable to resolve a client query.

    • B. 

      The forwarder sends an iterative query to the root server to obtain an IP address from the name server.

    • C. 

      In an exclusive mode, if the forwarder fails to resolve a query, the name server resolves the query on its own.

    • D. 

      In a nonexclusive mode, if the forwarder fails to resolve a query, a query failure is returned to the requestor.

  • 31. 
    Which of the following is correct about the Resource Record (RR) type SOA?
    • A. 

      It identifies the DNS Servers for each zone to facilitate delegation.

    • B. 

      It identifies the primary DNS name server for a zone.

    • C. 

      It locates the DNS name corresponding to an IP address.

    • D. 

      It represents a computer or a device on a network.

  • 32. 
    Which of the following is possible only on an ADS environment?
    • A. 

      Allow only secure dynamic updates

    • B. 

      Allow both non-secure and secure dynamic updates

    • C. 

      Do not allow dynamic updates

    • D. 

      Do not allow secure updates

  • 33. 
    Which of the following is a read-only copy of the original zone?
    • A. 

      Primary zone

    • B. 

      Secondary zone

    • C. 

      Stub zone

    • D. 

      Reverse lookup zone

  • 34. 
    Which of the following provides and IP address--to--host name mapping?
    • A. 

      Forward lookup

    • B. 

      Reverse lookup zone

    • C. 

      Stub zone

    • D. 

      Secondary zone

  • 35. 
    The DNS service in Windows Server 2003 environment is not capable of Incremental updation. T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 36. 
    Which of the following is mandatory before the secondary server can pull its updates from the Primary DNS?
    • A. 

      A notification message from any DNS zone

    • B. 

      A notification message from the DC

    • C. 

      A notification message from master DNS servers

    • D. 

      A notify message sent from any secondary DNS server

  • 37. 
    Which of the following statements is true of master DNS servers?
    • A. 

      It is the server responsible for sending update notifications and updates to the secondary server.

    • B. 

      It is nothing but the Root DNS server

    • C. 

      It could be any secondary server hosting a secondary zone

    • D. 

      It is an extension of the DDNS service

  • 38. 
    DDNS is recommended for all networks today irrespective of their size. T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 39. 
    Which of the following best describe DDNS?
    • A. 

      It integrates DHCP information for update process

    • B. 

      It relies only on the OS for update process

    • C. 

      It is nothing but DNS with additional PERL scripts running for better efficiency

    • D. 

      It is a process used in windows NT 4.0 and is obsolete now

  • 40. 
    Which of the statements is correct about secure dynamic update?
    • A. 

      It is attempted only if the client can prove its identity and has proper credentials to make the update.

    • B. 

      It is not available if the server is using the Active directory service.

    • C. 

      It is available if Active Directory--integrated DNS zones are not configured.

    • D. 

      It is the most secure method of manually updating resource records.

  • 41. 
    SOA acts as a proxy for downward compatible clients of DNS. T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 42. 
    Which of the following is required by a client that is intending to self-register itself with a DNS server?
    • A. 

      Use this connection’s DNS suffix in DNS registration

    • B. 

      Register this connection’s addresses in DNS

    • C. 

      Append these DNS suffixes

    • D. 

      Append parent suffixes of the primary DNS suffix

  • 43. 
    Which of the statements is correct about an Active Directory-integrated DNS zone?
    • A. 

      It allows secure dynamic updates.

    • B. 

      It allows only non-secure updates.

    • C. 

      It does not allow dynamic update.

    • D. 

      It can be done only on read-only zones.

  • 44. 
    Which of the following is true about DNS client configuration?
    • A. 

      It can take only one DNS server

    • B. 

      It can lead to confusion when two DNS servers are metnioned

    • C. 

      It can query a DNS server without a preferred DNS server.

    • D. 

      The Connection Specific Suffix assigns a space to configure a DNS suffix for a particular connection.

  • 45. 
    TTL is set for a zone that has been deleted and waiting to be purged. T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 46. 
    IPSec can be implemented on IP and IPX networks. T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 47. 
    Which of the following cannot be secured by IPSec?
    • A. 

      Authentication

    • B. 

      Data transfer

    • C. 

      Unencrypted data.

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 48. 
    Which of the following would you use to apply IPSec policies?
    • A. 

      Domain Admin console.

    • B. 

      IP Security Console

    • C. 

      Replication monitor

    • D. 

      Command prompt

  • 49. 
    Which of the following does an IPSec certificate contain?
    • A. 

      CA related information

    • B. 

      Private keys

    • C. 

      Tokens

    • D. 

      Digital Signature

  • 50. 
    Which of the statements is correct about certificates?
    • A. 

      They help to authenticate as well encrypt data

    • B. 

      They are an improvisation over Kerberos

    • C. 

      They are restricted to LAN.

    • D. 

      It can be deployed only to authenticate ADS objects.

  • 51. 
    When troubleshooting communication problems while testing IPSec policies implementation, which of the following must be done to eliminate connectivity as a problem?
    • A. 

      Test connectivity with just clear text password and no IPSec policy in place.

    • B. 

      Re-apply all policies again.

    • C. 

      Review the policies on the computers and ensure that they are compatible with each other.

    • D. 

      Verify that the policies are assigned to both ends.

  • 52. 
    Which of the following would you be verifying when restarting the IPSec Policy Agent?
    • A. 

      Connectivity between computers

    • B. 

      Acceptance of policies between both ends

    • C. 

      Security association

    • D. 

      Correctness of IPSec policies

  • 53. 
    Which of the statements is correct about the network authentication service?
    • A. 

      It is meant to secure authentication only.

    • B. 

      It is meant to secure data transmission only

    • C. 

      It is meant to secure authentication as well as data transmission

    • D. 

      It cannot either secure authentication or data transmission.

  • 54. 
    RADIUS is just an enhancement of the RAS server. T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False.

  • 55. 
    _____ uses RADIUS technology and is popularly used on the Microsoft OS platform
    • A. 

      Kerberos

    • B. 

      IAS

    • C. 

      MSN

  • 56. 
    Which of the following is necessary when configuring Remote Access environment?
    • A. 

      A dedicated IP addresses range for the remote clients

    • B. 

      A dedicated DHCP server for the remote clients.

    • C. 

      Static IP addresses for the remote clients

    • D. 

      RAS must be a DHCP client.

  • 57. 
    PAP uses a two-way handshake. T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 58. 
    Which of the following is used for smart cards?
    • A. 

      MSCHAP v2

    • B. 

      EAP-TLS

    • C. 

      PEAP

    • D. 

      MD-5 Challenge

  • 59. 
    Which of the options enables you to display the description and last modified date of the IPSec policy?
    • A. 

      Active Policy

    • B. 

      Main Mode

    • C. 

      Quick Mode

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 60. 
    Which of the following can be used to view active IPSec policies being used in the network?
    • A. 

      Netsh

    • B. 

      Netdiag

    • C. 

      IP Security Monitor console

    • D. 

      Group Policy Verification tool

  • 61. 
    Which of the following is the most strict auditing measure to inspect IPSec policy modification?
    • A. 

      Enable success auditing for the Audit policy change audit policy for your domain

    • B. 

      Enable success auditing for the Audit privilege use audit policy for your domain

    • C. 

      Enable success and failure auditing for the Audit privilege use audit policy for your domain

    • D. 

      Enable success and failure auditing for the Audit policy change audit policy for your domain.

  • 62. 
    Which of the following will ensure only valid users on the network receive the IP lease from DHCP server on the network?
    • A. 

      1920 Catalyst switches

    • B. 

      Use 802.1.X-enabled LAN switches for connecting to the network

    • C. 

      SOHO switches

    • D. 

      Access points

  • 63. 
    Which f the following is necessary for the DHCP server security?
    • A. 

      Secure updates

    • B. 

      Dynamic updates

    • C. 

      Database maintenance

    • D. 

      Regular deletion of audit log files

  • 64. 
    Which of the tools can be used to view the auditing results?
    • A. 

      Event Viewer

    • B. 

      Network Monitor

    • C. 

      System Properties

    • D. 

      Task Manager

  • 65. 
    Which of the following may be necessary on the client side once you have made some changes on to the existing IPSec policies?
    • A. 

      Reboot the client computer

    • B. 

      Reboot member servers

    • C. 

      Restart IPSec Policy Agent

    • D. 

      Restart the root DC

  • 66. 
    Which of the following will help with compatibility issues when applying IPSec policies on downward compatibility clients?
    • A. 

      Restart the member server on which the policies reside

    • B. 

      Apply the Compatws.inf security template on the server

    • C. 

      Apply the Securews.inf security template on the server

    • D. 

      Apply the Hisecdc.inf security template on a domain controller

  • 67. 
    Which of the following will help you audit VPN connections?
    • A. 

      Netsh

    • B. 

      Netdiag

    • C. 

      Ipseccmd

    • D. 

      System Monitor

  • 68. 
    Which of the following can be used to view the IPSec settings on Windows 2003 servers?
    • A. 

      Perfmon.exe

    • B. 

      Gpedit.msc

    • C. 

      Netmon.exe

    • D. 

      Ipsecmon.exe

  • 69. 
    Which of the following can be used to capture and monitor network traffic in Wi-Fi environment?
    • A. 

      Performance monitor

    • B. 

      Network monitor

    • C. 

      Wireless monitor

    • D. 

      System monitor

  • 70. 
    NetBIOS is a routable protocol. T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 71. 
    Which of the following are features of a router?
    • A. 

      Routers share the information stored in routing table.

    • B. 

      Routing is a way of assigning default gateway to the clients

    • C. 

      Routers broadcast physical addresses to remote networks

    • D. 

      Routers can understand IP based protocols only

  • 72. 
    Which of the following is the default protocol used by Microsoft for tunneling with IPSec on Windows Server 2003 networks?
    • A. 

      PPTP

    • B. 

      L2TP.

    • C. 

      NTTP

    • D. 

      HTTP

  • 73. 
    Which of the statements best describe a routing protocol?
    • A. 

      It is a logical interface used by the router.

    • B. 

      It is a set of common rules agreed by a group of routers and can understand network addresses

    • C. 

      It is a physical layer protocol

    • D. 

      It is a Datalink layer protocol

  • 74. 
    Which of the statements is correct about routing interface?
    • A. 

      It is a physical interface (Ethernet or Serial) that interfaces Layer 2 of the LAN to the router.

    • B. 

      It is an Ethernet interface only

    • C. 

      It is a serial interface only.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 75. 
    Which of the following is a rule that governs the application of packet filters?
    • A. 

      Verification of source address of the incoming packet is a must

    • B. 

      Verification of destination address of the incoming packet is a must

    • C. 

      Verification of application type of the incoming packet is a must

    • D. 

      Calculating header size of the incoming packet is a must

  • 76. 
    Which of the following is implicitly specified in packet filtering rules?
    • A. 

      Allow any

    • B. 

      Deny all

    • C. 

      Allow all

    • D. 

      Deny any

  • 77. 
    Which of the following protocols s used for a dial-up connection on Microsoft networks?
    • A. 

      SLIP

    • B. 

      PPP

    • C. 

      PPTP

    • D. 

      L2TP

  • 78. 
    Which of the following statements are true about VPN connection?
    • A. 

      It uses private networks for connection

    • B. 

      It uses dedicated lines for communication.

    • C. 

      It uses tunneling protocols and encryption protocols that allow secure information to be transmitted through public networks.

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 79. 
    Which of the following services accepts dial-in connection on a Microsoft network?
    • A. 

      RAS

    • B. 

      RPC

    • C. 

      Server

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 80. 
    Which of the following will a System Monitor help you to do?
    • A. 

      Capture events in the wireless network

    • B. 

      View the information logged by the Wireless configuration service

    • C. 

      Generate alerts to administrator

    • D. 

      Gather performance real time data of specific network components

  • 81. 
    System Monitor enables you to collect specific performance data for network components and services for a specified time period.T/F?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 82. 
    Which of the following counters can be used to monitor the network activity on all types of servers?
    • A. 

      A. Memory, Processor, Network, and Disk

    • B. 

      B. Disk read/write

    • C. 

      C. Processor% time

    • D. 

      D. CPU utilization