702 Hardware, Networking, Security, OS

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Networking Hardware Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    An 80-wire PATA cable allows for which Slave/Master configuration?

    • A.

      Slave in the Center / Master on the end

    • B.

      Master in the center / Slave on the end

    • C.

      Cable Select doesn't require this

    Correct Answer
    A. Slave in the Center / Master on the end
    Explanation
    An 80-wire PATA cable allows for the Slave in the Center / Master on the end configuration because it has a specific design that enables the transfer of data between the devices connected to it. The center connector is used for the slave device, while the end connector is used for the master device. This configuration ensures proper communication and data transfer between the two devices.

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  • 2. 

    A 40-wire PATA cable allows for which Slave / Master configuration?

    • A.

      Slave in the Center / Master on the end

    • B.

      Master in the center / Slave on the end

    • C.

      Cable Select doesn't require this

    Correct Answer
    B. Master in the center / Slave on the end
    Explanation
    A 40-wire PATA cable allows for the configuration where the master device is connected in the center of the cable and the slave device is connected on the end of the cable. This configuration is commonly used in older computer systems that use Parallel ATA (PATA) technology to connect devices such as hard drives and optical drives. The master device is typically the primary device, while the slave device is the secondary device. This configuration allows for proper communication and data transfer between the devices.

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  • 3. 

    How do you remember the 40-wire / 80-wire Master/Slave configuration?

    • A.

      Newer configurations are 80-wire. Pretend the center is the safest choice and Slaves have first choice

    • B.

      Slaves are never free and have been permanently designated to the end where it is least safe

    • C.

      Why should I care?

    Correct Answer
    A. Newer configurations are 80-wire. Pretend the center is the safest choice and Slaves have first choice
    Explanation
    The correct answer explains that in newer configurations, the 80-wire setup is used. To remember this, one can pretend that the center is the safest choice and that Slaves have the first choice. This mnemonic device helps to recall the correct configuration for the 80-wire Master/Slave setup.

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  • 4. 

    What is the name of the special little chip in every memory module that provides information about the memory module?

    • A.

      SPF (Serial Presence Format)

    • B.

      SPD (Serial Presence Detect)

    • C.

      SAM (Serial Authentication Manual)

    Correct Answer
    B. SPD (Serial Presence Detect)
    Explanation
    The special little chip in every memory module that provides information about the memory module is called SPD (Serial Presence Detect). This chip stores vital information such as the module's manufacturer, size, speed, voltage, and timing parameters. This information is crucial for the system to properly recognize and configure the memory module. The SPD chip is accessed by the system during the boot process to ensure optimal performance and compatibility.

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  • 5. 

    Identify the Neutral prong on a US electrical outlet

    • A.

      Upper left (bigger)

    • B.

      Bottom Center

    • C.

      Upper Right (Smaller)

    Correct Answer
    A. Upper left (bigger)
    Explanation
    The neutral prong on a US electrical outlet is typically identified by the upper left position, which is also bigger in size compared to the other prongs. This prong is responsible for carrying the return current from the electrical device back to the power source.

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  • 6. 

    Identify the Hot prong on a US electrical outle

    • A.

      Upper left (bigger)

    • B.

      Bottom Center

    • C.

      Upper Right (Smaller)

    Correct Answer
    C. Upper Right (Smaller)
    Explanation
    The hot prong on a US electrical outlet is identified as the upper right (smaller) prong. This is because in the US, electrical outlets follow a standard configuration known as "polarized" plugs, where the wider slot is the neutral prong and the narrower slot is the hot prong. The upper right slot is smaller, indicating that it is the hot prong.

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  • 7. 

    What type of current comes from the Power company?

    • A.

      Alternating Curent

    • B.

      Direct Current

    • C.

      Direct Voltage

    Correct Answer
    B. Direct Current
    Explanation
    Direct current (DC) is the type of current that comes from the power company. Unlike alternating current (AC), which periodically changes direction, direct current flows continuously in one direction. This is the type of current commonly used in batteries and electronic devices. It is often preferred for applications that require a steady and constant flow of electricity, such as in certain industrial processes or for powering sensitive electronic equipment.

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  • 8. 

    What is CPU burnin?

    • A.

      A theory that uses software to push a CPU to its max over a period of 12-14 hours to get the CPU to run at its max performance

    • B.

      A theory that pushes the CPU to fail to see how far it can go

    • C.

      A theory that overclocks the CPU for gaming purposes

    Correct Answer
    A. A theory that uses software to push a CPU to its max over a period of 12-14 hours to get the CPU to run at its max performance
    Explanation
    CPU burnin is a theory that involves using software to continuously stress a CPU for an extended period of time, typically 12-14 hours. The purpose of this process is to test the CPU's maximum performance capabilities and ensure that it can operate at its peak level without any issues or failures. By subjecting the CPU to prolonged high-intensity workloads, any potential weaknesses or flaws in its design can be identified and addressed. This helps ensure that the CPU is reliable and can perform optimally under heavy usage conditions.

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  • 9. 

    What are the startup options on the Windows Vista Install Disk?

    • A.

      Startup / Repair

    • B.

      System Restore

    • C.

      Windows Complete PC Restore

    • D.

      Windows Memory Diagnostic Tool

    • E.

      Command Prompt

    • F.

      Safe Mode

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Startup / Repair
    B. System Restore
    C. Windows Complete PC Restore
    D. Windows Memory Diagnostic Tool
    E. Command Prompt
    Explanation
    The startup options on the Windows Vista Install Disk include Startup/Repair, System Restore, Windows Complete PC Restore, Windows Memory Diagnostic Tool, Command Prompt, and Safe Mode. These options are available to users during the installation process and can be used to troubleshoot and repair various issues with the operating system. Startup/Repair is used to automatically fix problems that prevent Windows from starting, System Restore allows users to restore their computer to a previous working state, Windows Complete PC Restore is used to restore a full system backup, Windows Memory Diagnostic Tool is used to check for memory problems, Command Prompt provides a command-line interface for advanced troubleshooting, and Safe Mode starts Windows with a minimal set of drivers and services for troubleshooting purposes.

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  • 10. 

    What is the standard specification that allows an operating system to communicate with, and to control the power distribution to peripherals, such as hard drives.

    • A.

      PCI

    • B.

      ACPI

    • C.

      APM

    Correct Answer
    B. ACPI
    Explanation
    ACPI stands for Advanced Configuration and Power Interface. It is a standard specification that enables an operating system to communicate with and control the power distribution to peripherals, including hard drives. ACPI allows the operating system to manage power resources efficiently by providing features such as power management, device configuration, and system control. It is widely used in modern computer systems to ensure optimal power usage and control over peripherals.

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  • 11. 

    What laptop switch togges between the Video output and the LCD?

    • A.

      Function Key and F6

    • B.

      LCD switch

    • C.

      There is no switch

    Correct Answer
    B. LCD switch
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "LCD switch." This suggests that there is a specific switch on the laptop that toggles between the video output and the LCD screen. This switch allows the user to choose whether they want the display to be shown on an external monitor or on the laptop's built-in LCD screen.

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  • 12. 

    What is the Windows Vista feature that allows you to configure what devices will use autorun?

    • A.

      Control Panel > Auto Run

    • B.

      Control Panel > Auto Play

    • C.

      Start > Programs > Auto Run

    Correct Answer
    B. Control Panel > Auto Play
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Control Panel > Auto Play. Auto Play is a Windows Vista feature that allows users to configure which devices will use the autorun functionality. This feature can be accessed through the Control Panel settings.

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  • 13. 

    How do you re-configure Windows Vista UAC?

    Correct Answer
    Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Local Security Policy Console
    Explanation
    To re-configure Windows Vista UAC, you need to access the Control Panel, then navigate to the Administrative Tools section, and finally open the Local Security Policy Console. This console allows you to modify the settings related to User Account Control (UAC) in Windows Vista.

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  • 14. 

    True or False?NTFS permissions apply to local and network network connections

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    NTFS permissions indeed apply to both local and network connections. NTFS (New Technology File System) is a file system used by Windows operating systems. It provides a way to control access and permissions for files and folders. These permissions can be applied to both local drives and network drives, allowing administrators to manage access rights for users accessing files and folders on both local and network connections.

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  • 15. 

    Share permissions only apply to connections over the network

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Share permissions are used to control access to shared resources, such as files and folders, over a network. These permissions determine what actions users can perform on the shared resource when accessing it remotely. They do not apply to local access or direct access to the resource. Therefore, share permissions only apply to connections made over the network, making the statement "Share permissions only apply to connections over the network" true.

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  • 16. 

    A combination of NTFS and share permissions give you what is called Effective Permissions

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A combination of NTFS and share permissions allows you to determine the effective permissions for a user or group. NTFS permissions control access to files and folders on a local computer, while share permissions control access to shared folders over a network. By combining these two types of permissions, you can determine the exact level of access that a user or group has to a particular resource.

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  • 17. 

    Regarding permissions, the most restrictive wins

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    This statement means that when it comes to permissions, the most restrictive permission takes precedence over less restrictive ones. In other words, if there are multiple permissions set for a certain action or resource, the permission with the most limitations or restrictions will be enforced. This ensures that the highest level of security and control is maintained by prioritizing the most restrictive permission settings.

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  • 18. 

    Permissions are inherited from the parent object

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Permissions being inherited from the parent object means that any permissions assigned to the parent object will automatically apply to its child objects. In other words, if a user has certain permissions on a parent object, they will also have those same permissions on any child objects underneath it. This allows for easier management of permissions, as changes made at the parent level will automatically propagate down to all child objects. Therefore, the correct answer is true.

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  • 19. 

    If you move a folder to a different folder on the same drive, the permissions do not change from the old folder.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    When a folder is moved to a different folder on the same drive, the permissions associated with the original folder are retained. This means that the permissions do not change and remain the same as they were in the old folder. Therefore, the answer is true.

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  • 20. 

    Hidden shares are indicated by the $.  i.e. C$

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Hidden shares in Windows operating systems are denoted by a dollar sign ($) at the end of the share name. These hidden shares are not visible when browsing the network, but they can still be accessed by directly entering the share name in the file explorer or by using the UNC path. Therefore, the statement "Hidden shares are indicated by the $." is true.

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  • 21. 

    What is BitLocker?

    • A.

      Encryptes entire volumes in Windows Vista Enterprise and Ultimate

    • B.

      Encypting tool in Windows XP

    • C.

      A small storage container

    Correct Answer
    A. Encryptes entire volumes in Windows Vista Enterprise and Ultimate
    Explanation
    BitLocker is a feature in Windows Vista Enterprise and Ultimate that allows users to encrypt entire volumes. This means that all the data stored on the volume is protected and can only be accessed with the appropriate encryption key. BitLocker provides an added layer of security for sensitive information, ensuring that it remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access.

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  • 22. 

    BitLocker (Windows Vista Enterprise and Ultimate) encryptes and then store the encryption keys in the TPM CHIP (Trusted Platform Module)

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    BitLocker, a feature available in Windows Vista Enterprise and Ultimate editions, indeed encrypts data and stores the encryption keys in the TPM chip (Trusted Platform Module). The TPM chip is a hardware component that provides secure storage and processing of sensitive information, such as encryption keys, ensuring that they are protected from unauthorized access. By utilizing the TPM chip, BitLocker enhances the security of the encrypted data by tying it to the specific hardware configuration of the device, making it more difficult for attackers to gain unauthorized access to the data.

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  • 23. 

    To prevent access to the BIOS setup utility, the Supervisior password can be set

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because setting a Supervisor password is one of the ways to prevent access to the BIOS setup utility. The Supervisor password acts as a security measure, requiring anyone attempting to access the BIOS to enter the correct password. This helps to protect the system settings and configurations from unauthorized changes or tampering.

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  • 24. 

    The User Password in CMOS prevents unauthorized individuals to boot up the computer.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The User Password in CMOS is a security feature that prevents unauthorized individuals from booting up the computer. It acts as a barrier by requiring a password to be entered before the computer can start up. This ensures that only authorized users have access to the system and protects sensitive data from being accessed or modified by unauthorized individuals. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 25. 

    Devices can be disabled in the BIOS to prevent unauthorized use

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In the BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) settings of a device, there is an option to disable certain functionalities or components. This can be done to prevent unauthorized use of the device. By disabling specific devices in the BIOS, such as USB ports or network adapters, it becomes more difficult for unauthorized users to gain access to the device or its data. This security measure is commonly used in organizations or institutions where there is a need to restrict access to certain features of the device.

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  • 26. 

    A NAT is a device (i.e. Netgear Firewall Router) that assigns ip addresses to all other devices withing the network (i.e. SOHO) but in turn provides only one ip address for all to the internet.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A NAT (Network Address Translation) is a device, such as a Netgear Firewall Router, that assigns unique IP addresses to all devices within a network, typically a small office or home office (SOHO) network. However, when these devices communicate with the internet, the NAT provides only one IP address for all devices, allowing them to share a single public IP address. This helps conserve IPv4 addresses and adds an extra layer of security by hiding the individual device IP addresses from the internet. Therefore, the statement "A NAT is a device that assigns IP addresses to all other devices within the network but provides only one IP address for all to the internet" is true.

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  • 27. 

    What are the two address translation processes provided by a NAT (router/firewall)?

    • A.

      SNAT (Source NAT) converts large number of internal IPAs to one external

    • B.

      DNAT (Destination NAT) converts external IPAs to internal IPA

    • C.

      DNAT (converts water into wine)

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. SNAT (Source NAT) converts large number of internal IPAs to one external
    B. DNAT (Destination NAT) converts external IPAs to internal IPA
    Explanation
    SNAT (Source NAT) is a process provided by a NAT (Network Address Translation) router/firewall that converts a large number of internal IP addresses (IPAs) to one external IP address. This allows multiple devices within a network to share a single public IP address when communicating with external networks.

    DNAT (Destination NAT) is another process provided by a NAT router/firewall that converts external IP addresses to internal IP addresses. This allows incoming packets from external networks to be correctly routed to the appropriate internal device based on the destination IP address.

    These two address translation processes work together to enable communication between devices on a private network and external networks while preserving the limited availability of public IP addresses.

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  • 28. 

    Which protocol is used to automatically assign TCP/IP configuration information?

    • A.

      DNS

    • B.

      DHCP

    • C.

      NetBIOS

    Correct Answer
    B. DHCP
    Explanation
    DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is used to automatically assign TCP/IP configuration information. DHCP allows devices to obtain an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and other network configuration parameters automatically. This eliminates the need for manual configuration of network settings, making it convenient for users and administrators. DNS (Domain Name System) is responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses, while NetBIOS (Network Basic Input/Output System) is an older protocol used for communication between computers on a local network.

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  • 29. 

    For FTP the logon name is usually defaulted to 'Anonymous'

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a standard network protocol used to transfer files between a client and a server on a computer network. When logging into an FTP server, the logon name is often defaulted to 'Anonymous'. This means that users can log in without providing a specific username or password. This feature is commonly used for public FTP servers that allow anonymous access to publicly available files. Therefore, the given statement is true.

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  • 30. 

    What is a significant configuration consideration for a workstation when using proxies?

    • A.

      A proxy connection only works on Internet Explorer

    • B.

      Each application must be configured to use the proxy

    • C.

      Proxies must be manualy configured

    Correct Answer
    B. Each application must be configured to use the proxy
    Explanation
    When using proxies on a workstation, it is important to consider that each application must be configured to use the proxy. This means that the proxy settings need to be manually configured for each individual application that requires internet access. Simply having a proxy connection set up on Internet Explorer will not automatically apply the proxy settings to other applications on the workstation. Therefore, it is necessary to configure each application separately to ensure that they use the proxy for their internet communication.

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  • 31. 

    What command line tool sends a request to a another device and receives a reply back?

    • A.

      Netstat

    • B.

      PInG

    • C.

      Ipconfig

    Correct Answer
    B. PInG
    Explanation
    Ping is a command line tool that sends a request, known as an ICMP Echo Request, to another device on a network and waits for a reply, known as an ICMP Echo Reply. This tool is commonly used to test network connectivity and determine the round-trip time for data packets to travel between devices. Therefore, Ping is the correct answer as it accurately describes the command line tool that sends a request and receives a reply back from another device.

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  • 32. 

    What does the TTL result in the PING command define? (TTL=52)

    • A.

      Timed event of server packets sent to each router

    • B.

      Time of packets sent back

    • C.

      A timer value included in packets sent over TCP/IP-based networks that tells the recipients how long to hold or use the packet or any of its included data before expiring and discarding the packet or data

    Correct Answer
    C. A timer value included in packets sent over TCP/IP-based networks that tells the recipients how long to hold or use the packet or any of its included data before expiring and discarding the packet or data
    Explanation
    The TTL (Time to Live) result in the PING command defines a timer value included in packets sent over TCP/IP-based networks. This value tells the recipients how long to hold or use the packet or any of its included data before expiring and discarding the packet or data.

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  • 33. 

    What command line allows you to determine how many hops (routers) a data packet when thru to be sent and then received back, including response times?

    • A.

      Netstat

    • B.

      Ipconfig

    • C.

      Tracert

    Correct Answer
    C. Tracert
    Explanation
    Tracert is the correct answer because it is a command line tool that allows you to determine the number of hops (routers) a data packet goes through to be sent and then received back. It also provides information about the response times of each hop, helping to diagnose network connectivity issues. Netstat is a command line tool used for displaying active network connections and listening ports, while ipconfig is used for displaying the IP configuration of a network interface.

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  • 34. 

    To remember the function fo Tracert, think of it as Trace Route - traces the route a packet takes from you thru all the routers (hops) and then back to you

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that Tracert is a network diagnostic tool that traces the route a packet takes from the source to the destination. It sends out packets with increasing Time-To-Live (TTL) values and records the IP addresses of the routers (hops) that the packets pass through. This information helps in identifying any network issues or bottlenecks along the route. Therefore, the statement that Tracert traces the route a packet takes from the user through all the routers (hops) and then back to the user is true.

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  • 35. 

    What command line interface allows you to lookup a device DNS name and see what its IPA is?

    • A.

      Tracert

    • B.

      NSLookup

    • C.

      Netstat

    Correct Answer
    B. NSLookup
    Explanation
    NSLookup is the correct answer because it is a command line interface that allows you to lookup a device DNS name and see what its IP address (IPA) is. This tool is commonly used for troubleshooting network connectivity and DNS-related issues by querying DNS servers to retrieve information about domain names and IP addresses. Tracert is used to trace the route that packets take to reach a destination, while Netstat displays active network connections and listening ports.

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  • 36. 

    What command line interface allows you to see what active connections your computer is using?

    • A.

      Netstat

    • B.

      NSLookup

    • C.

      Tracert

    Correct Answer
    A. Netstat
    Explanation
    Netstat is a command line interface that allows users to see the active connections their computer is using. It provides information about the network connections, including the local and foreign addresses, protocol, state, and more. By using netstat, users can monitor network activities, identify open ports, and troubleshoot network issues. NSLookup is used to query DNS servers for IP address information, while Tracert is used to trace the route taken by packets across an IP network.

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  • 37. 

    What command line interface is used to update, fix, or view the device and network or network settings?

    • A.

      NETUSE

    • B.

      NET

    • C.

      NETSTAT

    Correct Answer
    A. NETUSE
    Explanation
    NETUSE is not the correct answer for this question. The correct answer is NET, which is a command line interface used to update, fix, or view the device and network settings. NETUSE is not a valid command line interface. NETSTAT is also a command line interface, but it is used to display active network connections and listening ports, not to update or fix network settings.

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  • 38. 

    IPConfig displays IPA, Subnet Mask, and Default Gateway

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    IPConfig is a command-line tool used to display the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway of a computer's network interface. This information is crucial for troubleshooting network connectivity issues and configuring network settings. Therefore, the given statement is true as IPConfig does indeed display the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway.

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  • 39. 

    Ipconfig /all displays IPA, Subnet Mask, Default Gateway, Computer name (Host), MAC address, DNS Server address

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true. When the command "ipconfig /all" is used in the command prompt, it displays various network configuration information including the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, computer name (host), MAC address, and DNS server address.

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  • 40. 

    What program or protocol allows you to remotely access a device in a console mode?

    • A.

      Remote Access

    • B.

      Remote Desktop

    • C.

      Telnet

    Correct Answer
    C. Telnet
    Explanation
    Telnet is a program or protocol that enables remote access to a device in console mode. It allows users to establish a connection to a remote device and access its command-line interface. Through Telnet, users can remotely manage and control the device, execute commands, configure settings, and troubleshoot issues. This makes it a valuable tool for system administrators and network engineers who need to remotely access and manage devices without physically being present at the location.

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  • 41. 

    Telnet is an unencrypted communication.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Telnet is an unencrypted communication protocol that allows users to remotely access and manage devices or systems over a network. This means that any data transmitted through Telnet is not secured and can be intercepted by malicious actors. It is recommended to use encrypted protocols like SSH (Secure Shell) instead of Telnet to ensure the confidentiality and integrity of the communication.

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  • 42. 

    SSH (Secure Shell) looks and acts the same as Telnet, but is an encrypted communication link.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    SSH (Secure Shell) is a network protocol that allows secure remote access to a computer or server. It provides a secure and encrypted communication link between the client and the server, ensuring that data transmitted over the network cannot be intercepted or tampered with. Telnet, on the other hand, is an unencrypted protocol that sends data in plain text, making it vulnerable to eavesdropping and unauthorized access. Therefore, the statement that SSH looks and acts the same as Telnet but is an encrypted communication link is true.

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  • 43. 

    Which suite of commands provides information about the Windows network?

    • A.

      NETUSE

    • B.

      NET

    • C.

      NETOP

    Correct Answer
    B. NET
    Explanation
    The NET suite of commands provides information about the Windows network. These commands can be used to view network connections, display network statistics, and manage network resources. NETUSE is not a valid command and does not provide network information. Similarly, NETOP is also not a valid command for obtaining network information.

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  • 44. 

    What Web communication protocol provides encryption and shows a small lock in the corner of your browser?

    • A.

      HTTP

    • B.

      SSH

    • C.

      HTTPS

    Correct Answer
    C. HTTPS
    Explanation
    HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is the correct answer. It is a web communication protocol that provides encryption, ensuring secure transmission of data between a web browser and a website. The small lock symbol in the corner of the browser indicates that the website is using HTTPS and the connection is secure. This protocol is commonly used for secure online transactions, such as online banking, shopping, and sensitive data transfers.

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  • 45. 

    TCP and UDP ports can be any number between 0 and 65,535.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The statement is true because TCP and UDP ports can indeed be any number between 0 and 65,535. This range allows for a large number of ports to be used for various network communication purposes. The port number is used to identify specific processes or services that are running on a device, and the range of 0-65,535 provides enough options to accommodate a wide range of applications.

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  • 46. 

    UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a message-based connectionless protocol. It is less reliable than TCP because you don't know if the data you sent actually gets there.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is indeed a message-based connectionless protocol. Unlike TCP, which ensures reliable delivery of data by establishing a connection and providing error-checking mechanisms, UDP does not guarantee delivery or verify if the data sent actually reaches the intended recipient. This lack of reliability makes UDP suitable for applications that prioritize speed and efficiency over data integrity, such as real-time streaming or online gaming. Therefore, the statement "UDP is less reliable than TCP because you don't know if the data you sent actually gets there" is true.

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  • 47. 

    TCP is a connection-oriented protocol made from client to server. More reliable, as you know data will get to its destination unless the connection fails completely. If it gets lost, the server will re-request the lost part. 

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is indeed a connection-oriented protocol that ensures reliable communication between a client and a server. It guarantees that data will reach its destination unless the connection is completely lost. In case of any lost data, the server will request the missing part to ensure the complete delivery of the information. Therefore, the statement "True" accurately describes the characteristics of TCP.

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  • 48. 

    A STATEFUL firewall is what happens when particular ports are opened up for communication.  i.e. a request to Google and the response opens up a WebServer port, likely port 80

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    A stateful firewall is a type of firewall that keeps track of the state of network connections and can allow or block traffic based on the context of the connection. In this case, the explanation states that when a request is made to Google and a response is received, a specific port (likely port 80, which is commonly used for web servers) is opened up for communication. This aligns with the definition of a stateful firewall, making the statement true.

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  • 49. 

    ISDN is a precursor to DSL

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) is indeed a precursor to DSL (Digital Subscriber Line). ISDN was a telecommunications technology that allowed the transmission of voice, video, and data over existing telephone lines. It provided faster and more reliable connections compared to traditional analog modems. However, DSL technology was developed later and offered even faster internet speeds over the same telephone lines. DSL utilized higher frequencies and advanced modulation techniques to achieve higher data transmission rates. Therefore, it can be concluded that ISDN paved the way for the development of DSL technology.

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  • 50. 

    DSL uses telephone lines

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) is a type of internet connection that uses existing telephone lines to transmit data. It utilizes the unused frequency range of the telephone lines to provide high-speed internet access. Therefore, the given statement that DSL uses telephone lines is true.

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