Ultimate John Smith Qiuz

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  • 1/95 Questions

    Deadly force would be authorized to keep…

    • A fleeing thief from escaping.
    • Someone from breaking into a house.
    • Someone from killing you or doing you serious bodily harm.
    • A traffic violator from fleeing out the installation gate.
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Please enter Rank & Name (Last, First) for name. Example: A1C Smith, John

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  • 2. 

    What are the three camouflage methods?

    • Hiding

    • Blending

    • Deceiving

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The three camouflage methods are hiding, blending, and deceiving. Hiding refers to concealing oneself in order to avoid being seen. Blending involves blending in with the surroundings to appear as a part of the environment. Deceiving involves using patterns or behaviors to confuse or mislead predators or prey. The correct answer, "All of the above," includes all three methods, indicating that all three camouflage methods are correct.

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  • 3. 

    Individuals selected for controller should have what characteristics?

    • Ability not to function under stress, not a people person, learn and think quickly, abuse their leadership skills, and no maturity.

    • Ability to function under stress, communicate effectively with people, learn and think quickly, use their leadership skills and for their maturity.

    • Ability to function under stress, think that they know everything, not good with other people, and a trouble maker.

    • Ability to function under stress, have some leadership skill, come to work on-time everyday, and not really a fast learner.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ability to function under stress, communicate effectively with people, learn and think quickly, use their leadership skills and for their maturity.
    Explanation
    The individuals selected for controller should have the ability to function effectively under stress, as this is a crucial characteristic for handling the demanding nature of the role. Additionally, they should possess good communication skills to effectively interact with people. They should also be quick learners and critical thinkers to adapt to the fast-paced environment. Furthermore, having strong leadership skills is important for effectively managing and guiding others. Lastly, maturity is an essential trait as it demonstrates professionalism and the ability to handle responsibilities.

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  • 4. 

    When suspects are cooperative, handcuff them…

    • On the ground.

    • In the standing position.

    • In the kneeling position.

    • On a wall or vertical position.

    Correct Answer
    A. In the standing position.
    Explanation
    When suspects are cooperative, it is generally considered safe and appropriate to handcuff them in the standing position. This allows for better control and visibility of the suspect, as well as easier movement and transportation if necessary. Handcuffing a cooperative suspect in any other position, such as on the ground, kneeling, or against a wall, may not be necessary and could potentially escalate the situation unnecessarily.

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  • 5. 

    What could happen if you use excessive force?

    • You are subject to administrative or judicial action.

    • You are subject to Lethal and Harmful actions.

    • Your supervisor is subject to administrative or judicial action.

    • Nothing, you will pull your regular duties as always.

    Correct Answer
    A. You are subject to administrative or judicial action.
    Explanation
    If you use excessive force, you are subject to administrative or judicial action. This means that there may be consequences for your actions, such as disciplinary measures or legal proceedings. It suggests that there are rules and regulations in place that prohibit the use of excessive force and violating these rules can lead to serious repercussions.

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  • 6. 

    You respond to the base housing area to remove several solicitors.  You advised them they can’t solicit in base housing; you ask them to leave and they comply.  What subject action level in the Use of Force Model is demonstrated to control the situation?

    • Compliant

    • Resistant (passive)

    • Assaultive (bodily harm)

    • Assaultive (serious bodily harm/death)

    Correct Answer
    A. Compliant
    Explanation
    The subject action level demonstrated in this situation is "Compliant." The solicitors were advised that they cannot solicit in base housing and were asked to leave, which they complied with. This indicates that they were cooperative and compliant with the instructions given to them, and no further force or escalation was necessary to control the situation.

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  • 7. 

    True or False:  The budget operates on the fiscal year.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The budget operates on the fiscal year, meaning that it is based on a 12-month period that aligns with the government's financial cycle. This allows for better planning and allocation of resources, as it takes into account the revenue and expenditure patterns within a specific time frame. By operating on the fiscal year, the budget can effectively track and manage the government's financial activities.

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  • 8. 

    What should you consider all suspects to be?

    • Potentially scared and helpless

    • Potentially dangerous and violent

    • Nice and understanding

    • Professional and compliant

    Correct Answer
    A. Potentially dangerous and violent
    Explanation
    When considering all suspects, it is important to view them as potentially dangerous and violent. This approach ensures the safety of law enforcement officers and others involved in the situation. By assuming the worst-case scenario, precautions can be taken to prevent any harm or escalation. It is crucial to maintain a high level of alertness and readiness when dealing with suspects, as their behavior can be unpredictable and pose a threat to the safety of everyone involved.

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  • 9. 

    You would use a standing search on a suspect who is?

    • Dangerous

    • Violent

    • Not dangerous or violent

    • Of the opposite sex

    Correct Answer
    A. Not dangerous or violent
    Explanation
    A standing search is typically used when monitoring individuals who are not considered dangerous or violent. This type of search is often employed in situations where there is a need to closely observe someone who may not pose an immediate threat, but still requires monitoring for other reasons. Therefore, the correct answer is "Not dangerous or violent."

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  • 10. 

    How are vehicles selected when conducting installation entry point checks?

    • Randomly

    • Every hour

    • Every half hour

    • Personal formula

    Correct Answer
    A. Randomly
    Explanation
    Vehicles are selected randomly when conducting installation entry point checks. This means that there is no specific pattern or formula used to determine which vehicles are checked. Instead, the selection process is based on chance, ensuring that each vehicle has an equal probability of being chosen for inspection. This random selection method helps to ensure fairness and prevent any bias or favoritism in the selection process.

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  • 11. 

    True or False:  Stress is an automatic physical reaction to a new, unpleasant, or threatening situation. The individual agents that cause stress are known as stressors.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Stress is indeed an automatic physical reaction to a new, unpleasant, or threatening situation. When faced with these situations, the body releases stress hormones, such as cortisol, which triggers a "fight or flight" response. The individual factors or events that trigger this stress response are called stressors. These stressors can vary from person to person and can include things like work pressure, financial difficulties, relationship problems, or even major life changes. Therefore, the statement "Stress is an automatic physical reaction to a new, unpleasant, or threatening situation. The individual agents that cause stress are known as stressors" is true.

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  • 12. 

    After you have stopped a vehicle and asked the driver for permission to examine the vehicle and contents, before starting a base entry point check of a vehicle, have the driver…

    • Leave engine running, have occupants stay in vehicle, have driver secure center console, open glove compartment, exit vehicle and open trunk and any other locked compartments.

    • Turn off the engine, have front seat occupants exit vehicle only, have driver open glove compartment, exit vehicle.

    • Leave engine on, have rear seat occupants exit vehicle, have driver open center console, glove compartment, exit vehicle and open trunk.

    • Turn off the engine, have all other occupants exit vehicle, have driver open center console, glove compartment, exit vehicle and open trunk and any other locked compartments.

    Correct Answer
    A. Turn off the engine, have all other occupants exit vehicle, have driver open center console, glove compartment, exit vehicle and open trunk and any other locked compartments.
  • 13. 

    Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with…

    • AFI 31-205, The Air Force Corrections Program.

    • AFI 31-206, Security Forces Investigation Program.

    • AFI 31-207, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel.

    • AFI 31-301, Air Base Defense.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 31-207, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 31-207, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel. This AFI provides guidelines and procedures for the arming and use of force by Air Force personnel, including the conduct when apprehending suspects. It ensures that personnel are aware of the appropriate use of force and the limitations and requirements for apprehending suspects in a manner that is consistent with legal and ethical standards.

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  • 14. 

    What are the M4 characteristics?

    • The M4 is a 7.62-NATO, Machine gun, gas operated, hip fired weapon. It is designed to fire either semiautomatic or a three-round burst.

    • The M4 is a 5.56-mm, magazine-fed, gas-operated, shoulder-fired weapon. It is designed to fire either semiautomatic or a three-round burst through the use of a selector lever (SAFE, SEMI, and BURST).

    • The M4 is a 7.62-mm, magazine-fed, gas-operated, shoulder-fired weapon. It is designed to fire either semiautomatic or a three-round burst through the use of a selector lever (SAFE, SEMI, and BURST).

    • The M4 is a 5.56-NATO, Machine gun, gas operated, hop fired weapon. It is designed to fire either semiautomatic or a three-round burst.

    Correct Answer
    A. The M4 is a 5.56-mm, magazine-fed, gas-operated, shoulder-fired weapon. It is designed to fire either semiautomatic or a three-round burst through the use of a selector lever (SAFE, SEMI, and BURST).
    Explanation
    The given answer correctly identifies the characteristics of the M4. It states that the M4 is a 5.56-mm weapon that is magazine-fed, gas-operated, and shoulder-fired. It also mentions that the M4 can fire in either semiautomatic or a three-round burst mode, which can be selected using a selector lever with the options of SAFE, SEMI, and BURST.

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  • 15. 

    True or False:  OPSEC is the process of identifying critical friendly information and analyzing friendly actions related to operations, acquisition., and other identify those action that can be observed by potential adversaries and determine indicators that could be collected and synthesized to derive critical information in time to be useful to an adversary and climate or reduce to an acceptable level the vulnerabilities of friendly information to adversary exploitation.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    OPSEC, or Operational Security, is indeed the process of identifying critical friendly information and analyzing friendly actions related to operations, acquisition, and other activities. The purpose of OPSEC is to identify actions that can be observed by potential adversaries and determine indicators that could be collected and synthesized to derive critical information that could be useful to an adversary. By doing so, OPSEC aims to reduce vulnerabilities and protect friendly information from exploitation by adversaries. Therefore, the given answer "True" is correct.

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  • 16. 

    True or False:  The M240B machine gun supports the rifleman in both offensive and defensive operations.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The M240B machine gun is a versatile weapon that can be used in various combat scenarios. It provides suppressive fire and has a high rate of fire, making it effective in offensive operations by suppressing enemy positions and providing cover for advancing forces. Additionally, it can be used defensively to defend a position by engaging enemy forces and preventing their advancement. Hence, the statement that the M240B machine gun supports the rifleman in both offensive and defensive operations is true.

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  • 17. 

    How many Forces Protection (FP) conditions are there?

    • 1

    • 3

    • 5

    • 6

    Correct Answer
    A. 5
    Explanation
    There are five Forces Protection (FP) conditions.

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  • 18. 

    You handcuff suspects from what two positions?

    • Standing and kneeling positions

    • Prone and kneeling positions

    • Standing and prone positions

    • Kneeling and standing positions

    Correct Answer
    A. Standing and prone positions
    Explanation
    Suspects are handcuffed from both standing and prone positions. When a suspect is standing, they are typically handcuffed with their hands behind their back. This is a common position for handcuffing individuals who are compliant and not posing an immediate threat. On the other hand, when a suspect is prone, they are lying face down on the ground, and their hands are often handcuffed behind their back or to their sides. This position is used when the suspect is deemed to be a higher risk or potential threat. Handcuffing from both positions allows law enforcement to maintain control and ensure the safety of both the suspect and the officers involved.

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  • 19. 

    The difference between a violent dispute and verbal dispute is during a…

    • Verbal dispute a physical assault has not occurred.

    • Violent dispute a verbal assault has not occurred.

    • Verbal dispute disputants are not easy to control.

    • Violent dispute disputants are easy to control.

    Correct Answer
    A. Verbal dispute a physical assault has not occurred.
    Explanation
    In a verbal dispute, a physical assault has not occurred. This means that the disagreement or conflict is limited to verbal exchanges and does not involve any physical violence or aggression. The disputants may engage in heated arguments or exchange harsh words, but they do not physically harm each other. This is what distinguishes a verbal dispute from a violent dispute, where physical assault is present. In a violent dispute, the disputants may resort to physical violence or aggression to express their anger or frustration.

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  • 20. 

    What is a way you can identify stressors on the job?

    • Be noisy and stay in every ones business

    • Talk to experienced SF members

    • Get stressed out

    • Let it come to you

    Correct Answer
    A. Talk to experienced SF members
    Explanation
    One way to identify stressors on the job is by talking to experienced SF members. They have likely been through similar situations and can provide insights into what causes stress in the workplace. By engaging in conversations with them, you can gain valuable information and learn from their experiences, which can help you identify and manage stressors effectively.

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  • 21. 

    What were the two main mission elements of “Security Police”?

    • Civilians and Police Officers

    • Defense Schools and Air Council

    • Police and Security Functions

    • Police Academy and Security Functions

    Correct Answer
    A. Police and Security Functions
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Police and Security Functions." This answer is supported by the fact that the question asks for the two main mission elements of "Security Police." The term "Security Police" implies a focus on both security and police-related tasks. Therefore, the answer "Police and Security Functions" aligns with the given information.

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  • 22. 

    True or False:  The M203 grenade launcher fires high-explosive, illuminating, signaling, CS, training, and multipurpose ammunition.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The M203 grenade launcher is a versatile weapon that is capable of firing a variety of ammunition types. This includes high-explosive rounds for maximum damage, illuminating rounds for providing light in dark areas, signaling rounds for communication purposes, CS rounds for riot control, training rounds for practice, and multipurpose rounds for various combat scenarios. Therefore, the statement "The M203 grenade launcher fires high-explosive, illuminating, signaling, CS, training, and multipurpose ammunition" is true.

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  • 23. 

    What is the most common shotgun the Air Force uses?

    • The Remington M970

    • The M240B

    • The Remington M870

    • The Remington M770

    Correct Answer
    A. The Remington M870
    Explanation
    The Remington M870 is the most common shotgun used by the Air Force.

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  • 24. 

    Where do you direct pepper spray bursts?

    • The subject’s facial area (eyes, nose, and mouth)

    • The subject’s clothes

    • The subject’s lower body

    • The subject eyes only

    Correct Answer
    A. The subject’s facial area (eyes, nose, and mouth)
    Explanation
    Pepper spray is directed towards the subject's facial area, specifically targeting the eyes, nose, and mouth. This is because these are the most sensitive areas of the face and are more likely to cause immediate discomfort and temporary incapacitation. By directing the bursts towards the facial area, the pepper spray can effectively disable the subject and allow the user to escape or seek help.

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  • 25. 

    True or False:  The M4 carbine’s special features make it the ideal weapon for close combat operations.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The M4 carbine's special features, such as its compact size, lightweight design, and high rate of fire, make it highly suitable for close combat operations. Its shorter barrel allows for easier maneuverability in tight spaces, while its select-fire capability provides versatility in engaging targets at different distances. Additionally, the M4's compatibility with various accessories and attachments further enhances its effectiveness in close quarters combat. Therefore, the statement "The M4 carbine's special features make it the ideal weapon for close combat operations" is true.

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  • 26. 

    What did the US Supreme Court establish as the appropriate standard for assessing the use of force?

    • Objective Risk

    • Objective Reasonableness

    • Reasonableness Subject

    • Subject Action

    Correct Answer
    A. Objective Reasonableness
    Explanation
    The US Supreme Court established the standard of "Objective Reasonableness" for assessing the use of force. This means that the court looks at whether a reasonable person in the same situation would have used the same level of force. It takes into account the facts and circumstances known to the officer at the time, without considering hindsight bias. This standard allows for a balanced assessment of the officer's actions, considering both the threat faced and the need to protect individual rights.

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  • 27. 

    Who provides the foundation of the integrated base defense concept?

    • Special Forces

    • Security Forces

    • Combat Controllers

    • Augmentee personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Security Forces
    Explanation
    Security Forces provide the foundation of the integrated base defense concept. They are responsible for protecting and defending military installations and personnel from various threats. Their duties include conducting patrols, enforcing security measures, responding to emergencies, and coordinating with other military units and law enforcement agencies. By establishing a strong security presence and implementing effective defense strategies, Security Forces play a crucial role in safeguarding military bases and ensuring the overall security of the integrated base defense concept.

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  • 28. 

    Color is used in The Use of Force Model to enhance our role and understanding, what are these colors?

    • Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue.

    • Yellow, Green, Blue, Purple, Red.

    • Blue, Red, Orange, Brown, Green.

    • Red, Blue, Green, Yellow, White.

    Correct Answer
    A. Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue. These colors are used in The Use of Force Model to represent different levels of force escalation. Red signifies imminent danger and the need for immediate action, orange indicates a potential threat, yellow represents a possible threat, green signifies a low-level threat or resistance, and blue represents a situation where no force is necessary. These colors help law enforcement officers to assess and respond to situations appropriately based on the level of force required.

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  • 29. 

    What was designed to assist security forces with identifying and interpreting the right level of force to use?

    • Objective Reasonableness

    • The Use of Force Model

    • The Level of Force Model

    • The Security Use Model

    Correct Answer
    A. The Use of Force Model
    Explanation
    The Use of Force Model was designed to assist security forces with identifying and interpreting the right level of force to use. This model provides a framework that helps security personnel make informed decisions about the appropriate level of force required in different situations. It takes into consideration factors such as the threat level, the severity of the situation, and the potential harm to individuals involved. By following this model, security forces can ensure that their use of force is objective, reasonable, and proportional to the circumstances at hand.

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  • 30. 

    What are terrorists’ most important gain even when the actual mission fails?

    • Publicity

    • Hostages

    • Casualties

    • Support

    Correct Answer
    A. Publicity
    Explanation
    When a terrorist mission fails, they still gain publicity. Even if their goal of causing harm or destruction is not achieved, the media coverage surrounding the failed attempt can still generate fear and panic among the public. This publicity can help terrorists spread their message, recruit new members, and create a sense of power and influence. Additionally, the attention garnered from failed attacks can also lead to increased sympathy and support from like-minded individuals or groups.

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  • 31. 

    What replaces our deadly force policy during declared or undeclared wars/ conflicts?

    • Self defense and defense of others

    • Serious offense against persons

    • Rules of engagement

    • Special considerations

    Correct Answer
    A. Rules of engagement
    Explanation
    During declared or undeclared wars or conflicts, our deadly force policy is replaced by the rules of engagement. These rules outline the specific circumstances and conditions under which military personnel are authorized to use force, including deadly force, in self-defense or defense of others. They provide guidance on when and how force can be used, ensuring that it is proportionate and necessary to achieve military objectives while minimizing civilian casualties and collateral damage. By following the rules of engagement, military forces can maintain discipline and adhere to legal and ethical standards in combat situations.

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  • 32. 

    What materials can you use to tone down skin color?

    • Burnt cork

    • Charcoal

    • Mud

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the mentioned materials, burnt cork, charcoal, and mud, can be used to tone down skin color. These materials can be applied to the skin to create a darker or more muted tone, which can be useful for theatrical or artistic purposes. Burnt cork and charcoal can be used as makeup or face paint to darken the skin, while mud can be used as a natural pigment to create a more earthy tone.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following security disciplines is closely coordinated with Operations Security (OPSEC)?

    • Information Security

    • Resource Protection

    • Industrial Security

    • Internet Security

    Correct Answer
    A. Information Security
    Explanation
    Operations Security (OPSEC) is a process that identifies critical information and determines how it can be exploited by adversaries. Information Security, as a discipline, focuses on protecting information from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction. Since both OPSEC and Information Security aim to protect sensitive information, they are closely coordinated. This coordination ensures that the necessary measures are taken to safeguard information and mitigate risks effectively. Resource Protection, Industrial Security, and Internet Security may have some overlapping areas with OPSEC, but Information Security is the discipline that aligns most closely with it.

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  • 34. 

    What AFSC is awarded upon completion of the military working dog handler apprentice course?

    • 7CO31M

    • 3PO31A

    • 3PO31B

    • 3MWDX1

    Correct Answer
    A. 3PO31A
    Explanation
    Upon completion of the military working dog handler apprentice course, the AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code) awarded is 3PO31A.

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  • 35. 

    What is a retrograde operation?

    • An unorganized movement to the front or straight towards the enemy.

    • An organized movement to the rear or away from the enemy.

    • A closed operation that is about to get bombed.

    • An organized attack to the front of the enemy.

    Correct Answer
    A. An organized movement to the rear or away from the enemy.
    Explanation
    A retrograde operation refers to an organized movement in the opposite direction of the enemy, specifically to the rear or away from them. This could involve withdrawing troops, equipment, or resources from a particular area in order to reposition or regroup. It is a strategic maneuver aimed at avoiding direct engagement with the enemy or to create distance and establish a more advantageous position.

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  • 36. 

    What grade must an SF member hold before being considered for Sharpshooter?

    • Amn - SSgt

    • SrA - MSgt

    • SSgt - CMSgt

    • Amn - CMSgt

    Correct Answer
    A. SrA - MSgt
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, an SF member must hold the rank of SrA (Senior Airman) before being considered for Sharpshooter. The rank progression listed suggests that once an SF member reaches the rank of SrA, they are eligible to be considered for the next rank, which is MSgt (Master Sergeant). Therefore, the correct answer is SrA - MSgt.

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  • 37. 

    What are the MOOTW principles?

    • Objective, Unity of Command, Security, Restraint, Perseverance and Legitimacy

    • Objective, Unity of Command, and Security

    • Unity of Command and Security

    • Objective only

    Correct Answer
    A. Objective, Unity of Command, Security, Restraint, Perseverance and Legitimacy
    Explanation
    The MOOTW principles are Objective, Unity of Command, Security, Restraint, Perseverance, and Legitimacy. These principles guide military operations other than war (MOOTW) and help ensure their success. The objective principle focuses on having a clear goal or purpose for the operation. Unity of command emphasizes the need for a single commander to maintain control and coordination. Security involves protecting the forces and information involved in the operation. Restraint refers to the use of force in a measured and proportional manner. Perseverance stresses the need for persistence and determination. Legitimacy involves operating within the bounds of international law and respecting the rights of others.

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  • 38. 

    Which position is most desirable and natural from which to throw grenades.

    • Kneeling position

    • Prone position

    • Standing position

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Standing position
    Explanation
    The standing position is the most desirable and natural position from which to throw grenades because it allows for better mobility and a wider range of motion. When standing, the thrower can generate more power and accuracy in their throw, as they have the ability to use their entire body to propel the grenade. Additionally, being in a standing position provides better visibility and awareness of the surroundings, allowing the thrower to assess the situation and choose the best target for the grenade.

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  • 39. 

    The types of jurisdictions found on US government installations are?

    • Concurrent, current, and proprietary.

    • Partial, exclusive, bilateral, and concurrent.

    • Exclusive, concurrent, partial, and proprietary.

    • Exclusive, concurrent, proprietary, and multilateral.

    Correct Answer
    A. Exclusive, concurrent, partial, and proprietary.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Exclusive, concurrent, partial, and proprietary." This answer accurately describes the types of jurisdictions found on US government installations. Exclusive jurisdiction refers to the authority held solely by the federal government, concurrent jurisdiction means shared authority between federal and state governments, partial jurisdiction indicates limited authority, and proprietary jurisdiction refers to authority held by the federal government over land owned by them.

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  • 40. 

    List the criteria that support “objective reasonableness”.

    • Subject Risk, Action Perception, Officer Response.

    • Officer Response, Subject Action, Risk Objection.

    • Subject Action, Risk Perception, Officer Response.

    • Officer Risk, Objection Response, Action Subject.

    Correct Answer
    A. Subject Action, Risk Perception, Officer Response.
    Explanation
    The criteria that support "objective reasonableness" are subject action, risk perception, and officer response. This means that in order to determine if an officer's actions were objectively reasonable, these three factors need to be considered. The subject's actions, the officer's perception of the risk involved, and the officer's response to the situation are all important in evaluating the reasonableness of their actions.

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  • 41. 

    How many different job titles are normally present in the typical unit structure?

    • 5

    • 12

    • 34

    • 40

    Correct Answer
    A. 34
    Explanation
    In a typical unit structure, there are normally 34 different job titles. This means that there are 34 distinct roles or positions within the unit. These job titles may vary depending on the specific organization or industry, but on average, there are 34 different roles that make up the unit structure.

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  • 42. 

    When officers are in charge of flights (SFO A/B/C/D), they are designated…

    • A. Flight Administrators.

    • B. Flight Commanders.

    • C. Operations Officers.

    • D. Flight Chiefs.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Flight Commanders.
    Explanation
    When officers are in charge of flights (SFO A/B/C/D), they are designated as Flight Commanders. This term implies that these officers have the authority and responsibility to lead and manage the flight operations. They are the ones who make decisions and give orders to ensure the smooth running of the flights. The term "Flight Commanders" suggests a higher level of authority and leadership compared to the other options provided.

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  • 43. 

    How many operating positions does the M4 stock have?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The M4 stock has four operating positions.

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  • 44. 

    During terrorist objectives and tactics, who is the lead agency for incidents occurring outside the US?

    • Department of Justice

    • Department of State

    • Department of Terrorist

    • Department of Concept

    Correct Answer
    A. Department of State
    Explanation
    The Department of State is the lead agency for incidents occurring outside the US during terrorist objectives and tactics. This is because the Department of State is responsible for handling foreign affairs and maintaining diplomatic relations with other countries. In the context of terrorism, the Department of State plays a crucial role in coordinating with foreign governments, sharing intelligence, and implementing counterterrorism measures to address incidents occurring outside the US.

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  • 45. 

    How is the rear grab overcome?

    • With a blow to the face

    • With a blow to the groin

    • Chop in the throat, punch in the face

    • With a blow to the knee cap

    Correct Answer
    A. With a blow to the groin
    Explanation
    A blow to the groin can be an effective way to overcome a rear grab. This is because the groin area is highly sensitive and vulnerable, and a strong strike to this area can cause intense pain and temporarily incapacitate the attacker. By targeting the groin, the person being grabbed can create an opportunity to escape or further defend themselves.

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  • 46. 

    When apprehending suspects, what should you use to apply the appropriate force?

    • Training, experience, and the UFM

    • Speed, positioning, and strength

    • Assisting member and position

    • Attitude and concealment

    Correct Answer
    A. Training, experience, and the UFM
    Explanation
    When apprehending suspects, it is important to use training, experience, and the UFM (Use of Force Model) to apply the appropriate force. Training ensures that law enforcement officers have the necessary skills and knowledge to handle different situations effectively. Experience allows officers to draw from past encounters and make informed decisions. The UFM provides a framework for officers to assess the level of force necessary based on the threat level and the actions of the suspect. By considering all three factors, officers can ensure that the force they apply is proportionate and necessary to maintain public safety.

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  • 47. 

    Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?

    • Part one

    • Regional data block

    • Marginal data section

    • Where you can locate it quickly

    Correct Answer
    A. Marginal data section
    Explanation
    In the marginal data section of a range card, you would sketch in magnetic north data. This section is typically used to record information that is important but not directly related to the range or target. Magnetic north data is crucial for navigation and orienting oneself in relation to the magnetic field of the Earth. By including it in the marginal data section, it can be easily referenced and used when needed during operations or training exercises.

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  • 48. 

    What are the two types of vehicle searches?

    • Complete and simple

    • Systematic and simple

    • Complete and thorough

    • Systematic and thorough

    Correct Answer
    A. Complete and simple
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Complete and simple." In vehicle searches, the two types are complete and simple. A complete search involves thoroughly examining every part of the vehicle, including all compartments and hidden areas. On the other hand, a simple search is a quick and basic inspection, usually done to check for any obvious signs of illegal activity or contraband. These two types of searches vary in terms of the level of detail and time required to conduct them.

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  • 49. 

    Range cards are a record of?

    • Range data

    • Training

    • Firing data

    • Call signs

    Correct Answer
    A. Firing data
    Explanation
    Range cards are a record of firing data. They provide information about the specific details of a firing exercise, such as the distance to the target, the type of ammunition used, the angle of fire, and any adjustments made during the exercise. Range cards are used by military personnel to keep track of their firing data and to make accurate adjustments for future exercises.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 20, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jun 06, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    18sfs_utm
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