Ultimate John Smith Qiuz

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1. Deadly force would be authorized to keep…

Explanation

Deadly force would be authorized to keep someone from killing you or doing you serious bodily harm. This is because the use of deadly force is justified in self-defense situations where there is an imminent threat to one's life or safety. In such cases, it is necessary to use the level of force required to neutralize the threat and protect oneself from harm.

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2. What are the three camouflage methods?

Explanation

The three camouflage methods are hiding, blending, and deceiving. Hiding refers to concealing oneself in order to avoid being seen. Blending involves blending in with the surroundings to appear as a part of the environment. Deceiving involves using patterns or behaviors to confuse or mislead predators or prey. The correct answer, "All of the above," includes all three methods, indicating that all three camouflage methods are correct.

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3. Individuals selected for controller should have what characteristics?

Explanation

The individuals selected for controller should have the ability to function effectively under stress, as this is a crucial characteristic for handling the demanding nature of the role. Additionally, they should possess good communication skills to effectively interact with people. They should also be quick learners and critical thinkers to adapt to the fast-paced environment. Furthermore, having strong leadership skills is important for effectively managing and guiding others. Lastly, maturity is an essential trait as it demonstrates professionalism and the ability to handle responsibilities.

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4. When suspects are cooperative, handcuff them…

Explanation

When suspects are cooperative, it is generally considered safe and appropriate to handcuff them in the standing position. This allows for better control and visibility of the suspect, as well as easier movement and transportation if necessary. Handcuffing a cooperative suspect in any other position, such as on the ground, kneeling, or against a wall, may not be necessary and could potentially escalate the situation unnecessarily.

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5. True or False:  Stress is an automatic physical reaction to a new, unpleasant, or threatening situation. The individual agents that cause stress are known as stressors.

Explanation

Stress is indeed an automatic physical reaction to a new, unpleasant, or threatening situation. When faced with these situations, the body releases stress hormones, such as cortisol, which triggers a "fight or flight" response. The individual factors or events that trigger this stress response are called stressors. These stressors can vary from person to person and can include things like work pressure, financial difficulties, relationship problems, or even major life changes. Therefore, the statement "Stress is an automatic physical reaction to a new, unpleasant, or threatening situation. The individual agents that cause stress are known as stressors" is true.

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6. After you have stopped a vehicle and asked the driver for permission to examine the vehicle and contents, before starting a base entry point check of a vehicle, have the driver…

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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7. Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance with…

Explanation

The correct answer is AFI 31-207, Arming and Use of Force by Air Force Personnel. This AFI provides guidelines and procedures for the arming and use of force by Air Force personnel, including the conduct when apprehending suspects. It ensures that personnel are aware of the appropriate use of force and the limitations and requirements for apprehending suspects in a manner that is consistent with legal and ethical standards.

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8. What could happen if you use excessive force?

Explanation

If you use excessive force, you are subject to administrative or judicial action. This means that there may be consequences for your actions, such as disciplinary measures or legal proceedings. It suggests that there are rules and regulations in place that prohibit the use of excessive force and violating these rules can lead to serious repercussions.

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9. You respond to the base housing area to remove several solicitors.  You advised them they can’t solicit in base housing; you ask them to leave and they comply.  What subject action level in the Use of Force Model is demonstrated to control the situation?

Explanation

The subject action level demonstrated in this situation is "Compliant." The solicitors were advised that they cannot solicit in base housing and were asked to leave, which they complied with. This indicates that they were cooperative and compliant with the instructions given to them, and no further force or escalation was necessary to control the situation.

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10. True or False:  The budget operates on the fiscal year.

Explanation

The budget operates on the fiscal year, meaning that it is based on a 12-month period that aligns with the government's financial cycle. This allows for better planning and allocation of resources, as it takes into account the revenue and expenditure patterns within a specific time frame. By operating on the fiscal year, the budget can effectively track and manage the government's financial activities.

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11. What should you consider all suspects to be?

Explanation

When considering all suspects, it is important to view them as potentially dangerous and violent. This approach ensures the safety of law enforcement officers and others involved in the situation. By assuming the worst-case scenario, precautions can be taken to prevent any harm or escalation. It is crucial to maintain a high level of alertness and readiness when dealing with suspects, as their behavior can be unpredictable and pose a threat to the safety of everyone involved.

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12. You would use a standing search on a suspect who is?

Explanation

A standing search is typically used when monitoring individuals who are not considered dangerous or violent. This type of search is often employed in situations where there is a need to closely observe someone who may not pose an immediate threat, but still requires monitoring for other reasons. Therefore, the correct answer is "Not dangerous or violent."

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13. How are vehicles selected when conducting installation entry point checks?

Explanation

Vehicles are selected randomly when conducting installation entry point checks. This means that there is no specific pattern or formula used to determine which vehicles are checked. Instead, the selection process is based on chance, ensuring that each vehicle has an equal probability of being chosen for inspection. This random selection method helps to ensure fairness and prevent any bias or favoritism in the selection process.

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14. What is a way you can identify stressors on the job?

Explanation

One way to identify stressors on the job is by talking to experienced SF members. They have likely been through similar situations and can provide insights into what causes stress in the workplace. By engaging in conversations with them, you can gain valuable information and learn from their experiences, which can help you identify and manage stressors effectively.

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15. What are the M4 characteristics?

Explanation

The given answer correctly identifies the characteristics of the M4. It states that the M4 is a 5.56-mm weapon that is magazine-fed, gas-operated, and shoulder-fired. It also mentions that the M4 can fire in either semiautomatic or a three-round burst mode, which can be selected using a selector lever with the options of SAFE, SEMI, and BURST.

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16. True or False:  OPSEC is the process of identifying critical friendly information and analyzing friendly actions related to operations, acquisition., and other identify those action that can be observed by potential adversaries and determine indicators that could be collected and synthesized to derive critical information in time to be useful to an adversary and climate or reduce to an acceptable level the vulnerabilities of friendly information to adversary exploitation.

Explanation

OPSEC, or Operational Security, is indeed the process of identifying critical friendly information and analyzing friendly actions related to operations, acquisition, and other activities. The purpose of OPSEC is to identify actions that can be observed by potential adversaries and determine indicators that could be collected and synthesized to derive critical information that could be useful to an adversary. By doing so, OPSEC aims to reduce vulnerabilities and protect friendly information from exploitation by adversaries. Therefore, the given answer "True" is correct.

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17. True or False:  The M240B machine gun supports the rifleman in both offensive and defensive operations.

Explanation

The M240B machine gun is a versatile weapon that can be used in various combat scenarios. It provides suppressive fire and has a high rate of fire, making it effective in offensive operations by suppressing enemy positions and providing cover for advancing forces. Additionally, it can be used defensively to defend a position by engaging enemy forces and preventing their advancement. Hence, the statement that the M240B machine gun supports the rifleman in both offensive and defensive operations is true.

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18. How many Forces Protection (FP) conditions are there?

Explanation

There are five Forces Protection (FP) conditions.

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19. You handcuff suspects from what two positions?

Explanation

Suspects are handcuffed from both standing and prone positions. When a suspect is standing, they are typically handcuffed with their hands behind their back. This is a common position for handcuffing individuals who are compliant and not posing an immediate threat. On the other hand, when a suspect is prone, they are lying face down on the ground, and their hands are often handcuffed behind their back or to their sides. This position is used when the suspect is deemed to be a higher risk or potential threat. Handcuffing from both positions allows law enforcement to maintain control and ensure the safety of both the suspect and the officers involved.

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20. The difference between a violent dispute and verbal dispute is during a…

Explanation

In a verbal dispute, a physical assault has not occurred. This means that the disagreement or conflict is limited to verbal exchanges and does not involve any physical violence or aggression. The disputants may engage in heated arguments or exchange harsh words, but they do not physically harm each other. This is what distinguishes a verbal dispute from a violent dispute, where physical assault is present. In a violent dispute, the disputants may resort to physical violence or aggression to express their anger or frustration.

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21. What were the two main mission elements of “Security Police”?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Police and Security Functions." This answer is supported by the fact that the question asks for the two main mission elements of "Security Police." The term "Security Police" implies a focus on both security and police-related tasks. Therefore, the answer "Police and Security Functions" aligns with the given information.

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22. Where do you direct pepper spray bursts?

Explanation

Pepper spray is directed towards the subject's facial area, specifically targeting the eyes, nose, and mouth. This is because these are the most sensitive areas of the face and are more likely to cause immediate discomfort and temporary incapacitation. By directing the bursts towards the facial area, the pepper spray can effectively disable the subject and allow the user to escape or seek help.

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23. True or False:  The M203 grenade launcher fires high-explosive, illuminating, signaling, CS, training, and multipurpose ammunition.

Explanation

The M203 grenade launcher is a versatile weapon that is capable of firing a variety of ammunition types. This includes high-explosive rounds for maximum damage, illuminating rounds for providing light in dark areas, signaling rounds for communication purposes, CS rounds for riot control, training rounds for practice, and multipurpose rounds for various combat scenarios. Therefore, the statement "The M203 grenade launcher fires high-explosive, illuminating, signaling, CS, training, and multipurpose ammunition" is true.

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24. What is the most common shotgun the Air Force uses?

Explanation

The Remington M870 is the most common shotgun used by the Air Force.

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25. True or False:  The M4 carbine’s special features make it the ideal weapon for close combat operations.

Explanation

The M4 carbine's special features, such as its compact size, lightweight design, and high rate of fire, make it highly suitable for close combat operations. Its shorter barrel allows for easier maneuverability in tight spaces, while its select-fire capability provides versatility in engaging targets at different distances. Additionally, the M4's compatibility with various accessories and attachments further enhances its effectiveness in close quarters combat. Therefore, the statement "The M4 carbine's special features make it the ideal weapon for close combat operations" is true.

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26. What did the US Supreme Court establish as the appropriate standard for assessing the use of force?

Explanation

The US Supreme Court established the standard of "Objective Reasonableness" for assessing the use of force. This means that the court looks at whether a reasonable person in the same situation would have used the same level of force. It takes into account the facts and circumstances known to the officer at the time, without considering hindsight bias. This standard allows for a balanced assessment of the officer's actions, considering both the threat faced and the need to protect individual rights.

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27. Who provides the foundation of the integrated base defense concept?

Explanation

Security Forces provide the foundation of the integrated base defense concept. They are responsible for protecting and defending military installations and personnel from various threats. Their duties include conducting patrols, enforcing security measures, responding to emergencies, and coordinating with other military units and law enforcement agencies. By establishing a strong security presence and implementing effective defense strategies, Security Forces play a crucial role in safeguarding military bases and ensuring the overall security of the integrated base defense concept.

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28. Color is used in The Use of Force Model to enhance our role and understanding, what are these colors?

Explanation

The correct answer is Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue. These colors are used in The Use of Force Model to represent different levels of force escalation. Red signifies imminent danger and the need for immediate action, orange indicates a potential threat, yellow represents a possible threat, green signifies a low-level threat or resistance, and blue represents a situation where no force is necessary. These colors help law enforcement officers to assess and respond to situations appropriately based on the level of force required.

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29. What was designed to assist security forces with identifying and interpreting the right level of force to use?

Explanation

The Use of Force Model was designed to assist security forces with identifying and interpreting the right level of force to use. This model provides a framework that helps security personnel make informed decisions about the appropriate level of force required in different situations. It takes into consideration factors such as the threat level, the severity of the situation, and the potential harm to individuals involved. By following this model, security forces can ensure that their use of force is objective, reasonable, and proportional to the circumstances at hand.

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30. What are terrorists’ most important gain even when the actual mission fails?

Explanation

When a terrorist mission fails, they still gain publicity. Even if their goal of causing harm or destruction is not achieved, the media coverage surrounding the failed attempt can still generate fear and panic among the public. This publicity can help terrorists spread their message, recruit new members, and create a sense of power and influence. Additionally, the attention garnered from failed attacks can also lead to increased sympathy and support from like-minded individuals or groups.

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31. What replaces our deadly force policy during declared or undeclared wars/ conflicts?

Explanation

During declared or undeclared wars or conflicts, our deadly force policy is replaced by the rules of engagement. These rules outline the specific circumstances and conditions under which military personnel are authorized to use force, including deadly force, in self-defense or defense of others. They provide guidance on when and how force can be used, ensuring that it is proportionate and necessary to achieve military objectives while minimizing civilian casualties and collateral damage. By following the rules of engagement, military forces can maintain discipline and adhere to legal and ethical standards in combat situations.

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32. What materials can you use to tone down skin color?

Explanation

All of the mentioned materials, burnt cork, charcoal, and mud, can be used to tone down skin color. These materials can be applied to the skin to create a darker or more muted tone, which can be useful for theatrical or artistic purposes. Burnt cork and charcoal can be used as makeup or face paint to darken the skin, while mud can be used as a natural pigment to create a more earthy tone.

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33. What is a retrograde operation?

Explanation

A retrograde operation refers to an organized movement in the opposite direction of the enemy, specifically to the rear or away from them. This could involve withdrawing troops, equipment, or resources from a particular area in order to reposition or regroup. It is a strategic maneuver aimed at avoiding direct engagement with the enemy or to create distance and establish a more advantageous position.

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34. Which of the following security disciplines is closely coordinated with Operations Security (OPSEC)?

Explanation

Operations Security (OPSEC) is a process that identifies critical information and determines how it can be exploited by adversaries. Information Security, as a discipline, focuses on protecting information from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction. Since both OPSEC and Information Security aim to protect sensitive information, they are closely coordinated. This coordination ensures that the necessary measures are taken to safeguard information and mitigate risks effectively. Resource Protection, Industrial Security, and Internet Security may have some overlapping areas with OPSEC, but Information Security is the discipline that aligns most closely with it.

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35. What AFSC is awarded upon completion of the military working dog handler apprentice course?

Explanation

Upon completion of the military working dog handler apprentice course, the AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code) awarded is 3PO31A.

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36. What grade must an SF member hold before being considered for Sharpshooter?

Explanation

Based on the given information, an SF member must hold the rank of SrA (Senior Airman) before being considered for Sharpshooter. The rank progression listed suggests that once an SF member reaches the rank of SrA, they are eligible to be considered for the next rank, which is MSgt (Master Sergeant). Therefore, the correct answer is SrA - MSgt.

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37. What are the MOOTW principles?

Explanation

The MOOTW principles are Objective, Unity of Command, Security, Restraint, Perseverance, and Legitimacy. These principles guide military operations other than war (MOOTW) and help ensure their success. The objective principle focuses on having a clear goal or purpose for the operation. Unity of command emphasizes the need for a single commander to maintain control and coordination. Security involves protecting the forces and information involved in the operation. Restraint refers to the use of force in a measured and proportional manner. Perseverance stresses the need for persistence and determination. Legitimacy involves operating within the bounds of international law and respecting the rights of others.

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38. Which position is most desirable and natural from which to throw grenades.

Explanation

The standing position is the most desirable and natural position from which to throw grenades because it allows for better mobility and a wider range of motion. When standing, the thrower can generate more power and accuracy in their throw, as they have the ability to use their entire body to propel the grenade. Additionally, being in a standing position provides better visibility and awareness of the surroundings, allowing the thrower to assess the situation and choose the best target for the grenade.

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39. The types of jurisdictions found on US government installations are?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Exclusive, concurrent, partial, and proprietary." This answer accurately describes the types of jurisdictions found on US government installations. Exclusive jurisdiction refers to the authority held solely by the federal government, concurrent jurisdiction means shared authority between federal and state governments, partial jurisdiction indicates limited authority, and proprietary jurisdiction refers to authority held by the federal government over land owned by them.

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40. How many different job titles are normally present in the typical unit structure?

Explanation

In a typical unit structure, there are normally 34 different job titles. This means that there are 34 distinct roles or positions within the unit. These job titles may vary depending on the specific organization or industry, but on average, there are 34 different roles that make up the unit structure.

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41. When officers are in charge of flights (SFO A/B/C/D), they are designated…

Explanation

When officers are in charge of flights (SFO A/B/C/D), they are designated as Flight Commanders. This term implies that these officers have the authority and responsibility to lead and manage the flight operations. They are the ones who make decisions and give orders to ensure the smooth running of the flights. The term "Flight Commanders" suggests a higher level of authority and leadership compared to the other options provided.

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42. How many operating positions does the M4 stock have?

Explanation

The M4 stock has four operating positions.

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43. List the criteria that support “objective reasonableness”.

Explanation

The criteria that support "objective reasonableness" are subject action, risk perception, and officer response. This means that in order to determine if an officer's actions were objectively reasonable, these three factors need to be considered. The subject's actions, the officer's perception of the risk involved, and the officer's response to the situation are all important in evaluating the reasonableness of their actions.

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44. During terrorist objectives and tactics, who is the lead agency for incidents occurring outside the US?

Explanation

The Department of State is the lead agency for incidents occurring outside the US during terrorist objectives and tactics. This is because the Department of State is responsible for handling foreign affairs and maintaining diplomatic relations with other countries. In the context of terrorism, the Department of State plays a crucial role in coordinating with foreign governments, sharing intelligence, and implementing counterterrorism measures to address incidents occurring outside the US.

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45. How is the rear grab overcome?

Explanation

A blow to the groin can be an effective way to overcome a rear grab. This is because the groin area is highly sensitive and vulnerable, and a strong strike to this area can cause intense pain and temporarily incapacitate the attacker. By targeting the groin, the person being grabbed can create an opportunity to escape or further defend themselves.

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46. When apprehending suspects, what should you use to apply the appropriate force?

Explanation

When apprehending suspects, it is important to use training, experience, and the UFM (Use of Force Model) to apply the appropriate force. Training ensures that law enforcement officers have the necessary skills and knowledge to handle different situations effectively. Experience allows officers to draw from past encounters and make informed decisions. The UFM provides a framework for officers to assess the level of force necessary based on the threat level and the actions of the suspect. By considering all three factors, officers can ensure that the force they apply is proportionate and necessary to maintain public safety.

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47. What are the two types of vehicle searches?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Complete and simple." In vehicle searches, the two types are complete and simple. A complete search involves thoroughly examining every part of the vehicle, including all compartments and hidden areas. On the other hand, a simple search is a quick and basic inspection, usually done to check for any obvious signs of illegal activity or contraband. These two types of searches vary in terms of the level of detail and time required to conduct them.

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48. Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?

Explanation

In the marginal data section of a range card, you would sketch in magnetic north data. This section is typically used to record information that is important but not directly related to the range or target. Magnetic north data is crucial for navigation and orienting oneself in relation to the magnetic field of the Earth. By including it in the marginal data section, it can be easily referenced and used when needed during operations or training exercises.

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49. Range cards are a record of?

Explanation

Range cards are a record of firing data. They provide information about the specific details of a firing exercise, such as the distance to the target, the type of ammunition used, the angle of fire, and any adjustments made during the exercise. Range cards are used by military personnel to keep track of their firing data and to make accurate adjustments for future exercises.

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50.  Which is not a category of a terrorist group?

Explanation

The term "state in-directed" does not exist in the context of terrorist groups. The other three categories, non-state supported, state supported, and state directed, refer to different levels of involvement and support from a state entity. Non-state supported groups operate independently without any support from a state. State-supported groups receive direct assistance and resources from a state. State-directed groups are controlled and directed by a state. However, there is no category called "state in-directed" that describes a type of terrorist group.

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51. What term refers to the North that is established by using vertical grid lines on the map?

Explanation

Grid North refers to the North that is established by using vertical grid lines on the map. This term is used to indicate the direction of North on a map or grid system, which is determined by the orientation of the grid lines. It is different from True North, which refers to the direction towards the North Pole, and Magnetic North, which refers to the direction indicated by a compass needle due to the Earth's magnetic field.

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52. What tool should be used when splicing wire together?

Explanation

Pliers should be used when splicing wire together because they provide a firm grip and allow for precise control when twisting and securing the wires. Pliers have jaws that can be adjusted to hold the wires securely in place, preventing them from slipping or coming loose. Additionally, pliers have a cutting edge that can be used to trim any excess wire or insulation. Using a hammer, screw-driver, or cutter would not provide the same level of control and precision needed for splicing wire.

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53. Stan-Evals will be conducted within?

Explanation

Stan-Evals are evaluations conducted to assess an individual's proficiency and qualification in a specific area. According to the given answer, Stan-Evals will be conducted within 30 duty days after an individual completes qualification training. This means that the evaluation will take place relatively soon after the completion of the training, allowing for a timely assessment of the individual's skills and knowledge.

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54. The goal of the Air Force Law Enforcement Terminal System (AFLETS) program is to provide what?

Explanation

The goal of the Air Force Law Enforcement Terminal System (AFLETS) program is to provide prompt police information through the use of technology. This means that the program aims to use technology to quickly and efficiently provide law enforcement officers with the necessary information they need to perform their duties effectively. The program may utilize advanced computer systems and other technologies to gather, process, and disseminate information to law enforcement personnel in a timely manner.

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55. With the M72 Law, if the trigger-arming handle fails to stay in the ARM position, check…

Explanation

If the trigger-arming handle fails to stay in the ARM position with the M72 Law, the correct step to take is to check if the launcher is fully extended. This is because if the launcher is not fully extended, it may not be able to properly engage and arm the weapon. Therefore, ensuring that the launcher is fully extended is crucial for the proper functioning of the M72 Law.

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56. What type of ammunition does the M203 fire?

Explanation

The M203 fires 40mm low velocity ammunition.

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57. Security fences serve as a…

Explanation

Security fences serve as a legal and physical demarcation of an area boundary. This means that they not only physically separate one area from another, but they also have legal implications. The presence of a security fence signifies that there are legal boundaries in place, and crossing or trespassing these boundaries may have legal consequences. Additionally, security fences also provide a physical barrier that prevents unauthorized access or entry into a specific area, further enhancing security measures.

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58. How many meters is the M249 maximum effective range for an area target?

Explanation

The M249 has a maximum effective range of 800 meters for an area target. This means that the weapon is capable of accurately engaging and hitting targets within a radius of 800 meters.

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59. When challenging individual on foot, place the individuals in the final challenge position, instruct them to remove and place their credentials on the ground, and command them to turn around and walk how many paces away from the credentials?

Explanation

When challenging an individual on foot, they should be placed in the final challenge position. They are then instructed to remove and place their credentials on the ground. Afterward, they are commanded to turn around and walk 5 paces away from their credentials.

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60. True or False: Persons having fewer than 90 days remaining until discharge, retirement, or retraining or who are with 90 days of permanent change of station (PCS) do not require Stan-Evals.

Explanation

Persons who have fewer than 90 days remaining until discharge, retirement, or retraining, or who are within 90 days of a permanent change of station (PCS), do not require Stan-Evals. This means that individuals who are nearing the end of their service or are about to be relocated do not need to undergo standard evaluations.

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61. How far out from your position should you clear your field of fire.

Explanation

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62. Before conducting a vehicle search. You must have probable cause,

Explanation

The correct answer is "Proper search authority and consent of the person controlling the vehicle." This means that before conducting a vehicle search, the person conducting the search must have the legal authority to do so, such as a search warrant or probable cause. Additionally, they must obtain the consent of the person who is in control of the vehicle at the time of the search.

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63. You initiate a challenge on a person inside a restricted area because he or she is not wearing a restricted area badge. What are the risk perception, subject action, and officer response levels?

Explanation

The correct answer suggests that the risk perception level in this situation is "Professional perception" because the officer is perceiving a potential risk due to the person not wearing a restricted area badge. The subject action level is "complaint" as the officer initiates a challenge on the person. The officer response level is "cooperative controls" indicating that the officer will use non-aggressive tactics to handle the situation and ensure compliance with the restricted area policy.

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64. Once you detect an unidentified individual inside the restricted area, your first action is to…

Explanation

The correct answer is to notify SFCC, or MSC of the situation through the communication system on post. This is the most appropriate action to take when detecting an unidentified individual inside a restricted area. Notifying the appropriate authorities ensures that they are aware of the situation and can respond accordingly. It also allows for coordination and communication with other security personnel to effectively handle the situation. Taking cover, charging the weapon, and shouting halt may be necessary in certain circumstances, but the first action should always be to notify the relevant authorities.

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65. Which Electronic Security Systems (ESS) function provides transmission of data between the sensors and annunciators?

Explanation

Communication is the correct answer because it refers to the function of transmitting data between the sensors and annunciators in Electronic Security Systems (ESS). This function allows the sensors to send information to the annunciators, which can then display or alert the appropriate personnel about any detected security breaches or events. Without communication, the sensors and annunciators would not be able to exchange data, rendering the ESS ineffective in monitoring and protecting the area it is installed in.

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66. In which Force Protection (FP) condition is a terrorist action against installations and personnel imminent?

Explanation

The correct answer is Charlie. In Force Protection (FP) condition Charlie, a terrorist action against installations and personnel is imminent. This means that there is specific and credible intelligence indicating that a terrorist attack is likely to occur. In this condition, heightened security measures are implemented to prevent or mitigate the potential threat.

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67. National statistics state the age most likely to commit suicide is?

Explanation

The correct answer is males 20-50 years old. This age group is most likely to commit suicide according to national statistics. It is important to note that suicide rates can vary depending on various factors such as gender, age, and other demographic characteristics. However, within the given options, males aged 20-50 have the highest likelihood of committing suicide.

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68. How many safety positions does the M57 firing device have?

Explanation

The M57 firing device has two safety positions.

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69. What were Military Police companies in the new Army Air Force named?

Explanation

During World War II, Military Police companies in the new Army Air Force were named Army Air Force Base Security Battalions. These battalions were responsible for maintaining security and order on air force bases, protecting personnel and equipment from any potential threats or sabotage. They would conduct patrols, guard gates, and enforce regulations to ensure the safety and smooth operation of the air force bases. This name accurately reflects the role and function of these military police units within the Army Air Force during that time.

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70. What is the core consideration in the decision-making process toward force utilization?

Explanation

In the decision-making process toward force utilization, the core consideration is the perception of risk. This means that the decision-maker evaluates and assesses the level of risk involved in using force. The perception of risk can be influenced by various factors such as the potential harm to the subject, the potential harm to others, the legality and consequences of using force, and the overall impact on the situation. By considering the perception of risk, decision-makers can make informed choices about whether or not to use force and to what extent.

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71. How is the final protective lone (FPL) sketched in on your sector?

Explanation

The final protective line (FPL) is sketched in on the sector by using a thick dark line that extends out to the weapon's grazing fire distance. Additionally, the top of the line is capped with an arrow. This indicates the area where the weapon's fire is concentrated and serves as a visual reference for the defenders to establish their firing positions.

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72. How many meters is the maximum effective range for a point target? (M203)

Explanation

The maximum effective range for a point target with an M203 is 150 meters. This means that the M203 can accurately hit and engage a single target at a maximum distance of 150 meters.

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73. What is the first step if you suspect exposure through a laceration?

Explanation

When suspecting exposure through a laceration, the first step is to apply pressure to the wound to encourage bleeding. This is important because bleeding helps to flush out any potential contaminants from the wound. By applying pressure, it helps to promote the flow of blood and remove any foreign substances that may have entered the wound. This step is crucial in preventing infection and minimizing the risk of further complications.

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74. Who maintains the AF Form 623?

Explanation

The AF Form 623 is a Performance Feedback Worksheet used in the Air Force to document and evaluate an individual's performance. Since the form is directly related to the individual's performance, it is the responsibility of the individual supervisors to maintain and keep track of these forms. They are the ones who provide feedback, assess performance, and fill out the form accordingly. Therefore, individual supervisors are the ones who maintain the AF Form 623.

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75. What is the correct procedure for changing your position from searching the weak side to the strong side standing search?

Explanation

The correct procedure for changing your position from searching the weak side to the strong side in a standing search is to first switch hands on the linking chain. This ensures that you maintain control over the suspect while transitioning. Next, you should place your strong hand on the suspect's shoulder, which provides additional control and stability. Then, instruct the suspect to turn their head, which allows you to maintain visual contact and prevents them from potentially attacking or escaping. Finally, switch your feet position to adjust your stance and maintain balance during the transition.

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76. The typical SF command section includes all of the following except?

Explanation

The typical SF command section includes the Chief, Security Forces, Standardization and Evaluation, and First Sergeant. However, the Superintendent, Resources and Training is not included in the SF command section.

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77. How are designated marksman employed?

Explanation

Designated marksman are employed either individually or as a pair depending on the situation and requirements. This means that they can operate independently or work together as a team. The decision on how they are deployed is based on factors such as the mission objectives, terrain, and the specific tactics determined by the CSF (Combat Support Function) or the commanding officer. The flexibility to employ designated marksman either individually or as a pair allows for adaptability and effectiveness in various combat scenarios.

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78. What are the cost centers involved in the budget process?

Explanation

The correct answer is Cost Center and Responsibility Center. In the budget process, cost centers are involved because they represent specific departments or units within an organization that incur costs. These cost centers are accountable for their expenses and play a role in budget planning and allocation. Responsibility centers, on the other hand, are responsible for the performance and results of a particular area or function within the organization. They are accountable for both costs and revenues, making them an integral part of the budget process as well.

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79. Which terrorist group operates autonomously?

Explanation

Non-state supported terrorist groups operate autonomously without any direct backing or support from a specific state. These groups function independently, planning and executing their activities without the assistance or direction of any government. Unlike state-directed or state-supported terrorist organizations, non-state supported groups operate without the explicit involvement or endorsement of a particular nation-state. This autonomy allows them to act according to their own agenda and objectives, making them potentially more unpredictable and difficult to counter.

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80. Under which phase of integrated base defense (IBD) do we tailor defense plans to proactively counter enemy threats?

Explanation

In the context of integrated base defense (IBD), the phase of "Understand first" refers to the process of gathering and analyzing intelligence to gain a comprehensive understanding of potential enemy threats. This phase involves assessing the capabilities and intentions of the enemy, identifying vulnerabilities in the defense system, and developing proactive defense plans to counter those threats effectively. By understanding the enemy's tactics and objectives, the defense plans can be tailored to anticipate and preemptively respond to potential attacks, ensuring the base's security.

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81. How many people in the United States carry the HB virus?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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82. What term defines the angular difference between two Norths?

Explanation

Declination is the correct answer because it refers to the angular difference between two Norths. It is the angle between magnetic north and true north, and it varies depending on the location on Earth. Declination is important for navigation and compass use, as it helps determine the correct direction when using a magnetic compass.

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83. What principles are you using when exercising discretion?

Explanation

The principles of fairness and reasonableness are essential when exercising discretion. Fairness ensures that decisions are unbiased, impartial, and just, taking into account the rights and needs of all parties involved. Reasonableness ensures that decisions are logical, rational, and based on sound judgment, considering the facts, circumstances, and evidence available. By applying these principles, individuals can make fair and reasonable choices that uphold ethical standards and promote justice.

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84. Which of the following do not belong in the spectrums of IBD battlespace?

Explanation

The term "IBD battlespace" refers to the battlespace in which battles are fought against Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBD). The other options, such as Air Force Battlespace and Force Protection Battlespace, are not related to IBD battlespace. However, "Base Battlespace" is also unrelated to IBD battlespace, as it refers to the area in which military bases are located.

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85. When the Wide-Area Surveillance Thermal Imager (WSTI) tripod is fully extended, it is 20 feet high and the legs are approximately?

Explanation

When the Wide-Area Surveillance Thermal Imager (WSTI) tripod is fully extended and stands 20 feet high, the legs are approximately 20 feet apart at the base. This is because the tripod is designed to provide stability and support for the height of the device. The wider base ensures that the tripod remains balanced and prevents it from toppling over. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 feet apart at the base.

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86. Existence or capability must be present, and history may or may not be present in threat level…

Explanation

The given answer is "Low". This suggests that in threat level, existence or capability must be present, but history may or may not be present. This implies that the threat level is not very severe or imminent, as it is categorized as "Low".

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87. What are your chances of getting HB if stuck with an infected needle?

Explanation

The correct answer is 6 to 30 percent likely. This means that if someone is stuck with an infected needle, there is a moderate likelihood (between 6 and 30 percent) that they may contract Hepatitis B (HB). This percentage range suggests that there is a significant chance of infection, but it is not a guarantee. It is important to seek medical attention and take appropriate precautions if exposed to an infected needle to minimize the risk of contracting HB.

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88. Which progressive element of force is measured in terms of immediacy and necessity?

Explanation

Timing refers to the progressive element of force that is measured in terms of immediacy and necessity. It is the ability to choose the right moment to apply force in order to achieve maximum effectiveness. By understanding the timing of a situation, one can determine when and how much force is needed, ensuring that it is both immediate and necessary. This element is crucial in various contexts such as military operations, sports, and decision-making processes.

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89. Which principle of Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW) applies appropriate military capability prudently?

Explanation

Restraint is the principle of Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW) that applies appropriate military capability prudently. This principle emphasizes the careful and judicious use of military force, taking into consideration the potential impact on civilians, infrastructure, and the overall mission objectives. Restraint ensures that military actions are proportionate and in line with the desired outcomes, avoiding excessive use of force that could escalate conflicts or harm non-combatants. By exercising restraint, military forces can maintain credibility, legitimacy, and public support while achieving the desired objectives in MOOTW scenarios.

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90. A suicidal gesture is defined as?

Explanation

A suicidal gesture is defined as a symbolic but not serious threat to life. The act is done in a way that it is clear that there is no genuine intention to die.

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91. Who is responsible for establishing training programs for controllers?

Explanation

The Chief, Security Forces is responsible for establishing training programs for controllers.

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92. What is the most common unit of measure when converting azimuths?

Explanation

The most common unit of measure when converting azimuths is mil. A mil is a unit of angular measurement that is equal to 1/6400th of a circle. It is commonly used in military and artillery applications for measuring horizontal angles and directions.

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93. What is the responsibility of the Security Forces Manager (SFM)?

Explanation

The responsibility of the Security Forces Manager (SFM) is to be the commander for the Stan-Eval program. This means that the SFM is in charge of overseeing and managing the evaluation program for the security forces. They are responsible for ensuring that all evaluations are conducted properly and in accordance with the established standards. They also have the authority to make decisions and take actions to improve the effectiveness and efficiency of the program. Overall, the SFM plays a crucial role in ensuring the security forces are evaluated and maintained at a high level of readiness and proficiency.

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94. The area of Electronic Security Systems (ESS) that includes thermal imagers to assist in identifying the source of an alarm is?

Explanation

Assessment is the correct answer because thermal imagers in Electronic Security Systems (ESS) are used to assist in identifying the source of an alarm. They help in evaluating the situation and determining the nature and severity of the threat or intrusion. By providing visual information through heat signatures, thermal imagers aid in the assessment of potential risks and enable appropriate action to be taken in response to the alarm.

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95. What threat assessment factor exists when there are confirmed intentions of a terrorist group?

Explanation

When there are confirmed intentions of a terrorist group, the threat assessment factor that exists is "Intentions." This means that the group has expressed or demonstrated a clear desire or plan to carry out terrorist activities. Intentions are an important factor to consider in threat assessment as they indicate the potential for future attacks and the level of danger posed by the group.

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Deadly force would be authorized to keep…
What are the three camouflage methods?
Individuals selected for controller should have what characteristics?
When suspects are cooperative, handcuff them…
True or False:  Stress is an automatic physical reaction to a...
After you have stopped a vehicle and asked the driver for permission...
Your conduct when apprehending suspects should be in accordance...
What could happen if you use excessive force?
You respond to the base housing area to remove several...
True or False:  The budget operates on the fiscal year.
What should you consider all suspects to be?
You would use a standing search on a suspect who is?
How are vehicles selected when conducting installation entry point...
What is a way you can identify stressors on the job?
What are the M4 characteristics?
True or False:  OPSEC is the process of identifying critical...
True or False:  The M240B machine gun supports the rifleman in...
How many Forces Protection (FP) conditions are there?
You handcuff suspects from what two positions?
The difference between a violent dispute and verbal dispute is during...
What were the two main mission elements of “Security Police”?
Where do you direct pepper spray bursts?
True or False:  The M203 grenade launcher fires high-explosive,...
What is the most common shotgun the Air Force uses?
True or False:  The M4 carbine’s special features make it the...
What did the US Supreme Court establish as the appropriate standard...
Who provides the foundation of the integrated base defense concept?
Color is used in The Use of Force Model to enhance our role and...
What was designed to assist security forces with identifying and...
What are terrorists’ most important gain even when the actual...
What replaces our deadly force policy during declared or undeclared...
What materials can you use to tone down skin color?
What is a retrograde operation?
Which of the following security disciplines is closely coordinated...
What AFSC is awarded upon completion of the military working dog...
What grade must an SF member hold before being considered for...
What are the MOOTW principles?
Which position is most desirable and natural from which to throw...
The types of jurisdictions found on US government installations are?
How many different job titles are normally present in the typical unit...
When officers are in charge of flights (SFO A/B/C/D), they are...
How many operating positions does the M4 stock have?
List the criteria that support “objective reasonableness”.
During terrorist objectives and tactics, who is the lead agency for...
How is the rear grab overcome?
When apprehending suspects, what should you use to apply the...
What are the two types of vehicle searches?
Where would you sketch in magnetic north data on your range card?
Range cards are a record of?
 Which is not a category of a terrorist group?
What term refers to the North that is established by using vertical...
What tool should be used when splicing wire together?
Stan-Evals will be conducted within?
The goal of the Air Force Law Enforcement Terminal System (AFLETS)...
With the M72 Law, if the trigger-arming handle fails to stay in the...
What type of ammunition does the M203 fire?
Security fences serve as a…
How many meters is the M249 maximum effective range for an area...
When challenging individual on foot, place the individuals in the...
True or False: Persons having fewer than 90 days remaining until...
How far out from your position should you clear your field of fire.
Before conducting a vehicle search. You must have probable cause,
You initiate a challenge on a person inside a restricted area because...
Once you detect an unidentified individual inside the restricted area,...
Which Electronic Security Systems (ESS) function provides transmission...
In which Force Protection (FP) condition is a terrorist action against...
National statistics state the age most likely to commit suicide is?
How many safety positions does the M57 firing device have?
What were Military Police companies in the new Army Air Force named?
What is the core consideration in the decision-making process toward...
How is the final protective lone (FPL) sketched in on your sector?
How many meters is the maximum effective range for a point target?...
What is the first step if you suspect exposure through a laceration?
Who maintains the AF Form 623?
What is the correct procedure for changing your position from...
The typical SF command section includes all of the following except?
How are designated marksman employed?
What are the cost centers involved in the budget process?
Which terrorist group operates autonomously?
Under which phase of integrated base defense (IBD) do we tailor...
How many people in the United States carry the HB virus?
What term defines the angular difference between two Norths?
What principles are you using when exercising discretion?
Which of the following do not belong in the spectrums of IBD...
When the Wide-Area Surveillance Thermal Imager (WSTI) tripod is fully...
Existence or capability must be present, and history may or may not be...
What are your chances of getting HB if stuck with an infected needle?
Which progressive element of force is measured in terms of immediacy...
Which principle of Military Operations Other Than War (MOOTW) applies...
A suicidal gesture is defined as?
Who is responsible for establishing training programs for controllers?
What is the most common unit of measure when converting azimuths?
What is the responsibility of the Security Forces Manager (SFM)?
The area of Electronic Security Systems (ESS) that includes thermal...
What threat assessment factor exists when there are confirmed...
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