3CX5X Vol2 Ure's
3CX5X URE's for Volume 1. Please comment if they are wrong. Current as of 20 Aug 2009.
- 1.
Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequentially analayzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities
- A.
OPSEC
- B.
EMSEC
- C.
COMSEC
- D.
COMPUSEC
Correct Answer
A. OPSEC -
- 2.
When was the first Air Force OPSEC program introduced?
- A.
1955
- B.
1956
- C.
1966
- D.
1967
Correct Answer
C. 1966 -
- 3.
In what year was the present OPSEC program we use today established
- A.
1960
- B.
1967
- C.
1970
- D.
1976
Correct Answer
C. 1970 -
- 4.
In which of the following OPSEC steps would you inform AFOSI of potential adversaries and their associated capabilities, limitations and intentions to collect, analyze, and use critical information
- A.
Risk Assessment
- B.
Threat Assessment
- C.
Vulnerability Analysis
- D.
Identification of critical information
Correct Answer
B. Threat Assessment -
- 5.
In which of the following OPSEC steps would program managers and coordinators recommend actions to the senior decision-makers and commanders?
- A.
Risk Assessment
- B.
Threat assessment
- C.
Apply OPSEC measures
- D.
Identification of critical information
Correct Answer
A. Risk Assessment -
- 6.
Which of the following OPSEC steps wouth dynamic situations require you to reaccomplish preventative actions
- A.
Risk assessment
- B.
Threat assessment
- C.
Apply OPSEC measure
- D.
Vulnerability analysis
Correct Answer
C. Apply OPSEC measure -
- 7.
Specific facts about friendly activitiers, intentions, capabilities or limitations vitally needed by adversaries for them to plan and act effectively to guarantee failure or unacceptable consequences for friendly mission accomplishment best describe
- A.
Vulnerabilities
- B.
Critical information
- C.
Operational indicators
- D.
Operational information
Correct Answer
B. Critical information -
- 8.
In which OPSEC indicator would an abrupt change or cancellation of schedules fall under?
- A.
Operational
- B.
Administrative
- C.
Communications
- D.
Logistic and maintenance support
Correct Answer
A. Operational -
- 9.
Special briefings, meeting, or religious services would fall under which OPSEC indicator
- A.
Operational
- B.
Administrative
- C.
Communications
- D.
Logisitc and maintenance support
Correct Answer
B. Administrative -
- 10.
Deviating from normal procedures would fall under which OPSEC indicator
- A.
Operational
- B.
Administrative
- C.
Communications
- D.
Logistic and maintenance support
Correct Answer
D. Logistic and maintenance support -
- 11.
Data aggregation is defined as
- A.
Associated data that has no value
- B.
Assortment of intelligence data on an adversary
- C.
Collection of loosely associated data and/or information
- D.
Information that clearly reveals the enemy's operational procedures
Correct Answer
C. Collection of loosely associated data and/or information -
- 12.
What are among the most problematicv OPSEC vulnerabilities in the Air Force today?
- A.
Copiers and fax machines
- B.
Telephones and cell phones
- C.
Radio and broadband internet
- D.
Networks and computer systems
Correct Answer
B. Telephones and cell phones -
- 13.
The reason information is collected best describes which mandatory item of Provacy Act Statement
- A.
Purpose
- B.
Authority
- C.
Disclosure
- D.
Routine use
Correct Answer
A. Purpose -
- 14.
What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material
- A.
AF Form 2327
- B.
AF Form 3217
- C.
AF Form 3227
- D.
AF Form 3327
Correct Answer
C. AF Form 3227 -
- 15.
Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in
- A.
AFI 31-301
- B.
AFI 31-401
- C.
AFI 31-501
- D.
AFI 31-601
Correct Answer
C. AFI 31-501 -
- 16.
Disclosure of information that would result is the loss, misue, unauthorized access, or modification that might adversely affect national security would best be described as
- A.
Secret
- B.
Confidential
- C.
For official use only
- D.
Sensitive but unclassified
Correct Answer
D. Sensitive but unclassified -
- 17.
Which document provides guidance on the Information Security Program Management
- A.
AFI 31-301
- B.
AFI 31-401
- C.
AFI 31-501
- D.
AFI 31-601
Correct Answer
B. AFI 31-401 -
- 18.
What specific restrication can a designated approving authority (DAA) impose on classified systems or networks
- A.
Certify and accredit local systems and networks
- B.
Control measures to collect accreditation metric data
- C.
Prohibit the use of government owned removeable storage media
- D.
Create new guidance on system certification to Wing Information Assurance
Correct Answer
C. Prohibit the use of government owned removeable storage media -
- 19.
Before obtaining access to classifed material, which document must be signed as a prerequisite
- A.
Standard Form 213
- B.
Standard Form 231
- C.
Standard Form 312
- D.
Standard Form 321
Correct Answer
C. Standard Form 312 -
- 20.
What form is annotated at the end-of-day security check to ensure classified material is stored appropriately
- A.
Standard Form 700
- B.
Standard Form 701
- C.
Standard Form 702
- D.
Standard Form 703
Correct Answer
B. Standard Form 701 -
- 21.
What is the COMSEC program designed to do
- A.
Relocate classified material to strengthen security
- B.
Conduct assessments to evaluate compromise of national security
- C.
Deflect unauthorized interception and analysis of compromising emanations
- D.
Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information
Correct Answer
D. Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information -
- 22.
What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging
- A.
AFI 33-119
- B.
AFI 33-129
- C.
AFI 33-219
- D.
AFI 33-329
Correct Answer
A. AFI 33-119 -
- 23.
Where would you find guidance on how to properly store, control, safeguard, transfer, and destroy COMSEC material
- A.
AFI 33-201, Volume 1
- B.
AFI 31-202, Volume 1
- C.
AFI 31-301, Volume 1
- D.
AFI 31-302, Volume 1
Correct Answer
A. AFI 33-201, Volume 1 -
- 24.
Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas
- A.
AF Form 1019
- B.
AF Form 1109
- C.
AF Form 1119
- D.
AF Form 1190
Correct Answer
B. AF Form 1109 -
- 25.
An investigated or evaluated incident that has been determined as jeopardizing tyhe security of COMSEC material is best described as a COMSEC
- A.
Insecurity
- B.
Deviation
- C.
Incident
- D.
Report
Correct Answer
A. Insecurity -
- 26.
An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the scure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC
- A.
Insecurity
- B.
Deviation
- C.
Incident
- D.
Report
Correct Answer
C. Incident -
- 27.
What are the three types of COMSEC incidents
- A.
Physical, incidental, and encryption
- B.
Physical, personnel, and cryptographic
- C.
Personnel, incidental, and encryption
- D.
Personnel, incidental, and cryptographic
Correct Answer
B. Physical, personnel, and cryptographic -
- 28.
Which organization assigns COMSEC incident report case numbers
- A.
Air Force Communications Agency
- B.
Air Force Office of Record
- C.
Central Office of Records
- D.
National Security Agency
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Communications Agency -
- 29.
Final reports of a COMSEC incident are due
- A.
10 days after the initial report is dated
- B.
20 days after the intial report is signed
- C.
30 days after the initial report is issued
- D.
40 days after the initial report is approved
Correct Answer
C. 30 days after the initial report is issued -
- 30.
The Air Force Information Assurance (IA) Awareness Program is detailed in
- A.
AFI 33-104
- B.
AFI 33-140
- C.
AFI 33-204
- D.
AFI 33-240
Correct Answer
C. AFI 33-204 -
- 31.
Which security program applies descipline measures and controls to protect data computer system data against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction
- A.
OPSEC
- B.
EMSEC
- C.
COMSEC
- D.
COMPUSEC
Correct Answer
D. COMPUSEC -
- 32.
What computer software i designed to collect personal information such as passwords and financial details without the users consent
- A.
Spyware
- B.
Cookies
- C.
Shareware
- D.
Web browser
Correct Answer
A. Spyware -
- 33.
What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment
- A.
Emulation
- B.
Emanation
- C.
Signature
- D.
Salutation
Correct Answer
B. Emanation -
- 34.
An unclassified term referring to technical investogations for compromising emanations from an electrically operated data processing equipment is known as
- A.
EMSEC
- B.
COMSEC
- C.
TEMPEST
- D.
COMPUSEC
Correct Answer
C. TEMPEST -
- 35.
Which condition exists when there is no apparant terrorist activity against computer networks
- A.
INFOCON 2
- B.
INFOCON 3
- C.
INFOCON 4
- D.
INFOCON 5
Correct Answer
D. INFOCON 5 -
- 36.
Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present
- A.
INFOCON 2
- B.
INFOCON 3
- C.
INFOCON 4
- D.
INFOCON 5
Correct Answer
C. INFOCON 4 -
- 37.
When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected
- A.
INFOCON 2
- B.
INFOCON 3
- C.
INFOCON 4
- D.
INFOCON 5
Correct Answer
B. INFOCON 3 -
- 38.
Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication
- A.
INFOCON 2
- B.
INFOCON 3
- C.
INFOCON 4
- D.
INFOCON 5
Correct Answer
A. INFOCON 2 -
- 39.
Which of the following provides the guidance necessary to manage the increasingly complex network environent and customers high quality service
- A.
AFI 33-111, Volume 1
- B.
AFI 33-115, Volume 1
- C.
AFI 33-204, Volume 1
- D.
AFI 33-402, Volume 2
Correct Answer
B. AFI 33-115, Volume 1 -
- 40.
At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globablly managed
- A.
Tier 1
- B.
Tier 2
- C.
Tier 3
- D.
Tier 4
Correct Answer
A. Tier 1 -
- 41.
An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as
- A.
A full accreditation
- B.
A type accreditation
- C.
A major accreditation
- D.
An interim accreditation
Correct Answer
A. A full accreditation -
- 42.
An accreditation decision which permits an information system to operate until specific identified steps can be completed is known as
- A.
A full accreditation
- B.
A type accreditation
- C.
A major accreditation
- D.
An interim accreditation
Correct Answer
D. An interim accreditation -
- 43.
Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires the greatest possible deterrence against hostile acts
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
A. A -
- 44.
Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a signifcant degree of deterrence against hostile acts
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
B. B -
- 45.
Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
Correct Answer
C. C -
- 46.
Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "top secret" information
- A.
SF 706
- B.
SF 707
- C.
SF 708
- D.
SF 710
Correct Answer
A. SF 706 -
- 47.
Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "secret" information
- A.
SF 706
- B.
SF 707
- C.
SF 708
- D.
SF 710
Correct Answer
B. SF 707 -
- 48.
Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "unclassified" information
- A.
SF 706
- B.
SF 707
- C.
SF 708
- D.
SF 710
Correct Answer
D. SF 710 -
- 49.
Personnel conducting end-of-day security checks will make sure classified material is stored appropriately at the close of each working day and record them on
- A.
Standard Form 700
- B.
Standard Form 701
- C.
Standard Form 702
- D.
Standard Form 703
Correct Answer
B. Standard Form 701 -
- 50.
The top secret control officer (TSCO) uses which form for the purpose of a "top secret" covers sheer and access disclosure of record
- A.
AF Form 114
- B.
AF Form 144
- C.
AF Form 1019
- D.
AF Form 1109
Correct Answer
B. AF Form 144 -
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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Jan 04, 2013Quiz Edited by
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Aug 18, 2009Quiz Created by
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