3CX5X Vol2 URE's

1. What are among the most problematicv OPSEC vulnerabilities in the Air Force today?

Copiers and fax machines

Telephones and cell phones

Radio and broadband internet

Networks and computer systems

2. Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication

INFOCON 2

INFOCON 3

INFOCON 4

INFOCON 5

3. An accreditation decision which permits an information system to operate until specific identified steps can be completed is known as

A full accreditation

A type accreditation

A major accreditation

An interim accreditation

4. How does the Air Force organie, train, equip, and sustain the best air and space force by

Using the AEF concept

Gathering information on our enemies

Making lots of bombs to drop over other countries

Asking congress to provide the necessary funding to win wars

5. Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequentially analayzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities

OPSEC

EMSEC

COMSEC

COMPUSEC

6. Final reports of a COMSEC incident are due

10 days after the initial report is dated

20 days after the intial report is signed

30 days after the initial report is issued

40 days after the initial report is approved

7. What computer software i designed to collect personal information such as passwords and financial details without the users consent

Spyware

Cookies

Shareware

Web browser

8. Data aggregation is defined as

Associated data that has no value

Assortment of intelligence data on an adversary

Collection of loosely associated data and/or information

Information that clearly reveals the enemy's operational procedures

9. Which security program applies descipline measures and controls to protect data computer system data against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction

OPSEC

EMSEC

COMSEC

COMPUSEC

10. Which condition exists when there is no apparant terrorist activity against computer networks

INFOCON 2

INFOCON 3

INFOCON 4

INFOCON 5

11. Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts

A

B

C

D

12. What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment

Emulation

Emanation

Signature

Salutation

13. An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as

A full accreditation

A type accreditation

A major accreditation

An interim accreditation

14. Which of the following OPSEC steps wouth dynamic situations require you to reaccomplish preventative actions

Risk assessment

Threat assessment

Apply OPSEC measure

Vulnerability analysis

15. Special briefings, meeting, or religious services would fall under which OPSEC indicator

Operational

Administrative

Communications

Logisitc and maintenance support

16. What specific restrication can a designated approving authority (DAA) impose on classified systems or networks

Certify and accredit local systems and networks

Control measures to collect accreditation metric data

Prohibit the use of government owned removeable storage media

Create new guidance on system certification to Wing Information Assurance

17. An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the scure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC

Insecurity

Deviation

Incident

Report

18. Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires the greatest possible deterrence against hostile acts

A

B

C

D

19. Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "secret" information

SF 706

SF 707

SF 708

SF 710

20. Which of the following is defined as the legal authority excercised over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment

Control

Command

Dictation

Jurisdiction

21. Which best describes the definition of a unit type code (UTC)

A COTS product similiar to the bar coding system used on commercial products

A database used to store data of force capabilities and crisis action planning

It is a subsystem used to establish initial force communications with commanders

It is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of AEFs

22. One of the disadvantages of line-of-sight primary mode of radio transmissions is that relay stations are required

Every 10 miles

Every 20 miles

When distances exceeds 30 to 40 miles

When distances do not extend beyond 30 miles

23. What is the COMSEC program designed to do

Relocate classified material to strengthen security

Conduct assessments to evaluate compromise of national security

Deflect unauthorized interception and analysis of compromising emanations

Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information

24. What are the three types of COMSEC incidents

Physical, incidental, and encryption

Physical, personnel, and cryptographic

Personnel, incidental, and encryption

Personnel, incidental, and cryptographic

25. When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected

INFOCON 2

INFOCON 3

INFOCON 4

INFOCON 5

26. In what year was the present OPSEC program we use today established

1960

1967

1970

1976

27. Specific facts about friendly activitiers, intentions, capabilities or limitations vitally needed by adversaries for them to plan and act effectively to guarantee failure or unacceptable consequences for friendly mission accomplishment best describe

Vulnerabilities

Critical information

Operational indicators

Operational information

28. Deviating from normal procedures would fall under which OPSEC indicator

Operational

Administrative

Communications

Logistic and maintenance support

29. Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present

INFOCON 2

INFOCON 3

INFOCON 4

INFOCON 5

30. At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globablly managed

Tier 1

Tier 2

Tier 3

Tier 4

31. Radio waves travel through free space at the speed of light and can be

Reflected, rejected, or deflected

Reflected, refracted, or deflected

Rejected, refracted, or diffracted

Reflected, refracted, or diffracted

32. Waves that travel through the air in a straight line (line-of-sight) from one transmitting antenna to a receiving antenna are known as

Sky waves

Direct waves

Ground waves

Atmospheric waves

33. Deployment execution and unit personnel preparation are responsibilies most often delegated to the

DAA

ART

UTC

UDM

34. Who has the mission to provide fast reaction to immediate requests from land forces for close air support

Future combat systems

Battlefield control systems

Air Support operations center

Air support operations squadrons

35. When was the first Air Force OPSEC program introduced?

1955

1956

1966

1967

36. The reason information is collected best describes which mandatory item of Provacy Act Statement

Purpose

Authority

Disclosure

Routine use

37. Disclosure of information that would result is the loss, misue, unauthorized access, or modification that might adversely affect national security would best be described as

Secret

Confidential

For official use only

Sensitive but unclassified

38. An unclassified term referring to technical investogations for compromising emanations from an electrically operated data processing equipment is known as

EMSEC

COMSEC

TEMPEST

COMPUSEC

39. TDC is composed of which three major components

ICAP, NCC-D, and DCAPES

Ground satellite terminals, ICAP, NCC-D

Ground satellite terminals, ICAP, and MEFPAK

Ground satellite terminals, MEFPAK, and DCAPES

40. Which wave transmission is very effective for long-distance communications in the high-frequency range (3-30 MHz)

Sky waves

Direct waves

Ground waves

Atmospheric waves

41. What form is annotated at the end-of-day security check to ensure classified material is stored appropriately

Standard Form 700

Standard Form 701

Standard Form 702

Standard Form 703

42. Personnel conducting end-of-day security checks will make sure classified material is stored appropriately at the close of each working day and record them on

Standard Form 700

Standard Form 701

Standard Form 702

Standard Form 703

43. Which of the following do commanders use to report the ability of a standard UTC to perform its mission capability (MISCAP) statement worldwide and to identify its apability through the next AEF bucket

ART

DAA

TDC

UDM

44. Which of the following is used to collect and store the data of material requirements and logistics details for UTCs

TUCHA

LOGFOR

MANFOR

MEFPAK

45. In which of the following OPSEC steps would program managers and coordinators recommend actions to the senior decision-makers and commanders?

Risk Assessment

Threat assessment

Apply OPSEC measures

Identification of critical information

46. What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material

AF Form 2327

AF Form 3217

AF Form 3227

AF Form 3327

47. Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "top secret" information

SF 706

SF 707

SF 708

SF 710

48. Which characteristics should proposed theater deployable commications (TDC) equipment strive to have

Survivability, demobility, and security

Interoperability, security, and demobility

Open systems standards, capability, and reliability

Open systems standards, interoperability, and survivability

49. Which airborne platform collects real-time positioning and tracking data on the location of friendly and enem,y aircraft and naval vessles in the AOR

E-3 Sentry

RC-135V/W Rivet Joint

Global Positioning System

Ground data processing stations

50. Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a signifcant degree of deterrence against hostile acts

A

B

C

D

51. In which of the following OPSEC steps would you inform AFOSI of potential adversaries and their associated capabilities, limitations and intentions to collect, analyze, and use critical information

Risk Assessment

Threat Assessment

Vulnerability Analysis

Identification of critical information

52. Which is a suite of modules and accesory kits that serve as the backbone for deployed communications networks

ICAP

NCC-D

DCAPES

MEFPAK

53. Which organization assigns COMSEC incident report case numbers

Air Force Communications Agency

Air Force Office of Record

Central Office of Records

National Security Agency

54. Which AOC area support team provides staff support to the Chief of AOC systems

AOC network support

AOC weapon system help desk

Communications focal point

Command and control systems

55. An investigated or evaluated incident that has been determined as jeopardizing tyhe security of COMSEC material is best described as a COMSEC

Insecurity

Deviation

Incident

Report

56. Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "unclassified" information

SF 706

SF 707

SF 708

SF 710

57. Which of the following is the Air Force computer system used for UTC package management

JOPES

TPFDD

TUCHA

MEFPAK

58. Which of the following is a DoD directed integrated joing command and control (C2) system used for conventional and theater-level nuclear operation planning and execution

JOPES

TPFDD

TUCHA

MEFPAK

59. Which is the primary system used for analyzing dynamic intelligence, surveillance, and reconaissance data of rapid post-mission

E-3 Sentry

RC-135V/W Rivet Joint

Global Positioning System

Ground data processing stations

60. Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas

AF Form 1019

AF Form 1109

AF Form 1119

AF Form 1190

61. Which database is used for the purpose of coordinating the movement of joint forces into their operational locations

JOPES

TPFDD

LOGFOR

MEFPAK

62. Which area support team makes sure servers, workstations, peripherals, communications devices, and software programs are on-line and available to network users?

AOC network support

AOC weapon system help desk

Communications focal point

Command and control systems

63. In which OPSEC indicator would an abrupt change or cancellation of schedules fall under?

Operational

Administrative

Communications

Logistic and maintenance support

64. Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in

AFI 31-301

AFI 31-401

AFI 31-501

AFI 31-601

65. Which of the following provides the guidance necessary to manage the increasingly complex network environent and customers high quality service

AFI 33-111, Volume 1

AFI 33-115, Volume 1

AFI 33-204, Volume 1

AFI 33-402, Volume 2

66. What DoD agencies refine tactics, techniques, procedures, and measuring concepts for infusion into current and next generation operational systems

Future combat systems

Battlefield control systems

Air Support operations center

Air support operations squadrons

67. Which are used as the primary transmissions of direct radio waves

EHF/UHF

EHF/SHF

VHF/UHF

VHF/SHF

68. Before obtaining access to classifed material, which document must be signed as a prerequisite

Standard Form 213

Standard Form 231

Standard Form 312

Standard Form 321

69. Which frequency band is used for EHF band designation?

3 to 30 GHz

30 to 300 MHz

30 to 300 GHz

300 to 3000 MHz

70. Which document provides guidance on the Information Security Program Management

AFI 31-301

AFI 31-401

AFI 31-501

AFI 31-601

71. What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging

AFI 33-119

AFI 33-129

AFI 33-219

AFI 33-329

72. The Air Force Information Assurance (IA) Awareness Program is detailed in

AFI 33-104

AFI 33-140

AFI 33-204

AFI 33-240

73. Which of the following has the primary function of coordinating and directing immediate requests of tactical close air support to land forces

Future combat systems

Battlefield control systems

Air Support operations center

Air Support operations squadron

74. Which frequency band is used for SHF band designation?

3 to 30 GHZ

30 to 300 MHZ

30 to 300 GHz

300 to 3000 MHz

75. The top secret control officer (TSCO) uses which form for the purpose of a "top secret" covers sheer and access disclosure of record

AF Form 114

AF Form 144

AF Form 1019

AF Form 1109

76. Where would you find guidance on how to properly store, control, safeguard, transfer, and destroy COMSEC material

AFI 33-201, Volume 1

AFI 31-202, Volume 1

AFI 31-301, Volume 1

AFI 31-302, Volume 1

77. Which are used as the main propogation modes of transmissions for direct and ground reflected waves

EHF/UHF

EHF/SHF

VHF/UHF

VHF/SHF

78. Which frequency band is used for UHF band designation?

3 to 30 GHz

30 to 300 MHz

30 to 300 GHz

300 to 3000 MHz

79. Name two forces relating to spectrum concepts

Radiation and electrical

Atmospheric and magnetic

Gravitational and atmospheric

Gravitational and electromagnetic

3CX5X Vol2 Ure's

1. What are among the most problematicv OPSEC vulnerabilities in the Air Force today?

2.

What first name or nickname would you like us to use?

2. Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication

3. An accreditation decision which permits an information system to operate until specific identified steps can be completed is known as

4. How does the Air Force organie, train, equip, and sustain the best air and space force by

5. Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequentially analayzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities

6. Final reports of a COMSEC incident are due

7. What computer software i designed to collect personal information such as passwords and financial details without the users consent

8. Data aggregation is defined as

9. Which security program applies descipline measures and controls to protect data computer system data against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction

10. Which condition exists when there is no apparant terrorist activity against computer networks

11. Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts

12. What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment

13. An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as

14. Which of the following OPSEC steps wouth dynamic situations require you to reaccomplish preventative actions

15. Special briefings, meeting, or religious services would fall under which OPSEC indicator

16. What specific restrication can a designated approving authority (DAA) impose on classified systems or networks

17. An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the scure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC

18. Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires the greatest possible deterrence against hostile acts

19. Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "secret" information

20. Which of the following is defined as the legal authority excercised over subordinates by virtue of rank or assignment

21. Which best describes the definition of a unit type code (UTC)

22. One of the disadvantages of line-of-sight primary mode of radio transmissions is that relay stations are required

23. What is the COMSEC program designed to do

24. What are the three types of COMSEC incidents

25. When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected

26. In what year was the present OPSEC program we use today established

27. Specific facts about friendly activitiers, intentions, capabilities or limitations vitally needed by adversaries for them to plan and act effectively to guarantee failure or unacceptable consequences for friendly mission accomplishment best describe

28. Deviating from normal procedures would fall under which OPSEC indicator

29. Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present

30. At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globablly managed

31. Radio waves travel through free space at the speed of light and can be

32. Waves that travel through the air in a straight line (line-of-sight) from one transmitting antenna to a receiving antenna are known as

33. Deployment execution and unit personnel preparation are responsibilies most often delegated to the

34. Who has the mission to provide fast reaction to immediate requests from land forces for close air support

35. When was the first Air Force OPSEC program introduced?

36. The reason information is collected best describes which mandatory item of Provacy Act Statement

37. Disclosure of information that would result is the loss, misue, unauthorized access, or modification that might adversely affect national security would best be described as

38. An unclassified term referring to technical investogations for compromising emanations from an electrically operated data processing equipment is known as

39. TDC is composed of which three major components

40. Which wave transmission is very effective for long-distance communications in the high-frequency range (3-30 MHz)

41. What form is annotated at the end-of-day security check to ensure classified material is stored appropriately

42. Personnel conducting end-of-day security checks will make sure classified material is stored appropriately at the close of each working day and record them on

43. Which of the following do commanders use to report the ability of a standard UTC to perform its mission capability (MISCAP) statement worldwide and to identify its apability through the next AEF bucket

44. Which of the following is used to collect and store the data of material requirements and logistics details for UTCs

45. In which of the following OPSEC steps would program managers and coordinators recommend actions to the senior decision-makers and commanders?

46. What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material

47. Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "top secret" information

48. Which characteristics should proposed theater deployable commications (TDC) equipment strive to have

49. Which airborne platform collects real-time positioning and tracking data on the location of friendly and enem,y aircraft and naval vessles in the AOR

50. Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a signifcant degree of deterrence against hostile acts

51. In which of the following OPSEC steps would you inform AFOSI of potential adversaries and their associated capabilities, limitations and intentions to collect, analyze, and use critical information

52. Which is a suite of modules and accesory kits that serve as the backbone for deployed communications networks

53. Which organization assigns COMSEC incident report case numbers

54. Which AOC area support team provides staff support to the Chief of AOC systems

55. An investigated or evaluated incident that has been determined as jeopardizing tyhe security of COMSEC material is best described as a COMSEC

56. Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "unclassified" information

57. Which of the following is the Air Force computer system used for UTC package management

58. Which of the following is a DoD directed integrated joing command and control (C2) system used for conventional and theater-level nuclear operation planning and execution

59. Which is the primary system used for analyzing dynamic intelligence, surveillance, and reconaissance data of rapid post-mission

60. Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitors into restricted areas

61. Which database is used for the purpose of coordinating the movement of joint forces into their operational locations

62. Which area support team makes sure servers, workstations, peripherals, communications devices, and software programs are on-line and available to network users?

63. In which OPSEC indicator would an abrupt change or cancellation of schedules fall under?

64. Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in

65. Which of the following provides the guidance necessary to manage the increasingly complex network environent and customers high quality service

66. What DoD agencies refine tactics, techniques, procedures, and measuring concepts for infusion into current and next generation operational systems

67. Which are used as the primary transmissions of direct radio waves

68. Before obtaining access to classifed material, which document must be signed as a prerequisite

69. Which frequency band is used for EHF band designation?

70. Which document provides guidance on the Information Security Program Management

71. What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging

72. The Air Force Information Assurance (IA) Awareness Program is detailed in

73. Which of the following has the primary function of coordinating and directing immediate requests of tactical close air support to land forces

74. Which frequency band is used for SHF band designation?

75. The top secret control officer (TSCO) uses which form for the purpose of a "top secret" covers sheer and access disclosure of record

76. Where would you find guidance on how to properly store, control, safeguard, transfer, and destroy COMSEC material

77. Which are used as the main propogation modes of transmissions for direct and ground reflected waves