2g071 CDC Logistics Plans Craftsman

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2g071 CDC Logistics Plans Craftsman - Quiz


THIS IS A one-volume career development course (CDC) for AFSC 2G071. This course is a mandatory prerequisite to prepare the logistic planner with specific job knowledge. This CDC is divided into three units.
Unit 1. Logistics Plans Planning Operations
Unit 2. Logistics Plans Functional Planning Concepts
Unit 3. Logistics Plans Functional Areas


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1. (001) What is likely to occur if the logistics planner understands the purpose and the responsibilities of MAJCOM and base level planners?

    • A.

      A. Activation of the DCC

    • B.

      B. Integration with Air Force functional planning.

    • C.

      C. Cargo deployment function can begin cargo processing.

    • D.

      D. Personnel deployment function receives accurate personnel information.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Integration with Air Force functional planning.
    Explanation
    As a 7-level Craftsman, it is important that you understand the MAJCOM and base level purpose and responsibilities for logistics plans, including the role of the Air Force (Air Staff and MAJCOM interface) in the overall planning process. A logistics planner integrates Air Force functional planning in support of operational war plans directed by the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) and USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) as well as operations under the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept.

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  • 2. 

    25. (013) What LOGMOD level of detail provides the total number of personnel, total short tons, and total square feet?

    • A.

      A. Aggregate.

    • B.

      B. Increment.

    • C.

      C. Suffix item.

    • D.

      D. Cargo category code.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Aggregate.
    Explanation
    LOGMOD Detail Levels
    Detail Level
    Title
    Definition
    1
    Aggregate
    Total number of personnel, total short tons, total measurement tons, and total square feet.
    2
    Summary
    Total number of authorized personnel and number of passengers requiring transportation, total short tons, measurement tons (including barrels), and total square feet of bulk, oversize, outsize, and non-air-transportable cargo (by UTC and cargo increment number (CIN)).
    3
    Cargo Category Code
    Total number of authorized personnel by officer, enlisted, and civilian (by UTC), total short tons and/or measurement tons (including barrels),total square feet of cargo as identified by the UTC, or CIN three-position cargo category code.
    4
    Increment
    Total number of passengers by Service specialty code (i.e., Air Force specialty code (AFSC)), by UTC, individual dimensional data (expressed in length, width, and height in number of inches) of cargo by equipment (as defined by individual national stock number) by UTC, and further defined as a group of equipment (consolidated) or single piece of cargo planned for shipment.
    5
    Item Number
    Total number of passengers by Service specialty code (i.e., AFSC) in deployment sequence (by line number), individual weight (in pounds) and dimensional data (expressed in length, width, and height in number of inches) of equipment in deployment sequence number by line number. Further defined as a piece of cargo on an increment. An item is normally a single piece of equipment, or loaded container of equipment, that is loaded on an increment.

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  • 3. 

    26. (013) New UTCs are requested

    • A.

      A. every six years.

    • B.

      B. when a desired capability does not exist.

    • C.

      C. when required by the installation commander.

    • D.

      D. when the functional manager determines they are needed.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. when a desired capability does not exist.
    Explanation
    New UTCs are requested when a desired capability does not exist. This means that if there is a specific capability that is needed but is not currently available, a request can be made for a new UTC to be created. This allows for the development and deployment of resources and personnel that can fulfill the desired capability. The other options, such as every six years or when required by the installation commander, do not specifically address the need for a desired capability that is currently lacking.

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  • 4. 

    27. (013) What happens when new equipment types enter the inventory?

    • A.

      A. HQ USAF is notified.

    • B.

      b. The functional manager is contacted.

    • C.

      C. New UTCs must be developed.

    • D.

      D. The IDO is notified.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. New UTCs must be developed.
    Explanation
    When new equipment types enter the inventory, new UTCs (Unit Type Codes) must be developed. UTCs are alphanumeric codes that identify specific types of equipment and their associated personnel and resources. Developing new UTCs ensures that the inventory management system accurately reflects the new equipment and allows for effective tracking and allocation of resources.

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  • 5. 

    28. (013) Right-sized UTCs provide greater mission capability to support an AEG when

    • A.

      A. tasked as stand alone.

    • B.

      B. deployed by themselves.

    • C.

      C. tasked by the CCDR.

    • D.

      D. integrated with other right-sized UTCs.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. integrated with other right-sized UTCs.
    Explanation
    A right-sized UTC is one that provides a generic building block capability. This provides greater flexibility to planners and enables optimal support to the warfighting combatant commander (CCDR) or component. When integrated with other right-sized UTCs, it provides greater mission capability needed to support an air expeditionary group (AEG), air expeditionary wing (AEW), or air and space expeditionary task force (AETF).

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  • 6. 

    29. (013) How should UTCs be developed?

    • A.

      a. As two person capability.

    • B.

      B. As a parent/child relationship.

    • C.

      C. To allow them to be easily fragmented.

    • D.

      D. To allow tasking from a single organization.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. To allow tasking from a single organization.
    Explanation
    UTCs should be developed to allow tasking from a single organization. This means that a single organization should have the authority and responsibility to assign tasks and coordinate activities within the UTC. This ensures clear lines of command and control, streamlines decision-making processes, and promotes efficient and effective execution of tasks. Having a single organization in charge of tasking also helps to avoid confusion, duplication of efforts, and conflicting priorities that may arise when multiple organizations are involved in the development and management of UTCs.

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  • 7. 

    30. (013) The pilot unit develops manpower details

    • A.

      A. with MAJCOM’s assistance.

    • B.

      B. in coordination with the non-pilot unit.

    • C.

      C. in conjunction with the base manpower office.

    • D.

      D. in coordination with the AEG commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. in conjunction with the base manpower office.
    Explanation
    The pilot unit:
    • Submits and coordinates UTC changes through its MAJCOM. (Note: Air National Guard (ANG) units submit all UTC changes to NGB/A4RX for staffing with info to ANG Office of the FAM Oversight (OFAMO).)
    • Develops manpower detail in conjunction with the MRA FAM, MRA Manpower office, and base Manpower office. For personnel-only UTCs (deployment indicator (DEPID) code P), units contact the MRA UTC FAM before developing and reporting manpower detail.
    • Develops LOGDET using the appropriate allowance standard (AS) (e.g., i.e., Weapons System Table of Allowances (WSTA), Equipment Supply Listing (ESL)) as the source document based on the mission capability of the UTC.
    • Coordinates recommended changes to LOGDET and manpower detail with nonpilot units. Pilot units must know who their nonpilot units (users of the same UTC) are and in turn, nonpilot units must know who the pilot unit is for UTCs for which they are notionally tasked.

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  • 8. 

    31. (013) What happens if a non-pilot unit does not provide the correct address information to the pilot unit?

    • A.

      A. The pilot unit will call the MAJCOM FAM.

    • B.

      B. The non-pilot unit will call the IDO.

    • C.

      C. The coordination process will not function efficiently.

    • D.

      D. The FAM will call the IDO.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. The coordination process will not function efficiently.
    Explanation
    If a non-pilot unit does not provide the correct address information to the pilot unit, the coordination process will not function efficiently. This means that there may be delays or errors in communication and coordination between different units, which can hinder the overall effectiveness and efficiency of operations. It is important for all units to provide accurate and up-to-date information to ensure smooth coordination and successful mission execution.

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  • 9. 

    32. (013) Accurate management and reporting of UTCs require

    • A.

      A. daily reporting.

    • B.

      B. uploading to the LOGMOD system.

    • C.

      C. liaison with the IDO.

    • D.

      D. a coordinated effort between the pilot and non-pilot units.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. a coordinated effort between the pilot and non-pilot units.
    Explanation
    It is a coordinated effort between the pilot and nonpilot units to accurately manage and report on UTCs. (page 2-4)

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  • 10. 

    33. (013) How do inconsistencies in similar UTCs impact combat readiness?

    • A.

      A. Errors could under-equip a deploying unit.

    • B.

      B. Errors could over-equip a deploying unit.

    • C.

      C. Inconsistencies will not impact readiness.

    • D.

      D. Combat readiness is always consistent.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Errors could under-equip a deploying unit.
    Explanation
    Inconsistencies in these UTCs could impact combat readiness. In particular, these errors could lead to under-equipping a deploying unit or overstating requests for strategic lift. (page 2-4)

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  • 11. 

    34. (014) What is the role of MAJCOMs and AFCCs in the deployment process?

    • A.

      A. Certify tasked forces.

    • B.

      B. Provide HQ USAF visibility over deployed forces.

    • C.

      C. Far-reaching responsibilities and authorities.

    • D.

      D. Responsible for execution of the AEF schedule.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Far-reaching responsibilities and authorities.
    Explanation
    -The COMACC, as the primary force provider, serves as the tasking authority for the AEF and is responsible for execution of the AEF schedule.
    MAJCOMs, Air Force Component Command, and other staff level agencies like AFPC/DPW have far reaching responsibilities and authorities on the deployment process.

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  • 12. 

    35. (015) During the task of determining worst case scenario, when do you task units to assign personnel and equipment in the LOGMOD?

    • A.

      A. Before briefing the wing/cc.

    • B.

      B. Before reviewing OPLANs and CONPLANs for each unit on the installation.

    • C.

      C. After the IDO updates LOGMOD with the worst case tasking information.

    • D.

      D. Before identifying the total number of personnel affected after reviewing plans, UTA, and WAAR.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. After the IDO updates LOGMOD with the worst case tasking information.
    Explanation
    1-IDO and all planners
    Review operation plans (OPLAN) and concept plans (CONPLAN) for each unit on the installation.
    2-IDO and all planners
    Create a report detailing all D_ _ coded UTCs with the exception of DXX that includes all AEF rotations from the UTC Availability for each unit.
    3-IDO, and all planners
    Review the War Aircraft Activity Report.
    4-IDO
    Identify total number of personnel affected after reviewing plans, UTC availability module (UTA), and Wartime Aircraft Activity Report (WAAR).
    5-IDO
    Identify total number of short tons affected after reviewing plans, UTA, and WAAR.
    6-IDO
    Identify total number of D_ _ UTCs affected after reviewing plans, UTA, and WAAR.
    7-IDO
    Brief Wing/CC and receive concurrence from Wing/CC.
    8-IDO
    Update LOGMOD with worst case tasking information.
    9-IDO
    Task units to assign personnel and equipment to worst case tasking in LOGMOD.

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  • 13. 

    36. (016) The RSO&I function is used in deployment as well as

    • A.

      A. staging.

    • B.

      B. reception.

    • C.

      C. integration.

    • D.

      D. redeployment.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. redeployment.
    Explanation
    Deployment is movement of forces and their sustainment from their point of origin to a specific operational area to conduct joint operations. Reception, staging, on-ward movement, and integration (RSO&I) is the final stage of deployment. It is important to remember that RSO&I functions are applicable to both the deployment and redeployment phases of military operations. RSO&I is the essential process that transitions deploying forces—consisting of personnel, equipment, and materiel arriving in theater—into forces capable of meeting the CCDR’s operational requirements.

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  • 14. 

    37. (016) Who directs the subordinate commands carry out missions assigned to the command within the AOR?

    • A.

      A. The executive agent.

    • B.

      B. The SecDef.

    • C.

      C. The CCDR.

    • D.

      D. The supporting commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. The CCDR.
    Explanation
    The CCDR directs subordinate commands and forces as necessary to carry out missions assigned to the command, including authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations, joint training, and logistics within the area of responsibility (AOR). Any force assigned to a CCDR may be transferred from that command only as directed by the SecDef and under procedures prescribed by the SecDef and approved by the President.

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  • 15. 

    38. (016) Who is responsible for accounting for personnel when they arrive in the AOR?

    • A.

      A. RCC.

    • B.

      B. CRF.

    • C.

      C. CDF.

    • D.

      D. PERSCO teams

    Correct Answer
    D. D. PERSCO teams
    Explanation
    The PERSCO team usually operates the RPU and accounts for all arriving and departing personnel. The PERSCO team establishes strength accountability for everyone they are responsible for, regardless of location and update the information in the accountability system. The kind of information updated in the accountability system are arrival dates and force gains.
    The PERSCO team establishes reception procedures and meets personnel when they arrive on station. The team obtains one copy of contingency, exercise, and deployment (CED) orders and completes an AF Form 245, Employment Locator and Processing Checklist, on each individual.
    However, if a PERSCO team is not available, the troop commander appoints a person to maintain accountability until a PERSCO team arrives.

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  • 16. 

    39. (016) UTCs are aggregated at

    • A.

      A. Dover AFB, DE.

    • B.

      B. Travis AFB, CA.

    • C.

      C. McChord AFB, WA.

    • D.

      D. an APOD.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. an APOD.
    Explanation
    UTCs are collected or grouped together at locations in the United States or overseas that are designated as an aggregation point. War planners try to aggregate most UTCs to a location where airlift will arrive to take the cargo and/or personnel to the aerial port of debarkation (APOD).

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  • 17. 

    40. (017) In comparison to a deployment, redeployment is not

    • A.

      A. a return to home station.

    • B.

      B. a deployment in reverse.

    • C.

      C. an onward or forward deployment.

    • D.

      D. an air expeditionary force (AEF) rotation.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. a deployment in reverse.
    Explanation
    Redeployment encompasses the transfer of a unit, an individual, or supplies deployed in one area to another area, to another location within the area, or to home station. Redeployment is not the same as “deployment in reverse.” Redeploying may, for military, political, or diplomatic reasons, be far more rapid than the deployment phase. Similar to deployment, redeployment operations encompass four phases:
    • Redeployment planning.
    • Pre-redeployment activities.
    • Movement.
    • Joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI).

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  • 18. 

    41. (017) What is the relationship between the redeployment process and the deployment process?

    • A.

      A. There is no relationship.

    • B.

      B. The redeployment process is a round trip.

    • C.

      C. The deployment process is a one-way trip.

    • D.

      D. The redeployment mirrors the deployment.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. The redeployment mirrors the deployment.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. The redeployment mirrors the deployment. This means that the redeployment process is similar to the deployment process in terms of steps and actions taken. It suggests that when redeploying, the same or similar procedures and considerations are followed as during the initial deployment. This answer implies that the two processes are closely related and share similarities.

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  • 19. 

    42. (017) How does the redeployment differ from the deployment?

    • A.

      A. Redeployment is slow.

    • B.

      B. Deployment is far more rapid than redeployment.

    • C.

      C. Deployment is the same compared to redeployment.

    • D.

      D. Redeployment happens more rapidly than a deployment.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Redeployment happens more rapidly than a deployment.
    Explanation
    Redeployment refers to the process of moving resources, such as personnel or equipment, from one location to another. It is stated that redeployment happens more rapidly than a deployment, indicating that the process of moving resources during redeployment is faster than during the initial deployment. This suggests that redeployment is a more efficient and quicker process compared to the initial deployment.

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  • 20. 

    43. (017) What is the effect on the redeployment if the collection of documents is left until the redeployment order is received?

    • A.

      A. There is no effect.

    • B.

      B. Aircraft will be placed on stand by.

    • C.

      C. It could cause major delays in the redeployment process.

    • D.

      D. The LOGPLAN will not be implemented.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. It could cause major delays in the redeployment process.
    Explanation
    If the collection of documents is left until the redeployment order is received, it could cause major delays in the redeployment process. This implies that the timely collection of documents is crucial for the smooth and efficient execution of the redeployment process. If the documents are not collected in a timely manner, it can lead to delays in the overall process, potentially impacting the timely redeployment of aircraft and other resources.

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  • 21. 

    44. (017) What happens if there is limited MHE available for redeployment?

    • A.

      A. The commander notifies the MAJCOM.

    • B.

      B. The deployed commander notifies Air Staff.

    • C.

      C. The C2 notifies the RAT.

    • D.

      D. The pallet build-up area is located as near to aircraft load sites as possible.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. The pallet build-up area is located as near to aircraft load sites as possible.
    Explanation
    • In the event of limited materiel handling equipment (MHE), locate the pallet build-up area and the aircraft silhouette as near to aircraft load sites as possible to help reduce MHE requirements. (pg 2-15)

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  • 22. 

    45. (018) How are WRM assets identified?

    • A.

      A. By category.

    • B.

      B. As swing stock only.

    • C.

      C. As starter stock only.

    • D.

      D. By special Army classification identifiers.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. By category.
    Explanation
    WRM assets are identified by category. This means that they are classified and grouped based on their type or category. This allows for easier management and organization of the assets. By categorizing the assets, it becomes simpler to track and locate specific items when needed. Additionally, categorization helps in determining the condition and status of the assets, ensuring that they are properly maintained and accounted for.

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  • 23. 

    46. (018) What is used to identify like assets according to how they are used in the Air Force inventory?

    • A.

      A. Use code.

    • B.

      B. PN.

    • C.

      C. SN.

    • D.

      D. NSN.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Use code.
    Explanation
    Assets in the Air Force inventory are identified according to how they are used using a use code. This code allows for easy categorization and tracking of assets based on their specific purpose or function within the Air Force. Use codes help to streamline inventory management and ensure that assets are allocated and utilized efficiently.

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  • 24. 

    47. (018) How many WRM use categories are there?

    • A.

      A. 1

    • B.

      B. 2

    • C.

      C. 4

    • D.

      D. 6

    Correct Answer
    B. B. 2
    Explanation
    There are two WRM use categories.

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  • 25. 

    48. (018) What must happen before WRM can be used for indirect mission support?

    • A.

      A. Base commander approval.

    • B.

      B. WRMO must approve the request.

    • C.

      C. The IDO must approve the request.

    • D.

      D. The request must be forwarded by the WRMO/NCO through the WRMPM to the next approval level.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. The request must be forwarded by the WRMO/NCO through the WRMPM to the next approval level.
    Explanation
    Before WRM can be used for indirect mission support, the request must be forwarded by the WRMO/NCO through the WRMPM to the next approval level. This suggests that there is a hierarchical approval process in place, where the request needs to go through multiple levels of approval before it can be granted. The involvement of the WRMO/NCO and WRMPM indicates that these individuals have authority in the approval process. The other options (a, b, c) do not mention the involvement of these specific individuals or the hierarchical approval process, making them incorrect choices.

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  • 26. 

    49. (019) What is the relationship between the CWRMO/NCO and the WRMO/NCO?

    • A.

      A. The CWRMO/NCO works for the wing commander.

    • B.

      B. The CWRMO/NCO provides training to WRMO/NCOs.

    • C.

      C. The WRMO/NCO provides direction to the CWRMO/NCO.

    • D.

      D. The WRMO/NCO work side by side with the CWRMO/NCO in managing WRM.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. The CWRMO/NCO provides training to WRMO/NCOs.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. The CWRMO/NCO provides training to WRMO/NCOs. This means that the CWRMO/NCO is responsible for providing guidance and instruction to the WRMO/NCOs in their roles and responsibilities related to WRM (War Reserve Materiel) management. The CWRMO/NCO acts as a trainer and mentor to ensure that the WRMO/NCOs have the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively manage WRM.

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  • 27. 

    50. (019) Who participates in WRM surveillance visits with the CWRMM?

    • A.

      A. Installation commander.

    • B.

      B. Support agreement manager.

    • C.

      C. WRMM.

    • D.

      D. CWRMO/NCO.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. CWRMO/NCO.
    Explanation
    The CWRMO/NCO participates in WRM surveillance visits with the CWRMM. This indicates that the Chief Weapons and Tactics officer or Non-Commissioned Officer is responsible for participating in the surveillance visits alongside the CWRMM.

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  • 28. 

    51. (019) What type of WRM training is accomplished through a formal briefing or office visit?

    • A.

      A. Orientation.

    • B.

      B. Small group.

    • C.

      C. Initial and recurring.

    • D.

      D. Large group training.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Orientation.
    Explanation
    Orientation training is accomplished through a formal briefing or office visit. This type of training is designed to familiarize individuals with the organization, its policies, procedures, and culture. It provides an overview of the workplace and helps new employees or visitors understand their roles and responsibilities. Orientation training is typically conducted on an individual or small group basis to ensure personalized attention and effective communication of important information.

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  • 29. 

    52. (019) Who accompanies the WRMNCO during a surveillance visit?

    • A.

      A. Group commander.

    • B.

      B. Installation commander.

    • C.

      C. WRMM.

    • D.

      D. CWRMO.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. WRMM.
    Explanation
    During a surveillance visit, the WRMNCO is accompanied by the WRMM. The WRMM is the Wing Readiness Management Manager, who is responsible for overseeing the readiness and compliance of the unit. They would be the appropriate person to accompany the WRMNCO during a surveillance visit to ensure that all readiness and compliance standards are being met.

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  • 30. 

    53. (019) Initiating, accomplishing, and directing actions necessary to ensure that the WRM program provides the capability to perform the wartime mission is the purpose of the?

    • A.

      A. WRM Review Board.

    • B.

      B. MAJCOM WRM Review Board.

    • C.

      C. Installation WRM Review Board.

    • D.

      D. AFWERB.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. WRM Review Board.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the WRM Review Board is to initiate, accomplish, and direct actions necessary to ensure that the WRM program provides the capability to perform the wartime mission. This board is responsible for reviewing and assessing the readiness of the WRM program and making any necessary adjustments or improvements to ensure its effectiveness. The board plays a crucial role in ensuring that the WRM program is able to meet the demands and requirements of the wartime mission.

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  • 31. 

    54. (019) Logistics planners assigned as the WRMNCO spend most of their time on the

    • A.

      A. MAJCOM WRM review board.

    • B.

      B. Installation WRM review board.

    • C.

      C. Air Force WRM Executive Review Board.

    • D.

      D. Component Command level WRM review board.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Installation WRM review board.
    Explanation
    Logistics planners assigned as the WRMNCO (War Reserve Material Noncommissioned Officer) spend most of their time on the Installation WRM (War Reserve Material) review board. This means that they are primarily involved in reviewing and managing the war reserve materials at the installation level. They are responsible for ensuring that the necessary resources and equipment are available and ready for use in case of emergencies or contingencies. The Installation WRM review board is where they assess the status and readiness of the war reserve materials at their specific installation.

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  • 32. 

    55. (019) Which of the following is an example of an unauthorized WRM expenditure?

    • A.

      A. TDY to inventory or rotation WRM assets.

    • B.

      B. Costs for conferences not in direct support of WRM.

    • C.

      C. Individual equipment and TDY for WRM inspection.

    • D.

      D. Cost of WRM support obtained through Support Agreements.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Costs for conferences not in direct support of WRM.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Costs for conferences not in direct support of WRM. This is an example of an unauthorized WRM expenditure because it involves spending money on conferences that do not directly support the WRM mission or objectives. Unauthorized expenditures are those that are not approved or authorized by the appropriate authorities and are not in line with the purpose and goals of the organization. In this case, the costs for conferences are not directly contributing to the support and maintenance of WRM assets and resources.

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  • 33. 

    56. (019) Who is responsible for reconstituting WRM that is coded for direct mission support?

    • A.

      A. The using command.

    • B.

      B. The storing command.

    • C.

      C. The WRMNCO.

    • D.

      D. The WRMM.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. The storing command.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. The storing command. The storing command is responsible for reconstituting WRM (War Reserve Material) that is coded for direct mission support. This means that when WRM is needed for a mission, the storing command is responsible for retrieving and preparing the necessary materials for use. The using command, WRMNCO (War Reserve Material Noncommissioned Officer), and WRMM (War Reserve Material Manager) may also play a role in the process, but the primary responsibility lies with the storing command.

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  • 34. 

    57. (020) In interpreting the WPARR, what occurs after the WRMO/NCO and the WRMMs decide what assets will be coded joint use?

    • A.

      A. Convening a meeting at the using installation.

    • B.

      B. Convening a meeting to determine what assets are not coded joint use.

    • C.

      C. Distributing the WPARR to the WRMMs and reviewing the information.

    • D.

      D. Sending a concurrence/non-concurrence letter to the CWRMO/NCO.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Sending a concurrence/non-concurrence letter to the CWRMO/NCO.
    Explanation
    After the WRMO/NCO and the WRMMs decide what assets will be coded joint use in the WPARR, the next step is to send a concurrence/non-concurrence letter to the CWRMO/NCO. This letter will inform the CWRMO/NCO of the decision made regarding the coding of joint use assets.

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  • 35. 

    58. (020) In what step of interpreting the WCDO does the WRMO/NCO assemble the WRMMs to review the document?

    • A.

      A. 9.

    • B.

      B. 8.

    • C.

      C. 6.

    • D.

      D. 1.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 1.
    Explanation
    In the first step of interpreting the WCDO, the WRMO/NCO assembles the WRMMs to review the document. This suggests that the initial stage of interpreting the WCDO involves gathering the relevant individuals responsible for reviewing and analyzing the document.

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  • 36. 

    59. (020) In what step of interpreting the WCDO are the WCDO quantities required day-by-day compared to the sortie information for the WAAR?

    • A.

      A. 3.

    • B.

      B. 6.

    • C.

      C. 8.

    • D.

      D. 10.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 3.
    Explanation
    In step 3 of interpreting the WCDO, the WCDO quantities required day-by-day are compared to the sortie information for the WAAR. This step involves analyzing the daily requirements for the WCDO and comparing them to the actual sortie information to ensure that the necessary quantities are being met.

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  • 37. 

    60. (020) At what step of interpreting the VAL is a meeting held to discuss the status of each vehicle?

    • A.

      A. 6.

    • B.

      B. 5.

    • C.

      C. 4.

    • D.

      D. 3.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 4.
    Explanation
    At step 4 of interpreting the VAL, a meeting is held to discuss the status of each vehicle. This suggests that the meeting is an important part of the interpretation process and takes place relatively early on. The meeting likely serves as a way for individuals involved in the interpretation to gather and share information about the vehicles, ensuring that everyone is on the same page and has a clear understanding of the current status.

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  • 38. 

    61. (020) What step in interpreting the TPFDD includes identification of flying squadrons programmed to conduct flying missions from the planned operating base?

    • A.

      A. 1.

    • B.

      B. 2.

    • C.

      C. 3.

    • D.

      D. 4.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 1.
    Explanation
    The first step in interpreting the TPFDD includes the identification of flying squadrons programmed to conduct flying missions from the planned operating base. This step is crucial in determining which squadrons will be responsible for carrying out the missions and ensuring that they are properly allocated and prepared for their tasks. By identifying the flying squadrons early on, the TPFDD can effectively plan and coordinate the necessary resources and support for these missions.

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  • 39. 

    62. (021) Who ensures that WRM authorizations are loaded in the SBSS and the CAS?

    • A.

      A. Installation commander.

    • B.

      B. Support group commander.

    • C.

      C. WRMNCO.

    • D.

      D. WRMPM.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. WRMNCO.
    Explanation
    The WRMNCO (War Reserve Material Noncommissioned Officer) is responsible for ensuring that WRM (War Reserve Material) authorizations are loaded in both the SBSS (Standard Base Supply System) and the CAS (Centralized Accounting System). They are specifically designated to handle the management and inventory of WRM, ensuring that the necessary authorizations are properly recorded and accounted for in these systems. The installation commander and support group commander may have oversight, but it is ultimately the WRMNCO's responsibility to handle this task.

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  • 40. 

    63. (021) What happens before the storing unit provides the outload requirements to the transportation section?

    • A.

      A. The WRMO/NCO ensures the requirements are input in the ESP.

    • B.

      B. The WRMO/NCO coordinates a meeting with the storing unit and the transportation function.

    • C.

      C. The information is briefed to the WRMRB.

    • D.

      D. Transportation identifies how the outload will be moved.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. The WRMO/NCO coordinates a meeting with the storing unit and the transportation function.
    Explanation
    Before the storing unit provides the outload requirements to the transportation section, the WRMO/NCO coordinates a meeting with the storing unit and the transportation function. This meeting is important to ensure that all parties are on the same page and that the transportation section understands the specific requirements for the outload. It allows for effective communication and coordination between the storing unit and the transportation section, ensuring that the outload process runs smoothly and efficiently.

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  • 41. 

    64. (021) What happens if the storing unit does not provide the transportation section with the outload requirements?

    • A.

      A. The WRMMs brief their commanders.

    • B.

      B. The transportation section is not able to load plan the WRM outload.

    • C.

      C. The WRMPM will notify the installation commander.

    • D.

      D. The WRMO/NCO briefs the WRMRB.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. The transportation section is not able to load plan the WRM outload.
    Explanation
    If the storing unit does not provide the transportation section with the outload requirements, the transportation section will not be able to create a plan for loading the WRM (War Reserve Material) for outload. This means that the transportation section will not have the necessary information to determine how to transport the WRM effectively and efficiently.

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  • 42. 

    65. (022) Who provides the support requests to the FAACs?

    • A.

      A. The receiver.

    • B.

      B. Installation commander.

    • C.

      C. Communications squadron FAAC.

    • D.

      D. The SAM.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. The SAM.
    Explanation
    The SAM (System Administrator Manager) provides the support requests to the FAACs. The SAM is responsible for managing and maintaining the system, including handling support requests and ensuring that the FAACs are functioning properly. The installation commander may play a role in overall supervision, but the direct responsibility for support requests lies with the SAM. The receiver and the communications squadron FAAC are not mentioned in relation to support requests in the given information.

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  • 43. 

    66. (022) Where does the FMO get the information it needs to put together the funding annex?

    • A.

      A. FAAC.

    • B.

      B. SAM.

    • C.

      C. Installation commander.

    • D.

      D. Receiver.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. FAAC.
    Explanation
    The FMO gets the information it needs to put together the funding annex from FAAC.

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  • 44. 

    67. (022) What does the FMO use the cost basis and the cost method for?

    • A.

      A. Both are needed to bill the receiver.

    • B.

      B. Either can be used as the sole input for a financial cost analysis.

    • C.

      C. The cost basis is used for supplier calculations and the cost method is used for calculating receiver payments.

    • D.

      D. The cost basis is used for calculating receiver payments. And the cost method is used for supplier calculations.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Both are needed to bill the receiver.
    Explanation
    The FMO uses both the cost basis and the cost method in order to bill the receiver. This suggests that both factors are necessary in determining the appropriate amount to charge the receiver.

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  • 45. 

    68. (022) Who works with the manpower office to determine manpower impacts required to support the receiver?

    • A.

      A. The receiver.

    • B.

      B. Installation commander.

    • C.

      C. The SAM.

    • D.

      D. The FAAC.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. The FAAC.
    Explanation
    The FAAC works with the manpower office to determine the manpower impacts required to support the receiver.

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  • 46. 

    69. (022) What office does manpower coordinate with to determine cost factor development in areas involving labor?

    • A.

      A. The receiver.

    • B.

      b. Installation commander.

    • C.

      C. SAM.

    • D.

      D. FM.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. FM.
    Explanation
    Manpower coordinates with the FM (Financial Management) office to determine cost factor development in areas involving labor. The FM office is responsible for managing the financial resources of an organization and would have the necessary information and expertise to determine the cost factors related to labor. The receiver, installation commander, and SAM are not specifically mentioned as being involved in determining cost factors in this context.

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  • 47. 

    70. (022) When the funding annex shows a significant increase

    • A.

      A. it is deleted.

    • B.

      B. the installation commander briefs the MAJCOM.

    • C.

      C. the FAACs review the funding annex.

    • D.

      D. the SAM forwards a new funding annex to the receiver for approval.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. the SAM forwards a new funding annex to the receiver for approval.
    Explanation
    When the funding annex shows a significant increase, the SAM (Security Assistance Management) forwards a new funding annex to the receiver for approval. This implies that when there is a significant increase in funding, a new funding annex is prepared and sent by the SAM to the receiver for their approval.

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  • 48. 

    71. (022) If the receiver terminates the support agreement what must be given to the supplier?

    • A.

      A. Immediate notice.

    • B.

      B. A minimum of 90 days notice.

    • C.

      C. A minimum of 180 days notice.

    • D.

      D. A minimum of 200 days notics.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. A minimum of 180 days notice.
    Explanation
    The receiver must give the supplier a minimum of 180 days notice if they terminate the support agreement.

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  • 49. 

    72. (022) What is the key to a successful support agreement program?

    • A.

      A. Trained receivers.

    • B.

      B. Training in manpower and finance matters.

    • C.

      C. Trained SAMs.

    • D.

      D. FAACs.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. FAACs.
    Explanation
    The key to a successful support agreement program is FAACs.

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  • 50. 

    73. (022) FAACs receive training

    • A.

      A. when assigned to the position.

    • B.

      B. when assigned to the squadron.

    • C.

      C. at the 3-level apprentice resident course.

    • D.

      D. through 5-level CDCs.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. when assigned to the position.
    Explanation
    FAACs receive training when assigned to the position. This means that they receive training specifically for the role they are assigned to, rather than receiving training at a different time or for a different position. This ensures that they are properly trained and prepared for their specific duties and responsibilities.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Feb 05, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 12, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Nacarlson
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