2g071 CDC Logistics Plans Craftsman

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  • 1/90 Questions

    38. (016) Who is responsible for accounting for personnel when they arrive in the AOR?

    • A. RCC.
    • B. CRF.
    • C. CDF.
    • D. PERSCO teams
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About This Quiz


THIS IS A one-volume career development course (CDC) for AFSC 2G071. This course is a mandatory prerequisite to prepare the logistic planner with specific job knowledge. This CDC is divided into three units.
Unit 1. Logistics Plans Planning Operations
Unit 2. Logistics Plans Functional Planning Concepts
Unit 3. Logistics Plans Functional Areas

2g071 CDC Logistics Plans Craftsman - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    4. (003) When performing such duties as reviewing and maintaining a master file of MOUs, the logistics planner is working in what base-level log plans section?

    • A. Deployment management. .

    • B. Support Agreements management.

    • C. War Reserve Materiel management.

    • D. Expeditionary Site Plan management

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Support Agreements management.
    Explanation
    The logistics planner is working in the Support Agreements management section when reviewing and maintaining a master file of MOUs. This section is responsible for managing and maintaining support agreements between different organizations, ensuring that all agreements are up to date and properly documented.

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  • 3. 

    39. (016) UTCs are aggregated at

    • A. Dover AFB, DE.

    • B. Travis AFB, CA.

    • C. McChord AFB, WA.

    • D. an APOD.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. an APOD.
    Explanation
    UTCs are collected or grouped together at locations in the United States or overseas that are designated as an aggregation point. War planners try to aggregate most UTCs to a location where airlift will arrive to take the cargo and/or personnel to the aerial port of debarkation (APOD).

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  • 4. 

    43. (017) What is the effect on the redeployment if the collection of documents is left until the redeployment order is received?

    • A. There is no effect.

    • B. Aircraft will be placed on stand by.

    • C. It could cause major delays in the redeployment process.

    • D. The LOGPLAN will not be implemented.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. It could cause major delays in the redeployment process.
    Explanation
    If the collection of documents is left until the redeployment order is received, it could cause major delays in the redeployment process. This implies that the timely collection of documents is crucial for the smooth and efficient execution of the redeployment process. If the documents are not collected in a timely manner, it can lead to delays in the overall process, potentially impacting the timely redeployment of aircraft and other resources.

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  • 5. 

    45. (018) How are WRM assets identified?

    • A. By category.

    • B. As swing stock only.

    • C. As starter stock only.

    • D. By special Army classification identifiers.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. By category.
    Explanation
    WRM assets are identified by category. This means that they are classified and grouped based on their type or category. This allows for easier management and organization of the assets. By categorizing the assets, it becomes simpler to track and locate specific items when needed. Additionally, categorization helps in determining the condition and status of the assets, ensuring that they are properly maintained and accounted for.

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  • 6. 

    73. (022) FAACs receive training

    • A. when assigned to the position.

    • B. when assigned to the squadron.

    • C. at the 3-level apprentice resident course.

    • D. through 5-level CDCs.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. when assigned to the position.
    Explanation
    FAACs receive training when assigned to the position. This means that they receive training specifically for the role they are assigned to, rather than receiving training at a different time or for a different position. This ensures that they are properly trained and prepared for their specific duties and responsibilities.

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  • 7. 

    82. (024) Which steps are accomplished during the first quarter of the annual review of the information in the BaS&E Planning Tool?

    • A. Steps 1–8.

    • B. Steps 9–14.

    • C. Steps 15–20.

    • D. Steps 21–22.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Steps 1–8.
    Explanation
    During the first quarter of the annual review of the information in the BaS&E Planning Tool, steps 1-8 are accomplished. This means that the review process includes activities such as gathering and analyzing data, identifying key issues and trends, setting goals and objectives, and developing strategies and action plans. These initial steps lay the foundation for the rest of the review process and help to ensure that the planning tool is effectively utilized to guide decision-making and improve performance.

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  • 8. 

    2. (001) If the 7-level logistics craftsman assigns work to personnel in functional areas, the work is

    • A. given to SSgts and TSgts.

    • B. given only to 5-level NCOs.

    • C. given only to the 3-level airman.

    • D. assigned according to the function and skill level of the loggie.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. assigned according to the function and skill level of the loggie.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. assigned according to the function and skill level of the loggie. This means that the 7-level logistics craftsman assigns work based on the specific function or task that needs to be performed, as well as the skill level of the individual. This ensures that the right person with the appropriate skills and knowledge is assigned to the task, maximizing efficiency and effectiveness in completing the work.

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  • 9. 

    3. (002) If a 3 skill level logistics planner has been task certified by the trainer/supervisor, then the apprentice airman

    • A. is awarded the 5 skill level.

    • B. can perform tasks unsupervised.

    • C. is certified ready for deployment.

    • D. is assigned to supervise the DCC.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. can perform tasks unsupervised.
    Explanation
    If a 3 skill level logistics planner has been task certified by the trainer/supervisor, it means that they have demonstrated the necessary skills and knowledge to perform their tasks effectively. This certification indicates that the apprentice airman is capable of performing their duties without direct supervision, as they have proven their competence in the required tasks. Therefore, the correct answer is b. can perform tasks unsupervised.

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  • 10. 

    7. (003) What is the most common method for disseminating classified information to affected units?

    • A. Published orders.

    • B. Classified briefing.

    • C. Scrambled phone calls.

    • D. By message and/or couriers.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Classified briefing.
    Explanation
    The most common method for disseminating classified information to affected units is through classified briefings. This involves a face-to-face presentation or discussion where the necessary information is shared with the individuals or units who need to be informed. This method ensures that the information is delivered securely and allows for any questions or clarifications to be addressed in real-time. Published orders, scrambled phone calls, and messages/couriers may also be used in certain situations, but classified briefings are generally the preferred method for disseminating classified information.

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  • 11. 

    33. (013) How do inconsistencies in similar UTCs impact combat readiness?

    • A. Errors could under-equip a deploying unit.

    • B. Errors could over-equip a deploying unit.

    • C. Inconsistencies will not impact readiness.

    • D. Combat readiness is always consistent.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Errors could under-equip a deploying unit.
    Explanation
    Inconsistencies in these UTCs could impact combat readiness. In particular, these errors could lead to under-equipping a deploying unit or overstating requests for strategic lift. (page 2-4)

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  • 12. 

    40. (017) In comparison to a deployment, redeployment is not

    • A. a return to home station.

    • B. a deployment in reverse.

    • C. an onward or forward deployment.

    • D. an air expeditionary force (AEF) rotation.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. a deployment in reverse.
    Explanation
    Redeployment encompasses the transfer of a unit, an individual, or supplies deployed in one area to another area, to another location within the area, or to home station. Redeployment is not the same as “deployment in reverse.” Redeploying may, for military, political, or diplomatic reasons, be far more rapid than the deployment phase. Similar to deployment, redeployment operations encompass four phases:
    • Redeployment planning.
    • Pre-redeployment activities.
    • Movement.
    • Joint reception, staging, onward movement, and integration (JRSOI).

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  • 13. 

    55. (019) Which of the following is an example of an unauthorized WRM expenditure?

    • A. TDY to inventory or rotation WRM assets.

    • B. Costs for conferences not in direct support of WRM.

    • C. Individual equipment and TDY for WRM inspection.

    • D. Cost of WRM support obtained through Support Agreements.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Costs for conferences not in direct support of WRM.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. Costs for conferences not in direct support of WRM. This is an example of an unauthorized WRM expenditure because it involves spending money on conferences that do not directly support the WRM mission or objectives. Unauthorized expenditures are those that are not approved or authorized by the appropriate authorities and are not in line with the purpose and goals of the organization. In this case, the costs for conferences are not directly contributing to the support and maintenance of WRM assets and resources.

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  • 14. 

    79. (023) ACSA activities reports are produced

    • A. every other month.

    • B. every six months.

    • C. annually.

    • D. every two years.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. annually.
    Explanation
    ACSA activities reports are produced annually. This means that the reports are created once a year.

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  • 15. 

    85. (025) When part I of the IGESP is unclassified, then it is marked

    • A. Secret.

    • B. Top Secret.

    • C. Unclassified.

    • D. For Official Use Only.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. For Official Use Only.
    Explanation
    When part I of the IGESP is unclassified, it is marked as "For Official Use Only." This means that although the information is not classified, it is intended for official use within a specific organization or department. It is not meant for public dissemination or sharing with individuals outside of the organization. This marking helps ensure that the information is handled appropriately and only accessed by authorized personnel.

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  • 16. 

    36. (016) The RSO&I function is used in deployment as well as

    • A. staging.

    • B. reception.

    • C. integration.

    • D. redeployment.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. redeployment.
    Explanation
    Deployment is movement of forces and their sustainment from their point of origin to a specific operational area to conduct joint operations. Reception, staging, on-ward movement, and integration (RSO&I) is the final stage of deployment. It is important to remember that RSO&I functions are applicable to both the deployment and redeployment phases of military operations. RSO&I is the essential process that transitions deploying forces—consisting of personnel, equipment, and materiel arriving in theater—into forces capable of meeting the CCDR’s operational requirements.

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  • 17. 

    48. (018) What must happen before WRM can be used for indirect mission support?

    • A. Base commander approval.

    • B. WRMO must approve the request.

    • C. The IDO must approve the request.

    • D. The request must be forwarded by the WRMO/NCO through the WRMPM to the next approval level.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. The request must be forwarded by the WRMO/NCO through the WRMPM to the next approval level.
    Explanation
    Before WRM can be used for indirect mission support, the request must be forwarded by the WRMO/NCO through the WRMPM to the next approval level. This suggests that there is a hierarchical approval process in place, where the request needs to go through multiple levels of approval before it can be granted. The involvement of the WRMO/NCO and WRMPM indicates that these individuals have authority in the approval process. The other options (a, b, c) do not mention the involvement of these specific individuals or the hierarchical approval process, making them incorrect choices.

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  • 18. 

    54. (019) Logistics planners assigned as the WRMNCO spend most of their time on the

    • A. MAJCOM WRM review board.

    • B. Installation WRM review board.

    • C. Air Force WRM Executive Review Board.

    • D. Component Command level WRM review board.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Installation WRM review board.
    Explanation
    Logistics planners assigned as the WRMNCO (War Reserve Material Noncommissioned Officer) spend most of their time on the Installation WRM (War Reserve Material) review board. This means that they are primarily involved in reviewing and managing the war reserve materials at the installation level. They are responsible for ensuring that the necessary resources and equipment are available and ready for use in case of emergencies or contingencies. The Installation WRM review board is where they assess the status and readiness of the war reserve materials at their specific installation.

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  • 19. 

    64. (021) What happens if the storing unit does not provide the transportation section with the outload requirements?

    • A. The WRMMs brief their commanders.

    • B. The transportation section is not able to load plan the WRM outload.

    • C. The WRMPM will notify the installation commander.

    • D. The WRMO/NCO briefs the WRMRB.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. The transportation section is not able to load plan the WRM outload.
    Explanation
    If the storing unit does not provide the transportation section with the outload requirements, the transportation section will not be able to create a plan for loading the WRM (War Reserve Material) for outload. This means that the transportation section will not have the necessary information to determine how to transport the WRM effectively and efficiently.

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  • 20. 

    76. (023) Transfers under ACSA authorities reduce the US “logistics tail” by

    • A. shipping needed items to where they are needed.

    • B. transferring military equipment to a host nation.

    • C. allowing procurement of needed items from a host nation.

    • D. deploying a military unit to another country to provide the service.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. allowing procurement of needed items from a host nation.
    Explanation
    Transfers under ACSA authorities reduce the US "logistics tail" by allowing procurement of needed items from a host nation. This means that instead of shipping items from the US to where they are needed, the US can acquire them from a host nation, reducing the logistical burden. This can save time, resources, and streamline the process of obtaining necessary supplies.

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  • 21. 

    26. (013) New UTCs are requested

    • A. every six years.

    • B. when a desired capability does not exist.

    • C. when required by the installation commander.

    • D. when the functional manager determines they are needed.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. when a desired capability does not exist.
    Explanation
    New UTCs are requested when a desired capability does not exist. This means that if there is a specific capability that is needed but is not currently available, a request can be made for a new UTC to be created. This allows for the development and deployment of resources and personnel that can fulfill the desired capability. The other options, such as every six years or when required by the installation commander, do not specifically address the need for a desired capability that is currently lacking.

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  • 22. 

    44. (017) What happens if there is limited MHE available for redeployment?

    • A. The commander notifies the MAJCOM.

    • B. The deployed commander notifies Air Staff.

    • C. The C2 notifies the RAT.

    • D. The pallet build-up area is located as near to aircraft load sites as possible.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. The pallet build-up area is located as near to aircraft load sites as possible.
    Explanation
    • In the event of limited materiel handling equipment (MHE), locate the pallet build-up area and the aircraft silhouette as near to aircraft load sites as possible to help reduce MHE requirements. (pg 2-15)

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  • 23. 

    58. (020) In what step of interpreting the WCDO does the WRMO/NCO assemble the WRMMs to review the document?

    • A. 9.

    • B. 8.

    • C. 6.

    • D. 1.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. 1.
    Explanation
    In the first step of interpreting the WCDO, the WRMO/NCO assembles the WRMMs to review the document. This suggests that the initial stage of interpreting the WCDO involves gathering the relevant individuals responsible for reviewing and analyzing the document.

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  • 24. 

    59. (020) In what step of interpreting the WCDO are the WCDO quantities required day-by-day compared to the sortie information for the WAAR?

    • A. 3.

    • B. 6.

    • C. 8.

    • D. 10.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. 3.
    Explanation
    In step 3 of interpreting the WCDO, the WCDO quantities required day-by-day are compared to the sortie information for the WAAR. This step involves analyzing the daily requirements for the WCDO and comparing them to the actual sortie information to ensure that the necessary quantities are being met.

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  • 25. 

    62. (021) Who ensures that WRM authorizations are loaded in the SBSS and the CAS?

    • A. Installation commander.

    • B. Support group commander.

    • C. WRMNCO.

    • D. WRMPM.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. WRMNCO.
    Explanation
    The WRMNCO (War Reserve Material Noncommissioned Officer) is responsible for ensuring that WRM (War Reserve Material) authorizations are loaded in both the SBSS (Standard Base Supply System) and the CAS (Centralized Accounting System). They are specifically designated to handle the management and inventory of WRM, ensuring that the necessary authorizations are properly recorded and accounted for in these systems. The installation commander and support group commander may have oversight, but it is ultimately the WRMNCO's responsibility to handle this task.

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  • 26. 

    71. (022) If the receiver terminates the support agreement what must be given to the supplier?

    • A. Immediate notice.

    • B. A minimum of 90 days notice.

    • C. A minimum of 180 days notice.

    • D. A minimum of 200 days notics.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. A minimum of 180 days notice.
    Explanation
    The receiver must give the supplier a minimum of 180 days notice if they terminate the support agreement.

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  • 27. 

    12. (006) What action does the Services take when the appropriate DOD agency and the GSA provides planning information concerning origin and availability of non-Service controlled materiel?

    • A. Begin support planning activities.

    • B. Develop an OPLAN.

    • C. Plan exercises to eliminate problems in the supply lines.

    • D. Develop force consumption rates for establishing non-unit requirements.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. Develop force consumption rates for establishing non-unit requirements.
    Explanation
    When the appropriate DOD agency and the GSA provide planning information about the origin and availability of non-Service controlled materiel, the Services will develop force consumption rates. This is done in order to establish non-unit requirements, meaning that they will determine how much of the materiel will be needed for specific purposes or operations. This helps in effectively managing and allocating resources based on the information provided by the DOD agency and the GSA.

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  • 28. 

    83. (025) What action is required if there are significant changes to the unit’s support posture?

    • A. Units send the IGESP/ESP to the MAJCOM.

    • B. Units are required to update/rewrite IGESP/ESPs.

    • C. The unit commander is briefed on changes.

    • D. The log planners notify MAJCOM.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Units are required to update/rewrite IGESP/ESPs.
    Explanation
    If there are significant changes to the unit's support posture, the correct action required is for the units to update or rewrite their IGESP/ESPs. This means that the units need to make necessary changes to their Integrated Ground Support Equipment Plan (IGESP) or Equipment Support Plan (ESP) to reflect the new support posture. This ensures that the plans accurately reflect the unit's current capabilities and requirements.

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  • 29. 

    1. (001) What is likely to occur if the logistics planner understands the purpose and the responsibilities of MAJCOM and base level planners?

    • A. Activation of the DCC

    • B. Integration with Air Force functional planning.

    • C. Cargo deployment function can begin cargo processing.

    • D. Personnel deployment function receives accurate personnel information.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Integration with Air Force functional planning.
    Explanation
    As a 7-level Craftsman, it is important that you understand the MAJCOM and base level purpose and responsibilities for logistics plans, including the role of the Air Force (Air Staff and MAJCOM interface) in the overall planning process. A logistics planner integrates Air Force functional planning in support of operational war plans directed by the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) and USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) as well as operations under the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept.

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  • 30. 

    32. (013) Accurate management and reporting of UTCs require

    • A. daily reporting.

    • B. uploading to the LOGMOD system.

    • C. liaison with the IDO.

    • D. a coordinated effort between the pilot and non-pilot units.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. a coordinated effort between the pilot and non-pilot units.
    Explanation
    It is a coordinated effort between the pilot and nonpilot units to accurately manage and report on UTCs. (page 2-4)

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  • 31. 

    35. (015) During the task of determining worst case scenario, when do you task units to assign personnel and equipment in the LOGMOD?

    • A. Before briefing the wing/cc.

    • B. Before reviewing OPLANs and CONPLANs for each unit on the installation.

    • C. After the IDO updates LOGMOD with the worst case tasking information.

    • D. Before identifying the total number of personnel affected after reviewing plans, UTA, and WAAR.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. After the IDO updates LOGMOD with the worst case tasking information.
    Explanation
    1-IDO and all planners
    Review operation plans (OPLAN) and concept plans (CONPLAN) for each unit on the installation.
    2-IDO and all planners
    Create a report detailing all D_ _ coded UTCs with the exception of DXX that includes all AEF rotations from the UTC Availability for each unit.
    3-IDO, and all planners
    Review the War Aircraft Activity Report.
    4-IDO
    Identify total number of personnel affected after reviewing plans, UTC availability module (UTA), and Wartime Aircraft Activity Report (WAAR).
    5-IDO
    Identify total number of short tons affected after reviewing plans, UTA, and WAAR.
    6-IDO
    Identify total number of D_ _ UTCs affected after reviewing plans, UTA, and WAAR.
    7-IDO
    Brief Wing/CC and receive concurrence from Wing/CC.
    8-IDO
    Update LOGMOD with worst case tasking information.
    9-IDO
    Task units to assign personnel and equipment to worst case tasking in LOGMOD.

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  • 32. 

    50. (019) Who participates in WRM surveillance visits with the CWRMM?

    • A. Installation commander.

    • B. Support agreement manager.

    • C. WRMM.

    • D. CWRMO/NCO.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. CWRMO/NCO.
    Explanation
    The CWRMO/NCO participates in WRM surveillance visits with the CWRMM. This indicates that the Chief Weapons and Tactics officer or Non-Commissioned Officer is responsible for participating in the surveillance visits alongside the CWRMM.

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  • 33. 

    13. (007) If part 1 of volume 2 of the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP-2) lists the CCDR plans required by the JSCP, then

    • A. WMP-2 part 2 is written in support of WMP-2, part 1.

    • B. WMP-3 is written in support of WMP-2, part 1.

    • c. WMP-4 is written in support of WMP-2, part 1.

    • D. WMP-5 is written in support of WMP-2, part 1.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. WMP-2 part 2 is written in support of WMP-2, part 1.
    Explanation
    The question states that if part 1 of volume 2 of the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP-2) lists the CCDR plans required by the JSCP, then the correct answer is that WMP-2 part 2 is written in support of WMP-2, part 1. This means that part 2 of WMP-2 is designed to provide additional information or details to support the plans listed in part 1.

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  • 34. 

    25. (013) What LOGMOD level of detail provides the total number of personnel, total short tons, and total square feet?

    • A. Aggregate.

    • B. Increment.

    • C. Suffix item.

    • D. Cargo category code.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Aggregate.
    Explanation
    LOGMOD Detail Levels
    Detail Level
    Title
    Definition
    1
    Aggregate
    Total number of personnel, total short tons, total measurement tons, and total square feet.
    2
    Summary
    Total number of authorized personnel and number of passengers requiring transportation, total short tons, measurement tons (including barrels), and total square feet of bulk, oversize, outsize, and non-air-transportable cargo (by UTC and cargo increment number (CIN)).
    3
    Cargo Category Code
    Total number of authorized personnel by officer, enlisted, and civilian (by UTC), total short tons and/or measurement tons (including barrels),total square feet of cargo as identified by the UTC, or CIN three-position cargo category code.
    4
    Increment
    Total number of passengers by Service specialty code (i.e., Air Force specialty code (AFSC)), by UTC, individual dimensional data (expressed in length, width, and height in number of inches) of cargo by equipment (as defined by individual national stock number) by UTC, and further defined as a group of equipment (consolidated) or single piece of cargo planned for shipment.
    5
    Item Number
    Total number of passengers by Service specialty code (i.e., AFSC) in deployment sequence (by line number), individual weight (in pounds) and dimensional data (expressed in length, width, and height in number of inches) of equipment in deployment sequence number by line number. Further defined as a piece of cargo on an increment. An item is normally a single piece of equipment, or loaded container of equipment, that is loaded on an increment.

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  • 35. 

    27. (013) What happens when new equipment types enter the inventory?

    • A. HQ USAF is notified.

    • b. The functional manager is contacted.

    • C. New UTCs must be developed.

    • D. The IDO is notified.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. New UTCs must be developed.
    Explanation
    When new equipment types enter the inventory, new UTCs (Unit Type Codes) must be developed. UTCs are alphanumeric codes that identify specific types of equipment and their associated personnel and resources. Developing new UTCs ensures that the inventory management system accurately reflects the new equipment and allows for effective tracking and allocation of resources.

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  • 36. 

    28. (013) Right-sized UTCs provide greater mission capability to support an AEG when

    • A. tasked as stand alone.

    • B. deployed by themselves.

    • C. tasked by the CCDR.

    • D. integrated with other right-sized UTCs.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. integrated with other right-sized UTCs.
    Explanation
    A right-sized UTC is one that provides a generic building block capability. This provides greater flexibility to planners and enables optimal support to the warfighting combatant commander (CCDR) or component. When integrated with other right-sized UTCs, it provides greater mission capability needed to support an air expeditionary group (AEG), air expeditionary wing (AEW), or air and space expeditionary task force (AETF).

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  • 37. 

    29. (013) How should UTCs be developed?

    • a. As two person capability.

    • B. As a parent/child relationship.

    • C. To allow them to be easily fragmented.

    • D. To allow tasking from a single organization.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. To allow tasking from a single organization.
    Explanation
    UTCs should be developed to allow tasking from a single organization. This means that a single organization should have the authority and responsibility to assign tasks and coordinate activities within the UTC. This ensures clear lines of command and control, streamlines decision-making processes, and promotes efficient and effective execution of tasks. Having a single organization in charge of tasking also helps to avoid confusion, duplication of efforts, and conflicting priorities that may arise when multiple organizations are involved in the development and management of UTCs.

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  • 38. 

    31. (013) What happens if a non-pilot unit does not provide the correct address information to the pilot unit?

    • A. The pilot unit will call the MAJCOM FAM.

    • B. The non-pilot unit will call the IDO.

    • C. The coordination process will not function efficiently.

    • D. The FAM will call the IDO.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. The coordination process will not function efficiently.
    Explanation
    If a non-pilot unit does not provide the correct address information to the pilot unit, the coordination process will not function efficiently. This means that there may be delays or errors in communication and coordination between different units, which can hinder the overall effectiveness and efficiency of operations. It is important for all units to provide accurate and up-to-date information to ensure smooth coordination and successful mission execution.

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  • 39. 

    49. (019) What is the relationship between the CWRMO/NCO and the WRMO/NCO?

    • A. The CWRMO/NCO works for the wing commander.

    • B. The CWRMO/NCO provides training to WRMO/NCOs.

    • C. The WRMO/NCO provides direction to the CWRMO/NCO.

    • D. The WRMO/NCO work side by side with the CWRMO/NCO in managing WRM.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. The CWRMO/NCO provides training to WRMO/NCOs.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. The CWRMO/NCO provides training to WRMO/NCOs. This means that the CWRMO/NCO is responsible for providing guidance and instruction to the WRMO/NCOs in their roles and responsibilities related to WRM (War Reserve Materiel) management. The CWRMO/NCO acts as a trainer and mentor to ensure that the WRMO/NCOs have the necessary knowledge and skills to effectively manage WRM.

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  • 40. 

    69. (022) What office does manpower coordinate with to determine cost factor development in areas involving labor?

    • A. The receiver.

    • b. Installation commander.

    • C. SAM.

    • D. FM.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. FM.
    Explanation
    Manpower coordinates with the FM (Financial Management) office to determine cost factor development in areas involving labor. The FM office is responsible for managing the financial resources of an organization and would have the necessary information and expertise to determine the cost factors related to labor. The receiver, installation commander, and SAM are not specifically mentioned as being involved in determining cost factors in this context.

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  • 41. 

    51. (019) What type of WRM training is accomplished through a formal briefing or office visit?

    • A. Orientation.

    • B. Small group.

    • C. Initial and recurring.

    • D. Large group training.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Orientation.
    Explanation
    Orientation training is accomplished through a formal briefing or office visit. This type of training is designed to familiarize individuals with the organization, its policies, procedures, and culture. It provides an overview of the workplace and helps new employees or visitors understand their roles and responsibilities. Orientation training is typically conducted on an individual or small group basis to ensure personalized attention and effective communication of important information.

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  • 42. 

    81. (024) When creating data in the BaS&E Planning Tool, which of the following steps is completed before IGESP part 1 requirements are input to BaS&E via NIPRNET?

    • A. FDMs begin updating BaS&E.

    • B. Review IGESP part 1 and 2 chapter reports.

    • C. All FDM books must be inspected.

    • D. Site managers suspense FDMs.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. Review IGESP part 1 and 2 chapter reports.
    Explanation
    Before inputting IGESP part 1 requirements to BaS&E via NIPRNET, the step of reviewing IGESP part 1 and 2 chapter reports is completed. This step is necessary to gather all the relevant information and requirements from the reports before entering them into the BaS&E Planning Tool. It ensures that the data entered into the tool is accurate and up-to-date, helping in effective planning and decision-making processes.

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  • 43. 

    87. (025) When updated planning data is received the IGESPC

    • A. reviews other base-level plans for wartime or contingency operations.

    • B. establishes a READY review board.

    • C. meets daily until all parts of the IGESP are completely revised.

    • D. convenes to disseminate information and establish timelines and requirements to complete part II of the IGESP.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. convenes to disseminate information and establish timelines and requirements to complete part II of the IGESP.
  • 44. 

    37. (016) Who directs the subordinate commands carry out missions assigned to the command within the AOR?

    • A. The executive agent.

    • B. The SecDef.

    • C. The CCDR.

    • D. The supporting commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. C. The CCDR.
    Explanation
    The CCDR directs subordinate commands and forces as necessary to carry out missions assigned to the command, including authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations, joint training, and logistics within the area of responsibility (AOR). Any force assigned to a CCDR may be transferred from that command only as directed by the SecDef and under procedures prescribed by the SecDef and approved by the President.

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  • 45. 

    65. (022) Who provides the support requests to the FAACs?

    • A. The receiver.

    • B. Installation commander.

    • C. Communications squadron FAAC.

    • D. The SAM.

    Correct Answer
    A. D. The SAM.
    Explanation
    The SAM (System Administrator Manager) provides the support requests to the FAACs. The SAM is responsible for managing and maintaining the system, including handling support requests and ensuring that the FAACs are functioning properly. The installation commander may play a role in overall supervision, but the direct responsibility for support requests lies with the SAM. The receiver and the communications squadron FAAC are not mentioned in relation to support requests in the given information.

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  • 46. 

    67. (022) What does the FMO use the cost basis and the cost method for?

    • A. Both are needed to bill the receiver.

    • B. Either can be used as the sole input for a financial cost analysis.

    • C. The cost basis is used for supplier calculations and the cost method is used for calculating receiver payments.

    • D. The cost basis is used for calculating receiver payments. And the cost method is used for supplier calculations.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Both are needed to bill the receiver.
    Explanation
    The FMO uses both the cost basis and the cost method in order to bill the receiver. This suggests that both factors are necessary in determining the appropriate amount to charge the receiver.

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  • 47. 

    18. (008) The CJCS establishes the force apportionment construct in the JSCP to

    • A. support the GFM process.

    • B. begin the contingency planning process.

    • C. begin the crisis action planning process.

    • D. establish a five-year defense budget.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. support the GFM process.
    Explanation
    The CJCS establishes the force apportionment construct in the JSCP to support the GFM process. This means that the CJCS creates a plan for how military forces will be allocated and assigned in order to support the Global Force Management (GFM) process. The GFM process involves determining the allocation and assignment of forces to meet operational requirements and support national security objectives. By establishing the force apportionment construct, the CJCS ensures that there is a plan in place to allocate and assign forces effectively and efficiently to support the GFM process.

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  • 48. 

    66. (022) Where does the FMO get the information it needs to put together the funding annex?

    • A. FAAC.

    • B. SAM.

    • C. Installation commander.

    • D. Receiver.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. FAAC.
    Explanation
    The FMO gets the information it needs to put together the funding annex from FAAC.

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  • 49. 

    89. (025) Which of the following events take place after the NAF staff reviews the LIMFAC?

    • A. Installation commander approves validated LIMFACs.

    • B. NAF commander approves LIMFACs.

    • C. Base-level units compare capabilities against contingency requirements.

    • D. IGESPC validates LIMFACs.

    Correct Answer
    A. B. NAF commander approves LIMFACs.
    Explanation
    After the NAF staff reviews the LIMFAC, the next event that takes place is the NAF commander approving the LIMFACs. This indicates that the NAF commander has reviewed and given their approval for the LIMFACs, which are likely contingency plans or requirements for the base-level units. The other options, such as the installation commander approving validated LIMFACs and IGESPC validating LIMFACs, are not mentioned as subsequent events after the NAF staff reviews the LIMFAC. Therefore, the correct answer is b. NAF commander approves LIMFACs.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Feb 5, 2024 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Feb 05, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 12, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Nacarlson
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