2AX7X Ure's Volume 2 (2013)

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1. The block training method is normally  used to teach which maintenance training flight (MTF) training course?

Explanation

The block training method is typically used to teach the maintenance orientation training course. This course provides an overview and introduction to maintenance procedures, policies, and systems. It is designed to familiarize individuals with the basics of maintenance operations and ensure they have a foundational understanding before moving on to more specialized training. The block training method involves grouping related topics together and teaching them in a concentrated period, allowing for efficient and comprehensive instruction.

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About This Quiz
Military Training Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz, titled '2AX7X URE's VOLUME 2 (2013)', evaluates knowledge related to military maintenance training processes, including administrative assignments, training methods, certification reviews, and system management in TBA. It's designed for personnel seeking to enhance their technical qualifications and maintenance capabilities.

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2. In order to be given the authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of

Explanation

To be authorized to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of MSGT. This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of Master Sergeant (MSGT) or higher are eligible to have the authority to downgrade a "Red-X."

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3. TBA provides AF personnel with global, real-time

Explanation

TBA provides AF personnel with visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that individuals can easily see and track their own qualifications, certifications, and training progress. This feature allows personnel to stay informed about their own training and development, and ensures that they are up to date with the necessary qualifications and certifications for their roles.

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4. What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?

Explanation

A personnel evaluation is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task. This assessment is conducted by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) to assess the individual's performance and adherence to maintenance standards. It involves observing the technician's actions and evaluating their competence, skills, and adherence to procedures during the task. This evaluation helps identify any areas for improvement or training needs for the individual technician.

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5. What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

Explanation

After a technician completes a task, a Quality Verification Inspection is performed by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual. This inspection ensures that the completed task meets the required quality standards and specifications. It helps to identify any potential errors or deficiencies in the work done by the technician. The purpose of this assessment is to maintain and improve the overall quality of maintenance tasks and ensure that they are performed correctly and up to standard.

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6. An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

Explanation

If an individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have a grace period of 30 days to complete their recertification after they return from their TDY, leave, or incapacitation.

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7. Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

Explanation

The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC).

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8. The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is

Explanation

The maximum continuous duty time without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is 12 hours. This means that workers can work continuously for up to 12 hours without needing any additional approval.

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9. Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to 

Explanation

Maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve exceeding a 12-hour shift up to 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for extended work hours due to maintenance requirements, the group commander can give the final approval for a shift that lasts up to 16 hours. This allows for flexibility in scheduling and ensures that necessary maintenance tasks are completed within a reasonable timeframe.

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10. Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the 

Explanation

Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the logistics readiness squadron. This is because the logistics readiness squadron is responsible for managing and coordinating the logistics support for the maintenance squadron. The maintenance supply liaison personnel play a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary supplies and equipment are available for maintenance operations. By reporting directly to the commander of the logistics readiness squadron, they can effectively communicate and coordinate the supply needs of the maintenance squadron.

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11. Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

Explanation

The Host Installation commander must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This individual is responsible for overseeing the overall security and operations of the installation, including the authorization of storage for classified material.

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12. The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section? 

Explanation

The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the Quality Assurance section of the Maintenance Group (MXG). This makes sense as the role of the Product Improvement Manager is to oversee and implement improvements in the product or service. Quality Assurance is responsible for ensuring that the product or service meets the required quality standards, so it is fitting for the Product Improvement Manager to be part of this section.

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13. Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

Explanation

The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a bridge between the maintenance department and the supply chain, ensuring that the necessary supplies and equipment are available for maintenance operations. They also work to resolve any issues or problems that may arise in the supply chain, ensuring a smooth and efficient flow of supplies to support maintenance activities.

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14. Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution? 

Explanation

Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by various factors such as sediment, minerals, or air bubbles in the water. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not a definitive indicator of pollution as it can also occur naturally. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more commonly associated with pollution and can be direct indicators of its presence.

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15. How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?

Explanation

An equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment is made up of 9 digits.

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16. The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the 

Explanation

The correct answer is Quality Assurance section. The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is usually placed in the Quality Assurance section. This section is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance activities are performed correctly and that all safety and quality standards are met. The FOD monitor is used to detect any foreign objects that may have entered the aircraft during maintenance or other operations, which could potentially cause damage to the aircraft or its components. By locating the FOD monitor in the Quality Assurance section, it ensures that any potential FOD issues are identified and addressed before the aircraft is cleared for flight.

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17. Training detachments are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

Explanation

Training detachments are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of all Air Force personnel. It oversees the training of pilots, navigators, and other aircrew members, as well as the training of enlisted personnel in various technical fields. As training detachments are directly involved in the training process, they are assigned to AETC to ensure proper coordination and oversight of training activities.

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18. How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

Explanation

The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the MTF updates the MXG/CC on the current status of the training activities being conducted within the maintenance group every month. This regular briefing allows the MXG/CC to stay informed about the progress and effectiveness of the training program and make any necessary adjustments or decisions based on the information provided.

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19. Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

Explanation

Before an asset can be placed in bench stock, it must be assigned the expendability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC) XB3.

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20. Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged? 

Explanation

The AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag is used to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. This tag is typically used in the aerospace industry to indicate that a specific procedure has been followed to ensure that a part is free from any fluids or contaminants. It serves as a visual reminder for maintenance personnel to take caution when working with the tagged part.

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21. Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request? 

Explanation

The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. This means that the customer, who is in need of the parts, has the authority to prioritize the delivery based on their specific requirements and urgency. The customer's input is crucial in ensuring that the parts are delivered in a timely manner and meet their needs.

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22. Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within

Explanation

According to the given information, once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within a certain time frame. The correct answer is 24 hrs, meaning that the deficiency report must be submitted within 24 hours of discovering the Category I deficiency.

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23. Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent 

Explanation

The correct answer is "aircraft status changes." Red Ball maintenance is a type of maintenance that is performed on an aircraft when there is a change in its status. This could include changes such as a change in its operational status, a change in its maintenance status, or a change in its configuration. Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent air aborts, late takeoffs, or ground aborts.

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24. Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?

Explanation

Explosive munitions are not considered dropped objects under the Dropped Object Prevention Program because they are intentionally released or deployed during aircrew operations, rather than being accidentally dropped. The program focuses on preventing accidental drops of objects that could pose a safety hazard to personnel and equipment.

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25. The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply? 

Explanation

The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide 30 days of supply. This means that there should be enough inventory on hand to cover the needs of the organization for a period of 30 days without having to reorder or restock. Having a 30-day supply helps to ensure that there is enough stock available to meet demand and prevent any disruptions in operations.

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26. The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?

Explanation

After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account.

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27. What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data? 

Explanation

The Engineering Data Service Center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing all the important engineering documents and information in one place. This allows for easy access and retrieval of these materials when needed, ensuring that engineers and other professionals have the necessary resources to carry out their work effectively.

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28. When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

Explanation

When the aircraft owner or user is not present with the aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, it is necessary for security checks to be conducted every 3 hours. This is important to ensure the safety and protection of the aircraft and its sensitive equipment from unauthorized access or tampering. Regular security checks help to mitigate any potential risks or threats and maintain the confidentiality of the equipment.

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29. Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

Explanation

The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.

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30. Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty is not normally a responsibility of a Maintenance Supply Liaison. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that a Maintenance Supply Liaison would typically perform.

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31. Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Applicable Impoundment Authority." The applicable impoundment authority is responsible for designating the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation. This authority has the power to make decisions regarding impoundment and is the appropriate entity to designate the official who will oversee the process.

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32. What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands=on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC MRA and TD courses?

Explanation

Continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC MRA and TD courses. This type of training focuses on maintaining and enhancing the skills and knowledge acquired during the initial training. It helps individuals stay up-to-date with the latest techniques and practices in their field, ensuring that they are qualified to perform their maintenance duties effectively.

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33. Manpower authorizations are

Explanation

Manpower authorizations are funded, meaning that they have been allocated the necessary financial resources to support the required personnel. This suggests that there is a budget in place to cover the costs associated with hiring and maintaining the authorized workforce.

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34. Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian? 

Explanation

The Squadron Commander is responsible for appointing an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This role involves managing and overseeing the equipment inventory and ensuring its proper use and maintenance. The Squadron Commander has the authority to select a trustworthy and responsible individual who can effectively carry out these responsibilities.

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35. What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

Explanation

Before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor, an individual must receive specific training in block IIB of the supply training.

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36. Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

Explanation

The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This office is specifically tasked with ensuring that these assets are properly accounted for and maintained. The other options, including the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the same responsibilities or authority over SPRAM assets.

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37. Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

Explanation

PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This means that if an item is coded with PMIC C, it is made up of multiple precious metals, rather than just one.

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38. Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?

Explanation

The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) is the correct answer because it provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. This report helps track and monitor the supply of items and ensures that there is adequate stock available for issue and bench support. It allows management to assess the effectiveness of the organization's supply support and make any necessary adjustments or improvements. The other options listed (D18, D04, and D23) do not specifically provide this type of supply tracking and monitoring functionality.

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39. Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area? 

Explanation

Weapons loading operations do not institute a restricted maintenance area. Restricted maintenance areas are designated areas where specific maintenance activities are carried out, and access is limited to authorized personnel. Radiographic inspections, fuel system repair, and aircraft on jacks are examples of maintenance activities that require restricted maintenance areas due to safety and security reasons. However, weapons loading operations are typically conducted in separate areas designated specifically for this purpose, which may not fall under the category of restricted maintenance areas.

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40. The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?

Explanation

The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is required to notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This allows for timely reporting and assessment of the incident, ensuring that appropriate actions can be taken to mitigate any potential damage or hazards caused by the foreign object.

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41. A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held 

Explanation

The meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is held monthly. This means that the meeting takes place once every month. It is a regular occurrence and provides an opportunity for the MXG to address any staffing concerns or needs within the group. Holding the meeting on a monthly basis allows for timely communication and decision-making regarding manning issues, ensuring that any necessary adjustments can be made in a timely manner.

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42.  If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to notify 

Explanation

When a serially controlled item is cannibalized, the CANN authority is responsible for notifying the Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) department. PS&D is responsible for maintaining records and documentation related to maintenance activities, including cannibalization. They need to be informed so that they can update the necessary documentation and ensure that the cannibalization is properly recorded and tracked. Quality Assurance, Programs and Resources Flight, and Maintenance Management Analysis (MMA) are not directly involved in the notification process for cannibalization of serially controlled items.

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43. A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW 

Explanation

When an object is dropped and it causes casualties or property damage, it must be reported in accordance with AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting. This regulation outlines the procedures for reporting operational incidents and accidents within the Air Force. It ensures that proper documentation is made to assess the situation, investigate the cause, and take appropriate actions to prevent future incidents.

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44. Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed? 

Explanation

The Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector is directly responsible to the Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT) for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed. This means that the QA Chief Inspector reports to and works under the guidance of the QA OIC/SUPT to ensure that the necessary maintenance standardization and evaluation tasks are carried out effectively.

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45. In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator's interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?

Explanation

The lead command serves as the operator's interface with the single point manager for a weapons system in the modification management program. This means that the lead command is responsible for communicating and coordinating with the single point manager to ensure that modifications to the weapons system are properly implemented and managed. The lead command acts as the intermediary between the operator and the single point manager, facilitating effective communication and ensuring that modifications are carried out according to the established guidelines and procedures.

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46. Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

Explanation

The correct answer is D18, Priority Monitor Report. The Priority Monitor Report is a supply tracking document that is produced daily. It lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. This report helps to prioritize the procurement and delivery of these parts, ensuring that the most critical items are addressed first.

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47. Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

Explanation

The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. They have the responsibility and expertise to ensure that all necessary checks and calibrations are conducted to maintain the operational readiness of the supply assets. The Flight commander/Chief, Maintenance Group commander, and MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) may have roles in the process, but the LRS Chief Inspector has the ultimate authority in this specific task.

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48.   When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the

Explanation

Supply personnel notify the Maintenance Operations Center when a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB).

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49. Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty? 

Explanation

The MXG technical order distribution office (TODO) duties include assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising the MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems. However, establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required is not normally a duty of the MXG TODO.

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50. What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies? 

Explanation

The Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies. This section is in charge of planning and scheduling maintenance tasks, as well as maintaining accurate documentation of maintenance activities. They play a crucial role in ensuring that TCTOs are properly documented and managed within the maintenance information system.

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51. How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?

Explanation

The Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent must review and sign the special certification roster (SCR) semi-annually. This means that they need to review and sign the roster every six months. This ensures that they stay updated on the certifications of the personnel under their supervision and ensures compliance with any necessary regulations or requirements.

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52. Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group?

Explanation

The originating point has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group. This means that they are in charge of overseeing and coordinating the entire program, including receiving and reviewing deficiency reports, assigning actions to address the reported issues, and ensuring that appropriate follow-up actions are taken. They are the central point of contact and have the ultimate responsibility for the success and effectiveness of the Deficiency Report program within the organization or group.

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53. Who designates cannibalization authorities?

Explanation

The Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander designates cannibalization authorities. Cannibalization authorities are responsible for making decisions regarding the use of cannibalization, which involves removing parts from one aircraft to be used on another aircraft in order to keep it operational. The MXG Commander is the highest-ranking officer in the maintenance group and has the authority to designate individuals to carry out this task.

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54. When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?

Explanation

After receiving an unsatisfactory MSET rating, the MXG/CC directs QA to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within 30 days.

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55. What training phase has these four sub-phases: MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

Explanation

The correct answer is II. The training phase with these four sub-phases is the Initial Qualification Training phase. This phase includes the MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training sub-phases.

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56. Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category? 

Explanation

The given answer is "Standard". In technical order (TO) change priority categories, Urgent, Routine, and Emergency are all recognized categories. However, "Standard" is not a recognized TO change priority category.

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57. Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

Explanation

The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. They are in a position of authority and have direct oversight of the personnel in their section. It is their responsibility to ensure that all personnel are aware of and trained on the hazards present in their work area. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may also have roles in overall safety management, but the section supervisor specifically focuses on the hazards within their workcenter.

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58. Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day? 

Explanation

The correct answer is D04, Daily Document Register. This document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. It tracks and records the documents that have been processed, allowing for easy reference and tracking of supply transactions. The other options listed do not specifically mention tracking document numbers processed during the day.

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59. Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization? 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Action Point". The Action Point acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization. They are responsible for receiving the report, coordinating with the support point for necessary actions, and communicating with the submitting organization regarding the resolution of the deficiency.

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60. In TBA, what type of notification does the "System Messages" board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?

Explanation

The "System Messages" board provides notifications about open suspenses in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information. Open suspenses refer to any pending or unresolved issues or tasks within the system that require attention or resolution. This notification helps users stay informed about any ongoing problems or tasks that need to be addressed.

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61. When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted? 

Explanation

When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, a Supply Discrepancy Report is submitted. This report is used to document any discrepancies in the supply chain, such as incorrect or damaged items, and request a resolution, such as a refund or replacement. The other options, including Deficiency Report (DR), Maintenance cross-tell report, and Product Quality Deficiency Report, do not specifically address the goal of obtaining a refund or a new item in exchange.

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62. Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?

Explanation

The Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements in the maintenance group (MXG). This individual is in charge of overseeing the operations and maintenance activities within the squadron, including coordinating with other units and ensuring that the necessary resources and capabilities are in place to meet local manufacture requirements.

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63. What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)? 

Explanation

The correct answer is DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss. This form is used to document all reports of surveys (ROS). It is specifically designed for investigating property loss and determining financial liability. The form helps in identifying the circumstances surrounding the loss, assessing the value of the lost property, and determining who is responsible for the loss. It is an essential tool for conducting thorough investigations and ensuring accountability for property loss within the organization.

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64. Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?

Explanation

Type II shelf life items are allowed to be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date if they are still serviceable.

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65. Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?

Explanation

AFI 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management, provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation. This publication outlines the procedures and processes for managing aircraft and equipment maintenance, including recovery operations. It covers topics such as maintenance planning, scheduling, and execution, as well as maintenance recovery procedures in case of equipment failure or breakdown. Therefore, AFI 21-101 is the correct answer for this question.

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66. Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?

Explanation

Supply point accounts must be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor semiannually, which means twice a year. This ensures that the supply point's records are accurate and up to date. Reconciling the accounts on a regular basis helps identify any discrepancies or errors in inventory and allows for timely adjustments or corrections to be made. This helps maintain efficient supply chain management and prevents any disruptions in the availability of necessary supplies.

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67. Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas?

Explanation

The Maintenance Group Commander is responsible for the development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas. They oversee the maintenance group and have the authority to establish and enforce procedures and policies related to tools and equipment. They play a crucial role in ensuring the safe and efficient use of tools and equipment in these areas.

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68. Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with?

Explanation

Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS material management element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area.

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69. Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system? 

Explanation

A4MT refers to the Air Force Deputy Chief of Staff for Manpower, Personnel, and Services. This position is responsible for developing and implementing policies and procedures governing the Training and Operations (TO) system within the Air Force. They have the overall responsibility for ensuring that the TO system is effectively managed and meets the needs of the Air Force.

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70. Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians? 

Explanation

The Mission Support Group (MSG) commander is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians, unless delegated to someone else. This means that the MSG commander is the ultimate authority in deciding whether to grant or deny SPRAM authorizations. The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander, Maintenance Group (MXG) deputy commander, and Maintenance Group (MXG) commander may have other responsibilities within their respective roles, but they are not specifically mentioned as being responsible for reviewing SPRAM authorizations.

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The block training method is normally  used to teach...
In order to be given the authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an...
TBA provides AF personnel with global, real-time
What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual...
What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual...
An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on...
Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee...
The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for...
Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for...
Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander...
Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material...
The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what...
Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall...
Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution? 
How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID)...
The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located...
Training detachments are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status...
Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC)...
Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly...
Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery...
Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR)...
Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent 
Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew...
The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how...
The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be...
What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and...
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which...
Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply...
Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison...
Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment...
What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands=on...
Manpower authorizations are
Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account...
What specific block of supply training must an individual receive...
Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special...
Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of...
Which supply tracking document provides a management product for...
Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance...
The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM...
A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is...
 If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN...
A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage...
Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible...
In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves...
Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all...
Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply...
  ...
Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order...
What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for...
How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance...
Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program...
Who designates cannibalization authorities?
When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization...
What training phase has these four sub-phases: MAJCOM mandatory,...
Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority...
Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM)...
Which supply tracking document provides information on all document...
Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support...
In TBA, what type of notification does the "System Messages"...
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type...
Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the...
What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)? 
Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are...
Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an...
Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled...
Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of...
Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance...
Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO...
Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for...
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