2AX7X Ure's Volume 2 (2013)

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  • 1/70 Questions

    The block training method is normally  used to teach which maintenance training flight (MTF) training course?

    • Any 7 level course
    • Weight and balance
    • Maintenance orientation
    • General technical order system
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About This Quiz

This quiz, titled '2AX7X URE's VOLUME 2 (2013)', evaluates knowledge related to military maintenance training processes, including administrative assignments, training methods, certification reviews, and system management in TBA. It's designed for personnel seeking to enhance their technical qualifications and maintenance capabilities.

Military Training Quizzes & Trivia

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  • 2. 

    In order to be given the authority to downgrade a "Red-X" an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of

    • TSGT

    • MSGT

    • SMSGT

    • CMSGT

    Correct Answer
    A. MSGT
    Explanation
    To be authorized to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of MSGT. This means that only individuals who have achieved the rank of Master Sergeant (MSGT) or higher are eligible to have the authority to downgrade a "Red-X."

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  • 3. 

    TBA provides AF personnel with global, real-time

    • Access to Distance Learning courseware

    • Access to special certification roster criteria listings

    • Visibility of available formal training courses AF-wide

    • Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel

    Correct Answer
    A. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel
    Explanation
    TBA provides AF personnel with visibility of their technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses. This means that individuals can easily see and track their own qualifications, certifications, and training progress. This feature allows personnel to stay informed about their own training and development, and ensures that they are up to date with the necessary qualifications and certifications for their roles.

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  • 4. 

    An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    If an individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that they have a grace period of 30 days to complete their recertification after they return from their TDY, leave, or incapacitation.

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  • 5. 

    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • Operations officer

    • Group commader

    • Unit training manager

    • Maintenance training flight commander MTF/CC or chief

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit training manager
    Explanation
    The unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC).

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  • 6. 

    The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is

    • 12 hrs

    • 13 hrs

    • 14 hrs

    • 15 hrs

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 hrs
    Explanation
    The maximum continuous duty time without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is 12 hours. This means that workers can work continuously for up to 12 hours without needing any additional approval.

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  • 7. 

    Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to 

    • 14 hrs

    • 15 hrs

    • 16 hrs

    • 18 hrs

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 hrs
    Explanation
    Maintenance group commanders have the authority to approve exceeding a 12-hour shift up to 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for extended work hours due to maintenance requirements, the group commander can give the final approval for a shift that lasts up to 16 hours. This allows for flexibility in scheduling and ensures that necessary maintenance tasks are completed within a reasonable timeframe.

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  • 8. 

    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the 

    • Maintenance squadron

    • Logistics readiness squadron

    • Aircraft maintenance squadron

    • Maintenance operations squadron

    Correct Answer
    A. Logistics readiness squadron
    Explanation
    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the logistics readiness squadron. This is because the logistics readiness squadron is responsible for managing and coordinating the logistics support for the maintenance squadron. The maintenance supply liaison personnel play a crucial role in ensuring that the necessary supplies and equipment are available for maintenance operations. By reporting directly to the commander of the logistics readiness squadron, they can effectively communicate and coordinate the supply needs of the maintenance squadron.

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  • 9. 

    Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

    • Aircraft Commander

    • Host Installation commander

    • Operations Group Commander

    • Mission Support Group commander

    Correct Answer
    A. Host Installation commander
    Explanation
    The Host Installation commander must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This individual is responsible for overseeing the overall security and operations of the installation, including the authorization of storage for classified material.

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  • 10. 

    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section? 

    • Quality Assurance

    • Engine Management

    • Maintenance Operations Center

    • Maintenance Data System Analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance
    Explanation
    The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to the Quality Assurance section of the Maintenance Group (MXG). This makes sense as the role of the Product Improvement Manager is to oversee and implement improvements in the product or service. Quality Assurance is responsible for ensuring that the product or service meets the required quality standards, so it is fitting for the Product Improvement Manager to be part of this section.

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  • 11. 

    What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task?

    • Quality Verification Inspection.

    • Management Inspection.

    • Personnel Evaluation.

    • Special Inspection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Personnel Evaluation.
    Explanation
    A personnel evaluation is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task. This assessment is conducted by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) to assess the individual's performance and adherence to maintenance standards. It involves observing the technician's actions and evaluating their competence, skills, and adherence to procedures during the task. This evaluation helps identify any areas for improvement or training needs for the individual technician.

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  • 12. 

    What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?

    • Special Inspection.

    • Personnel Evaluation.

    • Management Inspection.

    • Quality Verification Inspection.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Verification Inspection.
    Explanation
    After a technician completes a task, a Quality Verification Inspection is performed by the Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual. This inspection ensures that the completed task meets the required quality standards and specifications. It helps to identify any potential errors or deficiencies in the work done by the technician. The purpose of this assessment is to maintain and improve the overall quality of maintenance tasks and ensure that they are performed correctly and up to standard.

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  • 13. 

    Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

    • Maintenance supply liaison

    • Maintenance supply support

    • Maintenance operations center

    • Maintenance data system analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance supply liaison
    Explanation
    The maintenance supply liaison is responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a bridge between the maintenance department and the supply chain, ensuring that the necessary supplies and equipment are available for maintenance operations. They also work to resolve any issues or problems that may arise in the supply chain, ensuring a smooth and efficient flow of supplies to support maintenance activities.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution? 

    • Oil sheen on standing water

    • Stressed Vegetation

    • Stains on ground

    • Cloudy water

    Correct Answer
    A. Cloudy water
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by various factors such as sediment, minerals, or air bubbles in the water. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not a definitive indicator of pollution as it can also occur naturally. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more commonly associated with pollution and can be direct indicators of its presence.

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  • 15. 

    Training detachments are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • ACC

    • ATC

    • AFRC

    • AETC

    Correct Answer
    A. AETC
    Explanation
    Training detachments are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). AETC is responsible for the training and education of all Air Force personnel. It oversees the training of pilots, navigators, and other aircrew members, as well as the training of enlisted personnel in various technical fields. As training detachments are directly involved in the training process, they are assigned to AETC to ensure proper coordination and oversight of training activities.

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  • 16. 

    How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    • Annually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the MTF updates the MXG/CC on the current status of the training activities being conducted within the maintenance group every month. This regular briefing allows the MXG/CC to stay informed about the progress and effectiveness of the training program and make any necessary adjustments or decisions based on the information provided.

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  • 17. 

    Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

    • XF3

    • XD2

    • XD1

    • XB3

    Correct Answer
    A. XB3
    Explanation
    Before an asset can be placed in bench stock, it must be assigned the expendability, recoverability, and reparability code (ERRC) XB3.

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  • 18. 

    Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged? 

    • AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag

    • DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material

    • DD Form 1577–1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material

    • DD Form 1577–2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag
    Explanation
    The AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag is used to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. This tag is typically used in the aerospace industry to indicate that a specific procedure has been followed to ensure that a part is free from any fluids or contaminants. It serves as a visual reminder for maintenance personnel to take caution when working with the tagged part.

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  • 19. 

    Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request? 

    • Customer

    • Maintenance Supply support

    • Maintenance Supply Liaison

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service.

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer
    Explanation
    The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. This means that the customer, who is in need of the parts, has the authority to prioritize the delivery based on their specific requirements and urgency. The customer's input is crucial in ensuring that the parts are delivered in a timely manner and meet their needs.

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  • 20. 

    Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within

    • 8 hrs

    • 16 hrs

    • 24 hrs

    • 32 hrs

    Correct Answer
    A. 24 hrs
    Explanation
    According to the given information, once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within a certain time frame. The correct answer is 24 hrs, meaning that the deficiency report must be submitted within 24 hours of discovering the Category I deficiency.

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  • 21. 

    How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?

    • 8

    • 9

    • 10

    • 11

    Correct Answer
    A. 9
    Explanation
    An equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment is made up of 9 digits.

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  • 22. 

    The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the 

    • Maintenance Flight.

    • Quality Assurance section.

    • Engine Management section.

    • Maintenance Operations Center.

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance section.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Quality Assurance section. The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is usually placed in the Quality Assurance section. This section is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance activities are performed correctly and that all safety and quality standards are met. The FOD monitor is used to detect any foreign objects that may have entered the aircraft during maintenance or other operations, which could potentially cause damage to the aircraft or its components. By locating the FOD monitor in the Quality Assurance section, it ensures that any potential FOD issues are identified and addressed before the aircraft is cleared for flight.

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  • 23. 

    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply? 

    • 30

    • 60

    • 90

    • 120

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide 30 days of supply. This means that there should be enough inventory on hand to cover the needs of the organization for a period of 30 days without having to reorder or restock. Having a 30-day supply helps to ensure that there is enough stock available to meet demand and prevent any disruptions in operations.

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  • 24. 

    Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent 

    • Air aborts.

    • Late takeoffs.

    • Ground aborts.

    • Aircraft status changes.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aircraft status changes.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "aircraft status changes." Red Ball maintenance is a type of maintenance that is performed on an aircraft when there is a change in its status. This could include changes such as a change in its operational status, a change in its maintenance status, or a change in its configuration. Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent air aborts, late takeoffs, or ground aborts.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?

    • Bolt.

    • Panel.

    • Safety Pin.

    • Explosive Munitions.

    Correct Answer
    A. Explosive Munitions.
    Explanation
    Explosive munitions are not considered dropped objects under the Dropped Object Prevention Program because they are intentionally released or deployed during aircrew operations, rather than being accidentally dropped. The program focuses on preventing accidental drops of objects that could pose a safety hazard to personnel and equipment.

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  • 26. 

    The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?

    • 15

    • 30

    • 45

    • 60

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account.

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  • 27. 

    What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data? 

    • Audio Visual Center

    • Engineering Data Service Center

    • AF Primary Standards Laboratory

    • Communication and Information System

    Correct Answer
    A. Engineering Data Service Center
    Explanation
    The Engineering Data Service Center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and organizing all the important engineering documents and information in one place. This allows for easy access and retrieval of these materials when needed, ensuring that engineers and other professionals have the necessary resources to carry out their work effectively.

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  • 28. 

    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

    • Hour

    • 2 hours

    • 3 hours

    • 4 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 hours
    Explanation
    When the aircraft owner or user is not present with the aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, it is necessary for security checks to be conducted every 3 hours. This is important to ensure the safety and protection of the aircraft and its sensitive equipment from unauthorized access or tampering. Regular security checks help to mitigate any potential risks or threats and maintain the confidentiality of the equipment.

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  • 29. 

    Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

    • 1A or JA.

    • AR or BR.

    • AA or AM.

    • BM or CM.

    Correct Answer
    A. AR or BR.
    Explanation
    The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty? 

    • Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions.

    • Advising supervisors on supply management documents.

    • Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.

    • Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.

    Correct Answer
    A. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty is not normally a responsibility of a Maintenance Supply Liaison. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are all tasks that a Maintenance Supply Liaison would typically perform.

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  • 31. 

    What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands=on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC MRA and TD courses?

    • Maintenance qualification

    • Maintenance refresher

    • OTJ

    • Ancillary

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance qualification
    Explanation
    Continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC MRA and TD courses. This type of training focuses on maintaining and enhancing the skills and knowledge acquired during the initial training. It helps individuals stay up-to-date with the latest techniques and practices in their field, ensuring that they are qualified to perform their maintenance duties effectively.

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  • 32. 

    Manpower authorizations are

    • Funded

    • Unfunded

    • Unvalidated

    • Both funded and unfunded

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded
    Explanation
    Manpower authorizations are funded, meaning that they have been allocated the necessary financial resources to support the required personnel. This suggests that there is a budget in place to cover the costs associated with hiring and maintaining the authorized workforce.

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  • 33. 

    Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian? 

    • Section supervisor

    • Squadron Commander

    • Flight Commander/Chief

    • Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Squadron Commander
    Explanation
    The Squadron Commander is responsible for appointing an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This role involves managing and overseeing the equipment inventory and ensuring its proper use and maintenance. The Squadron Commander has the authority to select a trustworthy and responsible individual who can effectively carry out these responsibilities.

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  • 34. 

    What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

    • I

    • III

    • IIB

    • IIA

    Correct Answer
    A. IIB
    Explanation
    Before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor, an individual must receive specific training in block IIB of the supply training.

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  • 35. 

    Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

    • Flight Service Center (FSC).

    • Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).

    • Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).

    • Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).

    Correct Answer
    A. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
    Explanation
    The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This office is specifically tasked with ensuring that these assets are properly accounted for and maintained. The other options, including the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the same responsibilities or authority over SPRAM assets.

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  • 36. 

    Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

    • A

    • C

    • G

    • P

    Correct Answer
    A. C
    Explanation
    PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This means that if an item is coded with PMIC C, it is made up of multiple precious metals, rather than just one.

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  • 37. 

    Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?

    • D18, Priority Monitor Report.

    • D04, Daily Document Register.

    • M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.

    • D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.

    Correct Answer
    A. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
    Explanation
    The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) is the correct answer because it provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. This report helps track and monitor the supply of items and ensures that there is adequate stock available for issue and bench support. It allows management to assess the effectiveness of the organization's supply support and make any necessary adjustments or improvements. The other options listed (D18, D04, and D23) do not specifically provide this type of supply tracking and monitoring functionality.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area? 

    • Weapons loading operations.

    • Radiographic inspections.

    • Fuel system repair.

    • Aircraft on jacks.

    Correct Answer
    A. Weapons loading operations.
    Explanation
    Weapons loading operations do not institute a restricted maintenance area. Restricted maintenance areas are designated areas where specific maintenance activities are carried out, and access is limited to authorized personnel. Radiographic inspections, fuel system repair, and aircraft on jacks are examples of maintenance activities that require restricted maintenance areas due to safety and security reasons. However, weapons loading operations are typically conducted in separate areas designated specifically for this purpose, which may not fall under the category of restricted maintenance areas.

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  • 39. 

    Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation? 

    • Maintenance Group (MXG) Vice Commander.

    • MXG Impoundment Release Authority.

    • Applicable Impoundment Authority.

    • Applicable Squadron commander.

    Correct Answer
    A. Applicable Impoundment Authority.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Applicable Impoundment Authority." The applicable impoundment authority is responsible for designating the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation. This authority has the power to make decisions regarding impoundment and is the appropriate entity to designate the official who will oversee the process.

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  • 40. 

    A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held 

    • Weekly

    • Monthly

    • Quarterly

    • Semiannually

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is held monthly. This means that the meeting takes place once every month. It is a regular occurrence and provides an opportunity for the MXG to address any staffing concerns or needs within the group. Holding the meeting on a monthly basis allows for timely communication and decision-making regarding manning issues, ensuring that any necessary adjustments can be made in a timely manner.

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  • 41. 

     If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), the CANN authority is required to notify 

    • Quality Assurance.

    • Programs and Resources Flight.

    • Maintenance Management analysis (MMA).

    • Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).

    Correct Answer
    A. Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).
    Explanation
    When a serially controlled item is cannibalized, the CANN authority is responsible for notifying the Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) department. PS&D is responsible for maintaining records and documentation related to maintenance activities, including cannibalization. They need to be informed so that they can update the necessary documentation and ensure that the cannibalization is properly recorded and tracked. Quality Assurance, Programs and Resources Flight, and Maintenance Management Analysis (MMA) are not directly involved in the notification process for cannibalization of serially controlled items.

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  • 42. 

    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?

    • 8

    • 12

    • 24

    • 48

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is required to notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within 24 hours of a FOD incident. This allows for timely reporting and assessment of the incident, ensuring that appropriate actions can be taken to mitigate any potential damage or hazards caused by the foreign object.

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  • 43. 

    Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

    • D18, Priority Monitor Report.

    • D04, Daily Document Register.

    • M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.

    • D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.

    Correct Answer
    A. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is D18, Priority Monitor Report. The Priority Monitor Report is a supply tracking document that is produced daily. It lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. This report helps to prioritize the procurement and delivery of these parts, ensuring that the most critical items are addressed first.

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  • 44. 

    Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

    • Flight commander/Chief.

    • Maintenance Group commander.

    • Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.

    • MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).

    Correct Answer
    A. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.
    Explanation
    The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. They have the responsibility and expertise to ensure that all necessary checks and calibrations are conducted to maintain the operational readiness of the supply assets. The Flight commander/Chief, Maintenance Group commander, and MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT) may have roles in the process, but the LRS Chief Inspector has the ultimate authority in this specific task.

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  • 45. 

    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the

    • Operations officer

    • Aircraft Section Flight Chief

    • Maintenance Operations Center

    • Aircraft Maintenance Unit’s (AMU) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) dedicated scheduler.

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance Operations Center
    Explanation
    Supply personnel notify the Maintenance Operations Center when a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB).

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  • 46. 

    Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty? 

    • Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.

    • Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts.

    • Advising MXG/CC on TO availability.

    • Resolving TO availability problems.

    Correct Answer
    A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.
    Explanation
    The MXG technical order distribution office (TODO) duties include assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising the MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems. However, establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required is not normally a duty of the MXG TODO.

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  • 47. 

    What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies? 

    • Maintenance Supply Liaison.

    • Maintenance Operations Center.

    • Maintenance Management Analysis.

    • Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.

    Correct Answer
    A. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
    Explanation
    The Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies. This section is in charge of planning and scheduling maintenance tasks, as well as maintaining accurate documentation of maintenance activities. They play a crucial role in ensuring that TCTOs are properly documented and managed within the maintenance information system.

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  • 48. 

    A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW 

    • AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting.

    • AFI 10–2510, USAF Emergency Notification Signals.

    • AFI 91–224, Ground Safety Investigations and Reports.

    • AFI 91–221, Weapons Safety Investigations and Reports.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting.
    Explanation
    When an object is dropped and it causes casualties or property damage, it must be reported in accordance with AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting. This regulation outlines the procedures for reporting operational incidents and accidents within the Air Force. It ensures that proper documentation is made to assess the situation, investigate the cause, and take appropriate actions to prevent future incidents.

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  • 49. 

    Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed? 

    • Wing Inspector General.

    • MAJCOM Inspector General.

    • Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).

    • Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).

    Correct Answer
    A. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).
    Explanation
    The Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector is directly responsible to the Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT) for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed. This means that the QA Chief Inspector reports to and works under the guidance of the QA OIC/SUPT to ensure that the necessary maintenance standardization and evaluation tasks are carried out effectively.

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  • Current Version
  • Aug 07, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Apr 28, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Mosesej
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