Basic Military Quiz

31 Questions | Attempts: 150
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Military Quizzes & Trivia

This test will cover the entire SCWs PQS. You will have 3 hours to complete.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Emergency Service Authorizations are classified as:

    • A.

      Greater than 40 man hours and greater than $100 in materials costs

    • B.

      Less than 16 man-hours and less than $100 in material costs

    • C.

      Greater than 16 man-hours and greater than $100 in material costs

    • D.

      Less than 16 man hours and greater than $100 in material costs

    Correct Answer
    B. Less than 16 man-hours and less than $100 in material costs
  • 2. 

    What is the acronym describes the military aspects of terrain as it applies to a defensive force?

    • A.

      SMEAC

    • B.

      FLOT

    • C.

      FEBA

    • D.

      SAFE

    • E.

      KOCOA

    Correct Answer
    E. KOCOA
  • 3. 

    In the NCF, what is the system that we use to detect biological agents?

    • A.

      IBADS

    • B.

      M8A1

    • C.

      M57A2

    • D.

      There is currently no method available to detect biological agents

    Correct Answer
    D. There is currently no method available to detect biological agents
  • 4. 

    What part of the five-paragraph order describes the enemy force, friendly force and attachments & detachments?

    • A.

      Situation

    • B.

      Mission

    • C.

      Execution

    • D.

      Command & control

    Correct Answer
    A. Situation
  • 5. 

    The ACL of the C-17 is

    Correct Answer
    90,000lbs
    90,000 lbs
  • 6. 

    Why is it important to segregate and store hazardous material?

    • A.

      To prevent spills and damage to containers

    • B.

      To prevent reactivity hazards with other materials

    • C.

      Control potential fire or explosive hazards

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
  • 7. 

    What type of order is issued to give patrol members as much time as possible to prepare for a patrol?

    • A.

      Alert

    • B.

      Early

    • C.

      Warning

    • D.

      Preparatory

    Correct Answer
    C. Warning
  • 8. 

    What is the correct description of a Condition 3 weapon?

    • A.

      Weapon off safe, magazine inserted and a round in the chamber.

    • B.

      Weapon off safe, magazine inserted and an empty chamber.

    • C.

      Weapon on safe, magazine inserted and an empty chamber.

    • D.

      Weapon on safe, magazine not inserted and an empty chamber.

    Correct Answer
    C. Weapon on safe, magazine inserted and an empty chamber.
  • 9. 

    Which is the correct order of a weapons cycle of operations?

    • A.

      Chambering, locking, firing, feeding, unlocking, extracting, ejecting, cocking.

    • B.

      Feeding, chambering, locking, firing, unlocking, extracting, ejecting, cocking.

    • C.

      Ejecting, cocking, feeding, chambering, locking, firing, unlocking, extracting.

    • D.

      Firing, unlocking, ejecting, extracting, cocking, feeding, stripping, chambering.

    Correct Answer
    B. Feeding, chambering, locking, firing, unlocking, extracting, ejecting, cocking.
  • 10. 

    Which principle of war dictates that there is a clearly defined, attainable goal before the outbreak of hostilities?

    • A.

      Offensive

    • B.

      Security

    • C.

      Economy of force

    • D.

      Objective

    Correct Answer
    D. Objective
  • 11. 

    What is the purpose of the Allowance Change Request (ACR)?

    • A.

      To stock every automotive repair part Alfa Company wants

    • B.

      To request a quantity increase/decrease based on parts failure rates

    • C.

      To request additional parts support based on conditions of a new operating area

    • D.

      To request additional parts support based on additional equipment to support

    Correct Answer
    C. To request additional parts support based on conditions of a new operating area
  • 12. 

    List the 4 methods of hemorrhage control in order.

    • A.

      DIRECT PRESSURE,ELEVATION,PRESSURE POINTS,TOURNIQUET

    • B.

      ELEVATION,DIRECT PRESSURE,PRESSURE POINTS,TOURNIQUET

    • C.

      ELEVATION,DIRECT PRESSURE,TOURNIQUET,PRESSURE POINTS

    • D.

      PRESSURE POINTS,ELEVATION,DIRECT PRESSURE,TOURNIQUET

    Correct Answer
    A. DIRECT PRESSURE,ELEVATION,PRESSURE POINTS,TOURNIQUET
  • 13. 

    What does MSDS stand for?

    • A.

      Material supply distribution sheet

    • B.

      Material safety data sheet

    • C.

      Master security disposal sheet

    • D.

      Material supplemental data sheet

    Correct Answer
    B. Material safety data sheet
  • 14. 

    What does the acronym TPI stand for?

    • A.

      Transmission Protection Information

    • B.

      Trust People Intelligently

    • C.

      Two Person Integrity

    • D.

      True Property Identification

    Correct Answer
    C. Two Person Integrity
  • 15. 

    The object of a defense is to hold on to ground already occupied without difficulty, and keep it clear of the enemy.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
  • 16. 

    Lockout/tagout procedures are required only while working on electrical circuits.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
  • 17. 

     What is the cyclic rate of fire of the M16A2 rifle?

    • A.

      650 rounds per minute (rpm)

    • B.

      650-700 rpm

    • C.

      700-800 rpm

    • D.

      800-900 rpm

    Correct Answer
    C. 700-800 rpm
  • 18. 

    What is the identification marking for organic CESE?

    • A.

      Red background with white numerals

    • B.

      White background with red numerals

    • C.

      Red background with yellow numerals

    • D.

      White background with yellow numerals

    Correct Answer
    A. Red background with white numerals
  • 19. 

    Which officer is responsible for the review of all OPORERs received by the battalion, and the issuing of all internal OPORDERS?

    • A.

      Commanding Officer

    • B.

      Executive Officer

    • C.

      S2/S7

    • D.

      S3

    Correct Answer
    D. S3
  • 20. 

    What would indicate that a person is suffering from heat exhaustion?

    • A.

      Headache, weakness, dizzy, skin cool, moist and clammy

    • B.

      Elevated body temp, disorientation, hot, possibly dry skin

    • C.

      Muscle spasm in abdomen, legs and arms

    • D.

      Feet turn numb stiff and cold

    Correct Answer
    A. Headache, weakness, dizzy, skin cool, moist and clammy
  • 21. 

    How far into the future does the EDVR project manning?

    • A.

      9 months

    • B.

      1 year

    • C.

      6 months

    • D.

      2 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 9 months
  • 22. 

    What is the point maximum effective range of the M16A2 rifle?

    • A.

      550m

    • B.

      650m

    • C.

      700m

    • D.

      800m

    Correct Answer
    A. 550m
  • 23. 

    What intelligence report is given to provide immediate information on the enemy?

    • A.

      SPOT

    • B.

      SALUTE

    • C.

      SORTS

    • D.

      SITREP

    Correct Answer
    B. SALUTE
  • 24. 

    What is the official birthdate of the Seabees?

    • A.

      March 5 1942

    • B.

      March 15 1942

    • C.

      December 7, 1941

    • D.

      August 15 1945

    Correct Answer
    A. March 5 1942
  • 25. 

    When should a person be entered into the hearing conservation program?

    • A.

      When they are exposed to noises greater than 90dbA.

    • B.

      When they enter the Navy

    • C.

      When they are exposed to a noise greater than 84dbA.

    • D.

      When they are exposed to a noise greater than 104db.

    Correct Answer
    C. When they are exposed to a noise greater than 84dbA.
  • 26. 

    The leaf site is used for up to how many meters for the M203?

    • A.

      175m

    • B.

      200m

    • C.

      250m

    • D.

      275m

    Correct Answer
    C. 250m
  • 27. 

    What are the six elements of a fire command in order?

    Correct Answer
    ALERT,DIRECTION,DESCRIPTION,RANGE,ASSIGNMENT,CONTROL
  • 28. 

    What is the purpose of a Report of Discrepancy Form (SF-364)

    • A.

      To document receipt discrepancies and hold the Navy responsible

    • B.

      To report any shipping discrepancies attributable to responsible activity

    • C.

      To report any discrepancies that the SK’s create

    • D.

      To document all differences between quantity ordered and received

    Correct Answer
    B. To report any shipping discrepancies attributable to responsible activity
  • 29. 

    A unit reports its readiness to the higher headquarters using which of the following reports?

    • A.

      Naval Readiness & Training Report

    • B.

      Naval Report on Readiness & Training

    • C.

      Readiness Review of Capabilities

    • D.

      Status of Requirements and Training Support System

    Correct Answer
    D. Status of Requirements and Training Support System
  • 30. 

    What testing kit is used to detect chemical agents in water?

    • A.

      M-256A1

    • B.

      M-272

    • C.

      M-258

    • D.

      M-8A1

    Correct Answer
    B. M-272
  • 31. 

    The M60 fires how many rounds per minute (rpm) when firing in the rapid mode?

    • A.

      100rpm

    • B.

      200rpm

    • C.

      250rpm

    • D.

      300rpm

    Correct Answer
    B. 200rpm

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 21, 2016
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 11, 2009
    Quiz Created by
    1yahweh
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