Advanced Test: Pre-transfusion Testing And Adverse Reactions

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  • 1/79 Questions

    There are also many pre-analytical as well as post-analytical factors essential in blood banking as well.

    • True
    • False
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About This Quiz

Welcome to the advanced test on Pre-transfusion Testing and adverse reactions. In order to perform thorough pre-transfusion testing, all components of testing must come together to give a complete and accurate set of results to render it ready for transfer to a patient. Do take this quiz and see how knowledgeable you are when it comes to the testing procedures.

Advanced Test: Pre-transfusion Testing And Adverse Reactions - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The recipient sample must be labeled with full name, unique identifying number, date, and some means of identifying the phlebotomist.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    In order to ensure proper identification and tracking of recipient samples, it is necessary to label them with essential information. The full name of the recipient helps in avoiding any confusion or mix-up with other samples. A unique identifying number is important for accurate record-keeping and tracking purposes. The date of collection provides a reference point for analysis and monitoring. Additionally, including some means of identifying the phlebotomist allows for accountability and traceability in case of any issues or concerns. Therefore, it is true that the recipient sample must be labeled with full name, unique identifying number, date, and some means of identifying the phlebotomist.

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  • 3. 

    Tubes with Purple or pink top have what anticoagulant?

    • Acid citrate dextrose (ACD), formula B

    • EDTA

    • Citrate

    • No anticoagulant

    Correct Answer
    A. EDTA
    Explanation
    Tubes with a purple or pink top contain EDTA as an anticoagulant. EDTA stands for ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid, which binds to calcium ions and prevents blood clotting by inhibiting coagulation factors. This anticoagulant is commonly used for hematology tests, as it preserves the blood sample by preventing clotting and maintaining the integrity of the formed elements.

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  • 4. 

    What is/are tests involved in routine pre-transfusion testing?

    • ABO/Rh

    • Antibody Screen

    • Crossmatch

    • All of above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of above
    Explanation
    Routine pre-transfusion testing involves several tests to ensure compatibility between the blood donor and recipient. The ABO/Rh test determines the blood type and Rh factor of both the donor and recipient. The antibody screen identifies any unexpected antibodies in the recipient's blood that could cause a reaction. The crossmatch test is performed to check for compatibility between the donor and recipient's blood, specifically checking for any reactions. Therefore, all of the above tests are involved in routine pre-transfusion testing.

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  • 5. 

    ________________ occurs outside of the vessels by removal of the Ag:Ab complexes by the liver, spleen and other RES sites.

    • Intravascular hemolysis

    • Extravascular hemolysis

    • In vivo hemolysis

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Extravascular hemolysis
    Explanation
    Extravascular hemolysis refers to the process where the removal of antigen-antibody (Ag:Ab) complexes occurs outside of the blood vessels. This process takes place in organs such as the liver, spleen, and other reticuloendothelial system (RES) sites. It involves the breakdown and clearance of damaged or old red blood cells, which helps maintain the balance of red blood cells in the body. In contrast, intravascular hemolysis occurs within the blood vessels, while in vivo hemolysis is a more general term that encompasses both intravascular and extravascular hemolysis.

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  • 6. 

    What test(s) are included in compatibility testing?

    • Blood typing of the recipient

    • Antibody screening of recipient

    • Crossmatch

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Compatibility testing in the context of blood transfusion involves multiple tests to ensure that the blood being transfused is compatible with the recipient's blood. Blood typing of the recipient is done to determine their blood type, while antibody screening of the recipient is performed to detect any antibodies present in their blood that could react with the donor blood. The crossmatch test is conducted to mix a sample of the recipient's blood with the donor blood and observe for any adverse reactions. Therefore, all of the mentioned tests (blood typing, antibody screening, and crossmatch) are included in compatibility testing.

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  • 7. 

    Which test of pre-transfusion testing is used to detect unexpected antibody (ies)?

    • ABO/Rh

    • Antibody Screen

    • Crossmatch

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Antibody Screen
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Antibody Screen. Antibody screen is a test performed during pre-transfusion testing to detect unexpected antibodies in a patient's blood. These unexpected antibodies can cause adverse reactions during blood transfusions, so it is important to identify them beforehand. ABO/Rh test is used to determine the blood type and Rh factor, while crossmatch is a test performed to ensure compatibility between the donor's blood and the recipient's blood. Therefore, neither ABO/Rh nor crossmatch are used specifically to detect unexpected antibodies.

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  • 8. 

    When preforming a crossmatch we use the ________ serum and the _________ red blood cells.

    • Donor, recipient

    • Frozen, packed

    • Recipient, donor

    • Packed, frozen

    Correct Answer
    A. Recipient, donor
    Explanation
    When performing a crossmatch, we use the recipient's serum and the donor's red blood cells. This is because the purpose of a crossmatch is to determine if there are any antibodies in the recipient's serum that could react with the donor's red blood cells. By mixing the recipient's serum with the donor's red blood cells, we can observe if there is any agglutination or clumping, indicating an incompatible match. Therefore, the correct answer is recipient, donor.

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  • 9. 

    The antibody screen:

    • Detects most clinically significant antibodies

    • Detects all low-frequency antibodies

    • Helps to distinguish between an alloantibody and autoantibody

    • Can be omitted if the patient has no history of antibodies

    Correct Answer
    A. Detects most clinically significant antibodies
    Explanation
    The antibody screen is a test that is used to detect antibodies in a patient's blood. It is designed to identify antibodies that are clinically significant, meaning they are likely to cause problems for the patient. While it is not able to detect all low-frequency antibodies, it is still an important tool in identifying antibodies that could potentially harm the patient. Additionally, the antibody screen helps to differentiate between alloantibodies, which are antibodies produced in response to foreign antigens, and autoantibodies, which are antibodies that mistakenly target the body's own cells. Therefore, it is not advisable to omit the antibody screen even if the patient has no history of antibodies, as it can still provide valuable information.

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  • 10. 

    What ABO and D types are selected for RBC units issued to a patient in an emergency release?

    • Group O, D-positive

    • Group O, D-negative

    • Group A, D-positive

    • Group AB, D-negative

    Correct Answer
    A. Group O, D-negative
    Explanation
    In emergency situations, when there is no time for cross-matching blood, group O, D-negative blood is selected for RBC units issued to a patient. Group O blood is considered the universal donor as it lacks both A and B antigens, reducing the risk of an adverse reaction. D-negative blood is chosen to avoid potential complications from the Rh factor. This combination ensures compatibility and minimizes the risk of transfusion reactions in emergency situations.

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  • 11. 

    The second phase is the crossmatch.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Crossmatch is the THIRD phase testing

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  • 12. 

    A crossmatch demonstrating a 2+ agglutination is interpreted as compatible.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    A crossmatch demonstrating a 2+ agglutination indicates that there is a strong reaction between the donor and recipient blood, suggesting incompatibility. Therefore, the correct interpretation would be that the crossmatch is not compatible.

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  • 13. 

    If the first two tests are grouped together it is called a(n) ___________.

    • Type and Screen

    • Crossmatch

    • Type and Crossmatch

    • Crossmatch Screening

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Type and Screen
    Explanation
    When the first two tests, which are the type test and the screen test, are grouped together, it is called a Type and Screen. This is a common practice in blood banking and transfusion medicine. The type test determines the blood type of the patient, while the screen test checks for the presence of antibodies in the patient's blood that could potentially react with donor blood. By combining these two tests, healthcare professionals can determine the patient's blood type and screen for any potential compatibility issues before transfusing blood products.

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  • 14. 

    Detection of serologic incompatibility between donor RBC's and recipient serum is performed in the:

    • Antibody screen

    • Crossmatch

    • DAT

    • Autologous control

    Correct Answer
    A. Crossmatch
    Explanation
    The crossmatch is performed to detect serologic incompatibility between donor RBC's and recipient serum. This test is crucial before a blood transfusion to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions. It involves mixing a sample of the recipient's serum with the donor's red blood cells to check for any antibodies that may react and cause harm. If compatibility issues are detected, the crossmatch will help identify and prevent potential transfusion reactions.

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  • 15. 

    The computer crossmatch is easily implemented in the blood bank and does not require validation.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The statement is incorrect because the computer crossmatch, like any other procedure, requires validation in the blood bank. Validation is necessary to ensure that the computer crossmatch accurately and reliably detects any incompatibilities or adverse reactions between the donor and recipient blood samples. Validation also helps to establish the effectiveness and safety of the computer crossmatch procedure before it is implemented in the blood bank. Therefore, the correct answer is False.

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  • 16. 

    The computer crossmatch requires two ABO and D phenotypes on the recipient.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The computer crossmatch, a method used in blood transfusion, indeed requires two ABO and D phenotypes on the recipient. This is because ABO and D phenotypes are critical in determining blood compatibility between the donor and recipient. By ensuring that the recipient's blood type matches with the donor's blood type, the risk of transfusion reactions, such as hemolysis, can be minimized. Therefore, it is essential to have two ABO and D phenotypes on the recipient for accurate and safe blood transfusion.

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  • 17. 

    Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions are known as HTR's and are broken down by:

    • Immediate reactions

    • Delayed reactions

    • Both A & B

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Both A & B
    Explanation
    Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions, also known as HTR's, can be categorized into two types: immediate reactions and delayed reactions. Immediate reactions occur shortly after a blood transfusion and can be life-threatening, causing symptoms such as fever, chills, and difficulty breathing. Delayed reactions, on the other hand, occur days to weeks after a transfusion and are characterized by symptoms like fever, jaundice, and anemia. Therefore, the correct answer is both A & B, as HTR's can manifest as both immediate and delayed reactions.

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  • 18. 

    The pink top tube is the blood bank sample.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    The pink top tube is typically used for blood banking, but it's not the blood bank sample itself. The blood bank sample is usually collected in a separate container, often an EDTA (lavender top) tube, and then processed and stored accordingly for compatibility testing and other blood banking procedures.

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  • 19. 

    An antibody demonstrating the dosage would mean that:

    • Homozygous cells were stronger

    • Heterozygous cells were stronger

    • Cells reacted best with PEG

    • Cells reacted best at 4 degrees C

    Correct Answer
    A. Homozygous cells were stronger
    Explanation
    In this context, the term "dosage" refers to the strength or effectiveness of the antibody. The correct answer suggests that homozygous cells, which have two identical copies of a particular gene, were stronger. This implies that having two identical copies of the gene resulted in a more potent or efficient antibody response compared to heterozygous cells, which have two different copies of the gene. The other options, such as cells reacting best with PEG or at 4 degrees C, are not directly related to the concept of dosage in this context.

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  • 20. 

    The procedure that removes intact antibodies from the red cell membranes is:

    • Autoadsorption

    • Neutralization

    • Enzyme pretreatment

    • Elution

    Correct Answer
    A. Elution
    Explanation
    Elution is the process of removing intact antibodies from the red cell membranes. This procedure involves washing the red cells with a solution that breaks the antigen-antibody bond, allowing the antibodies to be released and separated from the cells. This method is commonly used in blood banking and immunohematology to remove unwanted antibodies from donor blood or to isolate specific antibodies for diagnostic purposes.

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  • 21. 

    It is the job of the packed cell components to ______________ the RBC mass to ______________ oxygen carrying capacity.

    • Decrease, decrease

    • Increase, increase

    • Decrease, increase

    • Increase, decrease

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase, increase
    Explanation
    The packed cell components, which include red blood cells (RBCs), are responsible for increasing the RBC mass in order to increase the oxygen carrying capacity. This means that an increase in packed cell components will lead to an increase in both RBC mass and the ability to carry oxygen.

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  • 22. 

    Which phase of pre-transfusion testing is the antibody screen?

    • First phase

    • Second phase

    • Third phase

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Second phase
    Explanation
    The antibody screen is conducted during the second phase of pre-transfusion testing. This phase involves testing the recipient's serum against a panel of known antibodies to identify any unexpected antibodies present. By doing this, potential transfusion reactions can be prevented by ensuring compatibility between the recipient's antibodies and the donor's antigens.

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  • 23. 

    What is the cause of transfusion-induced hemosiderosis?

    • Excess citrate

    • Pl A1 antigen

    • Iron overload

    • Circulatory overload

    Correct Answer
    A. Iron overload
    Explanation
    Transfusion-induced hemosiderosis is caused by iron overload. This occurs when excessive iron is present in the body due to repeated blood transfusions. The iron from the transfused blood accumulates in the tissues and organs, leading to the deposition of hemosiderin, a form of iron storage. Over time, this can result in damage to various organs, such as the liver, heart, and endocrine glands. Therefore, iron overload is the underlying cause of transfusion-induced hemosiderosis.

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  • 24. 

    What disorder has a deficiency of factor VIII?

    • Hemophilia A

    • Hemophilia B

    • Vitamin K Deficiency

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemophilia A
    Explanation
    Hemophilia A is a disorder characterized by a deficiency of factor VIII, a protein necessary for normal blood clotting. This condition is inherited and primarily affects males. Individuals with Hemophilia A may experience prolonged bleeding, easy bruising, and excessive bleeding after injuries or surgeries. Treatment typically involves replacing the missing factor VIII through intravenous infusions. Hemophilia B, on the other hand, is caused by a deficiency of factor IX. Vitamin K deficiency is unrelated to these clotting disorders.

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  • 25. 

    Tubes with the red top have what anticoagulant?

    • Acid citrate dextrose (ACD), formula B

    • EDTA

    • Citrate

    • Is blood bank sample

    • No anticoagulant

    Correct Answer
    A. No anticoagulant
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "No anticoagulant." This means that tubes with the red top do not contain any anticoagulant. Anticoagulants are substances that prevent blood from clotting, and in this case, the red top tubes do not have any anticoagulant added to them.

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  • 26. 

    The prewarm technique may weaken IgG reactions because:

    • Samples are not read at the immediate spin phase

    • Warm saline washes may detach IgG antibodies

    • The 37 degree C readings are omitted

    • Polyspecific IgG is not recommended

    Correct Answer
    A. Warm saline washes may detach IgG antibodies
    Explanation
    The prewarm technique involves washing the patient's red blood cells with warm saline before performing the antibody detection test. This is done to enhance the reaction between the patient's antibodies and the red blood cells. However, warm saline washes may also detach IgG antibodies from the red blood cells, leading to a weaker reaction. This is why the prewarm technique may weaken IgG reactions.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following statements is true regarding compatibility testing for infants younger than 4 months of age?

    • A DAT is required

    • A crossmatch is needed when the antibody screen is negative

    • Maternal serum can be used for the crossmatch

    • Testing for ABO antibodies is required for the infant

    Correct Answer
    A. Maternal serum can be used for the crossmatch
    Explanation
    Maternal serum can be used for the crossmatch in compatibility testing for infants younger than 4 months of age. This means that the mother's blood can be used to determine if there are any compatibility issues between the mother and the infant. This is important because it helps ensure that the infant receives compatible blood if a transfusion is needed. Using the mother's serum for the crossmatch is a common practice in these cases as it provides valuable information about potential antibodies that may be present in the infant's blood.

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  • 28. 

    Any cold IgM antibody group can interfere with patient blood typing.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    Cold IgM antibodies are known to cause interference in blood typing tests. These antibodies can agglutinate red blood cells at lower temperatures, leading to false positive results or difficulty in accurately determining the patient's blood type. Therefore, any cold IgM antibody group has the potential to interfere with patient blood typing.

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  • 29. 

    With the date of the draw being 0, how many days are samples able to be used?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. 3
    Explanation
    The question states that the date of the draw is 0, which means that the draw has not yet taken place. Therefore, the samples can be used for 3 days because they will be valid until the draw occurs.

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  • 30. 

    An immediate spin crossmatch of a D-positive recipient with a D-negative donor unit is incompatible.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    An immediate spin crossmatch of a D-positive recipient with a D-negative donor unit is compatible. This is because the immediate spin crossmatch is a rapid test that detects the presence of red blood cell antibodies in the recipient's plasma. In this case, since the recipient is D-positive and the donor unit is D-negative, there will be no D antigen on the donor's red blood cells to react with the recipient's antibodies. Therefore, the crossmatch will be compatible and the answer is false.

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  • 31. 

    Febrile reactions are caused by ______________ antibodies.

    • Kell

    • Leukopoor

    • Leukocyte

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Leukocyte
    Explanation
    Febrile reactions are caused by leukocyte antibodies. These antibodies are produced by the immune system in response to the presence of leukocytes, which are white blood cells. When these antibodies react with leukocytes, it can lead to a febrile reaction, which is characterized by the development of a fever. The other options, Kell and leukopoor, are not related to the cause of febrile reactions.

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  • 32. 

    The _________ testing will determine what blood type the recipient is and what type the donor unit needs to be to be "compatible" with the recipient.

    • ABO/Rh

    • Antibody Screen

    • Crossmatch

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. ABO/Rh
    Explanation
    The ABO/Rh testing is used to determine the blood type of the recipient and the blood type that the donor unit needs to be compatible with the recipient. This testing is important to ensure that the recipient receives the correct blood type and to prevent any potential adverse reactions or complications during a blood transfusion.

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  • 33. 

    What incompatibilities are detected in the antiglobulin phase of a crossmatch?

    • IgM alloantibodies in recipients serum

    • ABO incompatibilities

    • IgG alloantibodies in recipients serum

    • Room temperature incompatibilities

    Correct Answer
    A. IgG alloantibodies in recipients serum
    Explanation
    In the antiglobulin phase of a crossmatch, the presence of IgG alloantibodies in the recipient's serum is detected. This means that the recipient has developed antibodies against certain antigens on the donor's red blood cells. These IgG alloantibodies can cause a reaction when they come into contact with the donor's blood during a transfusion, leading to a transfusion reaction. Therefore, it is important to detect these incompatibilities in order to ensure a safe transfusion.

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  • 34. 

    Why do we transfuse platelets?

    • Low pH count

    • Can give as prophylaxis (preventative transfusion)

    • PH malfunction

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    Platelets are transfused for various reasons, including a low platelet count (thrombocytopenia), which can be caused by various conditions such as bleeding disorders, chemotherapy, or certain medications. Platelet transfusion can also be given as prophylaxis to prevent bleeding in individuals with a high risk of bleeding, such as those undergoing surgery or with severe trauma. Additionally, platelet transfusion may be necessary in cases of pH malfunction, where the pH levels in the body are imbalanced. Therefore, all of the above reasons are valid explanations for why we transfuse platelets.

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  • 35. 

    What coag factors are in FFP (fresh frozen plasma)?

    • Factor V

    • Factor VIII

    • Factor X

    • All Coagulation Factors

    Correct Answer
    A. All Coagulation Factors
    Explanation
    Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) contains all coagulation factors. FFP is a blood product that is rich in clotting factors and is used to treat bleeding disorders or replace blood loss. It is prepared by separating plasma from donated blood and freezing it at a very low temperature to preserve the clotting factors. By containing all coagulation factors, FFP can help replenish these factors in patients with deficiencies or abnormalities in their clotting system, promoting blood clot formation and preventing excessive bleeding.

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  • 36. 

    ________________ occurs due to the binding of complement, and the lysis releases free hemoglobin.

    • Intravascular hemolysis

    • Extravascular hemolysis

    • In vitro hemolysis

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Intravascular hemolysis
    Explanation
    Intravascular hemolysis occurs when complement binds to red blood cells, causing their destruction and the release of free hemoglobin into the bloodstream. This process takes place within the blood vessels, leading to the breakdown of red blood cells and the subsequent release of hemoglobin. This is different from extravascular hemolysis, which occurs outside of the blood vessels, and in vitro hemolysis, which refers to the artificial breakdown of red blood cells in a laboratory setting. Therefore, the correct answer is intravascular hemolysis.

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  • 37. 

    A patient has expierenced two febrile reactions following transfusion.  What is the preferred blood component if future transfusions are necessary?

    • Leukocyte-reduced RBCs

    • Irradiated RBCs

    • Cytomegalovirus - negative RBCs

    • Group O D-negative RBCs

    Correct Answer
    A. Leukocyte-reduced RBCs
    Explanation
    The preferred blood component if future transfusions are necessary is leukocyte-reduced RBCs. This is because febrile reactions following transfusion are often caused by white blood cell (leukocyte) antibodies in the recipient's plasma. By using leukocyte-reduced RBCs, the number of leukocytes in the blood component is reduced, minimizing the risk of febrile reactions in future transfusions.

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  • 38. 

    The only component that requires crossmatching is a unit of RBC's.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Crossmatching is a process used to determine compatibility between the donor's blood and the recipient's blood before a blood transfusion. It involves mixing a small sample of the donor's blood with the recipient's blood to check for any reactions. In this case, the statement suggests that only a unit of RBC's requires crossmatching. However, this is incorrect as crossmatching is necessary for all blood components, including platelets and plasma, to ensure a safe and compatible transfusion. Therefore, the correct answer is false.

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  • 39. 

    Group O plasma is considered the universal donor of plasma products.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Group O plasma is not considered the universal donor of plasma products. The correct answer is False. Group AB plasma is actually considered the universal donor of plasma products because it lacks both A and B antigens, making it compatible with all other blood types. Group O plasma, on the other hand, contains both A and B antigens, so it is not compatible with all blood types.

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  • 40. 

    The most common nonhemolytic reactions are the ____________ and allergic reactions.

    • Anamnestic

    • Sensitized

    • Febrile

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Febrile
    Explanation
    Febrile reactions are a common type of nonhemolytic reaction, characterized by an increase in body temperature or fever. These reactions can occur in response to blood transfusions and are typically caused by the release of pyrogens from white blood cells. Febrile reactions are not related to anamnestic or sensitized reactions, which involve a memory response or an immune response to a specific antigen. Therefore, the correct answer is febrile.

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  • 41. 

    DTT is useful in evaluating a sample when which antibody is suspected?

    • Anti-Js b

    • Anti-Kp b

    • Anti-k

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    DTT (Dithiothreitol) is a reducing agent commonly used in laboratory settings to break disulfide bonds in proteins. In this context, DTT can be used to evaluate a sample when any of the mentioned antibodies (anti-Js b, anti-Kp b, and anti-k) are suspected. By using DTT, the disulfide bonds in these antibodies can be disrupted, allowing for further analysis and characterization of the sample. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above."

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  • 42. 

    What antibodies are detected in the immediate spin crossmatch?

    • Rh antibodies

    • High-titer, low-avidity antibodies

    • ABO antibodies

    • Kell antibodies

    Correct Answer
    A. ABO antibodies
    Explanation
    ABO antibodies are detected in the immediate spin crossmatch. The immediate spin crossmatch is a blood test that is performed to determine compatibility between the donor and recipient blood for a transfusion. ABO antibodies are naturally occurring antibodies that are present in the plasma of individuals who do not possess a particular blood type antigen on their red blood cells. These antibodies can cause a transfusion reaction if incompatible blood types are mixed together. Therefore, it is important to detect and match ABO antibodies during the immediate spin crossmatch to ensure a safe transfusion.

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  • 43. 

    A patient experiences chills and fever, nausea, flushing, and lower back pain following the infusion of 350 mL of blood. To rule out a transfusion reaction because of acute hemolysis, one should immediately:

    • Perform a DAT and observe serum on posttransfusion sample

    • Measure serum haptoglobin on prereaction and postreaction samples

    • Repeat crossmatches on prereaction and postreaction samples

    • Gram stain and culture the unit

    Correct Answer
    A. Perform a DAT and observe serum on posttransfusion sample
    Explanation
    To rule out a transfusion reaction because of acute hemolysis, performing a Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT) and observing the serum on a posttransfusion sample is the best course of action. The DAT can detect the presence of antibodies or complement proteins on the patient's red blood cells, which could indicate an immune-mediated hemolytic reaction. By observing the serum, any signs of hemolysis, such as the presence of free hemoglobin, can be identified. This test is crucial in determining if a transfusion reaction has occurred and if further investigation or treatment is necessary.

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  • 44. 

    Current pretransfusion testing on John Smith reveals a negative antibody screen with a previous history of anti-K. He is group A, D-positive.......... Which of the following crossmatch procedures is performed to identify compatible units?

    • Immediate spin crossmatch

    • Electronic crossmatch

    • Antiglobulin crossmatch

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Antiglobulin crossmatch
    Explanation
    The antiglobulin crossmatch procedure is performed to identify compatible units. This procedure involves mixing the patient's serum with donor red blood cells, followed by the addition of antiglobulin reagent. If agglutination or hemolysis occurs, it indicates incompatibility between the patient's serum and the donor red blood cells. This test is used to detect antibodies that may not be detected in the immediate spin crossmatch or electronic crossmatch procedures.

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  • 45. 

    Current pretransfusion testing on John Smith reveals a negative antibody screen with a previous history of anti-K. He is group A, D-positive.............. Given the following inventory, which donor unit should be selected to use for crossmatching?

    • Group A, D-positive, K+k+

    • Group A, D-negative, K-k+

    • Group O, D-positive, K+k-

    • Group O, D-negative, K+k-

    Correct Answer
    A. Group A, D-negative, K-k+
  • 46. 

    Which of the following adverse complications of transfusion is prevented by the irradiation of blood components.

    • Circulatory overload

    • Hyperkalemia

    • Iron overload

    • TA-GVHD

    Correct Answer
    A. TA-GVHD
    Explanation
    TA-GVHD stands for transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease. It is a rare but serious complication that can occur when immunocompromised patients receive blood transfusions containing viable T cells. Irradiation of blood components is used to prevent this complication by inactivating the T cells present in the transfused blood, thus reducing the risk of the donor's immune cells attacking the recipient's tissues. This measure is particularly important for patients with weakened immune systems, such as those undergoing stem cell transplants or receiving treatment for certain cancers.

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  • 47. 

    What laboratory test is useful to detect clerical errors of sample identification in a transfusion reaction investigation?

    • ABO and Rh typing

    • Antibody screen

    • Crossmatch

    • DAT

    Correct Answer
    A. ABO and Rh typing
    Explanation
    ABO and Rh typing is the correct answer because it is a laboratory test that helps detect clerical errors of sample identification in a transfusion reaction investigation. ABO and Rh typing involves determining the blood type and Rh factor of the patient and the blood product, and comparing them to ensure compatibility. This test is crucial in preventing transfusion reactions caused by mismatched blood types, which can lead to severe complications or even death. By confirming the correct identification of the samples, ABO and Rh typing helps ensure the safety and effectiveness of blood transfusions.

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  • 48. 

    If all three tests are performed at the same time it is called a(n)________.

    • Type and Screen

    • Crossmatch

    • Type and Crossmatch

    • Crossmatch Screening

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Type and Crossmatch
    Explanation
    When all three tests (Type, Screen, and Crossmatch) are performed simultaneously, it is referred to as a "Type and Crossmatch." This process involves determining the patient's blood type, screening for any antibodies present in the blood, and then crossmatching the patient's blood with the donor blood to ensure compatibility before a transfusion.

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  • 49. 

    Antigen typing on red cells should not be performed if the patient has been transfused within the following:

    • 30 days

    • 2 months

    • 3 months

    • 6 months

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 months
    Explanation
    Antigen typing on red cells should not be performed if the patient has been transfused within the last 3 months. This is because transfusions can introduce new antigens into the patient's bloodstream, which can lead to inaccurate results when typing for specific antigens on red cells. Waiting at least 3 months after a transfusion allows enough time for any newly introduced antigens to clear from the patient's system, ensuring more accurate typing results.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 8, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 08, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 24, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    KimmieG
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