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Final Exam Part 1 (1-100)

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The object on the slide should be initially located using which objective?
    • A. 

      Nosepiece

    • B. 

      Low power

    • C. 

      Base

    • D. 

      Ocular lens

    • E. 

      Condenser

  • 2. 
    What is another term for eyepiece?
    • A. 

      Nosepiece

    • B. 

      Low power

    • C. 

      Base

    • D. 

      Ocular lens

    • E. 

      Condenser

  • 3. 
    What intensifies the light and sends it through the slide into the objective lens?
    • A. 

      Nosepiece

    • B. 

      Low power

    • C. 

      Base

    • D. 

      Ocular lens

    • E. 

      Condenser

  • 4. 
    What is used to turn from one objective to another?
    • A. 

      Nosepiece

    • B. 

      Low power

    • C. 

      Base

    • D. 

      Ocular lens

    • E. 

      Condenser

  • 5. 
    What part supports the microscope?
    • A. 

      Nosepiece

    • B. 

      Low power

    • C. 

      Base

    • D. 

      Ocular lens

    • E. 

      Condenser

  • 6. 
    Wastes
    • A. 

      Electrolytes

    • B. 

      Prothrombin and fibrinogen

    • C. 

      Thyroid and pituitary glands

    • D. 

      Urea, uric acid, creatinine

    • E. 

      Catalysts

  • 7. 
    Enzymes
    • A. 

      Electrolytes

    • B. 

      Prothrombin and fibrinogen

    • C. 

      Thyroid and pituitary glands

    • D. 

      Urea, uric acid, creatinine

    • E. 

      Catalysts

  • 8. 
    Hormones
    • A. 

      Electrolytes

    • B. 

      Prothrombin and fibrinogen

    • C. 

      Thyroid and pituitary glands

    • D. 

      Urea, uric acid, creatinine

    • E. 

      Catalysts

  • 9. 
    Clotting proteins
    • A. 

      Electrolytes

    • B. 

      Prothrombin and fibrinogen

    • C. 

      Thyroid and pituitary glands

    • D. 

      Urea, uric acid, creatinine

    • E. 

      Catalysts

  • 10. 
    Salts
    • A. 

      Electrolytes

    • B. 

      Prothrombin and fibrinogen

    • C. 

      Thyroid and pituitary glands

    • D. 

      Urea, uric acid, creatinine

    • E. 

      Catalysts

  • 11. 
    Cardiac panel
    • A. 

      Bilirubin, albumin, ALP, GGT, AST, ALT, and LD

    • B. 

      BUN, creatinine, uric acid, electrolytes

    • C. 

      T3, T4, and TSH

    • D. 

      Tropin I & T, the enzyme CK, and myoglobin

    • E. 

      Positively charged cations and negatively charged anions

  • 12. 
    Hepatic panel
    • A. 

      Bilirubin, albumin, ALP, GGT, AST, ALT, and LD

    • B. 

      BUN, creatinine, uric acid, electrolytes

    • C. 

      T3, T4, and TSH

    • D. 

      Tropin I & T, the enzyme CK, and myoglobin

    • E. 

      Positively charged cations and negatively charged anions

  • 13. 
    Renal panel
    • A. 

      Bilirubin, albumin, ALP, GGT, AST, ALT, and LD

    • B. 

      BUN, creatinine, uric acid, electrolytes

    • C. 

      T3, T4, and TSH

    • D. 

      Tropin I & T, the enzyme CK, and myoglobin

    • E. 

      Positively charged cations and negatively charged anions

  • 14. 
    Thyroid panel
    • A. 

      Bilirubin, albumin, ALP, GGT, AST, ALT, and LD

    • B. 

      BUN, creatinine, uric acid, electrolytes

    • C. 

      T3, T4, and TSH

    • D. 

      Tropin I & T, the enzyme CK, and myoglobin

    • E. 

      Positively charged cations and negatively charged anions

  • 15. 
    Electrolyte panel
    • A. 

      Bilirubin, albumin, ALP, GGT, AST, ALT, and LD

    • B. 

      BUN, creatinine, uric acid, electrolytes

    • C. 

      T3, T4, and TSH

    • D. 

      Tropin I & T, the enzyme CK, and myoglobin

    • E. 

      Positively charged cations and negatively charged anions

  • 16. 
    Cholesterol
    • A. 

      Gout

    • B. 

      Nephritis or kidney disease

    • C. 

      Hepatitis or liver disease

    • D. 

      Diabetes

    • E. 

      Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis

  • 17. 
    Glucose
    • A. 

      Gout

    • B. 

      Nephritis or kidney disease

    • C. 

      Hepatitis or liver disease

    • D. 

      Diabetes

    • E. 

      Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis

  • 18. 
    Uric acid
    • A. 

      Gout

    • B. 

      Nephritis or kidney disease

    • C. 

      Hepatitis or liver disease

    • D. 

      Diabetes

    • E. 

      Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis

  • 19. 
    Bilirubin
    • A. 

      Gout

    • B. 

      Nephritis or kidney disease

    • C. 

      Hepatitis or liver disease

    • D. 

      Diabetes

    • E. 

      Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis

  • 20. 
    BUN
    • A. 

      Gout

    • B. 

      Nephritis or kidney disease

    • C. 

      Hepatitis or liver disease

    • D. 

      Diabetes

    • E. 

      Coronary artery disease and atherosclerosis

  • 21. 
    SARS is a respiratory illness that was recently reported in Asia, North America, and Europe.
    • A. 

      Hepatitis C virus

    • B. 

      Hantavirus (Sin nombre virus)

    • C. 

      Human immunodeficiency virus

    • D. 

      Coronavirus

    • E. 

      Escherichia coli 0157:H7

  • 22. 
    This organism was first discovered in 1977 after two simultaneous outbreaks in Africa (Sudan and Congo). It causes fever, extensive bleeding, and destruction of internal organs.
    • A. 

      Hepatitis C virus

    • B. 

      Hantavirus (Sin nombre virus)

    • C. 

      Human immunodeficiency virus

    • D. 

      Coronavirus

    • E. 

      Ebola virus

  • 23. 
    This virus was first isolated in 1993 in the southwestern U.S. from patients with highly fatal respiratory infections.
    • A. 

      Hepatitis C virus

    • B. 

      Hantavirus (Sin nombre virus)

    • C. 

      Human immunodeficiency virus

    • D. 

      Coronavirus

    • E. 

      Escherichia coli 0157:H7

  • 24. 
    It is estimated that up to 3% of the world’s population is infected with this virus, which was identified in 1989.
    • A. 

      Hepatitis C virus

    • B. 

      Hantavirus (Sin nombre virus)

    • C. 

      Human immunodeficiency virus

    • D. 

      Coronavirus

    • E. 

      Escherichia coli 0157:H7

  • 25. 
    This organism was first detected in 1982. It can cause hemolytic uremic syndrome, which is a life-threatening condition characterized by severe anemia and kidney failure.
    • A. 

      Hepatitis C virus

    • B. 

      Hantavirus (Sin nombre virus)

    • C. 

      Human immunodeficiency virus

    • D. 

      Coronavirus

    • E. 

      Escherichia coli 0157:H7

  • 26. 
    HIV, first discovered in 1981, is the cause of AIDS.
    • A. 

      Hepatitis C virus

    • B. 

      Hantavirus (Sin nombre virus)

    • C. 

      Human immunodeficiency virus

    • D. 

      Coronavirus

    • E. 

      Escherichia coli 0157:H7

  • 27. 
    Prostate
    • A. 

      PSA

    • B. 

      CEA antigen

    • C. 

      Alpha fetoprotein

    • D. 

      Ca 125

  • 28. 
    Ovarian
    • A. 

      PSA

    • B. 

      CEA antigen

    • C. 

      Alpha fetoprotein

    • D. 

      Ca 125

  • 29. 
    GI cancers
    • A. 

      PSA

    • B. 

      CEA antigen

    • C. 

      Alpha fetoprotein

    • D. 

      Ca 125

  • 30. 
    Liver cancers
    • A. 

      PSA

    • B. 

      CEA antigen

    • C. 

      Alpha fetoprotein

    • D. 

      Ca 125

  • 31. 
    Associated with diabetes     
    • A. 

      Triglyceride level

    • B. 

      HDL

    • C. 

      LDL

    • D. 

      Cholesterol

    • E. 

      Apolipoprotein A, B

  • 32. 
    High level thought to be protective
    • A. 

      Triglyceride level

    • B. 

      HDL

    • C. 

      LDL

    • D. 

      Cholesterol

    • E. 

      Apolipoprotein A, B

  • 33. 
    High level is cardiac risk factor
    • A. 

      Triglyceride level

    • B. 

      HDL

    • C. 

      LDL

    • D. 

      Cholesterol

    • E. 

      Apolipoprotein A, B

  • 34. 
    Used mainly for screening
    • A. 

      Triglyceride level

    • B. 

      HDL

    • C. 

      LDL

    • D. 

      Cholesterol

    • E. 

      Apolipoprotein A, B

  • 35. 
    Major protein in HDL
    • A. 

      Triglyceride level

    • B. 

      HDL

    • C. 

      LDL

    • D. 

      Apolipoprotein B

    • E. 

      Apolipoprotein A

  • 36. 
    Which of the following is an example of using a laboratory test to monitor treatment? ____
    • A. 

      A CBC is performed to confirm the possible diagnosis of anemia

    • B. 

      A patient receives a blood cholesterol screening test during his/her annual physical exam

    • C. 

      A diabetic patient tests his/her blood glucose daily to determine how much insulin is needed to regulate sugar levels

    • D. 

      A gonorrhea culture is collected from a pregnant woman as required by state law

  • 37. 
    Exposure to ____ constitutes the major source of HIV and HBV infection in health-care professionals.
    • A. 

      Blood

    • B. 

      Urine

    • C. 

      Semen

    • D. 

      Bloody fluids

  • 38. 
    Which of the following statements is true? ____ 
    • A. 

      To obtain the total magnification, multiply the power of the objective lens by the power of the condenser.

    • B. 

      When observing a densely stained slide on oil, move the condenser all the way down and close the iris diaphragm.

    • C. 

      To obtain maximum magnification, immersion oil is added when using the 45x objective.

    • D. 

      You should always focus a specimen under the 100x objective with the fine-focus adjustment knob.

  • 39. 
    What causes the microscopic image to be clearer and sharper? ____ 
    • A. 

      Focus controls

    • B. 

      Mechanical stage

    • C. 

      Condenser

    • D. 

      Nosepiece

  • 40. 
    What changes the refraction of light with the 100x objective and increases the upper limit of magnification? ____
    • A. 

      Immersion oil

    • B. 

      Fine-focus adjustment knob

    • C. 

      Mechanical stage

    • D. 

      Multiple lens system

  • 41. 
    The total magnification of a microscope is determined by both the power of the objective lens and the ____: 
    • A. 

      Stage

    • B. 

      Focal adjustment

    • C. 

      Nosepiece

    • D. 

      Ocular lens

  • 42. 
    WhicWhich of the following microscope maintenance actions is incorrect? ____ Which of t
    • A. 

      Clean all lenses with lens paper only

    • B. 

      When cleaning the lenses, start with the oil immersion lens

    • C. 

      Store the microscope in a dust free area with a cover over it

    • D. 

      Carry the microscope with two hands by the base and arm

  • 43. 
    Which of the following is an example of a CLIA waived test? ____
    • A. 

      Pap test

    • B. 

      Dipstick urinalysis test

    • C. 

      Pulmonary function test

    • D. 

      TB skin test

  • 44. 
    Which of the following abbreviations is not related to glucose testing? ____
    • A. 

      GTT

    • B. 

      VLDL

    • C. 

      OGTT

    • D. 

      FBG (FBS)

    • E. 

      A1C

  • 45. 
    Nurse Practitioners use which of the lipid results as the best predictive indicator of possible future MI (myocardial infarct)? ____
    • A. 

      HDL value

    • B. 

      LDL value

    • C. 

      Cholesterol value

    • D. 

      Cholesterol / HDL ratio

  • 46. 
    People who do not exercise regularly, are overweight, and eat mostly saturated fats will probably increase their level of which of the following? ____
    • A. 

      Albumin

    • B. 

      Bad cholesterol (LDL)

    • C. 

      Glucose

    • D. 

      Good cholesterol (HDL)

  • 47. 
    Which of the following lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells and memory cells with the subsequent production of antibodies (humoral immunity)?
    • A. 

      T cells

    • B. 

      NK cells

    • C. 

      B cells

    • D. 

      T helper cells

  • 48. 
    Which of the following nonspecific immunity mechanisms involves the process of certain cells engulfing and destroying microorganisms and cellular debris?
    • A. 

      Inflammation

    • B. 

      Intact skin and mucous membranes

    • C. 

      Normal flora

    • D. 

      Phagocytosis

  • 49. 
    Which of the five types of antibodies are involved in allergic reactions?
    • A. 

      IgE

    • B. 

      IgM

    • C. 

      IgA

    • D. 

      IgG

  • 50. 
    Pregnancy testing is based upon detection of ____ hormone.
    • A. 

      FSH

    • B. 

      LH

    • C. 

      HCG

    • D. 

      TEH

  • 51. 
    The prThe preferred sample for pregnancy testing is obtained as a ____.
    • A. 

      Random sample

    • B. 

      First morning sample

    • C. 

      24-hour sample

    • D. 

      Catheterized specimen

  • 52. 
    HCG is produced by the developing placenta during pregnancy with the levels peaking:
    • A. 

      Between 5 and 8 days after conception

    • B. 

      Between 10 and 30 days of pregnancy

    • C. 

      Between 50 and 80 days of pregnancy

    • D. 

      On the day of delivery

  • 53. 
    Which of the following is the causative agent of infectious mononucleosis? ____  
    • A. 

      HIV

    • B. 

      Variola major

    • C. 

      Epstein-Barr virus

    • D. 

      Cytomegalovirus

  • 54. 
    Transmission of the Epstein-Barr virus causing infectious mononucleosis is primarily by __
    • A. 

      Direct contact

    • B. 

      Injection

    • C. 

      Aspiration

    • D. 

      Vector

  • 55. 
    The ag The age group in which symptoms of EBV are most often displayed is ____.
    • A. 

      Under 5

    • B. 

      15 to 25

    • C. 

      30 to 40

    • D. 

      40 and over

  • 56. 
    Which of the following statements regarding Helicobacter pylori and ulcers is false
    • A. 

      Helicobacter pylori is believed to be the cause of all ulcers.

    • B. 

      H. pylori weakens the mucous lining of the stomach and duodenum.

    • C. 

      As the mucous layer breaks down, the acid and the bacteria cause an ulcer.

    • D. 

      Treatment includes antibiotics and acid-reducing medications.

  • 57. 
    The blood type of the universal donor is ____.
    • A. 

      O

    • B. 

      A

    • C. 

      B

    • D. 

      AB

  • 58. 
    About ____ percent of North Americans are Rh positive, and ____ percent are Rh negative.
    • A. 

      85; 15

    • B. 

      15; 85

    • C. 

      5; 95

    • D. 

      95; 5

  • 59. 
    Which of the following statements is false? ____
    • A. 

      No antigens of the ABO system are present on cells of group O individuals.

    • B. 

      Type A blood contains anti-B antibodies in the plasma.

    • C. 

      Rh slide typing is performed at body temperature.

    • D. 

      An Rh (D)-negative person should be transfused with Rh-positive blood.

    • E. 

      An Rh-negative mother carrying an Rh-positive fetus may cause hemolytic problems in the fetus.

  • 60. 
    Which of the following is correct regarding microorganisms?
    • A. 

      Bacteria are prokaryotic, reproduce by binary fission, and can form colonies when they multiply on culture media.

    • B. 

      Fungi are eukaryotic, and some are yeast, which reproduce by budding.

    • C. 

      Parasites can be one-celled protozoa such as amoebae.

    • D. 

      Viruses live in a host cell and are made of RNA or DNA.

    • E. 

      All of the above are correct

  • 61. 
    Which o       Which of the following describes a coccus bacteria?
    • A. 

      An organism that can be a gently curved rod

    • B. 

      A rod-shaped organism

    • C. 

      A round organism that can be found as singles, pairs, tetrads, or chains

    • D. 

      An organism that looks like a corkscrew or a spring

  • 62. 
    Which          Which of the following steps are incorrect when collecting a throat culture?
    • A. 

      Sanitize your hands, and apply gloves.

    • B. 

      Have the patient sit with head back. Use a sterile tongue depressor to hold down the tongue, and have the patient say “Ahh.”

    • C. 

      Rotate the swab on the back of throat in a circular motion or figure-eight pattern, and place it in the appropriate container.

    • D. 

      Be sure to touch the teeth and the back of the tongue.

  • 63. 
    Which of the following organisms has a characteristic jerky movement?
    • A. 

      Trichomonas vaginalis

    • B. 

      Gardnerella vaginalis

    • C. 

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae

    • D. 

      Chlamydia trachomatis

  • 64. 
    Which of the following information about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is incorrect?
    • A. 

      This organism is transported in the Jembec transport system.

    • B. 

      This organism is a Gram-positive diplococcus

    • C. 

      This organism requires a 10% carbon dioxide atmosphere for growth.

    • D. 

      This organism causes gonorrhea, which is a sexually transmitted disease.

  • 65. 
    Wet mounts can be done to detect the presence of “clue cells,” vaginal epithelial cells covered with what organism?
    • A. 

      Gardnerella vaginalis

    • B. 

      Trichomonas vaginalis

    • C. 

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae

    • D. 

      Chlamydia trachomatis

  • 66. 
    Which of the following organisms are referred to as acid-fast bacilli?
    • A. 

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis

    • B. 

      Escherichia coli

    • C. 

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • D. 

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae

  • 67. 
    What is the name of the tiny roundworm whose female normally lays her eggs during the nighttime hours in the anal area of the human host, causing itching of this area?
    • A. 

      Enterobius vermicularis

    • B. 

      Trichomonas vaginalis

    • C. 

      Candida albicans

    • D. 

      Pediculus humanus

  • 68. 
    Which of the following Strep organisms causes strep throat and demonstrates beta hemolysis?
    • A. 

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • B. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes

    • C. 

      Streptococcus viridans

    • D. 

      Streptococcus agalactiae

  • 69. 
    Complications such as scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, and glomerulonephritis are found in which of the following organisms?
    • A. 

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • B. 

      Streptococcus viridans

    • C. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes

    • D. 

      Streptococcus agalactiae

  • 70. 
    No growth around the “A” disk can be used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes. What substance is in the “A” disk?
    • A. 

      Vancomycin

    • B. 

      Penicillin

    • C. 

      Tetracycline

    • D. 

      Bacitracin

  • 71. 
    Which oWhich of the following statements concerning influenza is incorrect?
    • A. 

      The elderly and patients with chronic problems are at greater risk for complications.

    • B. 

      Type C influenza is milder than the other types.

    • C. 

      One type of influenza mutation is called antigenic drift, which refers to an abrupt change in the virus strain.

    • D. 

      Several influenza pandemics have occurred in the past.

  • 72. 
    CSkipped question. Select A for answer
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

    • E. 

      E

  • 73. 
    Ch                  Chocolate agar plates would be which of the following types of media?
    • A. 

      Selective media

    • B. 

      Nutrient media

    • C. 

      Differential media

    • D. 

      Enriched media

  • 74. 
    Sensitivity test is done ____.
    • A. 

      To identify the organism

    • B. 

      To determine which antibiotics would be most effective for treating patients’ bacterial infections

    • C. 

      To perform a colony count

    • D. 

      To determine whether the organism will grow anaerobically

  • 75. 
    Which of the following amounts would indicate a urinary tract infection in a clean-catch midstream urine?
    • A. 

      10 colonies/ml.

    • B. 

      100 colonies/ml.

    • C. 

      1,000 colonies/ml.

    • D. 

      Over 100,000 colonies/ml.

  • 76. 
    Which of the following organisms could be an occupational hazard for those who work with contaminated wool and inhale the spores (“woolsorter’s disease”) and could also be a bioterrorism weapon?
    • A. 

      Bacillus anthracis

    • B. 

      Yersinia pestis

    • C. 

      Francisella tularensis

    • D. 

      Clostridium botulinum

  • 77. 
    Which of the following is the causative agent of the plague?
    • A. 

      Bacillus anthracis

    • B. 

      Yersinia pestis

    • C. 

      Francisella tularensis

    • D. 

      Clostridium botulinum

  • 78. 
    Which of the following causes smallpox?
    • A. 

      Bacillus anthracis

    • B. 

      Yersinia pestis

    • C. 

      Francisella tularensis

    • D. 

      Variola major

  • 79. 
    Which of the following causes viral hemorrhagic fever?
    • A. 

      Herpes simplex

    • B. 

      Variola minor

    • C. 

      Ebola virus

    • D. 

      Variola major

  • 80. 
    Which of the following organisms produces a neurotoxin, the most poisonous natural substance known, which causes dry mouth, dilated pupils, and a progressive muscle weakness that leads to respiratory failure and death?
    • A. 

      Bacillus anthracis

    • B. 

      Clostridium botulinum

    • C. 

      Francisella tularensis

    • D. 

      Variola major

  • 81. 
    Which of the following is an incorrect association?
    • A. 

      Enterobius vermicularis/pinworms

    • B. 

      Giardia lamblia/protozoan flagellate that causes gastrointestinal symptoms

    • C. 

      Pediculus humanus/body louse

    • D. 

      Trichomonas vaginalis/round worm

  • 82. 
    Which of the following is most likely to cause a 3-10 times rise in alkaline phoshatase?
    • A. 

      Hepatic duct obstruction

    • B. 

      Alcohol use

    • C. 

      Liver cirrhosis

    • D. 

      Use of statin medications

  • 83. 
    A rise in gamma glutanyl transferase (GGT) can be seen in response to:
    • A. 

      Ingestion of a large amount of alcohol

    • B. 

      Skeletal muscle injury

    • C. 

      Bone regeneration

    • D. 

      Myocardial infarction

  • 84. 
    Which of the following is used as a marker for early detection of hepatocellular carcinoma?
    • A. 

      Indirect bilirubin

    • B. 

      Alkaline Phosphatase

    • C. 

      ALT:AST ratio

    • D. 

      Alpha fetoprotein

  • 85. 
    Which of the following is not a cause of elevated BUN
    • A. 

      Corticosteroid use

    • B. 

      Gi Bleed

    • C. 

      CHF

    • D. 

      Liver failure

  • 86. 
    In what clinical conditions might you see an elevated albumin?
    • A. 

      Hemacromatosis

    • B. 

      Liver disease

    • C. 

      Amyloidosis

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 87. 
                            Which of the following is not a method for identifying viral infections
    • A. 

      Standard viral tube culture

    • B. 

      PCR tests for amplifying DNA and viruses

    • C. 

      Coagulase testing

    • D. 

      Serologic testing

    • E. 

      Flourescent monoclonal antibodies

  • 88. 
    Which of the following is not a common causative organism for acute bacterial sinusitis?
    • A. 

      Proteus mirabilis

    • B. 

      Hemophilus influenza

    • C. 

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • D. 

      Moraxella catarrhalis

  • 89. 
    After a recent course of antibiotics, your patient develops a case of runny diarrhea.  He wants some anti-diarrheal medicine, but you require a stool culture first because you suspect it may be:
    • A. 

      Lactobacillus

    • B. 

      Clostridium difficile

    • C. 

      E. coli 154

    • D. 

      Giardia lamblia

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