3dx5x 1&2

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3DX5X 1&2
This quiz has both volumes unit review questions in the 3DX5X.

  
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1.  Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.  What authorization generates a file disposition control label for each item listed on the office's file plan?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.  Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.  A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.  Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.  Who is responsible for creating unique passwords for the office of primary responsibility (OPR) records custodian?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.  Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be a person in the deployed Area of Resonsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from combat?
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.  What was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.  An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.  What concerns slowed the military's adoption of wireless network techniology? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.  Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of the government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.  A comprehensive term that specifies the destruction, salvage, and donation of records, or the transfer to a staging area or records center; and the transfer of records from one organization to another is called a
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.  Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.  What rule establishes the percent of data that should be local to a segment and the percentage of data that should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.  Which function is a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications by way of line-of-sight (LOS), satellite, or hard-wired resources?
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.  Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (officer and Enlisted)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.  What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.  Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulated actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.  What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.  What encryption device may you rarely see due to its lower maximum data rate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.  What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.  Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what other Combat Information transport Systems initiative will help increase network security?
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.  Which function or organization was established to operate with an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.  Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition, and signle systems management of the Defense Switched Network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.  Which Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires size, weight, power requirements, and equipment set-up times are kept to an absolute minimum to support the transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.  Which system provides the capability to identify, sequence, and separate aircraft; provide final approach guidance, and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather?
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.  What Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the IP address for a device that knows its own MAC address?
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.  Which Occupation Risk Management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capablility?
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.  What encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits?
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.  What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back?
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.  Which system provides high-quality voice/data HF and Ultra-High Frequency (UHF) satellite communications to president, vice president, cabinet members, and other senior government and military officials while aboard Special Airlift Mission (SAM) aircraft?
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.  Which Air Force specific system uses the Global Information Grid (GIG) backbone for inter-site communications and was designed to provide an automated and integrated planning and execution capability to the Combat Air Force (CAF) and Joint/Combined Forces?
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.  Which system is a radar tracker and correlator software program that is hosted on a powerful server based computer system, which takes inputs from long and short range radars and displays it all on a scope (computer monitor)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.  This characteristic or the Global Information Grid ensures seamless transmission of information between different services branches
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.  Records that are considered to be in draft format
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.  Which systems basic functions operational elements are Tasking, Processing, Exploitation, and Dissemination (TPED)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.  As of September 2004, how many total flight hours have coalition unmanned aircrafts flown to support Operation ENDURING FREEDOM and Operation IRAQI FREEDOM?
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.  Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.  Which form is used as a visitor register long to record visitors into restricted areas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.  The classification of a fill device is 
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.  At what Open System Interconnect layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.  Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.  Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.  Which network protocol has the Department of Defense chosen as its standard to govern the flow of information?
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.  How is responsiveness provide in the Defense Switched Network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.  Which command and control structure has network node whose survivability is achieved using nuclear hardened equipment, redundant circuits, and alternate communications paths?
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.  What is the name of the standard all-purpose shell most commonly used?
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.  Which document is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Air and Space Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.  Which system capitalizes on the popular commercial direct broadcast satellite technology to provide critical informtaion to the nation's warfighters?
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.  Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?
A.
B.
C.
D.
51.  What is a type of memory that retains data after power is removed or lost?
A.
B.
C.
D.
52.  When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?
A.
B.
C.
D.
53.  Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?
A.
B.
C.
D.
54.  At what Open System Interconnect layer do network switches and bridges operate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
55.  What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?
A.
B.
C.
D.
56.  When a risk of a network system  attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected?
A.
B.
C.
D.
57.  What is the purpose of the standardization tactical entry point terminal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
58.  Which system primarily deals with logistics planning data, such as transportation, personnel, and material requirements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.  The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers divide the Open System Interconnect Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
60.  Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?
A.
B.
C.
D.
61.  What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances between cities, states, countries, or around the world?
A.
B.
C.
D.
62.  An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment is known as
A.
B.
C.
D.
63.  What are two anti-virus programs that the Air Force uses?
A.
B.
C.
D.
64.  Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.  Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "confidential" information?
A.
B.
C.
D.
66.  Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.  Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of -sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
A.
B.
C.
D.
68.  Which component of Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of a deployed communication network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
69.  Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
70.  Who is the finally authority to waive Career Field Education Training Plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) Career Development Course (CDC)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
71.  Who has the primary mission of providing the joint force air component commander (JFACC) with the tools necessary to fight and win a major theater war within the scope and coordination of all land, sea, and air forces?
A.
B.
C.
D.
72.  What  encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys?
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.  While you are using the Red Switch, what feature lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security?
A.
B.
C.
D.
74.  Which document would you refernce for guidance on "Web management and Internet use?"
A.
B.
C.
D.
75.  What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6?
A.
B.
C.
D.
76.  Which is an internet protocol encyption device that can be directly connected to Red local area network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
77.  Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
78.  How are non-internet protocols sent across the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
79.  The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within how many seconds of the universal time code?
A.
B.
C.
D.
80.  From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?
A.
B.
C.
D.
81.  What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?
A.
B.
C.
D.
82.  The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard
A.
B.
C.
D.
83.  The proper way we destroy records to prevent compromise is by
A.
B.
C.
D.
84.  What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
85.  The Air Force Information  Assurance Program is detailed in 
A.
B.
C.
D.
86.  Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication?
A.
B.
C.
D.
87.  Which command and control structure is a primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Message generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?
A.
B.
C.
D.
88.  Which of these is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol?
A.
B.
C.
D.
89.  What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID protion of the address broken up into different areas allowing for hierarchical design and allocation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
90.  At what Open System Interconnect layer do routers operate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
91.  What function provides the Department of Defense (DOD) with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people via Personal Computer (PC), Personal Digital Assistants (PDA's), land and cell phones, pagers, Blackberry devices, and/or giant voice systems in real-time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
92.  Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting accesss to classified information can be found in
A.
B.
C.
D.
93.  Which system is a USAF program supporting Global, Defense Communication System (DCS) HF Entry, Mystic Star, and System of Inter- American Telecommunications for the Air Force (SITFAA) mission?
A.
B.
C.
D.
94.  Which one is not a category of the operating system's task categories?
A.
B.
C.
D.
95.  Which Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires equipment modules to be expandable and packaged for deployment in standard 19-inch rack mounted transit cases, vehicle, or shelterized configurations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
96.  Which system provides the ability to rapidly detect and identify airborne targets with minimal or no support?
A.
B.
C.
D.
97.  What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
98.  Guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites is outlined in 
A.
B.
C.
D.
99.  What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?
A.
B.
C.
D.
100.  What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data is transmitted, throughout the network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
101.  Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
102.  Software is generally divided into
A.
B.
C.
D.
103.  What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
104.  Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?"
A.
B.
C.
D.
105.  What is the main goal of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
106.  What method borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet?
A.
B.
C.
D.
107.  Which system provides support for features such as Windows System Resources Manager and Metadirectory Services?
A.
B.
C.
D.
108.  What is the first step in merging voice, data and video network into one integrated network within the Air Force?
A.
B.
C.
D.
109.  What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
110.  Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
111.  Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
112.  Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
113.  Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
114.  In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?
A.
B.
C.
D.
115.  Using a range of 1-26 is the first octet of an IPv4 address, what class does it belong to?
A.
B.
C.
D.
116.  What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?
A.
B.
C.
D.
117.  What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
118.  What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers operate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
119.  Which program was created in response to the FY-97-03 Defense Planning Guidance that directed a "program to migrate to a multi-intelligence, common, interoperable, open systems ground systems architecture?
A.
B.
C.
D.
120.  How many devices can connect to a FireWire Bus?
A.
B.
C.
D.
121.  An organized collection of data or data structures is known as a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
122.  A logical group of record is called a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
123.  Which of the following is not the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
124.  What Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control address?
A.
B.
C.
D.
125.  Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?
A.
B.
C.
D.
126.  Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?
A.
B.
C.
D.
127.  What is the default classful subnet mask on class B networks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
128.  Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?
A.
B.
C.
D.
129.  Marking the records for filing is considered which step of file management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
130.  Which function has the primary purpose of providing standard force package descriptions of the force packages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels of command?
A.
B.
C.
D.
131.  A remotely piloted or self-piloted aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment, or other payloads is called a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
132.  Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement?
A.
B.
C.
D.
133.  What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching?
A.
B.
C.
D.
134.  How many peripherals can Universal Serial Bus handle at once?
A.
B.
C.
D.
135.  What type of Defense Switched Network  precedence call cannot be preempted?
A.
B.
C.
D.
136.  The main function of the Data Service Unit is to 
A.
B.
C.
D.
137.  What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
138.  Which system is a service that broadcast via communication payloads on military satellites (Ka band) and commercial satellites (Ku Band)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
139.  What provides conduit for Joint WorldWide Intelligence Communication System data transmission from one location to another?
A.
B.
C.
D.
140.  What IPv4 class address is used for networks with 250 nodes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
141.  Discloser of information that would result in the loss, misuse, modification or unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security would best be described as 
A.
B.
C.
D.
142.  What Occupational Risk Management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resource to the lowest acceptable risk?
A.
B.
C.
D.
143.  Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?
A.
B.
C.
D.
144.  Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
145.  The path between the operating system and virtually all hardware not on the computer's motherboard goes through a special program called a
A.
B.
C.
D.
146.  Which system provides a solution to a decrease in manpower and increase in requirements, at the same time, taking advantage of new technological developments to deliver superior connectivity, flexibility, speed, reliability, and joint interoperability?
A.
B.
C.
D.
147.  Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
148.  Which system asset can be tasked to provide liaison, control tower, Radar Approach Control (RAPCON), precision landing, and mobile Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) services as a standalone unit or in any combination?
A.
B.
C.
D.
149.  Which Occupational Risk Management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
150.  Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology?
A.
B.
C.
D.
151.  What Open System Interconnect layer is closed to the end user?
A.
B.
C.
D.
152.  What layer of the Open System Interconnect model defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
153.  One of the Windows Server Editions operating systems provides support for high-end, high traffic applications servers.  Which Operaing System is it?
A.
B.
C.
D.
154.  Who bears the responsibility for maintenance or of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
155.  What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally routable address that do not route outside the site?
A.
B.
C.
D.
156.  What Unicast address scope operates within a network segment, and will not originate from, or be destined to, an interface that requires a router to direct traffic?
A.
B.
C.
D.
157.  What two main components make up the central processing unit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
158.  The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless technology is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
159.  What type of network makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet?
A.
B.
C.
D.
160.  Under what program does the Department of Defense (DOD) collects, processes, produces, disseminates, and uses information?
A.
B.
C.
D.
161.  Which system can be deployed in either the Control Reporting Center or Control Reporting Element configurations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
162.  Final reports of a communication security incident are due
A.
B.
C.
D.
163.  The primary purpose for maintaining records is to ensure
A.
B.
C.
D.
164.  What places Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) forces in a "ready to deploy" state and supports global requirements, home station requirements or support to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
165.  Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
166.  Which major systems employs the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES), Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS), Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES), and Common Operational Picture (COP) systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
167.  Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA), Humanitarian Relief Operations (HUMRO), Non-Combatant Evacuation Operations (NEO) and support to International Law Enforcement are all examples of
A.
B.
C.
D.
168.  At what level do regional operation centers perform Network Operations (NETOPS) ot ensure operation and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD), and Information Dissemination Management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
169.  What directory is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the "a" partition?
A.
B.
C.
D.
170.  The computing part of the computer is the central processing unit,  also called the 
A.
B.
C.
D.
171.  AFPD-10-4, Operations Planning: Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) aligns what requirements with a matching force generation model?
A.
B.
C.
D.
172.  In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?
A.
B.
C.
D.
173.  Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?
A.
B.
C.
D.
174.  Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
175.  What do routing algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process of path determination?
A.
B.
C.
D.
176.  Which organization assigns communication security incident report case numbers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
177.  What is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number?
A.
B.
C.
D.
178.  Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?
A.
B.
C.
D.
179.  What is the method called when the entire frame is received and placed into the buffer, an error check is performed, and the frame is sent to the proper port for delivery?
A.
B.
C.
D.
180.  This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another.
A.
B.
C.
D.
181.  What system provides connectivity between the US and allied forces for critical missions and enhances worldwide readiness, mobility, responsiveness, and operations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
182.  What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today's wireless networks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
183.  Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?
A.
B.
C.
D.
184.  Which system was originally designed as a specialized system for Army, Navy, and Air Force technicians to use as a tool to troubleshoot network problems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
185.  Which organization is responsible for Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) sourcing of individual augmentees, Joint Manning Document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365-day or greater requirements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
186.  What do you apply across Liquid Crystal Display material to change the alignment and light polarizing property?
A.
B.
C.
D.
187.  Applications are software programs designed to perform what type of tasks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
188.  What determines the cutoff for active records?
A.
B.
C.
D.
189.  Which is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol server and proxies?
A.
B.
C.
D.
190.  What document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?
A.
B.
C.
D.
191.  For which exception will federal records centers accept records having less than 3 years of retention?
A.
B.
C.
D.
192.  Which system is employed at more than 600 sites across the Global Information Grid (GIG) and interconnected through the SIPRNET?
A.
B.
C.
D.