3dx5x 1&2

224 Questions  I  By CommV1
3DX5X 1&2
This quiz has both volumes unit review questions in the 3DX5X.  

  
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1.  Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.  Which command and control structure is a primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Message generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.  Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.  What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.  Which is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol server and proxies?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.  Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.  This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another.
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.  What Unicast address scope operates within a network segment, and will not originate from, or be destined to, an interface that requires a router to direct traffic?
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.  An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as 
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 comment
10.  Who is responsible for creating unique passwords for the office of primary responsibility (OPR) records custodian?
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.  What Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the IP address for a device that knows its own MAC address?
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.  What authorization generates a file disposition control label for each item listed on the office's file plan?
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.  How many peripherals can Universal Serial Bus handle at once?
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.  Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulated actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.  Which system asset can be tasked to provide liaison, control tower, Radar Approach Control (RAPCON), precision landing, and mobile Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) services as a standalone unit or in any combination?
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.  The main function of the Data Service Unit is to 
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 comment
17.  Which system focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the warfighter in near real-time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.  Which system of interconnected computer networks is used by the United States Department of Defense and the United States Department of State?
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.  Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.  Which Occupation Risk Management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capablility?
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.  Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.  How is responsiveness provide in the Defense Switched Network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.  Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 comment
24.  What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.  What was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.  A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.  Which form is used as a visitor register long to record visitors into restricted areas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 comment
28.  Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.  What is the first step in merging voice, data and video network into one integrated network within the Air Force?
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.  Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.  Marking the records for filing is considered which step of file management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.  What Open System Interconnect layer is closed to the end user?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 comment
33.  Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.  Which command and control structure has network node whose survivability is achieved using nuclear hardened equipment, redundant circuits, and alternate communications paths?
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.  An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.  What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID protion of the address broken up into different areas allowing for hierarchical design and allocation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 comment
37.  What encryption device may you rarely see due to its lower maximum data rate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.  What is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium?
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.  Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.  What layer of the Open System Interconnect model defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.  Which one is not a category of the operating system's task categories?
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.  What do routing algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process of path determination?
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.  What places Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) forces in a "ready to deploy" state and supports global requirements, home station requirements or support to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.  What Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control address?
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.  Which system can be deployed in either the Control Reporting Center or Control Reporting Element configurations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.  What Occupational Risk Management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resource to the lowest acceptable risk?
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.  What encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits?
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.  Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.  What application within Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol is used to send and receive files via TCP?
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.  Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?
A.
B.
C.
D.
51.  Using a range of 1-26 is the first octet of an IPv4 address, what class does it belong to?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 comment
52.  Which of the following is not the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
53.  Which document is used for accountability purposes when retirement records are identified and prepared for federal records center, staging areas or to transfer records to another organization?
A.
B.
C.
D.
54.  Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication?
A.
B.
C.
D.
55.  What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
56.  What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
57.  What is the default classful subnet mask on class B networks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
58.  Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.  What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally routable address that do not route outside the site?
A.
B.
C.
D.
60.  How many bits are in IPv4 address?
A.
B.
C.
D.
61.  What provides conduit for Joint WorldWide Intelligence Communication System data transmission from one location to another?
A.
B.
C.
D.
62.  Which landline transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?
A.
B.
C.
D.
63.  Which systems basic functions operational elements are Tasking, Processing, Exploitation, and Dissemination (TPED)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
64.  What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6?
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.  Analog modems are used over the voice band range of
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 comment
66.  What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back?
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.  Which major systems employs the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES), Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS), Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES), and Common Operational Picture (COP) systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
68.  What directory is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the "a" partition?
A.
B.
C.
D.
69.  For which exception will federal records centers accept records having less than 3 years of retention?
A.
B.
C.
D.
70.  Windows operating system traditionally function in one two network models. Which model does not operate using centralized user accounts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
71.  Which system is a USAF program supporting Global, Defense Communication System (DCS) HF Entry, Mystic Star, and System of Inter- American Telecommunications for the Air Force (SITFAA) mission?
A.
B.
C.
D.
72.  From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.  In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?
A.
B.
C.
D.
74.  Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
75.  Which network protocol has the Department of Defense chosen as its standard to govern the flow of information?
A.
B.
C.
D.
76.  An optical communications system is comprised of a
A.
B.
C.
D.
77.  Which document is not considered an official government record?
A.
B.
C.
D.
78.  An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment is known as
A.
B.
C.
D.
79.  Discloser of information that would result in the loss, misuse, modification or unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security would best be described as 
A.
B.
C.
D.
80.  The proper way we destroy records to prevent compromise is by
A.
B.
C.
D.
81.  What is the COMSEC program designed to do?
A.
B.
C.
D.
82.  What is the main goal of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
83.  What is a type of memory that retains data after power is removed or lost?
A.
B.
C.
D.
84.  Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA), Humanitarian Relief Operations (HUMRO), Non-Combatant Evacuation Operations (NEO) and support to International Law Enforcement are all examples of
A.
B.
C.
D.
85.  Under what program does the Department of Defense (DOD) collects, processes, produces, disseminates, and uses information?
A.
B.
C.
D.
86.  Which system provides support for features such as Windows System Resources Manager and Metadirectory Services?
A.
B.
C.
D.
87.  What function provides the Department of Defense (DOD) with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people via Personal Computer (PC), Personal Digital Assistants (PDA's), land and cell phones, pagers, Blackberry devices, and/or giant voice systems in real-time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
88.  Which organization is responsible for Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) sourcing of individual augmentees, Joint Manning Document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365-day or greater requirements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
89.  What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers operate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
90.  Which Air Force specific system uses the Global Information Grid (GIG) backbone for inter-site communications and was designed to provide an automated and integrated planning and execution capability to the Combat Air Force (CAF) and Joint/Combined Forces?
A.
B.
C.
D.
91.  Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
92.  What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?
A.
B.
C.
D.
93.  What rule establishes the percent of data that should be local to a segment and the percentage of data that should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
94.  What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?
A.
B.
C.
D.
95.  Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of the government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
A.
B.
C.
D.
96.  What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data is transmitted, throughout the network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
97.  Applications are software programs designed to perform what type of tasks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
98.  Which function has the primary purpose of providing standard force package descriptions of the force packages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels of command?
A.
B.
C.
D.
99.  Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting accesss to classified information can be found in
A.
B.
C.
D.
100.  Which function is a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications by way of line-of-sight (LOS), satellite, or hard-wired resources?
A.
B.
C.
D.
101.  What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today's wireless networks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
102.  Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of -sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
A.
B.
C.
D.
103.  What IPv4 class address is used for networks with 250 nodes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
104.  Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?
A.
B.
C.
D.
105.  Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by
A.
B.
C.
D.
106.  At what Open System Interconnect layer do routers operate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
107.  What two main components make up the central processing unit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
108.  What is the purpose of the standardization tactical entry point terminal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
109.  The path between the operating system and virtually all hardware not on the computer's motherboard goes through a special program called a
A.
B.
C.
D.
110.  Which organization assigns communication security incident report case numbers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
111.  Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
A.
B.
C.
D.
112.  Software is generally divided into
A.
B.
C.
D.
113.  Which system provides high-quality voice/data HF and Ultra-High Frequency (UHF) satellite communications to president, vice president, cabinet members, and other senior government and military officials while aboard Special Airlift Mission (SAM) aircraft?
A.
B.
C.
D.
114.  The primary purpose for maintaining records is to ensure
A.
B.
C.
D.
115.  What  encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys?
A.
B.
C.
D.
116.  Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?"
A.
B.
C.
D.
117.  What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1 comment
118.  Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
119.  What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
120.  At what Open System Interconnect layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?
A.
B.
C.
D.
121.  Which component of Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of a deployed communication network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
122.  What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
123.  Which system provides the capability to identify, sequence, and separate aircraft; provide final approach guidance, and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather?
A.
B.
C.
D.
124.  Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
125.  Which system provides the ability to rapidly detect and identify airborne targets with minimal or no support?
A.
B.
C.
D.
126.  What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
127.  Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
128.  Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
129.  Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?
A.
B.
C.
D.
130.  What system provides connectivity between the US and allied forces for critical missions and enhances worldwide readiness, mobility, responsiveness, and operations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
131.  What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?
A.
B.
C.
D.
132.  Which document is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Air and Space Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
133.  At what Open System Interconnect layer do network switches and bridges operate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
134.  When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?
A.
B.
C.
D.
135.  Which document would you refernce for guidance on "Web management and Internet use?"
A.
B.
C.
D.
136.  This component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network 
A.
B.
C.
D.
137.  Which system provides a solution to a decrease in manpower and increase in requirements, at the same time, taking advantage of new technological developments to deliver superior connectivity, flexibility, speed, reliability, and joint interoperability?
A.
B.
C.
D.
138.  Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what other Combat Information transport Systems initiative will help increase network security?
A.
B.
C.
D.
139.  What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?
A.
B.
C.
D.
140.  Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?
A.
B.
C.
D.
141.  Which enlisted training element defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
A.
B.
C.
D.
142.  Which system is a service that broadcast via communication payloads on military satellites (Ka band) and commercial satellites (Ku Band)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
143.  Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
144.  Which system was originally designed as a specialized system for Army, Navy, and Air Force technicians to use as a tool to troubleshoot network problems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
145.  Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
146.  Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement?
A.
B.
C.
D.
147.  What document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?
A.
B.
C.
D.
148.  The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless technology is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
149.  What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?
A.
B.
C.
D.
150.  An organized collection of data or data structures is known as a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
151.  Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (officer and Enlisted)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
152.  Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?
A.
B.
C.
D.
153.  What are two anti-virus programs that the Air Force uses?
A.
B.
C.
D.
154.  The 85th Engineering and Installation Squadron (EIS) is assigned to the
A.
B.
C.
D.
155.  Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology?
A.
B.
C.
D.
156.  A comprehensive term that specifies the destruction, salvage, and donation of records, or the transfer to a staging area or records center; and the transfer of records from one organization to another is called a
A.
B.
C.
D.
157.  Which Occupational Risk Management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
158.  Who is the finally authority to waive Career Field Education Training Plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) Career Development Course (CDC)?
A.