3dx5x 1&2

224 Questions  I  By CommV1
Please take the quiz to rate it.

Geometry Quizzes & Trivia
This quiz has both volumes unit review questions in the 3DX5X.

  
Changes are done, please start the quiz.


Questions and Answers

Removing question excerpt is a premium feature

Upgrade and get a lot more done!
  • 1. 
    Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (officer and Enlisted)?
    • A. 

      Core Task

    • B. 

      Duty Competency

    • C. 

      Core Competency

    • D. 

      Duty Position Task


  • 2. 
    Which enlisted training element defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
    • A. 

      Core Task

    • B. 

      Duty Competency

    • C. 

      Core Competency

    • D. 

      Duty Position Task


  • 3. 
    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?
    • A. 

      Cyber Surety

    • B. 

      Client Systems

    • C. 

      Cyber Transport

    • D. 

      Cyber Systems Operations


  • 4. 
    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions?
    • A. 

      Cyber Surety

    • B. 

      Client Systems

    • C. 

      Cyber Transport

    • D. 

      Cyber Systems Operations


  • 5. 
    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of -sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
    • A. 

      Spectrum Operations

    • B. 

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C. 

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D. 

      Radio Frequency Transmission


  • 6. 
    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?
    • A. 

      Spectrum Operations

    • B. 

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C. 

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D. 

      Radio Frequency Transmission


  • 7. 
    Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
    • A. 

      Spectrum Operations

    • B. 

      Ground Radar Systems

    • C. 

      Cable and Antenna Systems

    • D. 

      Radio Frequency Transmission


  • 8. 
    Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
    • A. 

      Unit Training Manager (UTM)

    • B. 

      Base Functional Manager (BFM)

    • C. 

      Major Command functional Manager (MFM)

    • D. 

      Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)


  • 9. 
    Who is the finally authority to waive Career Field Education Training Plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) Career Development Course (CDC)?
    • A. 

      Unit Training Manager (UTM)

    • B. 

      Base Functional Manager (BFM)

    • C. 

      Major Command Functional Manager (MFM)

    • D. 

      Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)


  • 10. 
    Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
    • A. 

      Unit Training Manager (UTM)

    • B. 

      Base Functional Manager (BFM)

    • C. 

      Major Command functional Manager (MFM)

    • D. 

      Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)


  • 11. 
    What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
    • A. 

      Unit Training Manager (UTM)

    • B. 

      Base Functional Manager (BFM)

    • C. 

      Major Command functional Manager (MFM)

    • D. 

      Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)


  • 12. 
    What is the main goal of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
    • A. 

      Modify Training

    • B. 

      Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)

    • C. 

      Conduct climate Training Surveys

    • D. 

      Review the Occupational Analysis Report


  • 13. 
    Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment?"
    • A. 

      91-46

    • B. 

      91-50

    • C. 

      91-64

    • D. 

      91-68


  • 14. 
    Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?"
    • A. 

      91-46

    • B. 

      91-50

    • C. 

      91-64

    • D. 

      91-68


  • 15. 
    The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard
    • A. 

      91-46

    • B. 

      91-50

    • C. 

      91-64

    • D. 

      91-68


  • 16. 
    From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?
    • A. 

      Sunlight

    • B. 

      Microwaves

    • C. 

      Ionizing Radiation

    • D. 

      Nonionizing Radiation


  • 17. 
    What Occupational Risk Management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resource to the lowest acceptable risk?
    • A. 

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B. 

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C. 

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D. 

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.


  • 18. 
    Which Occupation Risk Management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capablility?
    • A. 

      Accept no unnecessary risk.

    • B. 

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C. 

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D. 

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.


  • 19. 
    Which Occupational Risk Management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?
    • A. 

      Accept no unnecessary risk

    • B. 

      Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.

    • C. 

      Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.

    • D. 

      Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels.


  • 20. 
    Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by
    • A. 

      Providing adversaries access to useless data files on legacy systems.

    • B. 

      Taking offensive measures to track adversaries and correct damage to sensitive data.

    • C. 

      Denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace.

    • D. 

      Allowing the adversaries to use the cyberspace domains we can document the country they're from.


  • 21. 
    Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?
    • A. 

      Joint Operability network

    • B. 

      Tactical data links network

    • C. 

      Strategic data control network

    • D. 

      Supervisory control and data acquisition.


  • 22. 
    Which center has overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?
    • A. 

      Area Processing Center (APC)

    • B. 

      Network Control Center (NCC)

    • C. 

      Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)

    • D. 

      Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC)


  • 23. 
    Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?
    • A. 

      Area Processing Center (APC)

    • B. 

      Network Control Center (NCC)

    • C. 

      Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)

    • D. 

      Integrated Network Operations and Security Center (I-NOSC)


  • 24. 
    Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?
    • A. 

      Enterprise Service Units (ESU)

    • B. 

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • C. 

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)

    • D. 

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)


  • 25. 
    Which function or organization was established to operate with an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF)?
    • A. 

      Enterprise Service Units (ESU)

    • B. 

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • C. 

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)

    • D. 

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)


  • 26. 
    Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?
    • A. 

      Enterprise Service Units (ESU)

    • B. 

      Enterprise Service Desk (ESD)

    • C. 

      Combat Communications Squadron (CCS)

    • D. 

      Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)


  • 27. 
    What document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?
    • A. 

      Constitution

    • B. 

      Bill of Rights

    • C. 

      United States Title Code 10

    • D. 

      Uniform Code of Military Justice


  • 28. 
    Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of the government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
    • A. 

      Constitution

    • B. 

      Bill of Rights

    • C. 

      United States Title Code 10

    • D. 

      Uniform Code of Military Justice


  • 29. 
    Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?
    • A. 

      Constitution

    • B. 

      Bill of Rights

    • C. 

      United States Title Code 10

    • D. 

      Uniform Code of Military Justice


  • 30. 
    In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?
    • A. 

      1994

    • B. 

      1995

    • C. 

      1997

    • D. 

      1998


  • 31. 
    In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?
    • A. 

      1994

    • B. 

      1995

    • C. 

      1997

    • D. 

      1998


  • 32. 
    Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulated actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?
    • A. 

      Air Force Doctrines

    • B. 

      Air Force Pamphlets

    • C. 

      Air Force Instructions

    • D. 

      Air Force Policy Directives


  • 33. 
    Which publication type are informational publications which are "how to" documents?
    • A. 

      Air Force Pamphlets

    • B. 

      Air Force Instructions

    • C. 

      Air Force Publications

    • D. 

      Air Force Policy Directives


  • 34. 
    What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?
    • A. 

      Broadcasts

    • B. 

      Transmissions

    • C. 

      Telecommunications

    • D. 

      Voice over Internet Protocol


  • 35. 
    What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?
    • A. 

      MyPay

    • B. 

      E-publishing

    • C. 

      Air Force Portal

    • D. 

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight


  • 36. 
    What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?
    • A. 

      MyPay

    • B. 

      E-publishing

    • C. 

      Air Force Portal

    • D. 

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight


  • 37. 
    Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirements?
    • A. 

      My base

    • B. 

      Single-sign-on

    • C. 

      Community of practice

    • D. 

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight


  • 38. 
    Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?
    • A. 

      My base

    • B. 

      Single-sign-on

    • C. 

      Community of practice

    • D. 

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight


  • 39. 
    Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?
    • A. 

      My base

    • B. 

      Single-sign-on

    • C. 

      Community of practice

    • D. 

      Virtual Military Personnel Flight


  • 40. 
    Which document would you refernce for guidance on "Web management and Internet use?"
    • A. 

      AFI 33-118

    • B. 

      AFI 33-119

    • C. 

      AFI 33-127

    • D. 

      AFI 33-129


  • 41. 
    Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?
    • A. 

      AFI 33-127

    • B. 

      AFI 33-129

    • C. 

      AFI 35-101

    • D. 

      AFI 35-108


  • 42. 
    When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?
    • A. 

      Keep emails brief and to the point.

    • B. 

      Read your email out loud to yourself.

    • C. 

      Consistently use the "Reply-to-All" feature.

    • D. 

      Ensure attachments are appropriate to supplement your government record.


  • 43. 
    Which document is not considered an official government record?
    • A. 

      Published doctrines

    • B. 

      Geographical base maps

    • C. 

      Photographs of a retreat ceremony

    • D. 

      Library reference or museum exhibitions


  • 44. 
    Records that are considered to be in draft format
    • A. 

      Can be altered and are not officially released.

    • B. 

      Can't be altered, but are officially released.

    • C. 

      Can't be altered and are officially signed.

    • D. 

      Officially signed and officially released.


  • 45. 
    Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?
    • A. 

      Officially signed and not released.

    • B. 

      Officially signed and Officially released.

    • C. 

      Can be altered and are not officially released.

    • D. 

      Can't be altered, but are not officially released.


  • 46. 
    Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?
    • A. 

      Base records manager

    • B. 

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C. 

      Command records manager

    • D. 

      Functional area records manager


  • 47. 
    Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?
    • A. 

      Base records manager

    • B. 

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C. 

      Command records manager

    • D. 

      Functional area records manager


  • 48. 
    Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?
    • A. 

      Base records manager

    • B. 

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C. 

      Command records manager

    • D. 

      Functional area records manager


  • 49. 
    Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?
    • A. 

      Base records manager

    • B. 

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C. 

      Command records manager

    • D. 

      Functional area records manager


  • 50. 
    A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an
    • A. 

      File

    • B. 

      Record

    • C. 

      Database

    • D. 

      Enterprise


  • 51. 
    A logical group of record is called a/an
    • A. 

      File

    • B. 

      Record

    • C. 

      Database

    • D. 

      Enterprise


  • 52. 
    An organized collection of data or data structures is known as a/an
    • A. 

      File

    • B. 

      Record

    • C. 

      Database

    • D. 

      Enterprise


  • 53. 
    Who is responsible for creating unique passwords for the office of primary responsibility (OPR) records custodian?
    • A. 

      Base record manager

    • B. 

      Chief of Office of Records

    • C. 

      Command records manager

    • D. 

      Functional area records manager


  • 54. 
    Marking the records for filing is considered which step of file management?
    • A. 

      First step

    • B. 

      Second step

    • C. 

      Third step

    • D. 

      Final step


  • 55. 
    The primary purpose for maintaining records is to ensure
    • A. 

      Historical events are not forgotten.

    • B. 

      The collection of data creates a wealth of information.

    • C. 

      We can provide information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed.

    • D. 

      Data for individuals is readily available upon request and privacy act information is protected.


  • 56. 
    What authorization generates a file disposition control label for each item listed on the office's file plan?
    • A. 

      National Archives and Records Administration (NARA)

    • B. 

      Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS)

    • C. 

      Local operations instructions

    • D. 

      Command operations


  • 57. 
    What determines the cutoff for active records?
    • A. 

      End period

    • B. 

      Archive date

    • C. 

      Retention period

    • D. 

      Superseded date


  • 58. 
    A comprehensive term that specifies the destruction, salvage, and donation of records, or the transfer to a staging area or records center; and the transfer of records from one organization to another is called a
    • A. 

      Retire

    • B. 

      Archive

    • C. 

      Acquisition

    • D. 

      Disposition


  • 59. 
    For which exception will federal records centers accept records having less than 3 years of retention?
    • A. 

      Casualties

    • B. 

      Base closures

    • C. 

      Deployed AF units

    • D. 

      Joint force operations


  • 60. 
    Which document is used for accountability purposes when retirement records are identified and prepared for federal records center, staging areas or to transfer records to another organization?
    • A. 

      AF Form 55

    • B. 

      AF Form 457

    • C. 

      Standard Form 50

    • D. 

      Standard Form 135


  • 61. 
    The proper way we destroy records to prevent compromise is by
    • A. 

      Placing them is approved staging containers.

    • B. 

      Shipping it to Federal records centers in approved containers.

    • C. 

      Altering the data on the records so in the event is compromised, it is recognizable.

    • D. 

      Any method such as tearing, burning, or shredding; as longs personal data is not recognizable and beyond reconstruction.


  • 62. 
    AFPD-10-4, Operations Planning: Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) aligns what requirements with a matching force generation model?
    • A. 

      Posturing

    • B. 

      Tempo Bands

    • C. 

      Unit type codes

    • D. 

      Joint manning document


  • 63. 
    Which organization is responsible for Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) sourcing of individual augmentees, Joint Manning Document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365-day or greater requirements?
    • A. 

      Global Force Management (GFM)

    • B. 

      Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)

    • C. 

      Combatant Commander (CCDR)

    • D. 

      Commander Air Combat Command (COMACC)


  • 64. 
    What places Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) forces in a "ready to deploy" state and supports global requirements, home station requirements or support to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)?
    • A. 

      Posturing

    • B. 

      Tempo Bands

    • C. 

      Unit type codes

    • D. 

      Joint manning document


  • 65. 
    Who has the primary mission of providing the joint force air component commander (JFACC) with the tools necessary to fight and win a major theater war within the scope and coordination of all land, sea, and air forces?
    • A. 

      Global Force Management

    • B. 

      Air Force Personnel Center

    • C. 

      Commander, Air Force Forces

    • D. 

      Air and Space Operations Center


  • 66. 
    Which document is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Air and Space Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
    • A. 

      Posturing

    • B. 

      Tempo Bands

    • C. 

      Unit type codes

    • D. 

      Joint manning document


  • 67. 
    Which function is a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications by way of line-of-sight (LOS), satellite, or hard-wired resources?
    • A. 

      Designed operational capability.

    • B. 

      Theater deployable communications.

    • C. 

      Manpower and equipment force packaging.

    • D. 

      Joint operation planning and execution system.


  • 68. 
    Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA), Humanitarian Relief Operations (HUMRO), Non-Combatant Evacuation Operations (NEO) and support to International Law Enforcement are all examples of
    • A. 

      Operational capabilities packages

    • B. 

      Theater deployable communications

    • C. 

      Manpower and Equipment Force Package (MEFPAK)

    • D. 

      Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) force modules


  • 69. 
    Which function has the primary purpose of providing standard force package descriptions of the force packages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels of command?
    • A. 

      Operational capabilities packages

    • B. 

      Theater deployable communications

    • C. 

      Manpower and Equipment Force Package (MEFPAK)

    • D. 

      Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) force modules


  • 70. 
    A remotely piloted or self-piloted aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment, or other payloads is called a/an
    • A. 

      High Altitude Endurance (HAE)

    • B. 

      Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV)

    • C. 

      Type Unit Equipment Detail File (TUEDF)

    • D. 

      Deliberate Crisis Action Planning Execution Segments (DCAPES


  • 71. 
    As of September 2004, how many total flight hours have coalition unmanned aircrafts flown to support Operation ENDURING FREEDOM and Operation IRAQI FREEDOM?
    • A. 

      80,000

    • B. 

      90,000

    • C. 

      100,000

    • D. 

      120,000


  • 72. 
    Which system focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the warfighter in near real-time?
    • A. 

      High Altitude Endurance (HAE)

    • B. 

      Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV)

    • C. 

      Tactical Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (TUAV)

    • D. 

      Deliberate Crisis Action Planning Execution Segments (DCAPES)


  • 73. 
    Which Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires equipment modules to be expandable and packaged for deployment in standard 19-inch rack mounted transit cases, vehicle, or shelterized configurations?
    • A. 

      Mobility

    • B. 

      Survivability

    • C. 

      Interoperability

    • D. 

      Modularity-scalability


  • 74. 
    Which Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires size, weight, power requirements, and equipment set-up times are kept to an absolute minimum to support the transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?
    • A. 

      Mobility

    • B. 

      Survivability

    • C. 

      Interoperability

    • D. 

      Modularity-scalability


  • 75. 
    Which component of Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of a deployed communication network?
    • A. 

      Basic Access Module (BAM)

    • B. 

      Integrated Communications Access Package (ICAP)

    • C. 

      Promina Multiplexer (P-MUX)

    • D. 

      Flyaway Tri-band Satellite Terminal (FTSAT)


  • 76. 
    Which system provides the capability to identify, sequence, and separate aircraft; provide final approach guidance, and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather?
    • A. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS)

    • B. 

      Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS)

    • C. 

      Theater Battle Management Core Systems (TBMCS)

    • D. 

      Deployable Air Traffic-Control and Landing Systems (DATCALS)


  • 77. 
    Which system asset can be tasked to provide liaison, control tower, Radar Approach Control (RAPCON), precision landing, and mobile Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) services as a standalone unit or in any combination?
    • A. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS)

    • B. 

      Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS)

    • C. 

      Theater Battle Management Core Systems (TBMCS)

    • D. 

      Deployable Air Traffic-Control and Landing Systems (DATCALS)


  • 78. 
    The 85th Engineering and Installation Squadron (EIS) is assigned to the
    • A. 

      Air Combat Command (ACC)

    • B. 

      Air Mobility Command (AMC)

    • C. 

      Air Force Space Command (AFSC)

    • D. 

      Special Operations Command (SOC)


  • 79. 
    Under what program does the Department of Defense (DOD) collects, processes, produces, disseminates, and uses information?
    • A. 

      Global Information Grid (GIG)

    • B. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS)

    • C. 

      Command, Control, Communicate, Computers, Intelligence, Surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR)

    • D. 

      Theater Battle Management Core Systems (TBMCS)


  • 80. 
    What system provides connectivity between the US and allied forces for critical missions and enhances worldwide readiness, mobility, responsiveness, and operations?
    • A. 

      Global Information Grid (GIG)

    • B. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS)

    • C. 

      Command, Control, Communicate, Computers, Intelligence, Surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR)

    • D. 

      Theater Battle Management Core Systems (TBMCS)


  • 81. 
    Which system is employed at more than 600 sites across the Global Information Grid (GIG) and interconnected through the SIPRNET?
    • A. 

      Global Broadcast Service (GBS)

    • B. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS)

    • C. 

      Command, Control, Communicate, Computers, Intelligence, Surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR)

    • D. 

      Theater Battle Management Core Systems (TBMCS)


  • 82. 
    Which major systems employs the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES), Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS), Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES), and Common Operational Picture (COP) systems?
    • A. 

      Global Broadcast Service (GBS)

    • B. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS)

    • C. 

      Command, Control, Communicate, Computers, Intelligence, Surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR)

    • D. 

      Theater Battle Management Core Systems (TBMCS)


  • 83. 
    Which system primarily deals with logistics planning data, such as transportation, personnel, and material requirements?
    • A. 

      Global Broadcast Service (GBS)

    • B. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS)

    • C. 

      Global Combat Support System (GCSS)

    • D. 

      Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS)


  • 84. 
    Which system of interconnected computer networks is used by the United States Department of Defense and the United States Department of State?
    • A. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS)

    • B. 

      Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS)

    • C. 

      Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS)

    • D. 

      Deployable Air Traffic-Control and Landing System (DATCALS)


  • 85. 
    Which Air Force specific system uses the Global Information Grid (GIG) backbone for inter-site communications and was designed to provide an automated and integrated planning and execution capability to the Combat Air Force (CAF) and Joint/Combined Forces?
    • A. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS)

    • B. 

      Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS)

    • C. 

      Theater Battle Management Core Systems (TBMCS)

    • D. 

      Deployable Air Traffic-Control and Landing Systems (DATCALS)


  • 86. 
    Which system provides a solution to a decrease in manpower and increase in requirements, at the same time, taking advantage of new technological developments to deliver superior connectivity, flexibility, speed, reliability, and joint interoperability?
    • A. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS)

    • B. 

      Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS)

    • C. 

      Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS)

    • D. 

      Deployable Air Traffic-Control and Landing System (DATCALS)


  • 87. 
    Which command and control structure is a priority component of the Global Information Grid (GIG) designed to support the President, SECDEF, and the JCS in the exercise of their responsibilities?
    • A. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS)

    • B. 

      National Military Command Center (NMCC)

    • C. 

      National Military Command Systems (NMCS)

    • D. 

      Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS)


  • 88. 
    Which command and control structure is a primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Message generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?
    • A. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS)

    • B. 

      National Military Command System (NMCS)

    • C. 

      Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS)

    • D. 

      Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS)


  • 89. 
    Which command and control structure has network node whose survivability is achieved using nuclear hardened equipment, redundant circuits, and alternate communications paths?
    • A. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS)

    • B. 

      National Military Command Center (NMCC)

    • C. 

      National Military Command System (NMCS)

    • D. 

      Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS)


  • 90. 
    Which system was originally designed as a specialized system for Army, Navy, and Air Force technicians to use as a tool to troubleshoot network problems?
    • A. 

      JEWELER

    • B. 

      SEAMARK

    • C. 

      NEWSDEALER

    • D. 

      STREAMLINER


  • 91. 
    Which program was created in response to the FY-97-03 Defense Planning Guidance that directed a "program to migrate to a multi-intelligence, common, interoperable, open systems ground systems architecture?
    • A. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS)

    • B. 

      National Military Command System (NMCS)

    • C. 

      Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS)

    • D. 

      Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS)


  • 92. 
    Which systems basic functions operational elements are Tasking, Processing, Exploitation, and Dissemination (TPED)?
    • A. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS)

    • B. 

      National Military Command System (NMCS)

    • C. 

      Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS)

    • D. 

      Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS)


  • 93. 
    Which system is a radar tracker and correlator software program that is hosted on a powerful server based computer system, which takes inputs from long and short range radars and displays it all on a scope (computer monitor)?
    • A. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS)

    • B. 

      Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F)

    • C. 

      National Military Command System (NMCS)

    • D. 

      Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS)


  • 94. 
    Which system capitalizes on the popular commercial direct broadcast satellite technology to provide critical informtaion to the nation's warfighters?
    • A. 

      Global Broadcast Service (GBS)

    • B. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS)

    • C. 

      Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F)

    • D. 

      National Military Command System (NMCS)


  • 95. 
    Which system is a service that broadcast via communication payloads on military satellites (Ka band) and commercial satellites (Ku Band)?
    • A. 

      Global Broadcast Service (GBS)

    • B. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS)

    • C. 

      Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F)

    • D. 

      National Military Command System (NMCS)


  • 96. 
    Which system is a USAF program supporting Global, Defense Communication System (DCS) HF Entry, Mystic Star, and System of Inter- American Telecommunications for the Air Force (SITFAA) mission?
    • A. 

      Global Broadcast Service (GBS)

    • B. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS)

    • C. 

      Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F)

    • D. 

      High Frequency-Global Communications System (HF-GCS)


  • 97. 
    Which system provides high-quality voice/data HF and Ultra-High Frequency (UHF) satellite communications to president, vice president, cabinet members, and other senior government and military officials while aboard Special Airlift Mission (SAM) aircraft?
    • A. 

      SEAMARK

    • B. 

      NORAD

    • C. 

      MYSTIC STAR

    • D. 

      MILSATCOM


  • 98. 
    Which system provides the ability to rapidly detect and identify airborne targets with minimal or no support?
    • A. 

      Global Broadcast Services (GBS)

    • B. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS)

    • C. 

      Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F)

    • D. 

      Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS)


  • 99. 
    Which system can be deployed in either the Control Reporting Center or Control Reporting Element configurations?
    • A. 

      Global Broadcast Services (GBS)

    • B. 

      Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS)

    • C. 

      Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F)

    • D. 

      Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS)


  • 100. 
    What function provides the Department of Defense (DOD) with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people via Personal Computer (PC), Personal Digital Assistants (PDA's), land and cell phones, pagers, Blackberry devices, and/or giant voice systems in real-time?
    • A. 

      Command Post

    • B. 

      AtHoc's Solutions

    • C. 

      Regional warning system

    • D. 

      Command warning system


  • 101. 
    What layer of the Open System Interconnect model defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems?
    • A. 

      Physical

    • B. 

      Data Link

    • C. 

      Network

    • D. 

      Transport


  • 102. 
    The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers divide the Open System Interconnect Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?
    • A. 

      High Level Data Link Control and Synchronous Data Link Control.

    • B. 

      Logical Link Control and Media Access Control.

    • C. 

      Distance Vector and Link State.

    • D. 

      RS-232 and RS-530


  • 103. 
    At what Open System Interconnect layer do network switches and bridges operate?
    • A. 

      Network

    • B. 

      Physical

    • C. 

      Data Link

    • D. 

      Transport


  • 104. 
    At what Open System Interconnect layer do routers operate?
    • A. 

      Network

    • B. 

      Physical

    • C. 

      Data Link

    • D. 

      Transport


  • 105. 
    At what Open System Interconnect layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?
    • A. 

      Application

    • B. 

      Session

    • C. 

      Presentation

    • D. 

      Transport


  • 106. 
    What Open System Interconnect layer is closed to the end user?
    • A. 

      Application

    • B. 

      Session

    • C. 

      Presentation

    • D. 

      Transport


  • 107. 
    What is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium?
    • A. 

      Specification

    • B. 

      Standard

    • C. 

      Etiquette

    • D. 

      Protocol


  • 108. 
    What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?
    • A. 

      Physical

    • B. 

      Logical

    • C. 

      Star

    • D. 

      Hybrid


  • 109. 
    What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data is transmitted, throughout the network?
    • A. 

      Physical

    • B. 

      Logical

    • C. 

      Star

    • D. 

      Hybrid


  • 110. 
    What topology consists of devices connected to a common, shared cable?
    • A. 

      Bus

    • B. 

      Ring

    • C. 

      Star

    • D. 

      Hybrid


  • 111. 
    What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?
    • A. 

      Bus

    • B. 

      Ring

    • C. 

      Star

    • D. 

      Hybrid


  • 112. 
    What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?
    • A. 

      Bus

    • B. 

      Ring

    • C. 

      Star

    • D. 

      Hybrid


  • 113. 
    Which network protocol has the Department of Defense chosen as its standard to govern the flow of information?
    • A. 

      Apple Talk

    • B. 

      NetBios Extended User Interface

    • C. 

      Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

    • D. 

      Internetwork Package Exchange/ Sequenced Packet Exchange


  • 114. 
    What Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control address?
    • A. 

      Internet Protocol

    • B. 

      Address Resolution Protocol

    • C. 

      Reverse Address Resolution Protocol

    • D. 

      Internet Control Message Protocol


  • 115. 
    What Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the IP address for a device that knows its own MAC address?
    • A. 

      Internet Protocol

    • B. 

      Address Resolution Protocol

    • C. 

      Reverse Address Resolution Protocol

    • D. 

      Internet Control Message Protocol


  • 116. 
    What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?
    • A. 

      Internet Protocol

    • B. 

      Address Resolution Protocol

    • C. 

      Reverse Address Resolution Protocol

    • D. 

      Internet Control Message Protocol


  • 117. 
    What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?
    • A. 

      Internet Protocol

    • B. 

      User Datagram Protocol

    • C. 

      Transmission Control Protocol

    • D. 

      Internet Control Message Protocol


  • 118. 
    What application within Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol is used to send and receive files via TCP?
    • A. 

      File Transfer Protocol

    • B. 

      Trivial File Transfer Protocol

    • C. 

      Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

    • D. 

      Hyper Text Transfer Protocol


  • 119. 
    What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances between cities, states, countries, or around the world?
    • A. 

      Local Area Network

    • B. 

      Wide Area Network

    • C. 

      Virtual Private Network

    • D. 

      Metropolitan Area Network


  • 120. 
    What type of network makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet?
    • A. 

      Local Area Network

    • B. 

      Wide Area Network

    • C. 

      Virtual Private Network

    • D. 

      Metropolitan Area Network


  • 121. 
    Which is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol server and proxies?
    • A. 

      Port 80

    • B. 

      Port 110

    • C. 

      Port 443

    • D. 

      Port 8080


  • 122. 
    How many bits are in IPv4 address?
    • A. 

      16 bits

    • B. 

      32 bits

    • C. 

      64 bits

    • D. 

      128 bits


  • 123. 
    Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?
    • A. 

      Colon Hexadecimal Format

    • B. 

      Dotted Decimal Notation

    • C. 

      Hexadecimal

    • D. 

      Octal


  • 124. 
    Using a range of 1-26 is the first octet of an IPv4 address, what class does it belong to?
    • A. 

      Class A

    • B. 

      Class B

    • C. 

      Class C

    • D. 

      Class D


  • 125. 
    What IPv4 class address is used for networks with 250 nodes?
    • A. 

      Class C

    • B. 

      Class D

    • C. 

      Class E

    • D. 

      Class F


  • 126. 
    What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing?
    • A. 

      Class C

    • B. 

      Class D

    • C. 

      Class E

    • D. 

      Class F


  • 127. 
    What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back?
    • A. 

      0.0.0.0

    • B. 

      127.0.0.1

    • C. 

      207.55.157.255

    • D. 

      255.255.255.255


  • 128. 
    What is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number?
    • A. 

      Subnet mask

    • B. 

      Broadcast

    • C. 

      Multicast

    • D. 

      Subnet


  • 129. 
    What is the default classful subnet mask on class B networks?
    • A. 

      255.255.0.0

    • B. 

      255.255.240.0

    • C. 

      255.255.255.0

    • D. 

      255.255.255.224


  • 130. 
    What method borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet?
    • A. 

      Classful Subnet Masking

    • B. 

      Classless Inter-Domain Routing

    • C. 

      Virtual Private Networking

    • D. 

      Virtual Local Area Networking


  • 131. 
    Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?
    • A. 

      Colon Hexadecimal Format

    • B. 

      Dotted Decimal Notation

    • C. 

      Hexadecimal

    • D. 

      Octal


  • 132. 
    What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6?
    • A. 

      1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234

    • B. 

      10AB::3:0:1234:5678

    • C. 

      255.255.255.255

    • D. 

      127.0.0.1


  • 133. 
    What notation is expressed in zero compression for IPv6?
    • A. 

      1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234

    • B. 

      10AB::3:0:1234:5678

    • C. 

      255.255.255.255

    • D. 

      127.0.0.1


  • 134. 
    What Unicast address scope operates within a network segment, and will not originate from, or be destined to, an interface that requires a router to direct traffic?
    • A. 

      Site-local

    • B. 

      Link-Local

    • C. 

      Aggregatable Local

    • D. 

      Aggregatable Global


  • 135. 
    What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally routable address that do not route outside the site?
    • A. 

      Site-local

    • B. 

      Link-Local

    • C. 

      Aggregatable Local

    • D. 

      Aggregatable Global


  • 136. 
    What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID protion of the address broken up into different areas allowing for hierarchical design and allocation?
    • A. 

      Site-local

    • B. 

      Link-Local

    • C. 

      Aggregatable Local

    • D. 

      Aggregatable Global


  • 137. 
    The computing part of the computer is the central processing unit,  also called the 
    • A. 

      Control unit

    • B. 

      Minicomputer

    • C. 

      Microprocessor

    • D. 

      Arithmetic logic unit


  • 138. 
    What two main components make up the central processing unit?
    • A. 

      Control Unit and read-only memory

    • B. 

      Control unit and arithmetic logical unit

    • C. 

      Arithmetic logic unit and read-only memory

    • D. 

      Arithmetic logic unit and random access memory


  • 139. 
    What is a type of memory that retains data after power is removed or lost?
    • A. 

      Volatile

    • B. 

      Nonvolatile

    • C. 

      Secured

    • D. 

      Unsecured


  • 140. 
    Which landline transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?
    • A. 

      Twisted pair cable

    • B. 

      Fiber optic cable

    • C. 

      Coaxial cable

    • D. 

      Twinax cable


  • 141. 
    An optical communications system is comprised of a
    • A. 

      Transmitter, cable, and receiver

    • B. 

      Transmitter, cable, and logic analyzer

    • C. 

      Transmitter, transmission medium, and logic analyzer

    • D. 

      Transmitter, transmission medium, and protocol analyzer


  • 142. 
    Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology?
    • A. 

      Ease of installation

    • B. 

      Lower cost

    • C. 

      Safety

    • D. 

      Mobility


  • 143. 
    The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless technology is called
    • A. 

      Mobility

    • B. 

      Ease of installations

    • C. 

      War driving

    • D. 

      Motion capture technology


  • 144. 
    Which of the following is not the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network?
    • A. 

      Rogue Access Point

    • B. 

      Direct Connections

    • C. 

      War Drivers

    • D. 

      Hackers


  • 145. 
    Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network?
    • A. 

      Auditor

    • B. 

      Employee

    • C. 

      War Driver

    • D. 

      Hacker


  • 146. 
    What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today's wireless networks?
    • A. 

      Institute of Electrical Electronics Engineers

    • B. 

      International Organization for Standardization

    • C. 

      Internet assigned number authority

    • D. 

      National Science Foundation network


  • 147. 
    How many peripherals can Universal Serial Bus handle at once?
    • A. 

      127

    • B. 

      128

    • C. 

      227

    • D. 

      228


  • 148. 
    How many devices can connect to a FireWire Bus?
    • A. 

      63

    • B. 

      64

    • C. 

      65

    • D. 

      66


  • 149. 
    What do you apply across Liquid Crystal Display material to change the alignment and light polarizing property?
    • A. 

      Current

    • B. 

      Voltage

    • C. 

      Resistance

    • D. 

      Inductance


  • 150. 
    What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?
    • A. 

      Hub

    • B. 

      Bridge

    • C. 

      Switch

    • D. 

      Router


  • 151. 
    What rule establishes the percent of data that should be local to a segment and the percentage of data that should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment?
    • A. 

      90/10 rule

    • B. 

      80/20 rule

    • C. 

      70/30 rule

    • D. 

      60/40 rule


  • 152. 
    This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another.
    • A. 

      Cross route

    • B. 

      Transparent

    • C. 

      Translational

    • D. 

      Source route


  • 153. 
    What is the method called when the entire frame is received and placed into the buffer, an error check is performed, and the frame is sent to the proper port for delivery?
    • A. 

      Store-and-forward

    • B. 

      Cross-over

    • C. 

      Fragment-free

    • D. 

      Adaptive


  • 154. 
    What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching?
    • A. 

      Store-and-forward

    • B. 

      Cut-through

    • C. 

      Fragment-free

    • D. 

      Adaptive


  • 155. 
    What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers operate?
    • A. 

      Layer 2

    • B. 

      Layer 3

    • C. 

      Layer 4

    • D. 

      Layer 5


  • 156. 
    What do routing algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process of path determination?
    • A. 

      Routing times

    • B. 

      Routing table

    • C. 

      Longest routes

    • D. 

      Shortest routes


  • 157. 
    Which of these is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol?
    • A. 

      Open Shortest Path First

    • B. 

      Border Gateway Protocol

    • C. 

      Routing Information Protocol

    • D. 

      Enhanced Gateway Routing Protocol


  • 158. 
    Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5


  • 159. 
    What encryption device may you rarely see due to its lower maximum data rate?
    • A. 

      TSEC/KIV-7

    • B. 

      TSEC/KIV-19

    • C. 

      TSEC/KIV-84

    • D. 

      TSEC/KG-194


  • 160. 
    What encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits?
    • A. 

      TSEC/KIV-7

    • B. 

      TSEC/KIV-7HS

    • C. 

      TSEC/KIV-7HSA

    • D. 

      TSEC/KIV-19


  • 161. 
    What  encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys?
    • A. 

      AN/CYZ-10/DTD

    • B. 

      AN/CYZ-20/DTD

    • C. 

      Secure DTD1000 System

    • D. 

      Secure DTD2000 System


  • 162. 
    The classification of a fill device is 
    • A. 

      Classification when out of a safe.

    • B. 

      Classification as SECRET when the key has been unlocked.

    • C. 

      Unclassified when put back in the safe after a key has been loaded.

    • D. 

      Classified as soon as a key is loaded, and holds the classification of the loaded key.


  • 163. 
    A modem is a device that modulates
    • A. 

      Analog data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium.

    • B. 

      Analog data onto a digital carrier for transmission over a digital medium.

    • C. 

      Digital data onto an analog carrier for transmission over an analog medium.

    • D. 

      Digital data onto a digital carrier for transmission over an analog medium.


  • 164. 
    Analog modems are used over the voice band range of
    • A. 

      10 Hz to 20 MHz

    • B. 

      20 Hz to 20 MHz

    • C. 

      30 Hz to 40 MHz

    • D. 

      40 Hz to 40 MHz


  • 165. 
    The main function of the Data Service Unit is to 
    • A. 

      Provide buffering and data flow control.

    • B. 

      Manage timing errors and signal regeneration.

    • C. 

      Provide the proper electrical termination for the transmission line.

    • D. 

      Adapt the digital data stream produced but the customer equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment.


  • 166. 
    Software is generally divided into
    • A. 

      Systems software and applications software.

    • B. 

      Operating systems software and systems software.

    • C. 

      Operating systems software and applications software.

    • D. 

      Systems software, operating systems software, and application software.


  • 167. 
    Which one is not a category of the operating system's task categories?
    • A. 

      User interface

    • B. 

      Memory management

    • C. 

      Troubleshooting interface

    • D. 

      Processor management


  • 168. 
    The path between the operating system and virtually all hardware not on the computer's motherboard goes through a special program called a
    • A. 

      Director

    • B. 

      Deliver

    • C. 

      Driver

    • D. 

      Sender


  • 169. 
    The core operating-system function is the management of the computer system which resides with the
    • A. 

      Shell

    • B. 

      Kernel

    • C. 

      Device Manager

    • D. 

      Processor Manager


  • 170. 
    Applications are software programs designed to perform what type of tasks?
    • A. 

      Specific

    • B. 

      General

    • C. 

      Special

    • D. 

      Broad


  • 171. 
    What are two anti-virus programs that the Air Force uses?
    • A. 

      Norton and Horton

    • B. 

      Horton and McAfee

    • C. 

      Norton and McAfee

    • D. 

      McAfee and LotusPro


  • 172. 
    Windows operating system traditionally function in one two network models. Which model does not operate using centralized user accounts?
    • A. 

      Workgroup

    • B. 

      Domain

    • C. 

      Active Directory

    • D. 

      User Group


  • 173. 
    Which system provides support for features such as Windows System Resources Manager and Metadirectory Services?
    • A. 

      AERO

    • B. 

      Enterprise Edition

    • C. 

      Standard Edition

    • D. 

      Datacenter Edition


  • 174. 
    One of the Windows Server Editions operating systems provides support for high-end, high traffic applications servers.  Which Operaing System is it?
    • A. 

      Web Edition

    • B. 

      Datacenter Edition

    • C. 

      NT

    • D. 

      AERO


  • 175. 
    What was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems?
    • A. 

      C-Plus

    • B. 

      UNIX

    • C. 

      Fortran

    • D. 

      Windows


  • 176. 
    What is the name of the standard all-purpose shell most commonly used?
    • A. 

      Restricted Shell

    • B. 

      Bourne Shell

    • C. 

      Korn Shell

    • D. 

      C Shell


  • 177. 
    What directory is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the "a" partition?
    • A. 

      Root

    • B. 

      User

    • C. 

      Binary

    • D. 

      Device


  • 178. 
    Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?
    • A. 

      Absolute

    • B. 

      Relative

    • C. 

      Complex

    • D. 

      Simple


  • 179. 
    This component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network 
    • A. 

      Global applications

    • B. 

      Warrior component

    • C. 

      Network operations

    • D. 

      Information Management


  • 180. 
    This characteristic or the Global Information Grid ensures seamless transmission of information between different services branches
    • A. 

      Joint architecture

    • B. 

      Unity of command

    • C. 

      Information services

    • D. 

      Common policy and standards


  • 181. 
    Who bears the responsibility for maintenance or of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network?
    • A. 

      The service that owns the installation.

    • B. 

      Defense Information System Agency.

    • C. 

      Infrastructure technicians.

    • D. 

      Deployed warfighters.


  • 182. 
    Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be a person in the deployed Area of Resonsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from combat?
    • A. 

      Long-haul transport infrastructure

    • B. 

      Deployed warfighter

    • C. 

      Theater Battle Management Core System terminal

    • D. 

      Sustaining base


  • 183. 
    What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?
    • A. 

      Operated and managed as a base communications asset.

    • B. 

      Considered one of the primary components of the Defense Information Systems Network.

    • C. 

      Interconnected via the Defense Information System Agency Asynchronous Transfer Mode network.

    • D. 

      Completely protected by encryption devices


  • 184. 
    How are non-internet protocols sent across the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network?
    • A. 

      Protocols cannot be sent across the SIPRNET

    • B. 

      Transmitted from sender to user uncharged

    • C. 

      Encapsulated by the internet protocol before being transmitted across the SIPRNET

    • D. 

      Encrypted by a TACLANE before being transmitted across the SIPRNET


  • 185. 
    Which is an internet protocol encyption device that can be directly connected to Red local area network?
    • A. 

      KG-84

    • B. 

      KG-194

    • C. 

      KIV-7

    • D. 

      KG175


  • 186. 
    What provides conduit for Joint WorldWide Intelligence Communication System data transmission from one location to another?
    • A. 

      DISN backbone

    • B. 

      JDISS Terminal

    • C. 

      SIPRNET

    • D. 

      NIPRNET


  • 187. 
    What concerns slowed the military's adoption of wireless network techniology? 
    • A. 

      Speed and reliability

    • B. 

      Security and reliability

    • C. 

      Reliability and maintenance

    • D. 

      Certification and interoperability


  • 188. 
    What is the first step in merging voice, data and video network into one integrated network within the Air Force?
    • A. 

      Adding more traditional time division multiplexing voice switches to handle additional data traffic.

    • B. 

      Integrating traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems.

    • C. 

      Complete replacement of TDM switches with VoIP Technology.

    • D. 

      Managing TDM switches in the same way we manage data networks.


  • 189. 
    Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what other Combat Information transport Systems initiative will help increase network security?
    • A. 

      Establishing a Network Operation and Security Center at each base.

    • B. 

      Creating a security baseline across all MAJCOM areas of responsibility.

    • C. 

      Fielding standardized tools to all of the MAJCOM Network Operating Security Centers to establish a baseline security model.

    • D. 

      Eliminating the MAJCOM NOSC concept and integrating the functions into two Integrated NOSCs.


  • 190. 
    Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition, and signle systems management of the Defense Switched Network?
    • A. 

      Defense Logistics Agency

    • B. 

      Communications Squadron

    • C. 

      Air Force Communications Agency

    • D. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency


  • 191. 
    How is responsiveness provide in the Defense Switched Network?
    • A. 

      End offices are multiple-homed

    • B. 

      End offices do not interoperate with allied networks

    • C. 

      The DSN offers precedence access thresholding

    • D. 

      The DSN offers single level precedence and preemption


  • 192. 
    What type of Defense Switched Network  precedence call cannot be preempted?
    • A. 

      Flash

    • B. 

      Priority

    • C. 

      Intermediate

    • D. 

      Flash Override


  • 193. 
    What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN)?
    • A. 

      9.6 Kbps

    • B. 

      14.4 Kbps

    • C. 

      19.2 Kbps

    • D. 

      28.8 Kbps


  • 194. 
    While you are using the Red Switch, what feature lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security?
    • A. 

      Recorded voice message

    • B. 

      Punched computer cards

    • C. 

      Liquid crystal display

    • D. 

      Punched paper tape


  • 195. 
    What is the purpose of the standardization tactical entry point terminal?
    • A. 

      To provide a foxhole to National Command Authority link for commanders.

    • B. 

      To lessen the amount of traffic transmitted through the gateway terminals.

    • C. 

      To provide one-way communication access for deployed locations.

    • D. 

      To replace the old tractional satellite communications system.


  • 196. 
    The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within how many seconds of the universal time code?
    • A. 

      2 microseconds

    • B. 

      2 seconds

    • C. 

      1 microsecond

    • D. 

      1 second


  • 197. 
    Which security program is covered under AFI 10-701?
    • A. 

      OPSEC

    • B. 

      EMSEC

    • C. 

      COMSEC

    • D. 

      COMPUSEC


  • 198. 
    Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?
    • A. 

      OPSEC

    • B. 

      EMSEC

    • C. 

      COMSEC

    • D. 

      COMPUSEC


  • 199. 
    Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement?
    • A. 

      Purpose

    • B. 

      Authority

    • C. 

      Disclosure

    • D. 

      Routine use


  • 200. 
    What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?
    • A. 

      AF Form 2327

    • B. 

      AF Form 3217

    • C. 

      AF Form 3227

    • D. 

      AF Form 3327


  • 201. 
    Guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites is outlined in 
    • A. 

      AFI 33-301

    • B. 

      AFI 33-129

    • C. 

      AFI 33-219

    • D. 

      AFI 33-329


  • 202. 
    Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting accesss to classified information can be found in
    • A. 

      AFI 31-301

    • B. 

      AFI 31-401

    • C. 

      AFI 31-501

    • D. 

      AFI 31-601


  • 203. 
    Discloser of information that would result in the loss, misuse, modification or unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security would best be described as 
    • A. 

      Secret

    • B. 

      Confidential

    • C. 

      For official use only

    • D. 

      Sensitive but unclassified


  • 204. 
    What is the COMSEC program designed to do?
    • A. 

      Relocate classified material to strengthen security.

    • B. 

      Conduct assessment to evaluate compromise of national security.

    • C. 

      Deflect unauthorized interception and analysis of compromising emanations.

    • D. 

      Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information.


  • 205. 
    What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?
    • A. 

      AFI 33-119

    • B. 

      AFI 33-129

    • C. 

      AFI 33-219

    • D. 

      AFI 33-329


  • 206. 
    Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package?
    • A. 

      SF 135

    • B. 

      SF 153

    • C. 

      SF 351

    • D. 

      SF 531


  • 207. 
    Which form is used as a visitor register long to record visitors into restricted areas?
    • A. 

      AF Form 1019

    • B. 

      AF Form 1109

    • C. 

      AF Form 1119

    • D. 

      AF Form 1190


  • 208. 
    An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC
    • A. 

      Insecurity

    • B. 

      Deviation

    • C. 

      Incident

    • D. 

      Report


  • 209. 
    Which organization assigns communication security incident report case numbers?
    • A. 

      Air Force Communications Agency

    • B. 

      Air Force Office of Record

    • C. 

      Central Office of Record

    • D. 

      National Security Agency


  • 210. 
    Final reports of a communication security incident are due
    • A. 

      10 days after the initial report is dated.

    • B. 

      20 days after the initial report is signed.

    • C. 

      30 days after the initial report is issued.

    • D. 

      40 days after the initial report is approved.


  • 211. 
    The Air Force Information  Assurance Program is detailed in 
    • A. 

      AFI 33-100

    • B. 

      AFI 33-200

    • C. 

      AFI 33-300

    • D. 

      AFI 33-400


  • 212. 
    Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized, disclosure, modification, or destruction?
    • A. 

      OPSEC

    • B. 

      EMSEC

    • C. 

      COMSEC

    • D. 

      COMPUSEC


  • 213. 
    What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment?
    • A. 

      Emulation

    • B. 

      Emanation

    • C. 

      Signature

    • D. 

      Salutation


  • 214. 
    An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment is known as
    • A. 

      Emission security

    • B. 

      Communication security

    • C. 

      Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating Spurious Transmissions.

    • D. 

      Computer security


  • 215. 
    Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer network?
    • A. 

      INFOCON 2

    • B. 

      INFOCON 3

    • C. 

      INFOCON 4

    • D. 

      INFOCON 5


  • 216. 
    Which condition requires the mandate of increased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present?
    • A. 

      INFOCON 2

    • B. 

      INFOCON 3

    • C. 

      INFOCON 4

    • D. 

      INFOCON 5


  • 217. 
    When a risk of a network system  attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected?
    • A. 

      INFOCON 2

    • B. 

      INFOCON 3

    • C. 

      INFOCON 4

    • D. 

      INFOCON 5


  • 218. 
    Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication?
    • A. 

      INFOCON 2

    • B. 

      INFOCON 3

    • C. 

      INFOCON 4

    • D. 

      INFOCON 5


  • 219. 
    At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?
    • A. 

      Tier 1

    • B. 

      Tier 2

    • C. 

      Tier 3

    • D. 

      Tier 4


  • 220. 
    At what level do regional operation centers perform Network Operations (NETOPS) ot ensure operation and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD), and Information Dissemination Management?
    • A. 

      Tier 1

    • B. 

      Tier 2

    • C. 

      Tier 3

    • D. 

      Tier 4


  • 221. 
    An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as 
    • A. 

      A fully accreditation

    • B. 

      A type accreditation

    • C. 

      A major accreditation

    • D. 

      An interim accreditation


  • 222. 
    Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
    • A. 

      "A"

    • B. 

      "B"

    • C. 

      "C"

    • D. 

      "D"


  • 223. 
    Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
    • A. 

      "A"

    • B. 

      "B"

    • C. 

      "C"

    • D. 

      "D"


  • 224. 
    Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "confidential" information?
    • A. 

      SF 706

    • B. 

      SF 707

    • C. 

      SF 708

    • D. 

      SF 710


Back to top

Removing ad is a premium feature

Upgrade and get a lot more done!
Take Another Quiz
We have sent an email with your new password.