3dx5x 1&2

224 Questions  I  By CommV1
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Geometry Quizzes & Trivia
This quiz has both volumes unit review questions in the 3DX5X.

  
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1.  Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (officer and Enlisted)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.  Which enlisted training element defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.  Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.  Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.  Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of -sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.  Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.  Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.  Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.  Who is the finally authority to waive Career Field Education Training Plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) Career Development Course (CDC)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.  Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.  What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.  What is the main goal of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.  Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment?"
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.  Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?"
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.  The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.  From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.  What Occupational Risk Management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resource to the lowest acceptable risk?
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.  Which Occupation Risk Management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capablility?
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.  Which Occupational Risk Management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.  Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.  Which option refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.  Which center has overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.  Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.  Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.  Which function or organization was established to operate with an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.  Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.  What document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.  Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of the government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.  Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.  In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.  In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.  Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulated actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.  Which publication type are informational publications which are "how to" documents?
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.  What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.  What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.  What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.  Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.  Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.  Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.  Which document would you refernce for guidance on "Web management and Internet use?"
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.  Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.  When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.  Which document is not considered an official government record?
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.  Records that are considered to be in draft format
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.  Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.  Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.  Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.  Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.  Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.  A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
51.  A logical group of record is called a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
52.  An organized collection of data or data structures is known as a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
53.  Who is responsible for creating unique passwords for the office of primary responsibility (OPR) records custodian?
A.
B.
C.
D.
54.  Marking the records for filing is considered which step of file management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
55.  The primary purpose for maintaining records is to ensure
A.
B.
C.
D.
56.  What authorization generates a file disposition control label for each item listed on the office's file plan?
A.
B.
C.
D.
57.  What determines the cutoff for active records?
A.
B.
C.
D.
58.  A comprehensive term that specifies the destruction, salvage, and donation of records, or the transfer to a staging area or records center; and the transfer of records from one organization to another is called a
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.  For which exception will federal records centers accept records having less than 3 years of retention?
A.
B.
C.
D.
60.  Which document is used for accountability purposes when retirement records are identified and prepared for federal records center, staging areas or to transfer records to another organization?
A.
B.
C.
D.
61.  The proper way we destroy records to prevent compromise is by
A.
B.
C.
D.
62.  AFPD-10-4, Operations Planning: Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) aligns what requirements with a matching force generation model?
A.
B.
C.
D.
63.  Which organization is responsible for Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) sourcing of individual augmentees, Joint Manning Document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365-day or greater requirements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
64.  What places Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) forces in a "ready to deploy" state and supports global requirements, home station requirements or support to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.  Who has the primary mission of providing the joint force air component commander (JFACC) with the tools necessary to fight and win a major theater war within the scope and coordination of all land, sea, and air forces?
A.
B.
C.
D.
66.  Which document is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Air and Space Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.  Which function is a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications by way of line-of-sight (LOS), satellite, or hard-wired resources?
A.
B.
C.
D.
68.  Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA), Humanitarian Relief Operations (HUMRO), Non-Combatant Evacuation Operations (NEO) and support to International Law Enforcement are all examples of
A.
B.
C.
D.
69.  Which function has the primary purpose of providing standard force package descriptions of the force packages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels of command?
A.
B.
C.
D.
70.  A remotely piloted or self-piloted aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment, or other payloads is called a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
71.  As of September 2004, how many total flight hours have coalition unmanned aircrafts flown to support Operation ENDURING FREEDOM and Operation IRAQI FREEDOM?
A.
B.
C.
D.
72.  Which system focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the warfighter in near real-time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.  Which Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires equipment modules to be expandable and packaged for deployment in standard 19-inch rack mounted transit cases, vehicle, or shelterized configurations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
74.  Which Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires size, weight, power requirements, and equipment set-up times are kept to an absolute minimum to support the transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
75.  Which component of Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of a deployed communication network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
76.  Which system provides the capability to identify, sequence, and separate aircraft; provide final approach guidance, and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather?
A.
B.
C.
D.
77.  Which system asset can be tasked to provide liaison, control tower, Radar Approach Control (RAPCON), precision landing, and mobile Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) services as a standalone unit or in any combination?
A.
B.
C.
D.
78.  The 85th Engineering and Installation Squadron (EIS) is assigned to the
A.
B.
C.
D.
79.  Under what program does the Department of Defense (DOD) collects, processes, produces, disseminates, and uses information?
A.
B.
C.
D.
80.  What system provides connectivity between the US and allied forces for critical missions and enhances worldwide readiness, mobility, responsiveness, and operations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
81.  Which system is employed at more than 600 sites across the Global Information Grid (GIG) and interconnected through the SIPRNET?
A.
B.
C.
D.
82.  Which major systems employs the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES), Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS), Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES), and Common Operational Picture (COP) systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
83.  Which system primarily deals with logistics planning data, such as transportation, personnel, and material requirements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
84.  Which system of interconnected computer networks is used by the United States Department of Defense and the United States Department of State?
A.
B.
C.
D.
85.  Which Air Force specific system uses the Global Information Grid (GIG) backbone for inter-site communications and was designed to provide an automated and integrated planning and execution capability to the Combat Air Force (CAF) and Joint/Combined Forces?
A.
B.
C.
D.
86.  Which system provides a solution to a decrease in manpower and increase in requirements, at the same time, taking advantage of new technological developments to deliver superior connectivity, flexibility, speed, reliability, and joint interoperability?
A.
B.
C.
D.
87.  Which command and control structure is a priority component of the Global Information Grid (GIG) designed to support the President, SECDEF, and the JCS in the exercise of their responsibilities?
A.
B.
C.
D.
88.  Which command and control structure is a primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Message generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?
A.
B.
C.
D.
89.  Which command and control structure has network node whose survivability is achieved using nuclear hardened equipment, redundant circuits, and alternate communications paths?
A.
B.
C.
D.
90.  Which system was originally designed as a specialized system for Army, Navy, and Air Force technicians to use as a tool to troubleshoot network problems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
91.  Which program was created in response to the FY-97-03 Defense Planning Guidance that directed a "program to migrate to a multi-intelligence, common, interoperable, open systems ground systems architecture?
A.
B.
C.
D.
92.  Which systems basic functions operational elements are Tasking, Processing, Exploitation, and Dissemination (TPED)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
93.  Which system is a radar tracker and correlator software program that is hosted on a powerful server based computer system, which takes inputs from long and short range radars and displays it all on a scope (computer monitor)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
94.  Which system capitalizes on the popular commercial direct broadcast satellite technology to provide critical informtaion to the nation's warfighters?
A.
B.
C.
D.
95.  Which system is a service that broadcast via communication payloads on military satellites (Ka band) and commercial satellites (Ku Band)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
96.  Which system is a USAF program supporting Global, Defense Communication System (DCS) HF Entry, Mystic Star, and System of Inter- American Telecommunications for the Air Force (SITFAA) mission?
A.
B.
C.
D.
97.  Which system provides high-quality voice/data HF and Ultra-High Frequency (UHF) satellite communications to president, vice president, cabinet members, and other senior government and military officials while aboard Special Airlift Mission (SAM) aircraft?
A.
B.
C.
D.
98.  Which system provides the ability to rapidly detect and identify airborne targets with minimal or no support?
A.
B.
C.
D.
99.  Which system can be deployed in either the Control Reporting Center or Control Reporting Element configurations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
100.  What function provides the Department of Defense (DOD) with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people via Personal Computer (PC), Personal Digital Assistants (PDA's), land and cell phones, pagers, Blackberry devices, and/or giant voice systems in real-time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
101.  What layer of the Open System Interconnect model defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
102.  The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers divide the Open System Interconnect Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
103.  At what Open System Interconnect layer do network switches and bridges operate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
104.  At what Open System Interconnect layer do routers operate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
105.  At what Open System Interconnect layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?
A.
B.
C.
D.
106.  What Open System Interconnect layer is closed to the end user?
A.
B.
C.
D.
107.  What is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium?
A.
B.
C.
D.
108.  What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?
A.
B.
C.
D.
109.  What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data is transmitted, throughout the network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
110.  What topology consists of devices connected to a common, shared cable?
A.
B.
C.
D.
111.  What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?
A.
B.
C.
D.
112.  What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
113.  Which network protocol has the Department of Defense chosen as its standard to govern the flow of information?
A.
B.
C.
D.
114.  What Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control address?
A.
B.
C.
D.
115.  What Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the IP address for a device that knows its own MAC address?
A.
B.
C.
D.
116.  What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?
A.
B.
C.
D.
117.  What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?
A.
B.
C.
D.
118.  What application within Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol is used to send and receive files via TCP?
A.
B.
C.
D.
119.  What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances between cities, states, countries, or around the world?
A.
B.
C.
D.
120.  What type of network makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet?
A.
B.
C.
D.
121.  Which is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol server and proxies?
A.
B.
C.
D.
122.  How many bits are in IPv4 address?
A.
B.
C.
D.
123.  Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?
A.
B.
C.
D.
124.  Using a range of 1-26 is the first octet of an IPv4 address, what class does it belong to?
A.
B.
C.
D.
125.  What IPv4 class address is used for networks with 250 nodes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
126.  What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
127.  What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back?
A.
B.
C.
D.
128.  What is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number?
A.
B.
C.
D.
129.  What is the default classful subnet mask on class B networks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
130.  What method borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet?
A.
B.
C.
D.
131.  Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?
A.
B.
C.
D.
132.  What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6?
A.
B.
C.
D.
133.  What notation is expressed in zero compression for IPv6?
A.
B.
C.
D.
134.  What Unicast address scope operates within a network segment, and will not originate from, or be destined to, an interface that requires a router to direct traffic?
A.
B.
C.
D.
135.  What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally routable address that do not route outside the site?
A.
B.
C.
D.
136.  What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID protion of the address broken up into different areas allowing for hierarchical design and allocation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
137.  The computing part of the computer is the central processing unit,  also called the 
A.
B.
C.
D.
138.  What two main components make up the central processing unit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
139.  What is a type of memory that retains data after power is removed or lost?
A.
B.
C.
D.
140.  Which landline transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications?
A.
B.
C.
D.
141.  An optical communications system is comprised of a
A.
B.
C.
D.
142.  Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology?
A.
B.
C.
D.
143.  The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless technology is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
144.  Which of the following is not the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
145.  Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
146.  What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed, and flexibility of today's wireless networks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
147.  How many peripherals can Universal Serial Bus handle at once?
A.
B.
C.
D.
148.  How many devices can connect to a FireWire Bus?
A.
B.
C.
D.
149.  What do you apply across Liquid Crystal Display material to change the alignment and light polarizing property?
A.
B.
C.
D.
150.  What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
151.  What rule establishes the percent of data that should be local to a segment and the percentage of data that should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
152.  This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another.
A.
B.
C.
D.
153.  What is the method called when the entire frame is received and placed into the buffer, an error check is performed, and the frame is sent to the proper port for delivery?
A.
B.
C.
D.
154.  What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching?
A.
B.
C.
D.
155.  What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers operate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
156.  What do routing algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process of path determination?
A.
B.
C.
D.
157.  Which of these is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol?
A.
B.
C.
D.
158.  Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
159.  What encryption device may you rarely see due to its lower maximum data rate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
160.  What encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits?
A.
B.
C.
D.
161.  What  encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys?
A.
B.
C.
D.
162.  The classification of a fill device is 
A.
B.
C.
D.
163.  A modem is a device that modulates
A.
B.
C.
D.
164.  Analog modems are used over the voice band range of
A.
B.
C.
D.
165.  The main function of the Data Service Unit is to 
A.
B.
C.
D.
166.  Software is generally divided into
A.
B.
C.
D.
167.  Which one is not a category of the operating system's task categories?
A.
B.
C.
D.
168.  The path between the operating system and virtually all hardware not on the computer's motherboard goes through a special program called a
A.
B.
C.
D.
169.  The core operating-system function is the management of the computer system which resides with the
A.
B.
C.
D.
170.  Applications are software programs designed to perform what type of tasks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
171.  What are two anti-virus programs that the Air Force uses?
A.
B.
C.
D.
172.  Windows operating system traditionally function in one two network models. Which model does not operate using centralized user accounts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
173.  Which system provides support for features such as Windows System Resources Manager and Metadirectory Services?
A.
B.
C.
D.
174.  One of the Windows Server Editions operating systems provides support for high-end, high traffic applications servers.  Which Operaing System is it?
A.
B.
C.
D.
175.  What was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
176.  What is the name of the standard all-purpose shell most commonly used?
A.
B.
C.
D.
177.  What directory is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the "a" partition?
A.
B.
C.
D.
178.  Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?
A.
B.
C.
D.
179.  This component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network 
A.
B.
C.
D.
180.  This characteristic or the Global Information Grid ensures seamless transmission of information between different services branches
A.
B.
C.
D.
181.  Who bears the responsibility for maintenance or of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
182.  Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be a person in the deployed Area of Resonsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from combat?
A.
B.
C.
D.
183.  What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?
A.
B.
C.
D.
184.  How are non-internet protocols sent across the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
185.  Which is an internet protocol encyption device that can be directly connected to Red local area network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
186.  What provides conduit for Joint WorldWide Intelligence Communication System data transmission from one location to another?
A.
B.
C.
D.
187.  What concerns slowed the military's adoption of wireless network techniology? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
188.  What is the first step in merging voice, data and video network into one integrated network within the Air Force?
A.
B.
C.
D.
189.  Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what other Combat Information transport Systems initiative will help increase network security?
A.
B.
C.
D.
190.  Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition, and signle systems management of the Defense Switched Network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
191.  How is responsiveness provide in the Defense Switched Network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
192.  What type of Defense Switched Network  precedence call cannot be preempted?
A.
B.
C.
D.
193.  What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
194.  While you are using the Red Switch, what feature lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security?
A.
B.