3dx5x 1&2

224 Questions  I  By CommV1
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Geometry Quizzes & Trivia
This quiz has both volumes unit review questions in the 3DX5X.

  
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1.  What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances between cities, states, countries, or around the world?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.  Software is generally divided into
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.  Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.  Which system capitalizes on the popular commercial direct broadcast satellite technology to provide critical informtaion to the nation's warfighters?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.  Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical and physical network changes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.  Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.  What Occupational Risk Management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resource to the lowest acceptable risk?
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.  Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.  The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless technology is called
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.  What Unicast address scope operates within a network segment, and will not originate from, or be destined to, an interface that requires a router to direct traffic?
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.  How is responsiveness provide in the Defense Switched Network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.  What layer of the Open System Interconnect model defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for links between communicating network systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.  Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnel (officer and Enlisted)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.  Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.  What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6?
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.  Which is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol server and proxies?
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.  Records that are considered to be in draft format
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.  What directory is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the "a" partition?
A.
B.
C.
D.
19.  What two main components make up the central processing unit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.  Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.  The Air Force Information  Assurance Program is detailed in 
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.  Which system was originally designed as a specialized system for Army, Navy, and Air Force technicians to use as a tool to troubleshoot network problems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
23.  While you are using the Red Switch, what feature lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security?
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.  Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition, and signle systems management of the Defense Switched Network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.  Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement?
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.  What determines the cutoff for active records?
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.  What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.  From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating?
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.  Which system primarily deals with logistics planning data, such as transportation, personnel, and material requirements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.  At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.  Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment?"
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.  Which Air Force specific system uses the Global Information Grid (GIG) backbone for inter-site communications and was designed to provide an automated and integrated planning and execution capability to the Combat Air Force (CAF) and Joint/Combined Forces?
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.  What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back?
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.  Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.  Which center has overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.  Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?
A.
B.
C.
D.
37.  Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.  What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging?
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.  How many devices can connect to a FireWire Bus?
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.  A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.  In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.  Which system is a USAF program supporting Global, Defense Communication System (DCS) HF Entry, Mystic Star, and System of Inter- American Telecommunications for the Air Force (SITFAA) mission?
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.  Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.  What is the first step in merging voice, data and video network into one integrated network within the Air Force?
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.  Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.  Which segment of the Defense Information System Network (DISN) may be a person in the deployed Area of Resonsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from combat?
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.  What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router?
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.  Which Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires equipment modules to be expandable and packaged for deployment in standard 19-inch rack mounted transit cases, vehicle, or shelterized configurations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.  What type of network makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet?
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.  What is the purpose of the standardization tactical entry point terminal?
A.
B.
C.
D.
51.  Which component of Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of a deployed communication network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
52.  The Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard
A.
B.
C.
D.
53.  What is the default classful subnet mask on class B networks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
54.  The proper way we destroy records to prevent compromise is by
A.
B.
C.
D.
55.  What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers operate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
56.  Which program was created in response to the FY-97-03 Defense Planning Guidance that directed a "program to migrate to a multi-intelligence, common, interoperable, open systems ground systems architecture?
A.
B.
C.
D.
57.  What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data is transmitted, throughout the network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
58.  Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA), Humanitarian Relief Operations (HUMRO), Non-Combatant Evacuation Operations (NEO) and support to International Law Enforcement are all examples of
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.  What topology consists of devices connected to a common, shared cable?
A.
B.
C.
D.
60.  What provides conduit for Joint WorldWide Intelligence Communication System data transmission from one location to another?
A.
B.
C.
D.
61.  When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?
A.
B.
C.
D.
62.  Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
63.  Which command and control structure is a primary network used to transmit the Emergency Action Message generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?
A.
B.
C.
D.
64.  AFPD-10-4, Operations Planning: Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) aligns what requirements with a matching force generation model?
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.  Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication?
A.
B.
C.
D.
66.  What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.  This characteristic or the Global Information Grid ensures seamless transmission of information between different services branches
A.
B.
C.
D.
68.  A logical group of record is called a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
69.  Which of the following is not the four security threats to Wireless Local Area Network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
70.  Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
71.  Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
72.  Which document is used for accountability purposes when retirement records are identified and prepared for federal records center, staging areas or to transfer records to another organization?
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.  Which publication type are informational publications which are "how to" documents?
A.
B.
C.
D.
74.  Which of the following is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology?
A.
B.
C.
D.
75.  Which system asset can be tasked to provide liaison, control tower, Radar Approach Control (RAPCON), precision landing, and mobile Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) services as a standalone unit or in any combination?
A.
B.
C.
D.
76.  Which system of interconnected computer networks is used by the United States Department of Defense and the United States Department of State?
A.
B.
C.
D.
77.  As of September 2004, how many total flight hours have coalition unmanned aircrafts flown to support Operation ENDURING FREEDOM and Operation IRAQI FREEDOM?
A.
B.
C.
D.
78.  Which system provides the ability to rapidly detect and identify airborne targets with minimal or no support?
A.
B.
C.
D.
79.  Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "confidential" information?
A.
B.
C.
D.
80.  Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) standard document would you reference safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems?"
A.
B.
C.
D.
81.  One of the Windows Server Editions operating systems provides support for high-end, high traffic applications servers.  Which Operaing System is it?
A.
B.
C.
D.
82.  What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?
A.
B.
C.
D.
83.  What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID protion of the address broken up into different areas allowing for hierarchical design and allocation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
84.  Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
85.  What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
86.  Which of the following security programs is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities?
A.
B.
C.
D.
87.  How many peripherals can Universal Serial Bus handle at once?
A.
B.
C.
D.
88.  What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
89.  Which system provides support for features such as Windows System Resources Manager and Metadirectory Services?
A.
B.
C.
D.
90.  Which system provides high-quality voice/data HF and Ultra-High Frequency (UHF) satellite communications to president, vice president, cabinet members, and other senior government and military officials while aboard Special Airlift Mission (SAM) aircraft?
A.
B.
C.
D.
91.  The 85th Engineering and Installation Squadron (EIS) is assigned to the
A.
B.
C.
D.
92.  Which form is used as a visitor register long to record visitors into restricted areas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
93.  Which system provides the capability to identify, sequence, and separate aircraft; provide final approach guidance, and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather?
A.
B.
C.
D.
94.  Which one is not a category of the operating system's task categories?
A.
B.
C.
D.
95.  This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another.
A.
B.
C.
D.
96.  Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulated actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?
A.
B.
C.
D.
97.  When a risk of a network system  attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected?
A.
B.
C.
D.
98.  A modem is a device that modulates
A.
B.
C.
D.
99.  How are non-internet protocols sent across the Secret Internet Protocol Router Network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
100.  Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
101.  What do routing algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process of path determination?
A.
B.
C.
D.
102.  Guidance for posting information on Air Force web sites is outlined in 
A.
B.
C.
D.
103.  Which of these is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol?
A.
B.
C.
D.
104.  Which major systems employs the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES), Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS), Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES), and Common Operational Picture (COP) systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
105.  What is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium?
A.
B.
C.
D.
106.  What Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the IP address for a device that knows its own MAC address?
A.
B.
C.
D.
107.  Which system can be deployed in either the Control Reporting Center or Control Reporting Element configurations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
108.  Using a range of 1-26 is the first octet of an IPv4 address, what class does it belong to?
A.
B.
C.
D.
109.  What rule establishes the percent of data that should be local to a segment and the percentage of data that should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
110.  What function provides the Department of Defense (DOD) with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people via Personal Computer (PC), Personal Digital Assistants (PDA's), land and cell phones, pagers, Blackberry devices, and/or giant voice systems in real-time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
111.  Offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives by
A.
B.
C.
D.
112.  Which is an internet protocol encyption device that can be directly connected to Red local area network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
113.  What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?
A.
B.
C.
D.
114.  Who is the finally authority to waive Career Field Education Training Plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) Career Development Course (CDC)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
115.  Which command and control structure is a priority component of the Global Information Grid (GIG) designed to support the President, SECDEF, and the JCS in the exercise of their responsibilities?
A.
B.
C.
D.
116.  What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?
A.
B.
C.
D.
117.  Besides limiting connections to the Global Information Grid, what other Combat Information transport Systems initiative will help increase network security?
A.
B.
C.
D.
118.  Which Occupational Risk Management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?
A.
B.
C.
D.
119.  What is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number?
A.
B.
C.
D.
120.  The main function of the Data Service Unit is to 
A.
B.
C.
D.
121.  Discloser of information that would result in the loss, misuse, modification or unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security would best be described as 
A.
B.
C.
D.
122.  What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services?
A.
B.
C.
D.
123.  Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly?
A.
B.
C.
D.
124.  What document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?
A.
B.
C.
D.
125.  Analog modems are used over the voice band range of
A.
B.
C.
D.
126.  What is the method called when the entire frame is received and placed into the buffer, an error check is performed, and the frame is sent to the proper port for delivery?
A.
B.
C.
D.
127.  What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material?
A.
B.
C.
D.
128.  What method borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet?
A.
B.
C.
D.
129.  Which Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires size, weight, power requirements, and equipment set-up times are kept to an absolute minimum to support the transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
130.  Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting accesss to classified information can be found in
A.
B.
C.
D.
131.  Which pathnames begin at the current working directory?
A.
B.
C.
D.
132.  Which function or organization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?
A.
B.
C.
D.
133.  What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching?
A.
B.
C.
D.
134.  A remotely piloted or self-piloted aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment, or other payloads is called a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
135.  In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?
A.
B.
C.
D.
136.  What was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems?
A.
B.
C.
D.
137.  What Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?
A.
B.
C.
D.
138.  What places Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) forces in a "ready to deploy" state and supports global requirements, home station requirements or support to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
139.  At what Open System Interconnect layer do network switches and bridges operate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
140.  This component of the Global Information Grid consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network 
A.
B.
C.
D.
141.  What Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet Protocol network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known IP address for a destination device to a Media Access Control address?
A.
B.
C.
D.
142.  Applications are software programs designed to perform what type of tasks?
A.
B.
C.
D.
143.  Who bears the responsibility for maintenance or of the sustaining base portion of the Defense Information System Network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
144.  What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
145.  The computing part of the computer is the central processing unit,  also called the 
A.
B.
C.
D.
146.  What encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits?
A.
B.
C.
D.
147.  Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
148.  What is a type of memory that retains data after power is removed or lost?
A.
B.
C.
D.
149.  Which document would you refernce for guidance on "Web management and Internet use?"
A.
B.
C.
D.
150.  Which organization is responsible for Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) sourcing of individual augmentees, Joint Manning Document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365-day or greater requirements?
A.
B.
C.
D.
151.  What Open System Interconnect layer is closed to the end user?
A.
B.
C.
D.
152.  Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
153.  What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally routable address that do not route outside the site?
A.
B.
C.
D.
154.  Who is responsible for creating unique passwords for the office of primary responsibility (OPR) records custodian?
A.
B.
C.
D.
155.  The core operating-system function is the management of the computer system which resides with the
A.
B.
C.
D.
156.  The Global Positioning System program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within how many seconds of the universal time code?
A.
B.
C.
D.
157.  What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?
A.
B.
C.
D.
158.  Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
A.
B.
C.
D.
159.  Which Occupation Risk Management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capablility?
A.
B.
C.
D.
160.  What system provides connectivity between the US and allied forces for critical missions and enhances worldwide readiness, mobility, responsiveness, and operations?
A.
B.
C.
D.
161.  Which system is employed at more than 600 sites across the Global Information Grid (GIG) and interconnected through the SIPRNET?
A.
B.
C.
D.
162.  What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
163.  Which system is a radar tracker and correlator software program that is hosted on a powerful server based computer system, which takes inputs from long and short range radars and displays it all on a scope (computer monitor)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
164.  What encryption device may you rarely see due to its lower maximum data rate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
165.  The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers divide the Open System Interconnect Data Link Layers into what two sublayers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
166.  How many bits are in IPv4 address?
A.
B.
C.
D.
167.  For which exception will federal records centers accept records having less than 3 years of retention?
A.
B.
C.
D.
168.  At what Open System Interconnect layer do routers operate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
169.  Which organization assigns communication security incident report case numbers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
170.  Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?
A.
B.
C.
D.
171.  Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer network?
A.
B.
C.
D.
172.  What do you apply across Liquid Crystal Display material to change the alignment and light polarizing property?
A.
B.
C.
D.
173.  Which document is not considered an official government record?
A.
B.
C.
D.
174.  Which command and control structure has network node whose survivability is achieved using nuclear hardened equipment, redundant circuits, and alternate communications paths?
A.
B.
C.
D.
175.  Which system provides a solution to a decrease in manpower and increase in requirements, at the same time, taking advantage of new technological developments to deliver superior connectivity, flexibility, speed, reliability, and joint interoperability?
A.
B.
C.
D.
176.  What concerns slowed the military's adoption of wireless network techniology? 
A.
B.
C.
D.
177.  Marking the records for filing is considered which step of file management?
A.
B.
C.
D.
178.  What is the main goal of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
179.  Which function is a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications by way of line-of-sight (LOS), satellite, or hard-wired resources?
A.
B.
C.
D.
180.  A comprehensive term that specifies the destruction, salvage, and donation of records, or the transfer to a staging area or records center; and the transfer of records from one organization to another is called a
A.
B.
C.
D.
181.  Windows operating system traditionally function in one two network models. Which model does not operate using centralized user accounts?
A.
B.
C.
D.
182.  Which system focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the warfighter in near real-time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
183.  An optical communications system is comprised of a
A.
B.
C.
D.
184.  Which system is a service that broadcast via communication payloads on military satellites (Ka band) and commercial satellites (Ku Band)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
185.  What notation is expressed in zero compression for IPv6?
A.
B.
C.
D.
186.  What IPv4 class address is used for networks with 250 nodes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
187.  Which network protocol has the Department of Defense chosen as its standard to govern the flow of information?
A.
B.
C.
D.
188.  The classification of a fill device is 
A.
B.
C.
D.
189.  Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?
A.