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Nursing Practice Iv Care Of Clients Physiologic And Psychosocial Alterations

100 Questions
Nursing Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Randy has undergone kidney transplant, what assessment would prompt Nurse Katrina to suspect organ rejection?
    • A. 

      Sudden weight loss

    • B. 

      Polyuria

    • C. 

      Hypertension

    • D. 

      Shock

  • 2. 
    The immediate objective of nursing care for an overweight, mildly hypertensive male client with ureteral colic and hematuria is to decrease:
    • A. 

      Pain

    • B. 

      Weight

    • C. 

      Hematuria

    • D. 

      Hypertension

  • 3. 
    Matilda, with hyperthyroidism is to receive Lugol’s iodine solution before a subtotal thyroidectomy is performed. The nurse is aware that this medication is given to:
    • A. 

      Decrease the total basal metabolic rate.

    • B. 

      Maintain the function of the parathyroid glands.

    • C. 

      Block the formation of thyroxine by the thyroid gland.

    • D. 

      Decrease the size and vascularity of the thyroid gland.

  • 4. 
     Ricardo, was diagnosed with type I diabetes. The nurse is aware that acute hypoglycemia also can develop in the client who is diagnosed with:
    • A. 

      Liver disease

    • B. 

      Hypertension

    • C. 

      Type 2 diabetes

    • D. 

      Hyperthyroidism

  • 5. 
    Tracy is receiving combination chemotherapy for treatment of metastatic carcinoma. Nurse Ruby should monitor the client for the systemic side effect of:
    • A. 

      Ascites

    • B. 

      Nystagmus

    • C. 

      Leukopenia

    • D. 

      Polycythemia

  • 6. 
    Norma, with recent colostomy expresses concern about the inability to control the passage of gas. Nurse Oliver should suggest that the client plan to:
    • A. 

      Eliminate foods high in cellulose.

    • B. 

      Decrease fluid intake at meal times.

    • C. 

      Avoid foods that in the past caused flatus.

    • D. 

      Adhere to a bland diet prior to social events.

  • 7. 
    Nurse Ron begins to teach a male client how to perform colostomy irrigations. The nurse would evaluate that the instructions were understood when the client states, “I should:
    • A. 

      Lie on my left side while instilling the irrigating solution.”

    • B. 

      Keep the irrigating container less than 18 inches above the stoma.”

    • C. 

      Instill a minimum of 1200 ml of irrigating solution to stimulate evacuation of the bowel.”

    • D. 

      Insert the irrigating catheter deeper into the stoma if cramping occurs during the procedure.”

  • 8. 
    Patrick is in the oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis and is experiencing fluid and electrolyte imbalances. The client is somewhat confused and complains of nausea and muscle weakness. As part of the prescribed therapy to correct this electrolyte imbalance, the nurse would expect to:
    • A. 

      Administer Kayexalate

    • B. 

      Restrict foods high in protein

    • C. 

      Increase oral intake of cheese and milk.

    • D. 

      Administer large amounts of normal saline via I.V.

  • 9. 
    Mario has burn injury. After Forty48 hours, the physician orders for Mario 2 liters of IV fluid to be administered q12 h. The drop factor of the tubing is 10 gtt/ml. The nurse should set the flow to provide:
    • A. 

      18 gtt/min

    • B. 

      28 gtt/min

    • C. 

      32 gtt/min

    • D. 

      36 gtt/min

  • 10. 
    Terence suffered form burn injury. Using the rule of nines, which has the largest percent of burns?
    • A. 

      Face and neck

    • B. 

      Right upper arm and penis

    • C. 

      Right thigh and penis

    • D. 

      Upper trunk

  • 11. 
    Herbert, a 45 year old construction engineer is brought to the hospital unconscious after falling from a 2-story building. When assessing the client, the nurse would be most concerned if the assessment revealed:
    • A. 

      Reactive pupils

    • B. 

      A depressed fontanel

    • C. 

      Bleeding from ears

    • D. 

      An elevated temperature

  • 12. 
    Nurse Sherry is teaching male client regarding his permanent artificial pacemaker. Which information given by the nurse shows her knowledge deficit about the artificial cardiac pacemaker?
    • A. 

      Take the pulse rate once a day, in the morning upon awakening

    • B. 

      May be allowed to use electrical appliances

    • C. 

      Have regular follow up care

    • D. 

      May engage in contact sports

  • 13. 
    The nurse is ware that the most relevant knowledge about oxygen administration to a male client with COPD is
    • A. 

      Oxygen at 1-2L/min is given to maintain the hypoxic stimulus for breathing.

    • B. 

      Hypoxia stimulates the central chemoreceptors in the medulla that makes the client breath.

    • C. 

      Oxygen is administered best using a non-rebreathing mask

    • D. 

      Blood gases are monitored using a pulse oximeter.

  • 14. 
    Tonny has undergoes a left thoracotomy and a partial pneumonectomy. Chest tubes are inserted, and one-bottle water-seal drainage is instituted in the operating room. In the postanesthesia care unit Tonny is placed in Fowler's position on either his right side or on his back. The nurse is aware that this position:
    • A. 

      Reduce incisional pain.

    • B. 

      Facilitate ventilation of the left lung.

    • C. 

      Equalize pressure in the pleural space.

    • D. 

      Increase venous return

  • 15. 
    Kristine is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. When teaching Kristine what to expect afterward, the nurse's highest priority of information would be:
    • A. 

      Food and fluids will be withheld for at least 2 hours.

    • B. 

      Warm saline gargles will be done q 2h.

    • C. 

      Coughing and deep-breathing exercises will be done q2h.

    • D. 

      Only ice chips and cold liquids will be allowed initially.

  • 16. 
    Nurse Tristan is caring for a male client in acute renal failure. The nurse should expect hypertonic glucose, insulin infusions, and sodium bicarbonate to be used to treat:
    • A. 

      Hypernatremia.

    • B. 

      Hypokalemia.

    • C. 

      Hyperkalemia.

    • D. 

      Hypercalcemia.

  • 17. 
    Ms. X has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is appropriate to tell this client?
    • A. 

      This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.

    • B. 

      The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days.

    • C. 

      The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse.

    • D. 

      The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can't be transmitted during oral sex.

  • 18. 
    Maritess was recently diagnosed with a genitourinary problem and is being examined in the emergency department. When palpating the her kidneys, the nurse should keep which anatomical fact in mind?
    • A. 

      The left kidney usually is slightly higher than the right one.

    • B. 

      The kidneys are situated just above the adrenal glands.

    • C. 

      The average kidney is approximately 5 cm (2") long and 2 to 3 cm (¾" to 1-1/8") wide.

    • D. 

      The kidneys lie between the 10th and 12th thoracic vertebrae.

  • 19. 
    • A. 

      Increased pH with decreased hydrogen ions.

    • B. 

      Increased serum levels of potassium, magnesium, and calcium.

    • C. 

      Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 100 mg/dl and serum creatinine 6.5 mg/ dl.

    • D. 

      Uric acid analysis 3.5 mg/dl and phenolsulfonphthalein (PSP) excretion 75%.

  • 20. 
    Katrina has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting that she read her chart while the nurse was out of the room, Katrina asks what dysplasia means. Which definition should the nurse provide?
    • A. 

      Presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that don't resemble cells of the tissues of their origin.

    • B. 

      Increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement in a tissue or an organ.

    • C. 

      Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by another in tissues where the second type normally isn't found.

    • D. 

      Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells.

  • 21. 
    During a routine checkup, Nurse Mariane assesses a male client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for signs and symptoms of cancer. What is the most common AIDS-related cancer?
    • A. 

      Squamous cell carcinoma

    • B. 

      Multiple myeloma

    • C. 

      Leukemia

    • D. 

      Kaposi's sarcoma

  • 22. 
    Ricardo is scheduled for a prostatectomy, and the anesthesiologist plans to use a spinal (subarachnoid) block during surgery. In the operating room, the nurse positions the client according to the anesthesiologist's instructions. Why does the client require special positioning for this type of anesthesia?
    • A. 

      To prevent confusion

    • B. 

      To prevent seizures

    • C. 

      To prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage

    • D. 

      To prevent cardiac arrhythmias

  • 23. 
    A male client had a nephrectomy 2 days ago and is now complaining of abdominal pressure and nausea. The first nursing action should be to:
    • A. 

      Auscultate bowel sounds.

    • B. 

      Palpate the abdomen.

    • C. 

      Change the client's position.

    • D. 

      Insert a rectal tube.

  • 24. 
    Wilfredo with a recent history of rectal bleeding is being prepared for a colonoscopy. How should the nurse Patricia position the client for this test initially?
    • A. 

      Lying on the right side with legs straight

    • B. 

      Lying on the left side with knees bent

    • C. 

      Prone with the torso elevated

    • D. 

      Bent over with hands touching the floor

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      Blood supply to the stoma has been interrupted.

    • B. 

      This is a normal finding 1 day after surgery.

    • C. 

      The ostomy bag should be adjusted.

    • D. 

      An intestinal obstruction has occurred.

  • 26. 
    Anthony suffers burns on the legs, which nursing intervention helps prevent contractures?
    • A. 

      Applying knee splints

    • B. 

      Elevating the foot of the bed

    • C. 

      Hyperextending the client's palms

    • D. 

      Performing shoulder range-of-motion exercises

  • 27. 
    Nurse Ron is assessing a client admitted with second- and third-degree burns on the face, arms, and chest. Which finding indicates a potential problem?
    • A. 

      Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) value of 80 mm Hg.

    • B. 

      Urine output of 20 ml/hour.

    • C. 

      White pulmonary secretions.

    • D. 

      Rectal temperature of 100.6° F (38° C).

  • 28. 
    • A. 

      Turn him frequently.

    • B. 

      Perform passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises.

    • C. 

      Reduce the client's fluid intake.

    • D. 

      Encourage the client to use a footboard.

  • 29. 
    Nurse Maria plans to administer dexamethasone cream to a female client who has dermatitis over the anterior chest. How should the nurse apply this topical agent?
    • A. 

      With a circular motion, to enhance absorption.

    • B. 

      With an upward motion, to increase blood supply to the affected area

    • C. 

      In long, even, outward, and downward strokes in the direction of hair growth

    • D. 

      In long, even, outward, and upward strokes in the direction opposite hair growth

  • 30. 
    • A. 

      Beta -adrenergic blockers

    • B. 

      Calcium channel blocker

    • C. 

      Narcotics

    • D. 

      Nitrates

  • 31. 
    A male client has jugular distention. On what position should the nurse place the head of the bed to obtain the most accurate reading of jugular vein distention?
    • A. 

      High Fowler’s

    • B. 

      Raised 10 degrees

    • C. 

      Raised 30 degrees

    • D. 

      Supine position

  • 32. 
    The nurse is aware that one of the following classes of medications maximizes cardiac performance in clients with heart failure by increasing ventricular contractility?
    • A. 

      Beta-adrenergic blockers

    • B. 

      Calcium channel blocker

    • C. 

      Diuretics

    • D. 

      Inotropic agents

  • 33. 
    A male client has a reduced serum high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level and an elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level. Which of the following dietary modifications is not appropriate for this client?
    • A. 

      Fiber intake of 25 to 30 g daily

    • B. 

      Less than 30% of calories form fat

    • C. 

      Cholesterol intake of less than 300 mg daily

    • D. 

      Less than 10% of calories from saturated fat

  • 34. 
    A 37-year-old male client was admitted to the coronary care unit (CCU) 2 days ago with an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following actions would breach the client confidentiality?
    • A. 

      The CCU nurse gives a verbal report to the nurse on the telemetry unit before transferring the client to that unit

    • B. 

      The CCU nurse notifies the on-call physician about a change in the client’s condition

    • C. 

      The emergency department nurse calls up the latest electrocardiogram results to check the client’s progress.

    • D. 

      At the client’s request, the CCU nurse updates the client’s wife on his condition

  • 35. 
    • A. 

      Start an L.V. line and administer amiodarone (Cardarone), 300 mg L.V. over 10 minutes.

    • B. 

      Check endotracheal tube placement.

    • C. 

      Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

    • D. 

      Administer atropine, 1 mg L.V.

  • 36. 
    After cardiac surgery, a client’s blood pressure measures 126/80 mm Hg. Nurse Katrina determines that mean arterial pressure (MAP) is which of the following?
    • A. 

      46 mm Hg

    • B. 

      80 mm Hg

    • C. 

      95 mm Hg

    • D. 

      90 mm Hg

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      Cardiac monitor, oxygen, creatine kinase and lactate dehydrogenase levels

    • B. 

      Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, fibrinogen and fibrin split product values.

    • C. 

      Electrocardiogram, complete blood count, testing for occult blood, comprehensive serum metabolic panel.

    • D. 

      Electroencephalogram, alkaline phosphatase and aspartate aminotransferase levels, basic serum metabolic panel

  • 38. 
    Macario had coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery 3 days ago. Which of the following conditions is suspected by the nurse when a decrease in platelet count from 230,000 ul to 5,000 ul is noted?
    • A. 

      Pancytopenia

    • B. 

      Idiopathic thrombocytopemic purpura (ITP)

    • C. 

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

    • D. 

      Heparin-associated thrombosis and thrombocytopenia (HATT)

  • 39. 
    Which of the following drugs would be ordered by the physician to improve the platelet count in a male client with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?
    • A. 

      Acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)

    • B. 

      Corticosteroids

    • C. 

      Methotrezate

    • D. 

      Vitamin K

  • 40. 
    A female client is scheduled to receive a heart valve replacement with a porcine valve. Which of the following types of transplant is this?
    • A. 

      Allogeneic

    • B. 

      Autologous

    • C. 

      Syngeneic

    • D. 

      Xenogeneic

  • 41. 
    Marco falls off his bicycle and injuries his ankle. Which of the following actions shows the initial response to the injury in the extrinsic pathway?
    • A. 

      Release of Calcium

    • B. 

      Release of tissue thromboplastin

    • C. 

      Conversion of factors XII to factor XIIa

    • D. 

      Conversion of factor VIII to factor VIIIa

  • 42. 
    Instructions for a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) would include information about which of the following blood dyscrasias?
    • A. 

      Dressler’s syndrome

    • B. 

      Polycythemia

    • C. 

      Essential thrombocytopenia

    • D. 

      Von Willebrand’s disease

  • 43. 
    The nurse is aware that the following symptoms is most commonly an early indication of stage 1 Hodgkin’s disease?
    • A. 

      Pericarditis

    • B. 

      Night sweat

    • C. 

      Splenomegaly

    • D. 

      Persistent hypothermia

  • 44. 
    Francis with leukemia has neutropenia. Which of the following functions must frequently assessed?
    • A. 

      Blood pressure

    • B. 

      Bowel sounds

    • C. 

      Heart sounds

    • D. 

      Breath sounds

  • 45. 
    The nurse knows that neurologic complications of multiple myeloma (MM) usually involve which of the following body system?
    • A. 

      Brain

    • B. 

      Muscle spasm

    • C. 

      Renal dysfunction

    • D. 

      Myocardial irritability

  • 46. 
    Nurse Patricia is aware that the average length of time from human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection to the development of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
    • A. 

      Less than 5 years

    • B. 

      5 to 7 years

    • C. 

      10 years

    • D. 

      More than 10 years

  • 47. 
    An 18-year-old male client admitted with heat stroke begins to show signs of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following laboratory findings is most consistent with DIC?
    • A. 

      Low platelet count

    • B. 

      Elevated fibrinogen levels

    • C. 

      Low levels of fibrin degradation products

    • D. 

      Reduced prothrombin time

  • 48. 
    Mario comes to the clinic complaining of fever, drenching night sweats, and unexplained weight loss over the past 3 months. Physical examination reveals a single enlarged supraclavicular lymph node. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
    • A. 

      Influenza

    • B. 

      Sickle cell anemia

    • C. 

      Leukemia

    • D. 

      Hodgkin’s disease

  • 49. 
    A male client with a gunshot wound requires an emergency blood transfusion. His blood type is AB negative. Which blood type would be the safest for him to receive?
    • A. 

      AB Rh-positive

    • B. 

      A Rh-positive

    • C. 

      A Rh-negative

    • D. 

      O Rh-positive

  • 50. 
    Situation: Stacy is diagnosed with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) and beginning chemotherapy.Stacy is discharged from the hospital following her chemotherapy treatments. Which statement of Stacy’s mother indicated that she understands when she will contact the physician?
    • A. 

      “I should contact the physician if Stacy has difficulty in sleeping”.

    • B. 

      “I will call my doctor if Stacy has persistent vomiting and diarrhea”.

    • C. 

      “My physician should be called if Stacy is irritable and unhappy”.

    • D. 

      “Should Stacy have continued hair loss, I need to call the doctor”.

  • 51. 
    Situation: Stacy is diagnosed with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) and beginning chemotherapy.Stacy’s mother states to the nurse that it is hard to see Stacy with no hair. The best response for the nurse is:
    • A. 

      “Stacy looks very nice wearing a hat”.

    • B. 

      “You should not worry about her hair, just be glad that she is alive”.

    • C. 

      “Yes it is upsetting. But try to cover up your feelings when you are with her or else she may be upset”.

    • D. 

      “This is only temporary; Stacy will re-grow new hair in 3-6 months, but may be different in texture”.

  • 52. 
    Situation: Stacy is diagnosed with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) and beginning chemotherapy.Stacy has beginning stomatitis. To promote oral hygiene and comfort, the nurse in-charge should:
    • A. 

      Provide frequent mouthwash with normal saline.

    • B. 

      Apply viscous Lidocaine to oral ulcers as needed.

    • C. 

      Use lemon glycerine swabs every 2 hours.

    • D. 

      Rinse mouth with Hydrogen Peroxide.

  • 53. 
    Situation: Stacy is diagnosed with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) and beginning chemotherapy.During the administration of chemotherapy agents, Nurse Oliver observed that the IV site is red and swollen, when the IV is touched Stacy shouts in pain. The first nursing action to take is:
    • A. 

      Notify the physician

    • B. 

      Flush the IV line with saline solution

    • C. 

      Immediately discontinue the infusion

    • D. 

      Apply an ice pack to the site, followed by warm compress.

  • 54. 
    The term “blue bloater” refers to a male client which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

    • B. 

      Asthma

    • C. 

      Chronic obstructive bronchitis

    • D. 

      Emphysema

  • 55. 
    The term “pink puffer” refers to the female client with which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

    • B. 

      Asthma

    • C. 

      Chronic obstructive bronchitis

    • D. 

      Emphysema

  • 56. 
    Jose is in danger of respiratory arrest following the administration of a narcotic analgesic. An arterial blood gas value is obtained. Nurse Oliver would expect the paco2 to be which of the following values?
    • A. 

      15 mm Hg

    • B. 

      30 mm Hg

    • C. 

      40 mm Hg

    • D. 

      80 mm Hg

  • 57. 
      Timothy’s arterial blood gas (ABG) results are as follows; pH 7.16; Paco2 80 mm Hg; Pao2 46 mm Hg; HCO3- 24mEq/L; Sao2 81%. This ABG result represents which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      Metabolic acidosis

    • B. 

      Metabolic alkalosis

    • C. 

      Respiratory acidosis

    • D. 

      Respiratory alkalosis

  • 58. 
      Norma has started a new drug for hypertension. Thirty minutes after she takes the drug, she develops chest tightness and becomes short of breath and tachypneic. She has a decreased level of consciousness. These signs indicate which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      Asthma attack

    • B. 

      Pulmonary embolism

    • C. 

      Respiratory failure

    • D. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

  • 59. 
    Situation: Mr. Gonzales was admitted to the hospital with ascites and jaundice. To rule out cirrhosis of the liver:Which laboratory test indicates liver cirrhosis?
    • A. 

      Decreased red blood cell count

    • B. 

      Decreased serum acid phosphate level

    • C. 

      Elevated white blood cell count

    • D. 

      Elevated serum aminotransferase

  • 60. 
    Situation: Mr. Gonzales was admitted to the hospital with ascites and jaundice. To rule out cirrhosis of the liver:The biopsy of Mr. Gonzales confirms the diagnosis of cirrhosis. Mr. Gonzales is at increased risk for excessive bleeding primarily because of:
    • A. 

      Impaired clotting mechanism

    • B. 

      Varix formation

    • C. 

      Inadequate nutrition

    • D. 

      Trauma of invasive procedure

  • 61. 
    Situation: Mr. Gonzales was admitted to the hospital with ascites and jaundice. To rule out cirrhosis of the liver:Mr. Gonzales develops hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical manifestation is most common with this condition?
    • A. 

      Increased urine output

    • B. 

      Altered level of consciousness

    • C. 

      Decreased tendon reflex

    • D. 

      Hypotension

  • 62. 
    Situation: Mr. Gonzales was admitted to the hospital with ascites and jaundice. To rule out cirrhosis of the liver:When Mr. Gonzales regained consciousness, the physician orders 50 ml of Lactose p.o. every 2 hours. Mr. Gozales develops diarrhea. The nurse best action would be:
    • A. 

      “I’ll see if your physician is in the hospital”.

    • B. 

      “Maybe your reacting to the drug; I will withhold the next dose”.

    • C. 

      “I’ll lower the dosage as ordered so the drug causes only 2 to 4 stools a day”.

    • D. 

      “Frequently, bowel movements are needed to reduce sodium level”.

  • 63. 
    • A. 

      Lower back pain, increased blood pressure, decreased re blood cell (RBC) count, increased white blood (WBC) count.

    • B. 

      Severe lower back pain, decreased blood pressure, decreased RBC count, increased WBC count.

    • C. 

      Severe lower back pain, decreased blood pressure, decreased RBC count, decreased RBC count, decreased WBC count.

    • D. 

      Intermitted lower back pain, decreased blood pressure, decreased RBC count, increased WBC count.

  • 64. 
    • A. 

      Call for help.

    • B. 

      Obtain vital signs

    • C. 

      Ask the client to “lift up”

    • D. 

      Apply gloves and assess the groin site

  • 65. 
    Which of the following treatment is a suitable surgical intervention for a client with unstable angina?
    • A. 

      Cardiac catheterization

    • B. 

      Echocardiogram

    • C. 

      Nitroglycerin

    • D. 

      Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA)

  • 66. 
     The nurse is aware that the following terms used to describe reduced cardiac output and perfusion impairment due to ineffective pumping of the heart is:
    • A. 

      Anaphylactic shock

    • B. 

      Cardiogenic shock

    • C. 

      Distributive shock

    • D. 

      Myocardial infarction (MI)

  • 67. 
    A client with hypertension ask the nurse which factors can cause blood pressure to drop to normal levels?
    • A. 

      Kidneys’ excretion to sodium only.

    • B. 

      Kidneys’ retention of sodium and water

    • C. 

      Kidneys’ excretion of sodium and water

    • D. 

      Kidneys’ retention of sodium and excretion of water

  • 68. 
    Nurse Rose is aware that the statement that best explains why furosemide (Lasix) is administered to treat hypertension is:
    • A. 

      It dilates peripheral blood vessels.

    • B. 

      It decreases sympathetic cardioacceleration.

    • C. 

      It inhibits the angiotensin-coverting enzymes

    • D. 

      It inhibits reabsorption of sodium and water in the loop of Henle.

  • 69. 
    Nurse Nikki knows that laboratory results supports the diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is:
    • A. 

      Elavated serum complement level

    • B. 

      Thrombocytosis, elevated sedimentation rate

    • C. 

      Pancytopenia, elevated antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer

    • D. 

      Leukocysis, elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels

  • 70. 
    • A. 

      “Your son had a mild concussion, acetaminophen is strong enough.”

    • B. 

      “Aspirin is avoided because of the danger of Reye’s syndrome in children or young adults.”

    • C. 

      “Narcotics are avoided after a head injury because they may hide a worsening condition.”

    • D. 

      Stronger medications may lead to vomiting, which increases the intracarnial pressure (ICP).”

  • 71. 
    When evaluating an arterial blood gas from a male client with a subdural hematoma, the nurse notes the Paco2 is 30 mm Hg. Which of the following responses best describes the result?
    • A. 

      Appropriate; lowering carbon dioxide (CO2) reduces intracranial pressure (ICP)

    • B. 

      Emergent; the client is poorly oxygenated

    • C. 

      Normal

    • D. 

      Significant; the client has alveolar hypoventilation

  • 72. 
    When prioritizing care, which of the following clients should the nurse Olivia assess first?
    • A. 

      A 17-year-old clients 24-hours postappendectomy

    • B. 

      A 33-year-old client with a recent diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome

    • C. 

      A 50-year-old client 3 days postmyocardial infarction

    • D. 

      A 50-year-old client with diverticulitis

  • 73. 
    JP has been diagnosed with gout and wants to know why colchicine is used in the treatment of gout. Which of the following actions of colchicines explains why it’s effective for gout?
    • A. 

      Replaces estrogen

    • B. 

      Decreases infection

    • C. 

      Decreases inflammation

    • D. 

      Decreases bone demineralization

  • 74. 
    Norma asks for information about osteoarthritis. Which of the following statements about osteoarthritis is correct?
    • A. 

      Osteoarthritis is rarely debilitating

    • B. 

      Osteoarthritis is a rare form of arthritis

    • C. 

      Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis

    • D. 

      Osteoarthritis afflicts people over 60

  • 75. 
    Ruby is receiving thyroid replacement therapy develops the flu and forgets to take her thyroid replacement medicine. The nurse understands that skipping this medication will put the client at risk for developing which of the following lifethreatening complications?
    • A. 

      Exophthalmos

    • B. 

      Thyroid storm

    • C. 

      Myxedema coma

    • D. 

      Tibial myxedema

  • 76. 
    Nurse Sugar is assessing a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which observation should the nurse report to the physician immediately?
    • A. 

      Pitting edema of the legs

    • B. 

      An irregular apical pulse

    • C. 

      Dry mucous membranes

    • D. 

      Frequent urination

  • 77. 
    Cyrill with severe head trauma sustained in a car accident is admitted to the intensive care unit. Thirty-six hours later, the client's urine output suddenly rises above 200 ml/hour, leading the nurse to suspect diabetes insipidus. Which laboratory findings support the nurse's suspicion of diabetes insipidus?
    • A. 

      Above-normal urine and serum osmolality levels

    • B. 

      Below-normal urine and serum osmolality levels

    • C. 

      Above-normal urine osmolality level, below-normal serum osmolality level

    • D. 

      Below-normal urine osmolality level, above-normal serum osmolality level

  • 78. 
    • A. 

      "I can avoid getting sick by not becoming dehydrated and by paying attention to my need to urinate, drink, or eat more than usual."

    • B. 

      "If I experience trembling, weakness, and headache, I should drink a glass of soda that contains sugar."

    • C. 

      "I will have to monitor my blood glucose level closely and notify the physician if it's constantly elevated."

    • D. 

      "If I begin to feel especially hungry and thirsty, I'll eat a snack high in carbohydrates."

  • 79. 
    A 66-year-old client has been complaining of sleeping more, increased urination, anorexia, weakness, irritability, depression, and bone pain that interferes with her going outdoors. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse would suspect which of the following disorders?
    • A. 

      Diabetes mellitus

    • B. 

      Diabetes insipidus

    • C. 

      Hypoparathyroidism

    • D. 

      Hyperparathyroidism

  • 80. 
    Nurse Lourdes is teaching a client recovering from addisonian crisis about the need to take fludrocortisone acetate and hydrocortisone at home. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?
    • A. 

      "I'll take my hydrocortisone in the late afternoon, before dinner."

    • B. 

      "I'll take all of my hydrocortisone in the morning, right after I wake up."

    • C. 

      "I'll take two-thirds of the dose when I wake up and one-third in the late afternoon."

    • D. 

      "I'll take the entire dose at bedtime."

  • 81. 
    Which of the following laboratory test results would suggest to the nurse Len that a client has a corticotropin-secreting pituitary adenoma?
    • A. 

      High corticotropin and low cortisol levels

    • B. 

      Low corticotropin and high cortisol levels

    • C. 

      High corticotropin and high cortisol levels

    • D. 

      Low corticotropin and low cortisol levels

  • 82. 
    • A. 

      Testing for ketones in the urine

    • B. 

      Testing urine specific gravity

    • C. 

      Checking temperature every 4 hours

    • D. 

      Performing capillary glucose testing every 4 hours

  • 83. 
    Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which he receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Mariner should expect the dose's:
    • A. 

      Onset to be at 2 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.

    • B. 

      Onset to be at 2:15 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.

    • C. 

      Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m.

    • D. 

      Onset to be at 4 p.m. and its peak to be at 6 p.m.

  • 84. 
    The physician orders laboratory tests to confirm hyperthyroidism in a female client with classic signs and symptoms of this disorder. Which test result would confirm the diagnosis?
    • A. 

      No increase in the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level after 30 minutes during the TSH stimulation test

    • B. 

      A decreased TSH level

    • C. 

      An increase in the TSH level after 30 minutes during the TSH stimulation test

    • D. 

      Below-normal levels of serum triiodothyronine (T3) and serum thyroxine (T4) as detected by radioimmunoassay

  • 85. 
    • A. 

      "Inject insulin into healthy tissue with large blood vessels and nerves."

    • B. 

      "Rotate injection sites within the same anatomic region, not among different regions."

    • C. 

      "Administer insulin into areas of scar tissue or hypotrophy whenever possible."

    • D. 

      "Administer insulin into sites above muscles that you plan to exercise heavily later that day."

  • 86. 
    Nurse Sarah expects to note an elevated serum glucose level in a client with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). Which other laboratory finding should the nurse anticipate?
    • A. 

      Elevated serum acetone level

    • B. 

      Serum ketone bodies

    • C. 

      Serum alkalosis

    • D. 

      Below-normal serum potassium level

  • 87. 
    • A. 

      Restricting intake of oral fluids

    • B. 

      Placing extra blankets on the client's bed

    • C. 

      Limiting intake of high-carbohydrate foods

    • D. 

      Maintaining room temperature in the low-normal range

  • 88. 
    Patrick is treated in the emergency department for a Colles' fracture sustained during a fall. What is a Colles' fracture?
    • A. 

      Fracture of the distal radius

    • B. 

      Fracture of the olecranon

    • C. 

      Fracture of the humerus

    • D. 

      Fracture of the carpal scaphoid

  • 89. 
      Cleo is diagnosed with osteoporosis. Which electrolytes are involved in the development of this disorder?
    • A. 

      Calcium and sodium

    • B. 

      Calcium and phosphorous

    • C. 

      Phosphorous and potassium

    • D. 

      Potassium and sodium

  • 90. 
    Johnny a firefighter was involved in extinguishing a house fire and is being treated to smoke inhalation. He develops severe hypoxia 48 hours after the incident, requiring intubation and mechanical ventilation. He most likely has developed which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

    • B. 

      Atelectasis

    • C. 

      Bronchitis

    • D. 

      Pneumonia

  • 91. 
      A 67-year-old client develops acute shortness of breath and progressive hypoxia requiring right femur. The hypoxia was probably caused by which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      Asthma attack

    • B. 

      Atelectasis

    • C. 

      Bronchitis

    • D. 

      Fat embolism

  • 92. 
    A client with shortness of breath has decreased to absent breath sounds on the right side, from the apex to the base. Which of the following conditions would best explain this?
    • A. 

      Acute asthma

    • B. 

      Chronic bronchitis

    • C. 

      Pneumonia

    • D. 

      Spontaneous pneumothorax

  • 93. 
    A 62-year-old male client was in a motor vehicle accident as an unrestrained driver. He’s now in the emergency department complaining of difficulty of breathing and chest pain. On auscultation of his lung field, no breath sounds are present in the upper lobe. This client may have which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      Bronchitis

    • B. 

      Pneumonia

    • C. 

      Pneumothorax

    • D. 

      Tuberculosis (TB)

  • 94. 
    If a client requires a pneumonectomy, what fills the area of the thoracic cavity?
    • A. 

      The space remains filled with air only

    • B. 

      The surgeon fills the space with a gel

    • C. 

      Serous fluids fills the space and consolidates the region

    • D. 

      The tissue from the other lung grows over to the other side

  • 95. 
    Hemoptysis may be present in the client with a pulmonary embolism because of which of the following reasons?
    • A. 

      Alveolar damage in the infracted area

    • B. 

      Involvement of major blood vessels in the occluded area

    • C. 

      Loss of lung parenchyma

    • D. 

      Loss of lung tissue

  • 96. 
    Aldo with a massive pulmonary embolism will have an arterial blood gas analysis performed to determine the extent of hypoxia. The acid-base disorder that may be present is?
    • A. 

      Metabolic acidosis

    • B. 

      Metabolic alkalosis

    • C. 

      Respiratory acidosis

    • D. 

      Respiratory alkalosis

  • 97. 
    After a motor vehicle accident, Armand an 22-year-old client is admitted with a pneumothorax. The surgeon inserts a chest tube and attaches it to a chest drainage system. Bubbling soon appears in the water seal chamber. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the bubbling?
    • A. 

      Air leak

    • B. 

      Adequate suction

    • C. 

      Inadequate suction

    • D. 

      Kinked chest tube

  • 98. 
    • A. 

      18

    • B. 

      21

    • C. 

      35

    • D. 

      40

  • 99. 
    Mickey, a 6-year-old child with a congenital heart disorder is admitted with congestive heart failure. Digoxin (lanoxin) 0.12 mg is ordered for the child. The bottle of Lanoxin contains .05 mg of Lanoxin in 1 ml of solution. What amount should the nurse administer to the child?
    • A. 

      1.2 ml

    • B. 

      2.4 ml

    • C. 

      3.5 ml

    • D. 

      4.2 ml

  • 100. 
    Nurse Alexandra teaches a client about elastic stockings. Which of the following statements, if made by the client, indicates to the   nurse that the teaching was successful?
    • A. 

      “I will wear the stockings until the physician tells me to remove them.”

    • B. 

      “I should wear the stockings even when I am sleep.”

    • C. 

      “Every four hours I should remove the stockings for a half hour.”

    • D. 

      “I should put on the stockings before getting out of bed in the morning.”