Pathologist Assistant Certification Test! Trivia Quiz
The Pathologist assistant certification test is just around the corner and what this means is that you get your chance to prove just how skilled you are to go to the field. A pathology assistant is tasked with examining specimens. Take up the test below and get to see just how ready you are for the final exam in the fall semester.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
A diffuse or nodular enlargement of the thyroid is referred to as
- A.
Goiter
- B.
Hashimoto's disease
- C.
Grave's disease
- D.
Adenoma
- E.
Follicular carcinoma
Correct Answer
A. GoiterExplanation
A diffuse or nodular enlargement of the thyroid is referred to as a goiter. A goiter can occur due to various reasons such as iodine deficiency, inflammation, or certain thyroid disorders. It is characterized by the enlargement of the thyroid gland, which can cause symptoms like swelling in the neck, difficulty swallowing or breathing, and changes in voice. Treatment for goiter depends on the underlying cause and may include medications, iodine supplements, or surgery in severe cases.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
The most common malignant lesion of the esophagus is the SCC. What is the commonest benign tumor?
- A.
Rhabdomyoma
- B.
Adenoma
- C.
Leiomyoma
- D.
Hemangioma
Correct Answer
C. LeiomyomaExplanation
The commonest benign tumor of the esophagus is leiomyoma. Leiomyomas are smooth muscle tumors that arise from the muscular layer of the esophagus. They are usually small and asymptomatic, but can cause symptoms such as dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) or chest pain if they grow larger. Leiomyomas are typically benign and do not have the potential to become cancerous.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
Which organism is the leading cause of acute pyelonephritis?
- A.
Proteus
- B.
Streptococcus
- C.
E. coli
- D.
Klebsiella
Correct Answer
C. E. coliExplanation
E. coli is the leading cause of acute pyelonephritis. This is because E. coli is a common bacterium found in the intestines and is responsible for most urinary tract infections. It can travel from the urethra to the bladder and then up to the kidneys, causing inflammation and infection in the kidneys. E. coli is particularly adept at adhering to the urinary tract and has virulence factors that allow it to cause infection. Hence, it is the most common organism associated with acute pyelonephritis.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
An episode of sever liver necrosis as may be seen in viral hepatitis could lead to:
- A.
Laennec's cirrhosis
- B.
Alcoholic cirrhosis
- C.
Postnecrotic cirrhosis
- D.
Portal cirrhosis
Correct Answer
C. Postnecrotic cirrhosisExplanation
An episode of severe liver necrosis, such as that seen in viral hepatitis, can lead to postnecrotic cirrhosis. This type of cirrhosis occurs as a result of extensive liver cell death followed by regeneration. The necrotic liver tissue is replaced with fibrous scar tissue, which disrupts the normal structure and function of the liver. Postnecrotic cirrhosis can lead to liver failure and other complications.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
The failure of an organ to achieve its full adult size because of incomplete development is:
- A.
Hypoplasia
- B.
Hyperplasia
- C.
Agenesis
- D.
Dysplasia
Correct Answer
A. HypoplasiaExplanation
Hypoplasia refers to the failure of an organ to achieve its full adult size due to incomplete development. This can occur due to various factors such as genetic abnormalities, inadequate blood supply, or damage during embryonic development. Unlike hyperplasia, which involves an increase in the number of cells, hypoplasia is characterized by a decrease in the size and number of cells. Agenesis refers to the complete absence or failure of an organ to develop, while dysplasia refers to abnormal cell growth and organization. Therefore, hypoplasia is the most appropriate term to describe the given scenario.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
Which of the following, probably an autoimmune inflammatory disease, affects the thyroid?
- A.
Wilson's disease
- B.
Hodgkin's disease
- C.
Cushing's disease
- D.
Hashimoto's disease
Correct Answer
D. Hashimoto's diseaseExplanation
Hashimoto's disease is an autoimmune inflammatory disease that affects the thyroid. In this condition, the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland, leading to inflammation and damage. This results in an underactive thyroid or hypothyroidism. Symptoms of Hashimoto's disease include fatigue, weight gain, depression, and sensitivity to cold. It is more common in women and often runs in families. Treatment usually involves taking thyroid hormone replacement medication to restore normal thyroid function.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
The sequence of events in the development of a disease from the beginning including the factors that influence its development is the:
- A.
Pathogenesis
- B.
Natural history
- C.
Clinical manifestation
Correct Answer
A. PathogenesisExplanation
Pathogenesis refers to the sequence of events that occur in the development of a disease from its beginning, including the factors that influence its development. It involves understanding the mechanisms by which a disease develops and progresses in the body. Natural history, on the other hand, refers to the course of a disease over time, including the outcomes and prognosis. Clinical manifestation refers to the signs and symptoms that are present in a patient with a particular disease. Therefore, pathogenesis is the correct answer as it specifically describes the sequence of events and factors involved in the development of a disease.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
Choledocholithiasis is a presence of calculi in the:
- A.
Gallbladder
- B.
Common bile duct
- C.
Kidney
- D.
Ureter
- E.
Hepatic duct
Correct Answer
B. Common bile ductExplanation
Choledocholithiasis refers to the presence of calculi or stones in the common bile duct. The common bile duct is a tube that carries bile from the liver and gallbladder to the small intestine. When stones form in the gallbladder, they can sometimes migrate into the common bile duct, causing a blockage. This can lead to symptoms such as abdominal pain, jaundice, and digestive issues. Treatment for choledocholithiasis often involves removing the stones from the common bile duct to relieve the blockage and prevent further complications.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
Islet cell tumors of the pancreas (non-beta cell neoplasms) associated w/ recurring intractable peptic ulceration usually of the jejunum but may also be of the duodenum or stomach are found in which syndrome?
- A.
Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome
- B.
Alport's Syndrome
- C.
Goodpasture's syndrome
- D.
Waterhouse Fredrickson syndrome
- E.
Sjorgen's Syndrome
Correct Answer
A. Zollinger-Ellison SyndromeExplanation
Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome is the correct answer because it is a rare condition characterized by the presence of islet cell tumors in the pancreas. These tumors produce excessive amounts of gastrin, a hormone that stimulates the production of gastric acid. The increased acid secretion leads to recurring intractable peptic ulceration, which primarily affects the jejunum but can also occur in the duodenum or stomach. This syndrome is often associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1) and can cause symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and gastrointestinal bleeding.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
Grave's disease is a type of:
- A.
Hyperparathyroidism
- B.
Hyperthyroidism
- C.
Hypothyroidism
- D.
Hypoparathyroidism
- E.
Adrenal insufficiency
Correct Answer
B. HyperthyroidismExplanation
Grave's disease is a type of hyperthyroidism. It is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system mistakenly attacks the thyroid gland, causing it to produce excessive amounts of thyroid hormones. This leads to symptoms such as weight loss, rapid heartbeat, tremors, and anxiety. Treatment options for Grave's disease include medication, radioactive iodine therapy, and surgery to remove the thyroid gland.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Bleeding, perforation & obstruction are common complications of:
- A.
Peptic Ulcers
- B.
Acute Gastric ulcers
- C.
Malignant gastric ulcers
- D.
Acute duodenal ulcers
Correct Answer
A. Peptic UlcersExplanation
Peptic ulcers can lead to bleeding, perforation, and obstruction. Peptic ulcers are open sores that develop on the lining of the stomach, small intestine, or esophagus. When the ulcer erodes a blood vessel, it can cause bleeding. If the ulcer penetrates through the wall of the stomach or intestine, it can cause perforation, which is a hole in the organ. Obstruction can occur when the ulcer causes swelling and inflammation, blocking the passage of food through the digestive system. Therefore, bleeding, perforation, and obstruction are common complications of peptic ulcers.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
Whole body edema is referred to as:
Correct Answer
anasarcaExplanation
Anasarca refers to the condition of generalized edema or swelling throughout the entire body. It is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces, leading to swelling in various parts of the body such as the legs, arms, face, and abdomen. Anasarca can be caused by various underlying medical conditions, including heart failure, liver disease, kidney disease, and severe malnutrition. This term is commonly used in medical settings to describe a severe form of edema that affects the entire body.Rate this question:
- 13.
Which carcinoma of the thyroid is associated with the protein complex amyloid?
- A.
Papillary
- B.
Follicular
- C.
Medullary
- D.
Epidermoid
Correct Answer
C. MedullaryExplanation
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid is associated with the protein complex amyloid. This type of carcinoma arises from the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland, which produce calcitonin. The presence of amyloid deposits in the tumor is a characteristic feature of medullary carcinoma. Amyloid is an abnormal protein that can accumulate in various tissues and organs, and its presence in medullary carcinoma helps to distinguish it from other types of thyroid carcinoma.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Proliferating fibroblasts, endothelial cell proliferation, and chronic inflammatory cells (macrophages) characterize:
- A.
Granulation Tissue
- B.
Chronic Inflammation
- C.
Acute Inflammation
- D.
Granuloma
Correct Answer
A. Granulation TissueExplanation
Granulation tissue is characterized by the proliferation of fibroblasts, endothelial cells, and chronic inflammatory cells such as macrophages. This tissue forms during the healing process of a wound or injury and is composed of new blood vessels, collagen, and other extracellular matrix components. The presence of these cellular and inflammatory components distinguishes granulation tissue from other types of inflammation, such as acute or chronic inflammation, and granulomas.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Adrenal hyperplasia often clinically characterized by truncal obesity, moon facies, buffalo hump and poor wound healing is known as:
- A.
Addison's disease
- B.
Cushing's disease/syndrome
- C.
Grave's disease
- D.
Hashimotos' disease
- E.
Crohn's disease
Correct Answer
B. Cushing's disease/syndromeExplanation
Adrenal hyperplasia is a condition characterized by an overgrowth or enlargement of the adrenal glands. This condition often presents with symptoms such as truncal obesity, moon facies (rounding and swelling of the face), buffalo hump (excessive fat deposits on the upper back and neck), and poor wound healing. These symptoms are commonly associated with Cushing's disease/syndrome, which is caused by excessive production of cortisol hormone by the adrenal glands. Therefore, Cushing's disease/syndrome is the correct answer in this case.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
Epistaxis is a synonym for:
Correct Answer
nosebleed
nose bleed
bloody noseExplanation
Epistaxis is a medical term used to describe the condition of bleeding from the nose, commonly known as a nosebleed. Therefore, the correct answer is nosebleed, nose bleed, and bloody nose, as all three terms are synonyms for epistaxis.Rate this question:
- 17.
The most common adult malignancy arising in the adrenal medulla is the:
- A.
Neuroblastoma
- B.
Pheochromocytoma
- C.
Paraganglioma
- D.
Neurilemmoma
Correct Answer
B. PheochromocytomaExplanation
Pheochromocytoma is the most common adult malignancy arising in the adrenal medulla. It is a tumor that develops from the chromaffin cells of the adrenal gland. These tumors produce excess catecholamines, leading to symptoms such as hypertension, palpitations, and sweating. Neuroblastoma, on the other hand, is a malignancy that arises from neural crest cells and is more commonly seen in children. Paraganglioma is a tumor that arises from extra-adrenal chromaffin cells, while neurilemmoma is a benign tumor of the peripheral nerve sheath.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
The most common site for a primary carcinoma of the GI tract is the:
- A.
Rectosigmoid colon
- B.
Ascending colon
- C.
Transverse colon
- D.
Descending colon
Correct Answer
A. Rectosigmoid colonExplanation
The rectosigmoid colon is the most common site for a primary carcinoma of the GI tract. This is because the rectosigmoid colon is the area where the sigmoid colon (the S-shaped part of the colon) transitions into the rectum. It is a common site for tumors to develop due to the prolonged exposure of the colon to fecal material, which can lead to the development of cancerous cells. Additionally, the rectosigmoid colon is also subject to increased pressure during bowel movements, which can contribute to the development of tumors.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
The most common tumor of the head and neck, in particular the larynx is the:
- A.
SCC
- B.
Adenoma
Correct Answer
A. SCCExplanation
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) is the most common tumor of the head and neck, particularly in the larynx. SCC refers to cancer that develops in the squamous cells, which are the thin, flat cells lining the surface of the larynx. This type of cancer can occur due to various factors such as tobacco and alcohol use, exposure to certain chemicals, and human papillomavirus (HPV) infection. SCC can lead to symptoms like hoarseness, difficulty swallowing, and a persistent sore throat. Early detection and treatment are crucial for better outcomes in SCC cases.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
Which of the following is an inflammatory bowel disease usually affecting only the mucosa without fistulization or granuloma formation:
- A.
Ulcerative colitis
- B.
Crohn's
- C.
IBD
Correct Answer
A. Ulcerative colitisExplanation
Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory bowel disease that primarily affects the mucosa, the innermost lining of the colon and rectum. It is characterized by chronic inflammation and ulcers in the colon, causing symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding. Unlike Crohn's disease, which can affect any part of the digestive tract and can lead to complications like fistulas and granulomas, ulcerative colitis is typically limited to the colon and does not involve fistulization or granuloma formation. Therefore, the correct answer is Ulcerative colitis.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
Pinpoint hemorrhage due to leakage from capillary or venule are:
- A.
Petechiae
- B.
Purpura
- C.
Stigma
- D.
Bruise
Correct Answer
A. PetechiaeExplanation
Petechiae are pinpoint hemorrhages that occur due to the leakage of blood from capillaries or venules. They appear as small, flat, red or purple spots on the skin or mucous membranes. Petechiae can be caused by various factors such as trauma, infections, certain medical conditions, or medications that affect blood clotting. They are different from purpura, which are larger areas of bleeding, and bruises, which result from damage to deeper tissues. Stigma is not related to hemorrhage and therefore not the correct answer.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
A malformation indigenous to an area resembling and having some features of a tumor with usually only one element predominating is?
- A.
Teratoma
- B.
Teratocarcinoma
- C.
Choristoma
- D.
Hamartoma
Correct Answer
D. HamartomaExplanation
A hamartoma is a malformation that is indigenous to an area and resembles a tumor. However, unlike a tumor, a hamartoma usually only has one element predominating. This means that it is not a true tumor, but rather a disorganized overgrowth of normal tissues in the area.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
Another term for valvular thrombus is?
- A.
Excrescence
- B.
Ball thrombus
- C.
Saddle
- D.
Vegetation
Correct Answer
D. VegetationExplanation
Valvular thrombus refers to a blood clot that forms on the valves of the heart. The term "vegetation" is often used to describe this condition. This is because the clot appears as a mass of fibrin, platelets, and other cellular debris, resembling a vegetative growth. The term "excrescence" refers to an abnormal growth or projection, but it is not specifically associated with valvular thrombus. "Ball thrombus" and "saddle" do not accurately describe valvular thrombus.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
Commonest cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?
- A.
Adenoma
- B.
Adenocarcinoma
- C.
Chronic renal failure
- D.
Bone marrow carcinoma
Correct Answer
C. Chronic renal failureExplanation
Chronic renal failure is the commonest cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism. In this condition, the kidneys are unable to adequately filter and eliminate waste products from the body, leading to an imbalance of minerals and hormones, including parathyroid hormone. As a result, the parathyroid glands become overactive and produce excessive amounts of parathyroid hormone, causing secondary hyperparathyroidism. This condition is characterized by elevated levels of parathyroid hormone, low levels of calcium, and high levels of phosphorus in the blood. Adenoma, adenocarcinoma, and bone marrow carcinoma are not commonly associated with secondary hyperparathyroidism.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
Edema of the dependant portions is likely to occur with:
- A.
Mitral stenosis
- B.
Aortic insufficiency
- C.
Right heart failure
- D.
Pericarditis
Correct Answer
C. Right heart failureExplanation
Edema of the dependent portions refers to the accumulation of fluid in the lower parts of the body, such as the legs and ankles. Right heart failure is characterized by the inability of the right side of the heart to effectively pump blood, leading to fluid backup in the body's venous system. This increased pressure causes fluid to leak into the surrounding tissues, resulting in edema. Therefore, right heart failure is likely to cause edema of the dependent portions.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
Fatty change, polys, and Mallory bodies are found with?
- A.
Viral hepatitis
- B.
Alcoholic hepatitis
- C.
Measles pneumonia
- D.
Cardiac cirrhosis
Correct Answer
B. Alcoholic hepatitisExplanation
Fatty change, polys, and Mallory bodies are commonly associated with alcoholic hepatitis. Alcoholic hepatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and damage to the liver due to excessive alcohol consumption. Fatty change refers to the accumulation of fat within liver cells, polys refers to polymorphonuclear leukocytes which are a type of white blood cell often seen in inflammatory conditions, and Mallory bodies are abnormal protein aggregates found in liver cells during alcoholic hepatitis. These findings are not typically seen in viral hepatitis, measles pneumonia, or cardiac cirrhosis.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
Sudden or complete blockage of blood in the brain or spinal cord results in?
- A.
Gangrene
- B.
Liquefaction
- C.
Thrombosis
- D.
Fatty metamorphosis
Correct Answer
B. LiquefactionExplanation
When there is a sudden or complete blockage of blood in the brain or spinal cord, it can lead to liquefaction. This refers to the process where the affected tissue becomes liquefied due to the lack of blood flow and oxygen. This can cause the tissue to break down and result in the formation of a fluid-filled cavity. Liquefaction is a serious condition that can lead to severe damage and impair the normal functioning of the brain or spinal cord.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
Which disease may lead to hepatic cirrhosis that is also associated with a defect in copper metabolism?
- A.
Wilson's disease
- B.
Hemosiderosis
- C.
Gauchers
Correct Answer
A. Wilson's diseaseExplanation
Wilson's disease is a genetic disorder that leads to excessive accumulation of copper in the body, primarily affecting the liver. Over time, this can cause hepatic cirrhosis, a condition characterized by scarring and damage to the liver. The defect in copper metabolism in Wilson's disease is due to a mutation in the ATP7B gene, which impairs the liver's ability to excrete excess copper into bile. As a result, copper builds up in the liver and other organs, leading to various symptoms and complications.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
In chronic cholecystitis, deep invaginations of the epithelium may be present along with muscular hypertrophy and chronic inflammatory cells. These evaginations are called?
- A.
Diverticula
- B.
Rokitansky-Aschoff Sinuses
Correct Answer
B. Rokitansky-Aschoff SinusesExplanation
In chronic cholecystitis, deep invaginations of the epithelium may be present along with muscular hypertrophy and chronic inflammatory cells. These evaginations are called Rokitansky-Aschoff Sinuses.Rate this question:
-
- 30.
Which of the following is a small lesion of the pituitary that may be associated with Cushing's syndrome?
- A.
Adenocarcinoma
- B.
Oat cell ca
- C.
Chromophobe adenoma
- D.
Basophilic adenoma
- E.
Acidophilic adenoma
Correct Answer
D. Basophilic adenomaExplanation
A small lesion of the pituitary that may be associated with Cushing's syndrome is a basophilic adenoma. Basophilic adenomas are tumors of the pituitary gland that produce excess adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), leading to increased cortisol production by the adrenal glands. This excessive cortisol production can result in Cushing's syndrome, which is characterized by weight gain, high blood pressure, diabetes, and other symptoms. Adenocarcinoma, oat cell ca, and chromophobe adenoma are not typically associated with Cushing's syndrome.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
Which of the following lesions of the thyroid is most likely to spread to lymph nodes?
- A.
Riedel's struma
- B.
Papillary carcinoma
- C.
Follicular adenoma
- D.
Embryonal adenoma
- E.
Medullary carcinoma
Correct Answer
B. Papillary carcinomaExplanation
Papillary carcinoma is the most likely lesion of the thyroid to spread to lymph nodes. This is because papillary carcinoma is a type of thyroid cancer that commonly metastasizes to regional lymph nodes. The cancer cells can invade and spread to the nearby lymph nodes, leading to the potential for further spread throughout the body. Unlike other lesions mentioned, such as Riedel's struma, follicular adenoma, embryonal adenoma, and medullary carcinoma, papillary carcinoma has a higher propensity for lymph node involvement.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
The valve most commonly affected by rheumatic heart disease, which usually manifests itself later in life is the?
- A.
Aortic
- B.
Tricuspid
- C.
Mitral
- D.
Ileocecal
- E.
Pulmonary
Correct Answer
C. MitralExplanation
Rheumatic heart disease is a condition that occurs as a result of untreated or inadequately treated strep throat or scarlet fever. It causes inflammation and damage to the heart valves. The mitral valve is the valve most commonly affected by rheumatic heart disease. This is because the left side of the heart, where the mitral valve is located, is under more pressure and strain compared to the right side. Additionally, the mitral valve is more susceptible to damage due to its structure and function. Therefore, it is not surprising that rheumatic heart disease usually manifests itself later in life with symptoms related to the mitral valve dysfunction.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
Alternative regions of platelets and fibrin with red and white cells in a thrombus as seen macroscopically are?
- A.
Lines of Zahn
- B.
Striae
- C.
Lines of Conn
- D.
Propagating thrombus
- E.
Agonal thrombus
Correct Answer
A. Lines of ZahnExplanation
Lines of Zahn are seen macroscopically in a thrombus and are characterized by alternating layers of platelets and fibrin with red and white blood cells. These layers are formed during the formation of a thrombus when blood flow is disrupted and platelets start to aggregate. The layers of platelets and fibrin are formed in a laminar pattern, giving the appearance of lines. This distinct pattern helps differentiate a thrombus from a postmortem clot, where the layers are not present. Therefore, the presence of lines of Zahn is indicative of a thrombus rather than other options such as striae, lines of Conn, propagating thrombus, or agonal thrombus.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
A myocardial infarction that exhibits a yellow tan surface surrounded by red-purple depressed bands of granulation tissue is how old?
- A.
24 hours
- B.
1 week
- C.
3 months
- D.
2 weeks
Correct Answer
D. 2 weeksExplanation
The given description of a myocardial infarction with a yellow tan surface surrounded by red-purple depressed bands of granulation tissue indicates that the infarction is in the healing stage. This healing process typically occurs around 2 weeks after the initial event, as the body forms granulation tissue to repair the damaged area. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 weeks.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
Primary adrenal lesions (adenomas, carcinomas, hyperplasias, ectopic ACTH production and basophilic pituitary adenomas) may lead to?
- A.
Simmonds disease
- B.
Grave's disease
- C.
Mallory-weiss lesions
- D.
Cushing's
- E.
Addisons
Correct Answer
D. Cushing'sExplanation
Primary adrenal lesions such as adenomas, carcinomas, hyperplasias, ectopic ACTH production, and basophilic pituitary adenomas can lead to Cushing's disease. Cushing's disease is a condition characterized by excessive production of cortisol hormone by the adrenal glands. This results in various symptoms including weight gain, high blood pressure, diabetes, muscle weakness, and mood changes.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
The most common benign tumor of the liver is the?
- A.
Hepatocellular carcinoma
- B.
Fibroma
- C.
Hepatoma
- D.
Hemangioma
- E.
Leiomyoma
Correct Answer
D. HemangiomaExplanation
A hemangioma is the most common benign tumor of the liver. It is a non-cancerous growth that is made up of blood vessels. Hemangiomas are usually small and do not cause any symptoms. They are often discovered incidentally during imaging tests for other conditions. Treatment is generally not necessary unless the hemangioma is causing symptoms or growing in size. Hepatocellular carcinoma, fibroma, hepatoma, and leiomyoma are not the most common benign tumors of the liver.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
Functional adenomas of the outer adrenal cortex may directly lead to increased production of?
- A.
Aldosterone
- B.
Vitamin c
- C.
Magnesium
- D.
LDH
- E.
Spironolactone
Correct Answer
A. AldosteroneExplanation
Functional adenomas of the outer adrenal cortex are tumors that develop in the adrenal glands and can lead to excessive production of hormones. In this case, the correct answer is aldosterone. Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that helps regulate blood pressure and electrolyte balance. Increased production of aldosterone can cause fluid retention, high blood pressure, and imbalances in sodium and potassium levels. Therefore, functional adenomas of the outer adrenal cortex can directly lead to increased production of aldosterone.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
What is responsible for almost 90% of osmotic pressure at the capillary level mainly due to its small molecules and high concentration?
- A.
Gamma globulins
- B.
Beta globulins
- C.
Lipids
- D.
Albumin
- E.
Electrolytes
Correct Answer
D. AlbuminExplanation
Albumin is responsible for almost 90% of osmotic pressure at the capillary level mainly due to its small molecules and high concentration. Osmotic pressure is the force that helps to maintain the balance of fluids between the blood vessels and the surrounding tissues. Albumin, a protein found in the blood, has small molecules that can easily pass through capillary walls and its high concentration creates a strong osmotic force that draws fluid back into the blood vessels, preventing excessive fluid loss from the tissues.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
The commonest tumor of the salivary glands?
- A.
Warthin's tumor
- B.
Pleomorphic adenoma
- C.
SCC
- D.
Adenoid cystic carcinoma
Correct Answer
B. Pleomorphic adenomaExplanation
Pleomorphic adenoma is the correct answer because it is the most common tumor of the salivary glands. It is a benign tumor that typically arises from the parotid gland and is characterized by a mixture of different cell types. Warthin's tumor, SCC (squamous cell carcinoma), and adenoid cystic carcinoma are also tumors of the salivary glands, but they are less common compared to pleomorphic adenoma.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
The liver has cells with few intermitotic forms when upon stimulation can overproduce/ regenerate:
- A.
Stable cells
- B.
Permanent cells
- C.
labile cells
- D.
Fixed cells
Correct Answer
A. Stable cellsExplanation
Stable cells are able to regenerate and overproduce when stimulated. Unlike permanent cells, which are unable to divide, and labile cells, which continuously divide, stable cells have a low rate of division but can still regenerate under certain conditions. The liver contains stable cells that can undergo cell division and regenerate the tissue in response to injury or stimulation.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
The commonest malignant lesion of the female breast is?
- A.
SCC
- B.
Medullary CA
- C.
Lobular CA
- D.
Ductal CA
Correct Answer
D. Ductal CAExplanation
Ductal CA refers to ductal carcinoma, which is the most common malignant lesion of the female breast. It arises from the cells lining the milk ducts in the breast. This type of breast cancer accounts for about 80% of all breast cancer cases. Ductal carcinoma can be invasive, meaning it has spread beyond the ducts into the surrounding breast tissue, or non-invasive, also known as ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS). Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with ductal carcinoma.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
A yellow zone at the periphery of an MI due to leukocytic infiltration and phagocytosis of lipids is often seen by day?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Four
- D.
Ten
Correct Answer
C. FourExplanation
A yellow zone at the periphery of an MI due to leukocytic infiltration and phagocytosis of lipids is often seen by day four.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
The commonest site of origin for pulmonary embolus is the?
- A.
Prostatic veins
- B.
Heart
- C.
Portal vein
- D.
Leg vein
Correct Answer
D. Leg veinExplanation
The correct answer is leg vein. Pulmonary embolus refers to a blood clot that travels to the lungs and blocks the blood flow. It commonly originates from deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the leg veins. DVT occurs when a blood clot forms in the deep veins of the leg, usually due to prolonged immobility, surgery, or certain medical conditions. If the clot breaks off and travels to the lungs, it can cause a pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the leg veins are the most common site of origin for pulmonary embolus.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) characteristically results in which type of necrosis?
- A.
Caseation
- B.
Liquifaction
- C.
Coagulation
- D.
Fibrinoid
- E.
Fatty
Correct Answer
A. CaseationExplanation
Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) infection typically leads to caseation necrosis. Caseation necrosis is a form of necrosis characterized by the formation of a granuloma, which consists of a central area of necrotic tissue surrounded by a rim of inflammatory cells. In the case of TB, the central necrotic area is often cheese-like in appearance, hence the term "caseation." This type of necrosis is commonly seen in chronic granulomatous infections, such as TB, and is a result of the body's attempt to contain and eliminate the infectious agent.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
All of the following are bronchogenic carcinomas except?
- A.
Adenocarcinoma
- B.
Oat cell carcinoma
- C.
Pheochromocytoma
- D.
Squamous cell carcinoma
Correct Answer
C. PheochromocytomaExplanation
Bronchogenic carcinomas are a type of lung cancer that originate from the cells lining the bronchi (the main airways of the lungs). Adenocarcinoma, oat cell carcinoma, and squamous cell carcinoma are all types of bronchogenic carcinomas. However, pheochromocytoma is not a type of lung cancer. Instead, it is a rare tumor that develops in the adrenal glands, which are located on top of the kidneys. Therefore, pheochromocytoma is not considered a bronchogenic carcinoma.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
Increase in volume as a result of an enlargement of existing cells is?
Correct Answer
hypertrophy - 47.
Which of the following is least likely to metastasize?
- A.
Glioblastoma
- B.
Pheochromocytoma
- C.
Rhabdomyosarcoma
- D.
Adenoma
Correct Answer
A. Glioblastoma -
- 48.
Which of the following is a true diverticulum arising in the ileum about 1 meter proximal to the cecum which represents a remnant of fetal omphalomesenteric duct?
- A.
Meckels
- B.
Mackels
Correct Answer
A. MeckelsExplanation
Meckel's diverticulum is a true diverticulum that arises in the ileum, approximately 1 meter proximal to the cecum. It is formed due to the incomplete closure of the omphalomesenteric duct during fetal development. Meckel's diverticulum is the correct answer as it accurately describes the diverticulum in question.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
A collection of epithelioid cells (macrophages) is a?
- A.
Epithelioma
- B.
Granuloma
- C.
Epidermoid carcinoma
Correct Answer
B. GranulomaExplanation
A granuloma is a collection of epithelioid cells, which are macrophages that have transformed into a specific cell type resembling epithelial cells. Granulomas are typically formed in response to chronic inflammation or certain infections, such as tuberculosis or sarcoidosis. They are characterized by a central core of immune cells surrounded by a rim of fibrotic tissue. Epithelioma refers to a tumor arising from epithelial cells, while epidermoid carcinoma specifically refers to a type of skin cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is granuloma.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
Epidermoid carcinomas are associated with intercellular bridges and?
- A.
Keratin
- B.
Acini
- C.
Mucin
Correct Answer
A. KeratinExplanation
Epidermoid carcinomas are a type of skin cancer that originate from the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin. These carcinomas are characterized by the presence of intercellular bridges, which are connections between adjacent cells. Additionally, epidermoid carcinomas are known to produce keratin, a protein that is a major component of the epidermis. Therefore, the correct answer is keratin.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Feb 07, 2009Quiz Created by
Ajsellner
- Computed Tomography Quizzes
- EEG Quizzes
- First Aid Quizzes
- GCP Quizzes
- Healing Quizzes
- Mammography Quizzes
- Medical Coding Quizzes
- Medical Science Quizzes
- Medical Term Quizzes
- Medical Terminology Quizzes
- Medical Training Quizzes
- Medical Vocabulary Quizzes
- MRI Quizzes
- Nuclear Medicine Quizzes
- Obstetrics And Gynecology Quizzes
- Pathophysiology Quizzes
- Phlebotomy Quizzes
- Pulmonary Quizzes
- Radiography Quizzes
- Radiology Quizzes
- Syndrome Quizzes
- Ultrasound Quizzes
- Vital Signs Quizzes
- Xray Quizzes
Back to top