Z3dx5x V 1-2 Ure

Approved & Edited by ProProfs Editorial Team

The editorial team at ProProfs Quizzes consists of a select group of subject experts, trivia writers, and quiz masters who have authored over 10,000 quizzes taken by more than 100 million users. This team includes our in-house seasoned quiz moderators and subject matter experts. Our editorial experts, spread across the world, are rigorously trained using our comprehensive guidelines to ensure that you receive the highest quality quizzes.

Learn about Our Editorial Process

| By Airman

Airman

Community Contributor

Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 4,266

Questions: 177 | Attempts: 4,266 | Updated: Mar 22, 2023

Questions

Settings

Feedback

During the Quiz End of Quiz

Play as

Quiz Flashcard

Create your own Quiz

Questions and Answers

1.

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
- A.
  
  Spectrum Operations.
- B.
  
  Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
  
  Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D.
  
  Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
D. Radio Frequency Transmission.

Explanation
The correct answer is Radio Frequency Transmission. This 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for tasks such as deploying, sustaining, troubleshooting, and repairing standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband, and ground-based satellite devices. This includes working with RF communication systems and ensuring their proper functioning.

Rate this question:

2
0
2.

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
- A.
  
  Spectrum Operations.
- B.
  
  Ground Radar Systems.
- C.
  
  Cable and Antenna Systems.
- D.
  
  Radio Frequency Transmission.
Correct Answer
C. Cable and Antenna Systems.

Explanation
Cable and Antenna Systems is the correct answer because this 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) is responsible for the installation and maintenance of large-scale network wiring. This includes the wiring needed to support both fixed and deployed operations. Spectrum Operations, Ground Radar Systems, and Radio Frequency Transmission do not specifically mention responsibilities related to network wiring installation and maintenance.

Rate this question:

3
0
3.

(002) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?
- A.
  
  Core task.
- B.
  
  Duty competency.
- C.
  
  Core competency.
- D.
  
  Duty position task.
Correct Answer
D. Duty position task.

Explanation
In accordance with AFI 36-2201, the duty position task is the enlisted training element that is assigned by the supervisor. This means that the supervisor is responsible for assigning specific tasks and responsibilities to individuals based on their duty position within the Air Force. The duty position task is a crucial component of the Air Force Training Program as it ensures that individuals are trained and prepared to fulfill their specific roles and duties within the organization.

Rate this question:

2
0
4.

(003) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
- A.
  
  Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
  
  Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
  
  Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
  
  Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field. They are responsible for providing guidance and support to individuals in the career field, ensuring that career development and progression are aligned with the overall goals and objectives of the Air Force. The AFCFM has a comprehensive understanding of the career field and is able to provide expert advice on training, assignments, promotions, and other career-related matters. They work closely with unit training managers, base functional managers, and major command functional managers to ensure that career field policies and procedures are implemented effectively.

Rate this question:

5
0
5.

(003) Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
- A.
  
  Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
  
  Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
  
  Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
  
  Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
D. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

Explanation
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements, including the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC). This means that the AFCFM has the power to exempt individuals from these requirements if they deem it necessary or appropriate. The unit training manager (UTM), base functional manager (BFM), and major command functional manager (MFM) may have some authority in this area, but the AFCFM has the ultimate decision-making power.

Rate this question:

3
0
6.

(003) Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?
- A.
  
  Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
  
  Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
  
  Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
  
  Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
C. Major command functional manager (MFM).

Explanation
The Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW). The MFM is responsible for representing the interests and needs of their specific career field within the MAJCOM. They provide input and guidance on training and utilization issues, ensuring that the career field is properly represented and supported. The MFM plays a crucial role in shaping the training and utilization policies and decisions within the MAJCOM.

Rate this question:

2
0
7.

(003) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
- A.
  
  Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
  
  Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
  
  Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
  
  Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
C. Major command functional manager (MFM).

Explanation
The Major command functional manager (MFM) assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of the specialty knowledge test (SKT) and the career development course (CDC). The MFM is responsible for overseeing the career field at the major command level, and they have the knowledge and expertise to select the appropriate SMEs who can contribute to the development of these training materials. The MFM plays a crucial role in ensuring that the SKT and CDC are accurate and up-to-date, and that they meet the needs of the career field.

Rate this question:

3
0
8.

(003) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
- A.
  
  Unit training manager (UTM).
- B.
  
  Base functional manager (BFM).
- C.
  
  Major command functional manager (MFM).
- D.
  
  Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).
Correct Answer
B. Base functional manager (BFM).

Explanation
The correct answer is Base functional manager (BFM). This title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO). This means that the NCO in this role is responsible for managing the functional operations at the base level. They oversee and coordinate the activities related to cyberspace operations within their assigned base.

Rate this question:

1
0
9.

(004) Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?
- A.
  
  Modify local training.
- B.
  
  Allocate manpower.
- C.
  
  Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).
- D.
  
  Assist the unit training manager in course development.
Correct Answer
C. Develop a Career Development Course (CDC).

Explanation
Occupational surveys are used not only to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT) but also to develop a Career Development Course (CDC). This means that the surveys gather information about the skills, knowledge, and experience required for a particular occupation, which can then be used to create a comprehensive training program for individuals seeking to advance in their careers. By using the data from the surveys, a CDC can be developed to provide targeted training and development opportunities for individuals in a specific occupation.

Rate this question:

2
0
10.

(004) What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
- A.
  
  Conduct climate training surveys.
- B.
  
  Develop Career Development Courses.
- C.
  
  Review the occupational analysis report.
- D.
  
  Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
Correct Answer
D. Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

Explanation
The main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) is to establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). This means that the workshop aims to create a comprehensive plan that outlines the education and training requirements for a specific career field. The CFETP will provide guidance on the necessary skills, knowledge, and competencies that individuals in the career field need to develop in order to be successful. By establishing this plan, the U&TW helps to ensure that the career field has a clear and effective training program in place.

Rate this question:

1
0
11.

(004) Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?
- A.
  
  Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the Training Pipeline Manager (TPM).
- B.
  
  Air Force Career FieldManager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the SME.
- C.
  
  MFM in conjunction with the subject matter expert (SME).
- D.
  
  AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM.
Correct Answer
D. AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM.

Explanation
The AFCFM, or Air Force Career Field Manager, is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) along with the TPM, or Training Pipeline Manager. This means that both the AFCFM and the TPM work together to determine the schedule for the STRT.

Rate this question:

8
2
12.

(005) What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?
- A.
  
  Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
- B.
  
  Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).
- C.
  
  On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.
- D.
  
  Occupational Analysis Program.
Correct Answer
C. On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.

Explanation
The On-the-Job Training (OJT) program provides training for personnel to attain the knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform their duties in their specialty. This program allows individuals to learn and develop their skills while working in their specific job role, gaining hands-on experience and practical knowledge. OJT programs are designed to enhance job performance and ensure that personnel are adequately trained and qualified for their positions.

Rate this question:

2
2
13.

(006) Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- A.
  
  Quality Assessments.
- B.
  
  Quality Assurance.
- C.
  
  Quality System.
- D.
  
  Trend Analysis.
Correct Answer
B. Quality Assurance.

Explanation
In a Quality Assurance (QA) program, the essential elements include Quality Assessments, Quality System, and Trend Analysis. Quality Assurance itself is not an essential element as it refers to the overall process of ensuring quality in products or services. While Quality Assurance is important, it is not a standalone element in a QA program, but rather a comprehensive approach that encompasses all the other elements mentioned.

Rate this question:

2
0
14.

(006) Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?
- A.
  
  Technical Evaluation.
- B.
  
  Personnel Evaluation.
- C.
  
  Managerial Evaluation.
- D.
  
  Standard Evaluation.
Correct Answer
D. Standard Evaluation.

Explanation
Standard Evaluation is not an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program because it refers to the evaluation of a product or service against a set of established standards or benchmarks. In a QA program, the focus is on evaluating the performance, skills, and competencies of individuals or teams rather than evaluating against standards. Technical Evaluation assesses the technical skills and knowledge of individuals, Personnel Evaluation evaluates the performance and abilities of employees, and Managerial Evaluation assesses the managerial skills and effectiveness of supervisors or managers.

Rate this question:

2
0
15.

(006) Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?
- A.
  
  Trend analysis.
- B.
  
  Quality System.
- C.
  
  Quality Assessments.
- D.
  
  Managerial Assessments.
Correct Answer
A. Trend analysis.

Explanation
Trend analysis is the correct answer because it involves collecting, compiling, analyzing, and recording data on processes sampled by QA personnel. Trend analysis helps identify patterns, trends, and anomalies in the data, which can be used to make informed decisions and improvements in the quality assurance process. It provides valuable insights into the performance and effectiveness of the processes and helps in identifying areas that require attention or improvement. Quality System, Quality Assessments, and Managerial Assessments may be related to quality assurance but do not specifically involve the collection, compilation, analysis, and recording of data as trend analysis does.

Rate this question:

2
0
16.

(007) What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?
- A.
  
  Management Inspection (MI).
- B.
  
  Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).
- C.
  
  Consolidated Unit Inspection (CUI).
- D.
  
  Commander’s Inspection Program (CCIP).
Correct Answer
B. Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI).

Explanation
The Unit Effectiveness Inspection (UEI) integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness. This inspection assesses the overall effectiveness of the unit in meeting its mission objectives and identifies areas for improvement. It evaluates the unit's compliance with regulations, policies, and procedures, as well as its readiness to perform its assigned tasks. The UEI provides a comprehensive assessment of the unit's performance and helps identify any deficiencies or areas that require corrective action.

Rate this question:

3
0
17.

(008) What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?
- A.
  
  Remedy.
- B.
  
  Training Business Area.
- C.
  
  Telephone Management System.
- D.
  
  Integrated Maintenance Data System.
Correct Answer
A. Remedy.

Explanation
Remedy is the correct answer because it is an automated information system that manages the entire lifecycle of IT assets from procurement through retirement. It is a comprehensive IT service management tool that helps organizations track and manage their IT assets, including hardware, software, and licenses. Remedy allows for efficient procurement, inventory management, and asset tracking, as well as providing support for IT service management processes such as incident management, change management, and problem management.

Rate this question:
18.

(009) What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
- A.
  
  Title 10.
- B.
  
  Title 18.
- C.
  
  Title 32.
- D.
  
  Title 50.
Correct Answer
A. Title 10.

Explanation
Title 10 of the United States Code (USC) authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of the government. It also establishes all subordinate agencies, including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps. This title lays out the legal framework and responsibilities for the DOD and its various branches, outlining their roles and authorities within the military structure.

Rate this question:

2
0
19.

(009) The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?
- A.
  
  Title 3.
- B.
  
  Title 8.
- C.
  
  Title 10.
- D.
  
  Title 18.
Correct Answer
C. Title 10.

Explanation
The correct answer is Title 10. The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from Title 10 of the United States Code (USC). Title 10 is specifically focused on the organization and structure of the armed forces, including the military justice system. It outlines the various offenses that can be committed by military personnel and the corresponding punishments. The UCMJ is a key legal document that governs the conduct of members of the armed forces and ensures discipline and order within the military.

Rate this question:

1
0
20.

(010) What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?
- A.
  
  National Military Cyberspace Strategy.
- B.
  
  National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
- C.
  
  National Military Strategy for Cyberspace.
- D.
  
  National Military Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
Correct Answer
B. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

Explanation
The correct answer is "National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace." This document outlines the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace. It provides guidance and direction for government agencies, private sector organizations, and individuals to protect critical infrastructure, information systems, and data from cyber threats. The document emphasizes the importance of collaboration and coordination among various stakeholders to ensure the security of cyberspace.

Rate this question:

3
1
21.

(010) Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?
- A.
  
  National Security Policy.
- B.
  
  National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
- C.
  
  Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.
- D.
  
  National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.
Correct Answer
B. National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.

Explanation
The National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace has prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority. This policy focuses on protecting the nation's cyber infrastructure and ensuring the security and resilience of critical systems. It aims to enhance cybersecurity awareness, promote information sharing, and develop effective response and recovery capabilities.

Rate this question:

1
0
22.

(010) What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces’ comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?
- A.
  
  National Security Policy.
- B.
  
  National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace.
- C.
  
  Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative.
- D.
  
  National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.
Correct Answer
D. National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations.

Explanation
The correct answer is the National Military Strategy for Cyberspace Operations. This policy outlines the US Armed Forces' comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain. It specifically focuses on military operations in cyberspace and provides guidance on how to achieve and maintain superiority in this domain. The other options mentioned, such as the National Security Policy, National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace, and Comprehensive National Cybersecurity Initiative, are not specifically focused on military operations in cyberspace.

Rate this question:

2
0
23.

(010) When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?
- A.
  
  Title 10.
- B.
  
  Title 30.
- C.
  
  Title 50.
- D.
  
  Title 52.
Correct Answer
A. Title 10.

Explanation
When Air National Guard personnel are in Title 32 status, they are in a state active duty status where they are able to train for cyber operations. However, in order to actually execute those missions, they must be in Title 10 status. Title 10 status refers to being on federal active duty, which grants them the authority to carry out the cyber operations.

Rate this question:

3
0
24.

(010) An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as
- A.
  
  Misuse of position.
- B.
  
  Covered relationships.
- C.
  
  Non-public information.
- D.
  
  Personal conflict of interest.
Correct Answer
B. Covered relationships.

Explanation
A covered relationship refers to an employee or employer relationship that can potentially lead to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism. This situation is considered unethical as it compromises the fairness and integrity of decision-making processes. It is important to avoid such relationships in professional settings to maintain a level playing field and ensure equal opportunities for all individuals involved.

Rate this question:

2
0
25.

(010) Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?
- A.
  
  Misuse of position.
- B.
  
  Covered relationship.
- C.
  
  Personal conflict of interest.
- D.
  
  None, this is not an example of an unethical situation.
Correct Answer
B. Covered relationship.

Explanation
A covered relationship refers to a situation where an individual has a close personal relationship with someone who is involved in a decision-making process that could potentially create a conflict of interest. In this case, the question states that the individuals in question are members of a household or relatives with whom the person has a close personal relationship. This indicates that there is a potential for bias or favoritism in decision-making, which is considered unethical. Therefore, the correct answer is covered relationship.

Rate this question:

4
0
26.

(011) What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I- NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?
- A.
  
  Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
- B.
  
  Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
- C.
  
  Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
- D.
  
  Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This is the weapon system that includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU), and Area Processing Center (APC) functions. This system is responsible for managing and protecting the Air Force's cyberspace operations and ensuring the security of its networks and information.

Rate this question:

3
0
27.

(011) What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?
- A.
  
  Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
- B.
  
  Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
- C.
  
  Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
- D.
  
  Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
Correct Answer
C. Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.

Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Security and Control System. This system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command specific networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC). It is designed to provide cyber security and control for the Air Force's cyberspace operations.

Rate this question:

2
0
28.

(011) What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?
- A.
  
  Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
- B.
  
  Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
- C.
  
  Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
- D.
  
  Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
Correct Answer
D. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.

Explanation
The Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System is the correct answer because it serves as the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN). This system is responsible for managing and controlling access to the network, ensuring its security and integrity. It acts as a defense system against cyber threats and unauthorized access, making it a crucial component of the Air Force's cyberspace defense strategy.

Rate this question:

4
0
29.

(011) Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?
- A.
  
  Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
- B.
  
  Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
- C.
  
  Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
- D.
  
  Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System.
30.

(011) What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?
- A.
  
  Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
- B.
  
  Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System.
- C.
  
  Air Force Cyber Security and Control System.
- D.
  
  Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.

Explanation
The correct answer is Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System. This system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance, and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations. It is designed to provide effective command and control of cyberspace operations, enabling the Air Force to defend its networks, conduct cyberspace operations, and support combatant commanders' objectives.

Rate this question:

2
0
31.

(011) What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?
- A.
  
  Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.
- B.
  
  Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System.
- C.
  
  Cyberspace Defense Analysis Weapon System.
- D.
  
  Air Force Intranet Control Weapons System.
Correct Answer
A. Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System.

Explanation
The Cyberspace Vulnerability Assessment/Hunter Weapon System is the correct answer because it is specifically designed to identify vulnerabilities and provide commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks. This system is focused on assessing and analyzing potential weaknesses in cyberspace, allowing for proactive measures to be taken to mitigate risks and enhance the security of critical networks. The other options mentioned do not have the same focus on vulnerability assessment and risk assessment.

Rate this question:

3
0
32.

(012) What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?
- A.
  
  Air Combat Command, 9th Air Force.
- B.
  
  Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.
- C.
  
  Air Force Global Strike Command, 8th Air Force.
- D.
  
  Air Education and Training Command, 2nd Air Force.
Correct Answer
B. Air Force Space Command, 24th Air Force.

Explanation
Air Force Space Command and 24th Air Force were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission.

Rate this question:

2
0
33.

(012) What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.
- A.
  
  Active and reactive.
- B.
  
  Evasive and decisive.
- C.
  
  Subversive and divisive.
- D.
  
  Offensive and defensive.
Correct Answer
A. Active and reactive.

Explanation
Active and reactive cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing to directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion. Active defense refers to proactive measures taken to identify and neutralize threats, such as deploying intrusion detection systems and conducting regular vulnerability assessments. Reactive defense involves responding to an ongoing intrusion, such as isolating affected systems, blocking malicious traffic, and conducting incident response activities. These two defenses work together to actively monitor and respond to cyber threats, enhancing the overall security of a network.

Rate this question:

1
0
34.

(012) Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?
- A.
  
  Counterintelligence (CI).
- B.
  
  Operation Security (OPSEC).
- C.
  
  Military deception (MILDEC).
- D.
  
  Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR).
Correct Answer
C. Military deception (MILDEC).

Explanation
MILDEC, or Military Deception, is designed to mislead the enemy by manipulating their perception and causing them to make incorrect decisions. Since MISO and PA share a common specific audience, they aim to inform and influence that audience. Counterintelligence (CI) focuses on identifying and countering enemy intelligence activities. Operation Security (OPSEC) is about protecting sensitive information from being exploited by the enemy. Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR) involves collecting and analyzing information about the enemy. None of these activities are specifically designed to mislead, unlike MILDEC.

Rate this question:

1
0
35.

(013) What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?
- A.
  
  Strategic Considerations.
- B.
  
  Military Strategic Framework.
- C.
  
  Implementation and Assessment.
- D.
  
  Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.
Correct Answer
D. Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance.

Explanation
The Department of Defense Strategic Planning Guidance is the document that directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace. This guidance provides strategic direction and priorities for the Department of Defense's planning efforts, including the development of plans for securing cyberspace. It outlines the overarching goals, objectives, and strategies that the Department of Defense will pursue in order to protect and defend cyberspace. This document serves as a roadmap for the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace.

Rate this question:

3
0
36.

(013) Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?
- A.
  
  Defense Industrial Base (DIB).
- B.
  
  Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).
- C.
  
  National Reconnaissance Office (NRO).
- D.
  
  Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).
Correct Answer
D. Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

Explanation
The Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization, and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure. DISA is an agency within the Department of Defense that provides information technology and communications support to the military. They oversee the GIG, which is a globally interconnected network of information systems used by the military. As such, DISA plays a crucial role in ensuring the security and functionality of this infrastructure, making it the correct answer for this question.

Rate this question:

1
0
37.

(014) What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?
- A.
  
  644th Combat Communication Squadron.
- B.
  
  85th Engineering Installation Squadron.
- C.
  
  83th Network Operations Squadron.
- D.
  
  4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing.
Correct Answer
B. 85th Engineering Installation Squadron.

Explanation
The 85th Engineering Installation Squadron is the correct answer because they are responsible for installing, reconstituting, and testing critical C4 systems for combatant commanders. This means that they are trained and equipped to handle the installation and maintenance of communication systems that are vital for military operations. The other options, such as the 644th Combat Communication Squadron and the 83rd Network Operations Squadron, may have related roles but do not specifically focus on installing and testing C4 systems. The 4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing is not relevant to the installation and testing of C4 systems.

Rate this question:

1
0
38.

(015) Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?
- A.
  
  Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
  
  Area Processing Center (APC).
- C.
  
  Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- D.
  
  Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).
Correct Answer
C. Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).

Explanation
The Enterprise Service Desk (ESD) within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity. The ESD is responsible for providing centralized IT support and services to the Air Force personnel. By streamlining and consolidating IT support, the ESD aims to reduce the time spent on training and troubleshooting, allowing the warfighters to focus more on their primary duties and increasing their overall capacity.

Rate this question:

1
24
39.

(015) What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?
- A.
  
  Enterprise Service Unit (ESU).
- B.
  
  Area Processing Center (APC).
- C.
  
  Enterprise Service Desk (ESD).
- D.
  
  Network Operations Security Center (NOSC).
Correct Answer
B. Area Processing Center (APC).

Explanation
The correct answer is Area Processing Center (APC). Regional computing and data centers like APC provide enterprise services such as messaging, web access, and storage. These centers are responsible for managing and maintaining the infrastructure and resources required to support these services for the organization. They ensure that the services are available and accessible to the users within the region they serve.

Rate this question:

2
0
40.

(015) What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?
- A.
  
  Manpower.
- B.
  
  Efficiency.
- C.
  
  Reduce costs.
- D.
  
  Department of Defense 8570 mandate.
Correct Answer
B. Efficiency.

Explanation
The main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk is to improve efficiency. By centralizing the control centers and creating a single service desk, organizations can streamline their operations, reduce duplication of efforts, and improve communication and coordination. This consolidation allows for more efficient allocation of resources, faster response times, and better overall management of network services.

Rate this question:

3
0
41.

(015) What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?
- A.
  
  2009.
- B.
  
  2010.
- C.
  
  2011.
- D.
  
  2012.
Correct Answer
B. 2010.

Explanation
In 2010, the Air Force implemented a single instance of Remedy, which enabled support to be provided to all locations within a single ticketing system. This allowed for improved efficiency and coordination in managing and resolving support requests across the Air Force.

Rate this question:

4
0
42.

(016) What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?
- A.
  
  Subordinate unified command and geographical command.
- B.
  
  Unified command and subordinate unified command.
- C.
  
  Functional command and geographical command.
- D.
  
  Unified command and functional command.
Correct Answer
B. Unified command and subordinate unified command.

Explanation
Joint Task Forces (JTF) are divided into two levels: Unified command and subordinate unified command. The unified command level is responsible for overall command and control of the JTF, while the subordinate unified command level focuses on specific operational tasks within the JTF. This division allows for effective coordination and execution of military operations in a joint environment, ensuring that tasks are carried out efficiently and in accordance with the mission objectives.

Rate this question:

3
0
43.

(016) The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a
- A.
  
  Combined force air and space component commander (CFAAC).
- B.
  
  Joint force air and space component commander (JFACC).
- C.
  
  Component Numbered Air Force (CNAF).
- D.
  
  Joint Force Commander (JFC).
Correct Answer
D. Joint Force Commander (JFC).

Explanation
The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a Joint Force Commander (JFC). This means that the COMAFFOR is responsible for leading and coordinating Air Force forces within a joint force, under the direction of the JFC. The JFC is the overall commander of a joint force, which includes multiple branches of the military working together towards a common objective. Therefore, the JFC is the correct answer as it aligns with the role and responsibilities of the COMAFFOR.

Rate this question:

4
0
44.

(017) What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?
- A.
  
  Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).
- B.
  
  Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF).
- C.
  
  Unit type codes (UTC).
- D.
  
  Stratum levels (SL).
Correct Answer
A. Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF).

Explanation
The Air Force uses the Aerospace Expeditionary Force (AEF) methodology for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR). This methodology involves organizing and deploying forces in a rotational cycle, ensuring that the Air Force maintains a continuous and sustainable presence worldwide. The AEF system allows for the efficient and effective deployment of forces, ensuring that combatant commanders have the necessary capabilities to fulfill their missions.

Rate this question:

2
1
45.

(017) What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?
- A.
  
  Coding.
- B.
  
  Positioning.
- C.
  
  Tempo bands.
- D.
  
  Unit type code.
Correct Answer
D. Unit type code.

Explanation
Unit type code is the correct answer because it is a basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF). Unit type codes are alphanumeric codes that represent specific types of military units, such as aircraft squadrons or support units. These codes are used to identify and categorize units, which helps in organizing and coordinating the deployment and movement of forces during joint operations.

Rate this question:

1
0
46.

(018) Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?
- A.
  
  Service Transition.
- B.
  
  Service Strategy.
- C.
  
  Service Contact.
- D.
  
  Service Design.
Correct Answer
C. Service Contact.

Explanation
The correct answer is Service Contact. The ITIL Service Life Cycle stages include Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and Continual Service Improvement. Service Contact is not one of the recognized stages in the ITIL framework.

Rate this question:

2
0
47.

(018) What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?
- A.
  
  Continual Service Improvement.
- B.
  
  Service Transition.
- C.
  
  Service Strategy.
- D.
  
  Service Design.
Correct Answer
A. Continual Service Improvement.

Explanation
The correct answer is Continual Service Improvement. Continual Service Improvement is an ITIL stage that focuses on continuously improving the efficiency and effectiveness of IT services. It is an overarching stage that ensures service quality is maintained by identifying areas for improvement, implementing changes, and measuring the results. This stage involves monitoring and evaluating service performance, identifying opportunities for improvement, and making adjustments to processes and procedures. It is an ongoing process that helps organizations adapt to changing business needs and deliver better value to customers.

Rate this question:

2
0
48.

(019) The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to
- A.
  
  Safeguard information in an enterprise-wide environment.
- B.
  
  Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.
- C.
  
  Improve the effectiveness of the mission.
- D.
  
  Improve the efficiency of the mission.
Correct Answer
B. Exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment.

Explanation
The correct answer is "exploit information in an enterprise-wide environment." The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools that enable users to utilize and leverage information effectively in an enterprise-wide environment. This means that EIM aims to enable organizations to make the most of their information resources, extracting valuable insights and using them to drive decision-making and achieve business goals. By exploiting information, organizations can gain a competitive advantage, improve operational efficiency, and make informed strategic decisions.

Rate this question:

3
0
49.

(019) Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?
- A.
  
  Article 32.
- B.
  
  Article 40.
- C.
  
  Article 92.
- D.
  
  Article 100.
Correct Answer
C. Article 92.

Explanation
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33-153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is considered a violation of Article 92 of the UCMJ. Article 92 specifically addresses the failure to obey orders or regulations and encompasses a wide range of offenses, including the failure to comply with information systems guidelines. This article is applicable to military personnel and can result in disciplinary action and punishment.

Rate this question:

2
0
50.

(019) How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?
- A.
  
  Two.
- B.
  
  Four.
- C.
  
  Six.
- D.
  
  Eight.
Correct Answer
C. Six.

Explanation
There are six rules for effective communication via e-mail. The question is asking for the number of rules, and the correct answer is six.

Rate this question:

2
1

Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

Current Version
Mar 22, 2023

Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team
Aug 24, 2016

Quiz Created by
Airman

Z3dx5x V 1-2 Ure

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?

(001) Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large-scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?

(002) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36−2201, Air Force Training Program?

(003) Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?

(003) Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to include the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?

(003) Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Utilization and Training Workshops (U&TW)?

(003) Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of your specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?

(003) What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?

(004) Occupational surveys are used to develop the specialty knowledge test (SKT), what tasking is another use for occupational surveys?

(004) What action is the main goal of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?

(004) Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

(005) What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

(006) Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

(006) Which evaluation is NOT an assessment type in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

(006) Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

(007) What inspection integrates elements of compliance and readiness with new inspection elements to create a new Inspector General (IG) inspection of unit effectiveness?

(008) What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology (IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

(009) What United States Code (USC) title authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as an executive component of government and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?

(009) The Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is derived from what United States Code (USC)?

(010) What document spells out the comprehensive strategy for the United States to secure cyberspace?

(010) Which policy has prevention of cyber attacks against America’s critical infrastructure as a key strategic priority?

(010) What policy outlines the United States (US) Armed Forces’ comprehensive strategic approach for using cyberspace operations to assure US military strategic superiority in the cyber domain?

(010) When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what title status must they be in to execute those missions?

(010) An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

(010) Members of a household or relatives with whom you have a close personal relationship is an example of which type of unethical situation?

(011) What cyberspace weapon system includes the Integrate Network Operations Security Center (I- NOSC), Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) and Area Processing Center (APC) functions?

(011) What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

(011) What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

(011) Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

(011) What cyberspace weapon system ensures unfettered access, mission assurance and joint warfighter use of networks and information processing systems to accomplish worldwide operations?

(011) What cyberspace weapon system identifies vulnerabilities and provides commanders with a comprehensive assessment of the risk of existing vulnerabilities on critical mission networks?

(012) What major command and numbered Air Force (NAF) were realigned to support the Air Force cyberspace mission?

(012) What two cyber operation defenses involve continuous monitoring and analyzing and directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or terminating an ongoing intrusion.

(012) Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

(013) What document directs the development of the National Military Strategic Plan for Securing Cyberspace?

(013) Which agency is responsible for matters pertaining to the identification, prioritization and remediation of critical Global Information Grid (GIG) infrastructure?

(014) What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

(015) Which unit within the Air Force Network Operations (AFNetOps) community has a goal to reduce training and increase the warfighter capacity?

(015) What regional computing and data center provide enterprise services like messaging, Web access, and storage?

(015) What reason is the main purpose for consolidating Network Control Centers (NCC) and forming the Enterprise Service Desk?

(015) What year did the Air Force institute a single instance of Remedy allowing support to all locations within a single ticketing system?

(016) What two levels are joint task forces (JTF) divided into?

(016) The commander, Air Force forces (COMAFFOR) commands an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF) and provides unity of command to a

(017) What methodology is used by Air Force for presenting forces to combatant commanders (CCDR)?

(017) What basic building block is used in joint force planning and deployments of Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF)?

(018) Which stage is NOT one of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) Service Life Cycle stages?

(018) What Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage is an overarching stage for maintaining service quality?

(019) The vision of Enterprise Information Management (EIM) is to provide tools to empower users to

(019) Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFMAN 33–153, User Responsibilities and Guidance for Information Systems, by military personnel is a violation of what article of the UCMJ?

(019) How many rules are there for effective communication via e-mail?