Volume 1 CDC 2r051

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The first volume of the 2R051 Maintainence Management Anaylsis CDCs.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Air Force policy on air and space equipment maintenance expects maintenance to be performed at the:

    • A.

      A. Lowest Level

    • B.

      B. Highest Level

    • C.

      C. Depot facility

    • D.

      D. Contractor facility

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Lowest Level
    Explanation
    Air Force policy on air and space equipment maintenance expects maintenance to be performed at the lowest level. This means that maintenance tasks should be carried out by the personnel who are closest to the equipment and have the necessary skills and knowledge to perform the maintenance effectively. By conducting maintenance at the lowest level, the Air Force aims to improve efficiency, reduce costs, and ensure that equipment is maintained in a timely manner. This approach also allows for quicker turnaround times and minimizes the need for equipment to be sent to higher-level maintenance facilities.

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  • 2. 

    What rate is used as a metric to measure readiness in air and space maintenance?

    • A.

      A. Abort

    • B.

      B. Break

    • C.

      C. Cannibalization

    • D.

      D. Mission capability

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Abort
    Explanation
    The rate used as a metric to measure readiness in air and space maintenance is "Abort". This refers to the rate at which a mission or operation is terminated or canceled before completion. It indicates the readiness and effectiveness of the maintenance processes and systems in ensuring the successful completion of missions without any issues or failures.

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  • 3. 

    What provides the most effective and efficient use of people, facilities, and equipment?

    • A.

      A. Maintenance organization

    • B.

      B. Maintenance Planning.

    • C.

      C. Increased manning.

    • D.

      D. Increasing funding.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Maintenance Planning.
    Explanation
    Maintenance planning provides the most effective and efficient use of people, facilities, and equipment. By carefully and strategically planning maintenance activities, organizations can optimize the allocation of resources, minimize downtime, and ensure that equipment and facilities are properly maintained. This helps to prevent unexpected breakdowns and reduces the need for costly repairs or replacements. Maintenance planning also allows for better coordination and scheduling of maintenance tasks, maximizing productivity and minimizing disruptions to operations. Overall, effective maintenance planning is crucial for optimizing resource utilization and ensuring efficient operations.

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  • 4. 

    4. The primary focus of the maintenance effort should be on

    • A.

      Preventive maintenance

    • B.

      Corrective maintenance

    • C.

      Backshop maintenance

    • D.

      Depot Maintenance

    Correct Answer
    A. Preventive maintenance
    Explanation
    The primary focus of the maintenance effort should be on preventive maintenance. This is because preventive maintenance involves regularly inspecting and maintaining equipment to prevent breakdowns and reduce the likelihood of costly repairs. By proactively addressing potential issues before they become major problems, preventive maintenance helps to increase the lifespan of equipment, minimize downtime, and improve overall efficiency and productivity. Corrective maintenance, on the other hand, involves addressing issues after they occur, while backshop maintenance and depot maintenance are more specific types of maintenance that may be necessary depending on the industry or organization.

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  • 5. 

    When a maintenance unit encourages the development of automated information system and procedures that enhance productivity, it is accomplished by

    • A.

      A. Eliminating nonproductive administrative tasks and improving efficiency

    • B.

      B. Continously evaluating resources to meet mission changes and contingencies

    • C.

      C. Command channel communications, documentation, and reporting communications with support commands and agencies

    • D.

      D. Effectively scheduling aircraft, support, equipment, facilities, and personnel to meet maintenance requirements and flying schedules.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Eliminating nonproductive administrative tasks and improving efficiency
    Explanation
    The correct answer is A. Eliminating nonproductive administrative tasks and improving efficiency. This is because encouraging the development of automated information systems and procedures can help eliminate tasks that do not contribute to productivity and improve overall efficiency. By automating processes and reducing administrative workload, the maintenance unit can focus more on productive tasks and enhance productivity.

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  • 6. 

    Unit-level maintenance organizations are standardized throughout each major command based on size, similar wartime missions, and

    • A.

      Training

    • B.

      Budgetary constraints

    • C.

      Geographical location

    • D.

      Assigned weapons systems

    Correct Answer
    D. Assigned weapons systems
    Explanation
    Unit-level maintenance organizations are standardized throughout each major command based on their assigned weapons systems. This means that the maintenance organizations are structured and organized in a consistent manner based on the specific weapons systems they are responsible for maintaining. This ensures that the maintenance personnel are trained and equipped to effectively and efficiently maintain and repair the assigned weapons systems. By aligning the maintenance organizations with the weapons systems, the military can optimize their maintenance capabilities and ensure readiness for combat operations.

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  • 7. 

    Which squadron is responsible to the maintenance group (MXG) commander for all staff-related functions required for the efficient operation of aircraft maintenance functions within the MXG?

    • A.

      A. Maintenance

    • B.

      B. Aircraft Maintenance.

    • C.

      C. Maintenance operations.

    • D.

      D. Helicopter maintenance.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Maintenance operations.
    Explanation
    The squadron responsible for all staff-related functions required for the efficient operation of aircraft maintenance functions within the MXG is the Maintenance Operations squadron. This squadron is responsible for coordinating and managing the day-to-day operations of aircraft maintenance, including scheduling, planning, and executing maintenance tasks. They ensure that all necessary resources, personnel, and equipment are available to support the maintenance activities within the MXG.

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  • 8. 

    What is the title for the senior maintenance manager responsible for communications electronics (C-E) maintenance?

    • A.

      A. Officer-inCharge (OIC).

    • B.

      B. Chief of Maintenance (COM).

    • C.

      C. C-E Maintenance Officer.

    • D.

      D. Deputy Commander for C-E Maintenance

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Chief of Maintenance (COM).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is B. Chief of Maintenance (COM). This title is appropriate for the senior maintenance manager responsible for communications electronics (C-E) maintenance. The title "Chief of Maintenance" indicates a high-ranking position with authority and responsibility over the maintenance department. The addition of "(COM)" specifies that this position specifically oversees C-E maintenance, distinguishing it from other maintenance roles within the organization.

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  • 9. 

    9. (003) Any personnel, other than 2EXXX Air Force specialty code, performing maintenance on communications-electronics (C-E) equipment, whether assigned to a communications unit or not, is referred to as:

    • A.

      A. non-traditional technicians.

    • B.

      B. outsourced technicians.

    • C.

      C. irregular technicians.

    • D.

      D. contract technicians.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. non-traditional technicians.
    Explanation
    The term "non-traditional technicians" refers to personnel who are not assigned to a communications unit but are still responsible for performing maintenance on communications-electronics (C-E) equipment. This could include individuals from other Air Force specialty codes or even civilians who have the necessary skills to perform the maintenance tasks. They are considered "non-traditional" because they do not belong to the specific communications specialty code (2EXXX) typically associated with this type of work.

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  • 10. 

    What kind of communications-electronics (C-E) maintenance unit provides specialized maintenance and training capability above those normally found in operations and maintenance (O&M) units?

    • A.

      A. Special maintenance teams (SMT).

    • B.

      B. Consolidated repair activity (CRA).

    • C.

      C. Deployable elements of fixed units.

    • D.

      D. Functionally supported maintenance activity.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Special maintenance teams (SMT).
    Explanation
    Special maintenance teams (SMT) are a type of communications-electronics (C-E) maintenance unit that offers specialized maintenance and training capabilities beyond what is typically found in operations and maintenance (O&M) units. These teams are specifically designed to handle complex and advanced maintenance tasks that may require specialized knowledge or skills. They are often deployed to provide support in situations where regular O&M units may not have the expertise or resources to address the maintenance needs.

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  • 11. 

    For what program does the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) hold squadron CCs and supervisors at all levels responsible?

    • A.

      A. Nuclear Surety.

    • B.

      B. Weight and Balance.

    • C.

      C. Vehicle Management.

    • D.

      D. Dedicated Crew Chief.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Vehicle Management.
    Explanation
    The maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) holds squadron CCs and supervisors at all levels responsible for the program of Vehicle Management. This means that they are accountable for the proper management and maintenance of the vehicles within their squadrons. This includes ensuring that vehicles are properly serviced, repaired, and maintained to meet operational requirements. The MXG/CC oversees this program to ensure that all vehicles are in a state of readiness and that proper procedures are followed for their care and maintenance.

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  • 12. 

    Who is responsible for developing an Aircraft Impoundment Program?

    • A.

      A. Maintenance flight commander.

    • B.

      B. Maintenance squadron commander.

    • C.

      C. Maintenance group commander.

    • D.

      D. Base commander.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Maintenance group commander.
    Explanation
    The Maintenance group commander is responsible for developing an Aircraft Impoundment Program. This program involves the procedures and protocols for impounding or grounding aircraft that are deemed unsafe or non-compliant with regulations. As the highest-ranking maintenance officer in the group, the commander has the authority and expertise to oversee the development and implementation of such a program. The Maintenance flight commander, Maintenance squadron commander, and Base commander may have other responsibilities related to aircraft maintenance and operations, but the specific responsibility for developing an Aircraft Impoundment Program lies with the Maintenance group commander.

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  • 13. 

    Which commander (CC) does the maintenance group CC coordinate with concerning the High-Speed Taxi Check program?

    • A.

      A. Wing.

    • B.

      B. Operations group.

    • C.

      C. Operations squadron.

    • D.

      D. Transportation squadron.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Transportation squadron.
    Explanation
    The maintenance group CC coordinates with the Transportation squadron concerning the High-Speed Taxi Check program. This suggests that the Transportation squadron plays a crucial role in the program, possibly in providing transportation services or support for the taxi check activities.

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  • 14. 

    Who is responsible for directing CANN on assigned aircraft and coordinating the action with the maintenance operations center (MOC) and supply?

    • A.

      A. technician

    • B.

      B. flight chief

    • C.

      C. flightline expediter

    • D.

      D. production supervisor

    Correct Answer
    D. D. production supervisor
    Explanation
    The production supervisor is responsible for directing CANN (Cannibalization) on assigned aircraft and coordinating the action with the maintenance operations center (MOC) and supply. They oversee the production process and ensure that all tasks are carried out efficiently and effectively. They work closely with technicians, flight chiefs, and flightline expediters to ensure that the necessary resources and personnel are allocated appropriately. The production supervisor plays a crucial role in coordinating and managing the maintenance and supply activities to maintain the operational readiness of the aircraft.

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  • 15. 

    Who selects qualified personnel to perform production inspections and forwards names to

    • A.

      A. Squadron commander.

    • B.

      B. Production supervisor.

    • C.

      C. Section chief.

    • D.

      D. Flight chief.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Flight chief.
    Explanation
    The flight chief is responsible for selecting qualified personnel to perform production inspections and forwarding their names to the appropriate authorities. This is because the flight chief has the authority and knowledge to assess the skills and qualifications of individuals within their flight and ensure that the inspections are carried out by competent personnel. The squadron commander, production supervisor, and section chief may have other responsibilities within the production process, but the selection of qualified personnel for inspections falls under the purview of the flight chief.

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  • 16. 

    On what does the section chief perform spot checks for authorized levels?

    • A.

      A. Bench stock.

    • B.

      B. Tool storage.

    • C.

      C. Reparable parts.

    • D.

      D. Cannibalization.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Bench stock.
    Explanation
    The section chief performs spot checks for authorized levels on bench stock. Bench stock refers to the inventory of commonly used items that are kept readily available for immediate use. Spot checks help ensure that the section has the appropriate quantity of bench stock items, preventing shortages or excess inventory. By regularly checking the authorized levels, the section chief can maintain an efficient and well-stocked bench stock, enabling smooth operations and minimizing downtime.

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  • 17. 

    Who manages the Bad Actor Program?

    • A.

      A. Flight chief.

    • B.

      B. Section chief.

    • C.

      C. Flightline expediter.

    • D.

      D. Production supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Section chief.
    Explanation
    The Section chief manages the Bad Actor Program. This program is designed to identify and address individuals who consistently display negative behavior or performance issues within the organization. The Section chief is responsible for overseeing the program and ensuring that appropriate actions are taken to address and rectify the behavior or performance problems of the identified individuals.

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  • 18. 

    Who updates status of cannibalization (CANN) actions on assigned aircraft?

    • A.

      A. Flight chief.

    • B.

      B. Section chief.

    • C.

      C. Flightline expediter.

    • D.

      D. Production supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Flightline expediter.
    Explanation
    The flightline expediter is responsible for updating the status of cannibalization actions on assigned aircraft. They oversee the logistics and coordination of maintenance activities on the flightline, ensuring that necessary parts and resources are available for repairs. This role requires a good understanding of the aircraft's maintenance needs and the ability to prioritize and track the progress of cannibalization actions. The flight chief, section chief, and production supervisor may have other responsibilities related to aircraft maintenance, but updating the status of cannibalization actions falls under the purview of the flightline expediter.

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  • 19. 

    Who reviews aircraft forms before exceptional release?

    • A.

      A. Flight chief.

    • B.

      B. Flight line expediter.

    • C.

      C. Dedicated crew chief.

    • D.

      D. Production supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Flight line expediter.
    Explanation
    The flight line expediter is responsible for reviewing aircraft forms before exceptional release. They ensure that all necessary documentation is complete and accurate before the aircraft is released for flight. This role is crucial in maintaining the safety and efficiency of aircraft operations.

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  • 20. 

    Who is responsible for on-aircraft –21 equipment inventories when this responsibility is not assigned to another function?

    • A.

      A. Flight chief.

    • B.

      B. Flightline expediter.

    • C.

      C. Dedicated crew chief.

    • D.

      D. Production supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Dedicated crew chief.
    Explanation
    When the responsibility for on-aircraft equipment inventories is not assigned to another function, the dedicated crew chief is responsible for it. The dedicated crew chief is responsible for the overall maintenance and management of the aircraft, including ensuring that all equipment on the aircraft is properly inventoried and accounted for. This role is specifically assigned to the dedicated crew chief, making them the correct answer for this question.

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  • 21. 

    Who is responsible for resolving Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) problems that are beyond the capability of the functional user?

    • A.

      A. Systems monitor.

    • B.

      B. Database manager.

    • C.

      C. Database designer.

    • D.

      D. Database administrator.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Database manager.
    Explanation
    The database manager is responsible for resolving Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) problems that are beyond the capability of the functional user. They are in charge of managing and maintaining the database, ensuring its efficiency, security, and resolving any technical issues that may arise. This role involves overseeing the overall performance of the database and making necessary adjustments or improvements to ensure its smooth operation.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following provides information and communication services to military and government organizations in an assigned region of the United States?

    • A.

      A. Database management (DBM).

    • B.

      B. Base Network Control Center (BNCC).

    • C.

      C. Defense Enterprise Computing Center (DECC).

    • D.

      D. Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) Management Center.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Defense Enterprise Computing Center (DECC).
    Explanation
    The Defense Enterprise Computing Center (DECC) provides information and communication services to military and government organizations in an assigned region of the United States. The DECC is responsible for managing and maintaining the computing infrastructure, including servers, networks, and databases, that support these organizations. It ensures that the systems are secure, reliable, and accessible to authorized users. The DECC plays a crucial role in supporting the operations and communication needs of military and government organizations within its assigned region.

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  • 23. 

    The two main agencies within the 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG) are the a. functional analysis and database administrator.

    • A.

      A. functional analysis and database administrator.

    • B.

      B. database administrator and Field Assistance Service (FAS).

    • C.

      C. Systems program office (SPO) and Field Assistance Service (FAS).

    • D.

      D. Interactive Customer Service Facility and database administrator.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Systems program office (SPO) and Field Assistance Service (FAS).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. Systems program office (SPO) and Field Assistance Service (FAS). This is because the question asks for the two main agencies within the 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG), and the SPO and FAS are the agencies mentioned in the given options. The other options, such as functional analysis and database administrator, and interactive customer service facility and database administrator, are not mentioned as agencies within the ELSG. Therefore, the correct answer is c. Systems program office (SPO) and Field Assistance Service (FAS).

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  • 24. 

    Who is the initial point of contact (POC) at 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG) when an Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database problem exists that cannot be fixed at base level?

    • A.

      A. Host database manager (DBM).

    • B.

      B. System program office (SPO).

    • C.

      C. Database administrator (DBA).

    • D.

      D. Field Assistance Service (FAS).

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Field Assistance Service (FAS).
    Explanation
    When an Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database problem cannot be fixed at base level, the initial point of contact (POC) is the Field Assistance Service (FAS). The FAS is responsible for providing on-site technical support and assistance to resolve complex issues that cannot be resolved at the base level. They have the expertise and resources to troubleshoot and resolve database problems effectively. The Host database manager (DBM), System program office (SPO), and Database administrator (DBA) may also be involved in resolving the issue, but the FAS is the primary point of contact in this scenario.

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  • 25. 

    The Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) Management Center is operated by:

    • A.

      A. 754th Electronics Systems Group (ELSG).

    • B.

      B. Field Assistance Service (FAS).

    • C.

      C. Database manager (DBM).

    • D.

      D. Northrop Grumman.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Northrop Grumman.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. Northrop Grumman. This means that the Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) Management Center is operated by Northrop Grumman.

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  • 26. 

    The local area network (LAN) component that provides services to the users on the network is known as the:

    • A.

      A. server.

    • B.

      B. protocols.

    • C.

      C. workstation.

    • D.

      D. server network.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. server.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a. server. In a local area network (LAN), the server is the component that provides services to the users on the network. It stores and manages files, applications, and resources that can be accessed by other devices on the network. The server acts as a central hub, allowing users to share data, access shared printers, and connect to the internet. It also manages user authentication and security permissions within the network.

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  • 27. 

    Operating rules used in local area network (LAN) applications are known as

    • A.

      A. protocols.

    • B.

      B. networking.

    • C.

      C. topologies.

    • D.

      D. data language.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. protocols.
    Explanation
    Operating rules used in local area network (LAN) applications are known as protocols. Protocols define the rules and procedures for communication between devices in a network. They determine how data is transmitted, received, and interpreted, ensuring that devices can effectively communicate with each other. Protocols include standards like Ethernet, TCP/IP, and Wi-Fi, which govern different aspects of network communication such as addressing, routing, error detection, and data transmission.

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  • 28. 

    Which software is required to access Integrated Maintenance Data System graphical user interface (IMDS GUI)?

    • A.

      A. Photo editor.

    • B.

      B. Image reader.

    • C.

      C. Media player.

    • D.

      D. Internet browser.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Internet browser.
    Explanation
    To access the Integrated Maintenance Data System graphical user interface (IMDS GUI), an internet browser is required. The IMDS GUI is a web-based application, and therefore, an internet browser is necessary to connect to the system and access its interface. A photo editor, image reader, or media player would not be relevant or compatible with the IMDS GUI.

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  • 29. 

    Which one of the following must the database manager (DBM) obtain from the base network control center (BNCC) to gain terminal access to Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS)?

    • A.

      A. IMDS password.

    • B.

      B. Security clearance.

    • C.

      C. Server address setting.

    • D.

      D. Remote identification (ID).

    Correct Answer
    D. D. Remote identification (ID).
    Explanation
    The database manager (DBM) needs to obtain the remote identification (ID) from the base network control center (BNCC) in order to gain terminal access to Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS). This ID is necessary to authenticate and identify the DBM when connecting to the IMDS remotely. Without the remote ID, the DBM will not be able to establish a secure connection and access the system.

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  • 30. 

    (012)  The transaction interface package (TIP) provides

    • A.

      A. access to multiple mainframes.

    • B.

      B. users with a fast-file control system.

    • C.

      C. for background scheduling of transactions.

    • D.

      D. users with the capability to access application programs.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. users with a fast-file control system.
    Explanation
    The transaction interface package (TIP) provides users with a fast-file control system. This means that TIP allows users to efficiently manage and control their files, ensuring fast and reliable access to data. TIP likely offers features such as file organization, indexing, searching, and retrieval, enabling users to quickly and easily interact with their files. This functionality is crucial for businesses and organizations that rely on transaction processing systems to handle large volumes of data and perform tasks such as data entry, updating, and reporting.

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  • 31. 

     (012) DEMAND processing is a

    • A.

      A. mode that directs the activity of the operating system.

    • B.

      B. mode in which several runs are grouped before processing.

    • C.

      C. method for maintaining historical data for load, change, inquiry, and deletion.

    • D.

      D. manner of processing in which a user is not restricted to a specific automated information system (AIS).

    Correct Answer
    D. D. manner of processing in which a user is not restricted to a specific automated information system (AIS).
    Explanation
    DEMAND processing refers to a manner of processing in which a user is not restricted to a specific automated information system (AIS). This means that users have the flexibility to access and process information from different systems as needed, without being limited to a specific system. This allows for greater flexibility and efficiency in processing information.

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  • 32. 

    Which best describes on-line processing?

    • A.

      A. Programs are printed at Defense Enterprise Computing Center (DECC).

    • B.

      B. Equipment is under the direct control of the mainframe.

    • C.

      C. Programs are processed by the console operator.

    • D.

      D. Equipment must remain on at all times.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Equipment is under the direct control of the mainframe.
    Explanation
    On-line processing refers to a method of data processing where equipment, such as computers or terminals, is directly connected to a central mainframe. In this method, the equipment is under the direct control of the mainframe, allowing for real-time processing and immediate access to data. This enables users to interact with the system and perform tasks without delays. The other options provided in the question do not accurately describe on-line processing.

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  • 33. 

    (012) Online processing may be called

    • A.

      A. batch processing.

    • B.

      B. real-time processing.

    • C.

      C. pseudo remote processing.

    • D.

      D. remote job entry terminal processing.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. real-time processing.
    Explanation
    Online processing refers to a method of data processing where transactions are processed immediately as they occur, providing real-time results. This is in contrast to batch processing, where transactions are collected and processed later in a batch. Pseudo remote processing and remote job entry terminal processing are not accurate terms to describe online processing. Therefore, the correct answer is b. real-time processing.

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  • 34. 

    (012) What is considered the easiest method of creating a data file for pseudo processing?

    • A.

      A. Running the NFS0A0 program.

    • B.

      B. Creating the data file in demand mode.

    • C.

      C. Uploading required data before using a pseudo file.

    • D.

      D. Manually inputting data into a personal computer (PC) file then upload to pseudo file.

    Correct Answer
    A. A. Running the NFS0A0 program.
  • 35. 

    (013) In what mode do you run pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB)?

    • A.

      A. None.

    • B.

      B. DEMAND.

    • C.

      C. Windows.

    • D.

      D. Transaction interface package (TIP).

    Correct Answer
    B. B. DEMAND.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is b. DEMAND. In PSURPB (pseudo remote processor for batch), the mode in which it runs is DEMAND. This means that the processor will only execute a job when it is requested or demanded by the system. In this mode, the processor will not automatically process jobs, but will wait for a request to process a specific job.

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  • 36. 

    (013) What indicator tells you that a pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB) program has completed processing?

    • A.

      A. A line on the monitor screen says, “PSURPB COMPLETE.”

    • B.

      B. The start of entry (SOE) character appears.

    • C.

      C. The monitor gives a beep to notify you.

    • D.

      D. You receive an E-mail notification.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. The start of entry (SOE) character appears.
    Explanation
    When a pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB) program completes processing, the indicator that tells you this is the appearance of the start of entry (SOE) character. This character appearing signifies that the program has finished its processing.

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  • 37. 

    (014) Which application program file holds the absolute elements for batch processing in transaction interface package (TIP)?

    • A.

      A. FS$$0000*00.

    • B.

      B. 0FS0*DBRUN$.

    • C.

      C. 0FS0*DBALIB$.

    • D.

      D. 0FS00000*PABSAG054-AP.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. 0FS00000*PABSAG054-AP.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. 0FS00000*PABSAG054-AP. This file holds the absolute elements for batch processing in the transaction interface package (TIP).

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  • 38. 

    (014) Which application program file contains the element used to troubleshoot the database?

    • A.

      A. FS$$0000*00.

    • B.

      B. 0FS0*DBALIB$.

    • C.

      C. 0FS00000*PECLAG054-EL.

    • D.

      D. 0FS00000*PABTAG054-AP.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 0FS00000*PECLAG054-EL.
  • 39. 

    (014) Which support program file controls all online programs for each automated information system (AIS)?

    • A.

      A. TIP FILE 611.

    • B.

      B. IRU processor.

    • C.

      C. VALTAB.

    • D.

      D. SUPUR processor.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. VALTAB.
    Explanation
    The VALTAB support program file controls all online programs for each automated information system (AIS). This file contains the validation tables that define the rules and criteria for data validation in the system. It ensures that the data entered into the system is accurate and meets the required standards. The VALTAB file is essential for maintaining data integrity and ensuring the smooth functioning of the AIS.

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  • 40. 

    (014) Which support program file ensures the functional system administrator (FSA) is running and up to date for the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database?

    • A.

      A. TIP File 611.

    • B.

      B. 0FS0*DBRUN$.

    • C.

      C. VALTAB.

    • D.

      D. SUPUR processor.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. VALTAB.
    Explanation
    The VALTAB support program file ensures that the functional system administrator (FSA) is running and up to date for the Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) database. This file contains the validation tables that are used by the IMDS system to validate data entered into the database. The FSA relies on these validation tables to ensure that the data being entered is accurate and meets the required standards. Therefore, keeping the VALTAB file up to date is essential for the smooth functioning of the IMDS database.

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  • 41. 

     (015) The basic keyin console mode allows

    • A.

      A. a user to use unsolicited keyins.

    • B.

      B. a user to use all basic console keyins.

    • C.

      C. a user to request the status on a user’s run.

    • D.

      D. database managers (DBM) to operate in full screen mode.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. a user to request the status on a user’s run.
    Explanation
    The basic keyin console mode allows a user to request the status on a user's run. This means that the user can use the console to check the progress or current status of a task or program that is running. It provides a way for the user to monitor and track the execution of their processes. The other options mentioned in the question, such as unsolicited keyins, all basic console keyins, and operating in full screen mode, are not specifically related to requesting the status on a user's run.

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  • 42. 

    (015) What console mode command displays a list of active runs?

    • A.

      A. T,B.

    • B.

      B. T D.

    • C.

      C. @@RUN,A.

    • D.

      D. @@TM.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. T D.
    Explanation
    The console mode command "T D" displays a list of active runs.

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  • 43. 

    (016) What executive control language (ECL) command will provide you with the mainframe file transfer protocol (FTP) address?

    • A.

      A. @CAT.

    • B.

      B. @RUN.

    • C.

      C. @DATA.

    • D.

      D. @WHOAMI.

    Correct Answer
    D. D. @WHOAMI.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is d. @WHOAMI. The @WHOAMI command in executive control language (ECL) provides the mainframe file transfer protocol (FTP) address. This command is used to display the user ID, session ID, and FTP address of the current user.

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  • 44. 

    (016) What do you call the filename you created on your personal computer (PC) when you do a file transfer?

    • A.

      A. PC file.

    • B.

      B. User file.

    • C.

      C. Local file.

    • D.

      D. Remote file.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. Local file.
    Explanation
    When you do a file transfer on your personal computer (PC), the filename that you create is referred to as a local file. This term is used to distinguish the file from files that are stored or transferred on remote systems or networks.

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  • 45. 

    (017) A collection of instructions that, when executed, results in the performance of one or more logical functions is called

    • A.

      A. an element.

    • B.

      B. a program.

    • C.

      C. a granule.

    • D.

      D. a file.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. a program.
    Explanation
    A program is a collection of instructions that are designed to perform specific logical functions when executed. It is a set of coded instructions that tells a computer how to perform a particular task or set of tasks. Programs can be written in different programming languages and can range from simple scripts to complex software applications. Therefore, option b, "a program," is the correct answer.

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  • 46. 

    (018) What executive control language (ECL) command syntax symbol is used to indicate to the system an option is to follow?

    • A.

      A. Splat (*).

    • B.

      B. Comma (,).

    • C.

      C. Semicolon (;).

    • D.

      D. Master Space (@).

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Comma (,).
    Explanation
    The comma (,) is used in ECL command syntax to indicate to the system that an option is to follow.

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  • 47. 

    (018) A /WRITE-KEY, when used, is presented

    • A.

      A. after the filename and before the @.

    • B.

      B. before the filename and after the period.

    • C.

      C. after the filename and before the period.

    • D.

      D. before the element name and after the comma.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. after the filename and before the period.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is c. after the filename and before the period. This means that when the /WRITE-KEY is used, it is placed after the filename and before the period in the file name.

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  • 48. 

    . (018) What should be used when constructing an executive control language (ECL) file to differentiate between two elements with identical names?

    • A.

      A. Cycle.

    • B.

      B. VERSION.

    • C.

      C. Qualifier.

    • D.

      D. Master Space (@).

    Correct Answer
    B. B. VERSION.
    Explanation
    When constructing an executive control language (ECL) file, the "VERSION" should be used to differentiate between two elements with identical names. This suggests that the version of the element can be specified to distinguish between them.

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  • 49. 

    (019) What is the maximum size a message can be when created with the @MSG executive control language (ECL) command?

    • A.

      A. 25 characters.

    • B.

      B. 45 characters.

    • C.

      C. 48 characters.

    • D.

      D. 50 characters.

    Correct Answer
    C. C. 48 characters.
    Explanation
    The maximum size a message can be when created with the @MSG executive control language (ECL) command is 48 characters. This means that the message can contain up to 48 characters, including letters, numbers, and symbols. It is important to note that any message created with this command cannot exceed this limit.

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  • 50. 

    (019) What is the purpose of the executive control language (ECL) information command @FAC?

    • A.

      A. Places the user in the conversational timesharing (CTS) environment.

    • B.

      B. Analyzes a 12-digit octal number when a facility reject occurs.

    • C.

      C. Lists basic information about a specified file.

    • D.

      D. Suppresses the display to the console.

    Correct Answer
    B. B. Analyzes a 12-digit octal number when a facility reject occurs.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Aug 15, 2012
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