Final Exam - Chapter 21
(48).webp "Final Exam - Chapter 21 - Quiz")
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The only lymphatic organ with both afferent and efferent lymphatic vessels is
- A.
The spleen
- B.
A lymph node
- C.
A tonsil
- D.
A Peyer patch
- E.
The thymus
Correct Answer
B. A lymph nodeExplanation
A lymph node is the only lymphatic organ that has both afferent and efferent lymphatic vessels. Afferent lymphatic vessels bring lymph fluid containing pathogens, toxins, and waste products into the lymph node, while efferent lymphatic vessels carry filtered lymph fluid away from the node. This allows the lymph node to act as a filtering station, where immune cells can encounter and eliminate harmful substances before the lymph fluid is returned to the bloodstream. The spleen, tonsils, Peyer's patches, and thymus are all lymphatic organs, but they do not have both afferent and efferent lymphatic vessels.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following cells are involved in nonspecific resistance but not in specific defense?
- A.
Helper T cells
- B.
Cytotoxic T cells
- C.
Natural killer cells
- D.
B cells
- E.
Plasma cells
Correct Answer
C. Natural killer cellsExplanation
Natural killer cells are involved in nonspecific resistance because they are able to recognize and kill infected or cancerous cells without the need for prior exposure or activation. They do not participate in specific defense because they do not have the ability to recognize specific antigens or produce antibodies like B cells and plasma cells. Helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells are involved in specific defense as they play a role in coordinating and executing specific immune responses against pathogens.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The respiratory burst is used by ______ to kill bacteria
- A.
Neutrophils
- B.
Basophils
- C.
Mast cells
- D.
NK cells
- E.
Cytotoxic T cells
Correct Answer
A. NeutrophilsExplanation
Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response against bacterial infections. They are equipped with a process called respiratory burst, which involves the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) to kill bacteria. This burst of ROS helps neutrophils to neutralize and eliminate the invading bacteria effectively. Therefore, neutrophils utilize the respiratory burst to kill bacteria.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which of these is a macrophage?
- A.
A microglial cell
- B.
A plasma cell
- C.
A reticular cell
- D.
A helper T cell
- E.
A mast cell
Correct Answer
A. A microglial cellExplanation
A microglial cell is a type of macrophage found in the central nervous system. It is responsible for immune defense and scavenging debris and pathogens in the brain and spinal cord. Unlike other macrophages, microglial cells are derived from the same lineage as white blood cells and are specifically adapted to the unique environment of the central nervous system. They play a crucial role in maintaining brain health and regulating inflammation.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The cytolytic action of the complement system is most similar to the action of
- A.
Interleukin-1
- B.
Platelet-derived growth factor
- C.
Granzymes
- D.
Perforin
- E.
IgE
Correct Answer
D. PerforinExplanation
Perforin is a protein released by cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells that forms pores in the target cell's membrane, leading to cell lysis. This is similar to the cytolytic action of the complement system, which also forms pores in the target cell's membrane, causing cell death. Interleukin-1 is a pro-inflammatory cytokine, platelet-derived growth factor stimulates cell growth and division, granzymes are enzymes released by cytotoxic T cells to induce apoptosis in target cells, and IgE is an antibody involved in allergic reactions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
_______ become antigenic by binding to larger host molecules.
- A.
Epitopes
- B.
Haptens
- C.
Interleukins
- D.
Pyrogens
- E.
Cell-adhesion molecules
Correct Answer
B. HaptensExplanation
Haptens become antigenic by binding to larger host molecules. Haptens are small molecules that are not immunogenic on their own but can become immunogenic when they bind to larger molecules in the body, such as proteins. This binding creates a complex that can be recognized by the immune system as foreign, leading to an immune response.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which of the following correctly states the order of events in humoral immunity? Let 1 = antigen display. 2=antibody secretion. 3=secretion of interleukin. 4=clonal selection, and 5=endocytosis of an antigen.
- A.
3-4-1-5-2
- B.
5-3-1-2-4
- C.
3-5-1-4-2
- D.
5-3-1-4-2
- E.
5-1-3-4-2
Correct Answer
E. 5-1-3-4-2Explanation
The correct order of events in humoral immunity is as follows: first, endocytosis of an antigen occurs (5), then antigen display takes place (1), followed by secretion of interleukin (3), clonal selection (4), and finally, antibody secretion (2).Rate this question:
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- 8.
The cardinal signs of inflammation include all of the following except
- A.
Redness
- B.
Swelling
- C.
Heat
- D.
Fever
- E.
Pain
Correct Answer
D. FeverExplanation
The cardinal signs of inflammation are redness, swelling, heat, and pain. Fever, on the other hand, is not considered one of the cardinal signs of inflammation. Fever is a systemic response of the body to an infection or inflammation, characterized by an elevated body temperature. While fever can be associated with inflammation, it is not considered one of the primary signs.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A helper T cell can bind only to another cell that has
- A.
MHC-II proteins
- B.
An epitope
- C.
An antigen-binding site
- D.
A complement-binding site
- E.
A CD4 protein
Correct Answer
A. MHC-II proteinsExplanation
Helper T cells are a type of immune cell that plays a crucial role in coordinating the immune response. They recognize antigens, which are foreign substances that trigger an immune response. In order for a helper T cell to bind to another cell and initiate an immune response, the other cell must present the antigen on its surface using MHC-II proteins. These proteins act as a display platform for antigens, allowing helper T cells to recognize and bind to them. Therefore, the presence of MHC-II proteins is necessary for a helper T cell to bind to another cell.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which of the following results from a lack of self-tolereance?
- A.
SCID
- B.
AIDS
- C.
Systemic lupus erythematosus
- D.
Anaphylaxis
- E.
Asthma
Correct Answer
C. Systemic lupus erythematosusExplanation
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease where the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy tissues in the body. This lack of self-tolerance occurs when the immune system fails to recognize self-antigens and attacks the body's own cells and tissues. This can lead to inflammation and damage in various organs and systems of the body. SCID, AIDS, anaphylaxis, and asthma are not caused by a lack of self-tolerance, but rather by different mechanisms such as genetic mutations, viral infections, or allergic reactions.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Some bacteria employ lysozyme to liquefy the tissue gel and make it easier for them to get around
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Lysozyme is a bacteria-killing enzymeRate this question:
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- 12.
T lymphocytes undergo clonal deletion and anergy in the Thymus
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
T lymphocytes undergo clonal deletion and anergy in the thymus. Clonal deletion refers to the process of eliminating T lymphocytes that recognize self-antigens, preventing the development of autoimmune diseases. Anergy refers to the state of functional inactivation of T lymphocytes that do not encounter antigens during their maturation process. Both clonal deletion and anergy are important mechanisms for ensuring the proper functioning of the immune system and maintaining self-tolerance. Therefore, the statement that T lymphocytes undergo clonal deletion and anergy in the thymus is true.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Interferons help to reduce inflammation
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Interferons promote inflammationRate this question:
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- 14.
T lymphocytes are involved only in cell-mediated immunity
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Helper T cells are also necessary to humoral immunityRate this question:
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- 15.
The white pulp of the spleen gets its color mainly from lymphocytes and macrophages.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The white pulp of the spleen gets its color mainly from lymphocytes and macrophages. This is because the white pulp is composed of lymphoid tissue, which contains a high concentration of lymphocytes and macrophages. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a key role in the immune response, while macrophages are large phagocytic cells that help to engulf and eliminate pathogens. The presence of these cells in the white pulp gives it a distinct white coloration. Therefore, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Perforins are employed in both nonspecific resistance and cellular immunity.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Perforins are proteins that are used by the immune system to destroy infected or cancerous cells. They are a key component of both the nonspecific resistance and cellular immunity responses. Nonspecific resistance refers to the general defense mechanisms that the body has against pathogens, while cellular immunity involves the activation of specific immune cells to target and eliminate infected or abnormal cells. Since perforins play a role in both of these processes, the statement is true.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Histamine and heparin are secreted by basophils and mast cells
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Basophils and mast cells are types of white blood cells that play a role in the immune response. They release histamine and heparin, which are important molecules involved in inflammation and allergic reactions. Histamine causes blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable, while heparin prevents blood clotting. Therefore, it is true that histamine and heparin are secreted by basophils and mast cells.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A person who is HIV-positive and has a TH (CD4) count of 1,000 cells/mL does not have AIDS.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
A person who is HIV-positive and has a TH (CD4) count of 1,000 cells/mL does not have AIDS. This is because AIDS is diagnosed when the CD4 count drops below 200 cells/mL or when certain opportunistic infections occur in HIV-positive individuals. With a CD4 count of 1,000 cells/mL, the person's immune system is still relatively strong, indicating that they have not progressed to AIDS. Therefore, the statement "True" is correct.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Anergy is often a cause of autoimmune diseases.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Anergy is a loss of lymphocyte activity, where as auto immune diseases result from mis directed activity.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Interferons kill pathogenic bacteria by making holes in their cell walls.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Interferons inhibit viral replication; perforins lyse bacteria.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Micturition occurs when the _______ contracts.
- A.
Detrusor muscle
- B.
Internal urethral sphincter
- C.
External urethral sphincter
- D.
Muscularis of the ureter
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
A. Detrusor muscleExplanation
When micturition occurs, the detrusor muscle contracts. The detrusor muscle is a smooth muscle layer found in the wall of the urinary bladder. It is responsible for contracting and emptying the bladder during urination. The other options listed, such as the internal urethral sphincter, external urethral sphincter, and muscularis of the ureter, are not directly involved in the contraction of the bladder during micturition. Therefore, the correct answer is the detrusor muscle.Rate this question:
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- 22.
The compact ball of capillaries in a nephron is called
- A.
The nephron loop
- B.
The peritubular plexus
- C.
The renal corpuscle
- D.
The glomerulus
- E.
The vasa recta
Correct Answer
D. The glomerulusExplanation
The correct answer is the glomerulus. The glomerulus is a compact ball of capillaries located in the renal corpuscle of the nephron. It is responsible for the initial filtration of blood in the kidney, where waste products and excess fluid are filtered out to form urine. The glomerulus plays a crucial role in the process of urine formation and is an essential component of the nephron.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which of these is the most abudant nitrogenous waste in the blood?
- A.
Uric acid
- B.
Urea
- C.
Ammonia
- D.
Creatinine
- E.
Albumin
Correct Answer
B. UreaExplanation
Urea is the most abundant nitrogenous waste in the blood. It is produced in the liver during the breakdown of proteins and amino acids. Urea is then transported to the kidneys through the bloodstream, where it is filtered out and excreted in urine. Compared to other nitrogenous wastes like uric acid, ammonia, and creatinine, urea is present in higher concentrations in the blood, making it the most abundant nitrogenous waste. Albumin, on the other hand, is a protein and not a nitrogenous waste.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which of these lies closest to the renal cortex?
- A.
The parietal peritoneum
- B.
The renal fascia
- C.
The fibrous capsule
- D.
The perirenal fat capsule
- E.
The renal pelvis
Correct Answer
C. The fibrous capsuleExplanation
The fibrous capsule lies closest to the renal cortex. The renal cortex is the outer region of the kidney, and the fibrous capsule is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds the kidney. It provides support and protection to the kidney, and is in direct contact with the renal cortex. The other options listed, such as the parietal peritoneum, renal fascia, perirenal fat capsule, and renal pelvis, are all located outside or inside the kidney, but not directly adjacent to the renal cortex.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Most sodium is reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by
- A.
The vasa recta
- B.
The proximal convoluted tubule
- C.
The distal convoluted tubule
- D.
The nephron loop
- E.
The collecting duct
Correct Answer
B. The proximal convoluted tubuleExplanation
The proximal convoluted tubule is responsible for reabsorbing most of the sodium from the glomerular filtrate. This tubule is located in the kidney and is the first part of the renal tubule system. It plays a crucial role in the reabsorption of water, electrolytes, and other solutes from the filtrate back into the bloodstream. The proximal convoluted tubule has a high density of transport proteins on its epithelial cells, which actively transport sodium ions out of the tubule and into the surrounding capillaries. This reabsorption process helps maintain the body's sodium balance and regulate blood pressure.Rate this question:
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- 26.
A glomerulus and glomerular capsule make up one
- A.
Renal capsule
- B.
Renal corpuscle
- C.
Kidney lobule
- D.
Kidney lobe
- E.
Nephron
Correct Answer
B. Renal corpuscleExplanation
A glomerulus and glomerular capsule make up the renal corpuscle. The renal corpuscle is a structure within the kidney that is responsible for the initial filtration of blood to form urine. The glomerulus is a network of capillaries that filters blood, while the glomerular capsule surrounds the glomerulus and collects the filtrate. Together, they form the renal corpuscle, which is an important component of the nephron, the functional unit of the kidney. The other options, renal capsule, kidney lobule, kidney lobe, and nephron, do not accurately describe the specific structure formed by the glomerulus and glomerular capsule.Rate this question:
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- 27.
The kidney has more _______ than any of the other structures listed.
- A.
Arcuate arteries
- B.
Minor calyces
- C.
Medullary pyramids
- D.
Afferent arterioles
- E.
Collecting ducts
Correct Answer
D. Afferent arteriolesExplanation
The kidney has more afferent arterioles than any of the other structures listed. Afferent arterioles are responsible for bringing blood into the glomerulus, where filtration occurs. They are numerous and play a crucial role in maintaining proper blood flow and filtration in the kidney. The other structures listed, such as arcuate arteries, minor calyces, medullary pyramids, and collecting ducts, are important components of the kidney but do not have as many as afferent arterioles.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The renal clearance of _______ is normally zero.
- A.
Sodium
- B.
Potassium
- C.
Uric acid
- D.
Urea
- E.
Amino acids
Correct Answer
E. Amino acidsExplanation
Amino acids are essential molecules for various biological processes and are actively reabsorbed by the kidneys. Therefore, under normal circumstances, the renal clearance of amino acids is zero, meaning that they are not excreted in the urine. This is because the kidneys efficiently reabsorb amino acids back into the bloodstream to maintain their balance in the body.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Beavers have relatively little need to conserve eater and could therefore be expected to have _____ than humans do.
- A.
Fewer nephrons
- B.
Longer nephron loops
- C.
Shorter nephron loops
- D.
Longer collecting ducts
- E.
Longer convoluted tubules
Correct Answer
C. Shorter nephron loopsExplanation
Beavers have relatively little need to conserve water because they live in aquatic environments and have easy access to water. Therefore, they could be expected to have shorter nephron loops compared to humans. Nephron loops play a crucial role in reabsorbing water from the filtrate, so shorter loops would result in less water being reabsorbed, allowing beavers to excrete more water and maintain a higher water intake.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Increased ADH secretion should cause the urine to have
- A.
A higher specific gravity
- B.
A lighter color
- C.
A higher pH
- D.
A lower urea concentration
- E.
A lower potassium concentration
Correct Answer
A. A higher specific gravityExplanation
ADH (antidiuretic hormone) is responsible for regulating the concentration of urine by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys. When ADH secretion is increased, the kidneys reabsorb more water, resulting in a smaller volume of more concentrated urine. The specific gravity of urine is a measure of its concentration, with a higher specific gravity indicating a higher concentration of solutes. Therefore, increased ADH secretion would cause the urine to have a higher specific gravity.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The proximal convoluted tubule is not subject to hormonal influence.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Calcium and sodium reabsorption by the PCT are influenced by parathyroid hormone and angiotensin II.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Sodium is the most abundant solute in the urine.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Urine contains more urea and chloride than sodiumRate this question:
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- 33.
The kidney has more distal convoluted tubules than collecting ducts.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
The kidney has more distal convoluted tubules than collecting ducts. This statement is true because the distal convoluted tubules are responsible for reabsorbing water and electrolytes from the filtrate, while the collecting ducts are responsible for further concentrating the urine and reabsorbing water. Therefore, there are multiple distal convoluted tubules in the kidney to ensure efficient reabsorption, whereas there is only one collecting duct for each nephron.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Tight junctions prevent material from leaking between the epithelial cells of the renal tubule.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
A substantial amount of tubular fluid is reasorbed by the paracellular route, passing through leaky tight junctions.Rate this question:
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- 35.
All forms of diabetes are charactgerized by glucose in the urine.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Glyosuria does not occur in diabetes insipidus.Rate this question:
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- 36.
If all other conditions remain the same, constriction of the afferent arteriole reduces the glomerular filtration rate.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Constriction of the afferent arteriole reduces the glomerular filtration rate because it decreases the blood flow into the glomerulus. The afferent arteriole is responsible for supplying blood to the glomerulus, where filtration occurs. When it constricts, it narrows the opening and restricts the amount of blood that can enter the glomerulus. As a result, less blood is filtered and the glomerular filtration rate decreases.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Angiotensin II reduces urine output.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Angiotensin II is a hormone that constricts blood vessels and stimulates the release of aldosterone, which promotes water and sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. This results in reduced urine output, as less water and sodium are excreted in the urine. Therefore, the statement that angiotensin II reduces urine output is true.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The minimum osmolarity of urine is 300 mOsm/L, equal to the osmolarity of the blood
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
Urine can be as dilute as 50 mOsm/LRate this question:
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- 39.
A sodium deficiency (hyponatremia) could cause glycosuria.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
A sodium deficiency, also known as hyponatremia, can cause glycosuria. This is because when sodium levels are low, it can disrupt the balance of fluids and electrolytes in the body, leading to increased glucose levels in the urine. This condition, known as glycosuria, occurs when the kidneys are unable to reabsorb all the glucose filtered from the blood, resulting in its excretion in the urine. Therefore, it is true that a sodium deficiency can cause glycosuria.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Micturition depends on contraction of the detrusor muscle.
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
A. TrueExplanation
Micturition refers to the process of emptying the bladder. The detrusor muscle is responsible for contracting and relaxing to control the flow of urine. When the detrusor muscle contracts, it creates pressure on the bladder, causing urine to be expelled. Therefore, it is correct to say that micturition depends on the contraction of the detrusor muscle.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following enzymes acts in the stomach?
- A.
Chymotrypsin
- B.
Lingula lipase
- C.
Carboxypeptidase
- D.
Enterokinase
- E.
Dextrinase
Correct Answer
B. Lingula lipaseExplanation
Lingula lipase is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that acts in the stomach. Lipases are enzymes that break down fats, and lingula lipase specifically functions in the stomach to digest dietary fats. Chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase, enterokinase, and dextrinase are all enzymes that have different functions and do not primarily act in the stomach.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which of the following enzymnes does not digest any nutrients?
- A.
Chymotrypsin
- B.
Lingual lipase
- C.
Carboxypeptidase
- D.
Enterokinase
- E.
Dextrinase
Correct Answer
D. EnterokinaseExplanation
Enterokinase is the correct answer because it is not involved in the digestion of any nutrients. Enterokinase is an enzyme that activates trypsinogen into its active form, trypsin, in the small intestine. It does not directly participate in the breakdown of nutrients like chymotrypsin, lingual lipase, carboxypeptidase, and dextrinase, which are all involved in the digestion of proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which of the following is not an enzyme?
- A.
Chymotrypsin
- B.
Enterokinase
- C.
Secretin
- D.
Pepsin
- E.
Nucleosidase
Correct Answer
C. SecretinExplanation
Secretin is not an enzyme because it is a hormone produced in the small intestine. It is released in response to the presence of acid in the duodenum and stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice, which helps neutralize the acidic chyme coming from the stomach. Unlike the other options listed, secretin does not catalyze any chemical reactions or participate in the breakdown of substrates.Rate this question:
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- 44.
The substance in question 3 that is not an enzymne is
- A.
A zymogen
- B.
A nutrient
- C.
A emulsifier
- D.
A neurotransmitter
- E.
A hormone
Correct Answer
E. A hormoneExplanation
Among the given options, a hormone is the only substance that is not an enzyme. Hormones are chemical messengers that are produced by glands in the body and are responsible for regulating various bodily functions. Enzymes, on the other hand, are proteins that catalyze biochemical reactions in the body. Nutrients can refer to a variety of substances required for growth and metabolism, while emulsifiers are compounds that help mix oil and water. Neurotransmitters are chemicals that transmit signals between nerve cells. Therefore, the correct answer is a hormone.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The lacteals absorb
- A.
Chylomicrons
- B.
Micelles
- C.
Emulsification droplets
- D.
Amino acids
- E.
Monosaccharides
Correct Answer
A. ChylomicronsExplanation
The lacteals are specialized lymphatic vessels found in the small intestine. They are responsible for absorbing chylomicrons, which are large lipid molecules formed during the digestion of dietary fats. Chylomicrons are too big to be absorbed directly into the bloodstream, so they are taken up by the lacteals and transported to the lymphatic system. From there, they eventually enter the bloodstream, where they can deliver their cargo of fats to various tissues in the body. The other options listed, such as micelles, emulsification droplets, amino acids, and monosaccharides, are not specifically absorbed by the lacteals.Rate this question:
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- 46.
All of the following contribute to the absorptive surface area of the small intestine except
- A.
Its length
- B.
The brush border
- C.
Haustra
- D.
Circular folds
- E.
Villi
Correct Answer
C. HaustraExplanation
Haustra are pouches that form in the large intestine, not the small intestine. The absorptive surface area of the small intestine is increased by its length, the presence of the brush border, circular folds, and villi. These structures increase the surface area available for absorption of nutrients from digested food.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which of the following is a periodontal tissue?
- A.
The gingiva
- B.
The enamel
- C.
The cementum
- D.
The pulp
- E.
The dentin
Correct Answer
A. The gingivaExplanation
The gingiva is a periodontal tissue because it is the tissue that surrounds and supports the teeth. It covers the alveolar bone and helps to protect the underlying structures from bacteria and trauma. The gingiva also plays a role in maintaining the health of the teeth by providing a seal around the tooth, preventing bacteria from entering the deeper tissues.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Anatomically, the ________ of the stomach most closely resemble the _______ of the small intestine.
- A.
Gastric pits, intestinal crypt
- B.
Pyloric glands, intestinal crypts
- C.
Rugae, Peyer patches
- D.
Parietal cells, goblet cells
- E.
Gastric glands, duodenal glands
Correct Answer
A. Gastric pits, intestinal cryptExplanation
The correct answer is gastric pits, intestinal crypts. Gastric pits are invaginations in the lining of the stomach that contain gastric glands, which secrete gastric juices. Intestinal crypts, on the other hand, are invaginations in the lining of the small intestine that contain intestinal glands, which secrete digestive enzymes and mucus. Both gastric pits and intestinal crypts are similar in structure and function as they both play a role in the secretion of digestive juices and the absorption of nutrients.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which of the following cells secrete digestive enzymes?
- A.
Chief cells
- B.
Mucous neck cells
- C.
Parietal cells
- D.
Goblet cells
- E.
Enteroendocrine cells
Correct Answer
A. Chief cellsExplanation
Chief cells are a type of exocrine cell found in the stomach lining that secrete digestive enzymes, specifically pepsinogen. Pepsinogen is converted into pepsin, an enzyme that helps break down proteins into smaller peptides. These enzymes are essential for the digestion and absorption of nutrients in the stomach. Parietal cells, on the other hand, secrete hydrochloric acid, which helps activate pepsinogen into pepsin. Mucous neck cells secrete mucus to protect the stomach lining, goblet cells secrete mucus in the respiratory and digestive tracts, and enteroendocrine cells secrete hormones that regulate various digestive processes.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What phase of gastric regulation includes inhibition by the enterogastric reflex?
- A.
The intestinal phase
- B.
The gastric phase
- C.
The buccal phase
- D.
The cephalic phase
- E.
The pharyngo-esophaegeal phase
Correct Answer
A. The intestinal phaseExplanation
The correct answer is the intestinal phase. During this phase, the enterogastric reflex is activated to inhibit gastric activity. This reflex is triggered by the presence of chyme in the small intestine, which sends signals to the stomach to slow down gastric emptying and reduce gastric secretion. This helps to ensure that the small intestine has enough time to digest and absorb nutrients properly.Rate this question:
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