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AP Biology Test #3a - Molecular Genetics And Cellular Reproduction

65 Questions
AP biology test #3a - molecular genetics and cellular reproduction

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The phage tail fibers contain the enzyme lysozyme which is necessary in which stage shown below
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

    • E. 

      E

  • 2. 
    Genetic recombination can occur in bacteria by all of the following methods EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Transfer of DNA between bacteria through pili

    • B. 

      DNA amplification

    • C. 

      Mutation

    • D. 

      Transformation

    • E. 

      Transduction

  • 3. 
    A person infected with encapsulated, virulent form of Pneumococcus may have difficulty in combating the infection due to the
    • A. 

      Proliferation of T-lymphocytes

    • B. 

      Release of interferon

    • C. 

      Production of antihistamines

    • D. 

      Bacteria's capsule interfering with phagocytosis

    • E. 

      Synthesis of steroids by the bacteria

  • 4. 
    Microbiologists frequently culture bacteria from an ill person to determine which antibiotic will be the most effective in combating the disease. The plate shown below shows growth after 48 hours.  Examine the key and the diagram before answering the question below. KEY  I = Penicillin II = Erythromycin III = Tetracycline The antibiotic that is effective against the bacteria is
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      I and II

    • E. 

      I and III

  • 5. 
    The molecular biology process in which many copies of a gene can be produced from a single cell of small DNA sample is called
    • A. 

      Gel electrophoresis

    • B. 

      Polymerase chain reaction

    • C. 

      Transcription

    • D. 

      Translation

    • E. 

      Nuclear multiplication

  • 6. 
    The scientist credited for the development of PCR techniques is
    • A. 

      Watson and Crick

    • B. 

      Jochame Hammerling

    • C. 

      Barbara McClintock

    • D. 

      Thomas Chech

    • E. 

      Kary Mullis

  • 7. 
    The HIV virus uses which of the cycles of infection below
    • A. 

      Lytic

    • B. 

      Lysogenic

    • C. 

      Prebiotic

    • D. 

      Prokaryotic

    • E. 

      Eukaryotic

  • 8. 
    The conclusion reached in the experiment shown below was that the cellular structure responsible for the characteristic shape of the algal cap was the
    • A. 

      Cytoplasm

    • B. 

      Nucleus

    • C. 

      Cell wall

    • D. 

      Cell membrane

    • E. 

      Cytoplasm and the cell wall

  • 9. 
    Cells that can differentiate into other body cells are called
    • A. 

      Mitotic cells

    • B. 

      Stem cells

    • C. 

      Gamete cells

    • D. 

      Non cells

  • 10. 
    Prokaryotes like bacteria shown below reproduce by  
    • A. 

      Binary fission

    • B. 

      Binary fusion

    • C. 

      Sex

    • D. 

      They do not reproduce

  • 11. 
    Identify the phase of mitosis from the picture below:
    • A. 

      Interphase.

    • B. 

      Prophase.

    • C. 

      Metaphase.

    • D. 

      Anaphase.

    • E. 

      Telophase.

  • 12. 
    To observe the process of mitosis in plant root cells, a biologist should examine the plant's 
    • A. 

      Root hairs.

    • B. 

      Casparian strip.

    • C. 

      Root cap.

    • D. 

      Zone of maturation.

    • E. 

      Apical meristem.

  • 13. 
    The exchange of segments of DNA between the members of a pair of chromosomes.
    • A. 

      Ensures that variations within a species never occur.

    • B. 

      Acts as a source of variations within a species.

    • C. 

      Always produces genetic disorders.

    • D. 

      Is called crossing.

  • 14. 
    Which of the following is a characteristic of mitochondria and chloroplast that supports the endosymbiotic theory?
    • A. 

      Both have bacteria-like polysaccharide cel walls.

    • B. 

      Both can reproduce on their own outside of the cell.

    • C. 

      Both contain DNA molecules.

    • D. 

      Both contain endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi bodies .

    • E. 

      Both contain ribosomes that are identical to ribosomes of the eukaryotic cytoplasm.

  • 15. 
    Which of the following is a correct statement about mutations?
    • A. 

      They are a source of variation for evolution.

    • B. 

      They drive evolution by creating mutation pressures.

    • C. 

      They are irreversible.

    • D. 

      They occur in germ cells but not in somatic cells.

    • E. 

      They are most often beneficial to the organisms in which they occur.

  • 16. 
    Which of the following statements concerning a gene is correct?
    • A. 

      A gene can code for a specific protein.

    • B. 

      A gene can exist in alternate forms called introns.

    • C. 

      A gene undergoes crossing-over during DNA replication.

    • D. 

      A gene that is very similar in sequence in a human and in a bacterium is probably a recent mutation.

    • E. 

      A gene that is expresses in every offspring of every generation is recessive.

  • 17. 
    The mRNA codons and the amino acids for which they code are? GGG= glycine ACU= threonine  CCC= proline AAA= lysine The sequence GGGACUCCC arranges the amino acids in the order. glycine--threonine--proline Wich DNA sequence would substitute lysine for threonine.?
    • A. 

      CCCATTGGU

    • B. 

      CCCATAGGG

    • C. 

      CCCAATGGG

    • D. 

      CCCTTTGGG

    • E. 

      GGGAUAGGG

  • 18. 
    The maximum number of RNA codons comprising the genetic code is.
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      64

    • D. 

      128

    • E. 

      256

  • 19. 
    Using radioactive tracers (shown below) to determine the interactions of bacteriophages and their host bacteria, Hershey and Chase demonstrated without question that
    • A. 

      Genes are compose of protein molecules

    • B. 

      DNA and proteins are actually the same molecules located in different parts of the cells.

    • C. 

      Bacteria injects their DNA into the cytoplasm of bacteriophages.

    • D. 

      DNA is the molecule that stores genetic information in the cells.

  • 20. 
    Cancer cells that spread are called
    • A. 

      Benign

    • B. 

      Malignant

    • C. 

      Somatic

    • D. 

      Gametic

  • 21. 
    Acetabularia mediterranea is mostly closely related to
    • A. 

      Mediterranea crassa.

    • B. 

      Mediterranea crenulata.

    • C. 

      Crenulata crenulata.

    • D. 

      Crenulata acetabularia.

    • E. 

      Acetabularia crenulata.

  • 22. 
    Molecules of DNA are composed of long chains of 
    • A. 

      Amino acids.

    • B. 

      Fatty acids.

    • C. 

      Monosaccharides.

    • D. 

      Nucleotides.

  • 23. 
    The entire molecule shown in the diagram is called a(n)
    • A. 

      Amino acids.

    • B. 

      Nucleotide.

    • C. 

      Polysaccharide.

    • D. 

      Pyrimidine.

  • 24. 
    Retrovirus such as HIV are capable of replicating 
    • A. 

      DNA from RNA

    • B. 

      DNA from DNA

    • C. 

      RNA from DNA

    • D. 

      RNA from RNA

    • E. 

      Neither DNA nor RNA

  • 25. 
    Waston and Crick built models that demonstrated that
    • A. 

      DNA and RNA have the same structure.

    • B. 

      DNA is made of two strands that twist into a double helix.

    • C. 

      Guanine forms hydrogen bonds with adenine.

    • D. 

      Thymine forms hydrogen bonds with cytosine.

  • 26. 
    Homologous chromosomes are pairs of chromosomes containing genes that code for 
    • A. 

      Different traits.

    • B. 

      Same traits.

    • C. 

      DNA.

    • D. 

      Cytosol.

  • 27. 
    Griffith's transformation experiments shown below
    • A. 

      Changed proteins into DNA.

    • B. 

      Caused non-harmful bacteria to become deadly.

    • C. 

      Resulted in DNA molecules becoming proteins.

    • D. 

      Were design to show the effect of heat on bacteria.

  • 28. 
    A strand of DNA has the following sequence of bases: ATC GTC TTC AAG What sequence of bases will make up the other strand of DNA?
    • A. 

      TAG CAG AAG TTC

    • B. 

      UUC AAG CAG UAG

    • C. 

      UAG CAG AAG UUC

    • D. 

      GTC ATC AAG TTC

  • 29. 
    Chromatids are
    • A. 

      Dense patches within the nucleus.

    • B. 

      Bacterial chromosomes.

    • C. 

      Joined strands of duplicated genetic material (chromosome)

    • D. 

      Prokaryotic nuclei.

  • 30. 
    The point at which two chromatids are attached to each other in a chromosome is called a(n)
    • A. 

      Chloroplast.

    • B. 

      Centromere.

    • C. 

      Gamete.

    • D. 

      Centriole.

  • 31. 
    The non-coding portions of DNA that are separated from the portions of DNA actually used during transcription are called
    • A. 

      Mutons

    • B. 

      Exons

    • C. 

      Introns

    • D. 

      Exposons

  • 32. 
    Many biologists believe that having the genes of eukaryotic cells interrupted by introns
    • A. 

      Prevents the code from being corrected.

    • B. 

      Ensured severely damaging mutations.

    • C. 

      Ensures that replication occurs correctly.

    • D. 

      Provides evolutionary flexibility.

  • 33. 
    The portions of DNA molecules that actually code for the production of proteins are called
    • A. 

      Mutons

    • B. 

      Exons

    • C. 

      Introns

    • D. 

      Exposons

  • 34. 
    The lac operon is shut off when
    • A. 

      Lactose is present.

    • B. 

      Lactose is absent.

    • C. 

      Glucose is present.

    • D. 

      Glucose is absent.

  • 35. 
    Refer to the illustration below. Where on the lac operon does transcription take place?
    • A. 

      Promoter (p)

    • B. 

      Operator (o)

    • C. 

      Gene (z)

  • 36. 
    The function of an operator is to?
    • A. 

      Regulate access of RNA polymerase to specific genes.

    • B. 

      Turn on and off the molecules of tRNA.

    • C. 

      Control the process of transcription within the nucleus.

    • D. 

      Generate amino acids for protein synthesis.

  • 37. 
    Refer to the illustration below. To which portion of the lac operon does the repressor bind?
    • A. 

      Promoter (p)

    • B. 

      Operator (o)

    • C. 

      Gene (z)

  • 38. 
    Cells must control gene expression so that
    • A. 

      Their genes will only be expressed when needed.

    • B. 

      Their genes will always be expressed.

    • C. 

      Their genes will never be expressed.

    • D. 

      Genetic disorders can be corrected.

  • 39. 
    A repressor protein
    • A. 

      Prevents DNA synthesis.

    • B. 

      Blocks movement of RNA polymerase.

    • C. 

      Attaches to ribosome during translation.

    • D. 

      Destroys amino acids before protein synthesis occurs.

  • 40. 
    Using the DNA fingerprinting shown below, which suspect most likely matchs the sample taken from the crime scene
    • A. 

      Suspect A

    • B. 

      Suspect B

    • C. 

      No suspect matches the DNA fingerprint

  • 41. 
    At the very beginning of the translation, the first tRNA molecule
    • A. 

      Binds to the ribosome's A site.

    • B. 

      Attaches directly to the DNA codon.

    • C. 

      Connects an amino acid to its anticodon.

    • D. 

      Attaches to the P site of the ribosome.

  • 42. 
    The anticodons on the tRNA molecule for the codons in the mRNA: CUCAAGUCCUUC would be
    • A. 

      GAG--UUC--AGG--AAG.

    • B. 

      GAG--TTC--ACG--AAG.

    • C. 

      CUC--GAA--CGU--CUU.

    • D. 

      CUU--CGU--GAA--CUC.

  • 43. 
    Which of the following would represent the strand of DNA from which the mRNA:CUCAAGUCCUUC strand in the diagram was made?
    • A. 

      CUCAAGUGCUUC

    • B. 

      GAGUUCACGAAG

    • C. 

      GAGTTCAGGAAG

    • D. 

      AGACCTGTAGGA

  • 44. 
    Refer to the illustration below. What is the portion of the protein molecule coded for by the piece of mRNA that is:CUCAAGUCCUUC
    • A. 

      Ser-- Tyr--Arg--Gly

    • B. 

      Val--Asp-- Pro--His

    • C. 

      Leu--Lys--Ser---Phe

    • D. 

      Pro--Gli--Leu--Val

  • 45. 
    Each nucleotide triplet in mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid is called a(n)
    • A. 

      Mutagen .

    • B. 

      Codon.

    • C. 

      Anticodon.

    • D. 

      Exon.

  • 46. 
    During transcription, the genetic information for making a protein is "rewritten" as a molecule of 
    • A. 

      Messenger RNA.

    • B. 

      Ribosomal RNA.

    • C. 

      Transfer RNA.

    • D. 

      Translation RNA.

  • 47. 
    The enzymes responsible for adding nucleotides to the exposed DNA template bases are
    • A. 

      Replicases.

    • B. 

      DNA polymerases.

    • C. 

      Helicases.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 48. 
    The enzymes that unwind DNA are called
    • A. 

      Double helixes.

    • B. 

      DNA helicases.

    • C. 

      Forks

    • D. 

      Phages.

  • 49. 
    RNA differs from DNA in that RNA 
    • A. 

      Is a single-stranded.

    • B. 

      Contains a different sugar molecule.

    • C. 

      Contains the nitrogen base uracil.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 50. 
    The function of rRNA is to 
    • A. 

      Synthesize DNA.

    • B. 

      Synthesize mRNA.

    • C. 

      Form ribosomes.

    • D. 

      Transfer amino acids to ribosomes.

  • 51. 
    Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
    • A. 

      C--> M--> G1 --> S --> G2.

    • B. 

      S--.> G1--> G2-->M-->C.

    • C. 

      G1--> S --> G2 --> M--> C.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 52. 
    The synthesis (S) phase is characterized by
    • A. 

      DNA replication.

    • B. 

      Cell division.

    • C. 

      Replication of mitochondria and other organelles.

    • D. 

      The division of cytoplasm.

  • 53. 
    Mitosis is the process by which 
    • A. 

      Microtubules are assembled.

    • B. 

      Cytoplasm is divided.

    • C. 

      The nucleus is divided into two nuclei.

    • D. 

      The cell rest.

  • 54. 
    In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes move to opposite ends of the cells along the spindle fibers:
    • A. 

      Anaphase.

    • B. 

      Telophase

    • C. 

      Metaphase.

    • D. 

      Prophase.

    • E. 

      Interphase.

  • 55. 
    Identify the phase of mitosis from the picture below:
    • A. 

      Inerphase

    • B. 

      Prophase.

    • C. 

      Metaphase.

    • D. 

      Anaphace

    • E. 

      Telophase.

  • 56. 
    During the life cycle the phage shown below
    • A. 

      Is invaded by bacterial DNA

    • B. 

      Protein coat is injected into the bacterium

    • C. 

      Undergoes lysis

    • D. 

      Is assembled on the plasma membrane

    • E. 

      Protein coats are synthesized within the bacterium

  • 57. 
    The chromosomal mutation shown below is most likely
    • A. 

      Deletion

    • B. 

      Duplication

    • C. 

      Translocation

    • D. 

      Inversion

  • 58. 
    The chromosomal mutation shown below is most likely
    • A. 

      Translocation

    • B. 

      Deletion

    • C. 

      Inversion

    • D. 

      Duplication

  • 59. 
    Identify the phase of mitosis from the picture below:
    • A. 

      Interphase.

    • B. 

      Prophase.

    • C. 

      Metaphase.

    • D. 

      Anaphase.

    • E. 

      Telophase.

  • 60. 
    Identify the phase of mitosis from the picture below:
    • A. 

      Interphase

    • B. 

      Prophase.

    • C. 

      Metasphase.

    • D. 

      Anaphase.

    • E. 

      Telophase

  • 61. 
    Certain metabolic pathways are affected by the buildup of a product which interacts with an enzyme catalyzing one of the initial steps of the pathways; this can be an example of?
    • A. 

      Transcriptional regulation.

    • B. 

      Thermodynamic regulation.

    • C. 

      Translational regulation.

    • D. 

      Feedback inhibition.

    • E. 

      Posttranslational modification.

  • 62. 
    Use the description of the laboratory for questions (62-65). A student uses restriction enzymes to cut DNA molecule into fragments. The digested DNA is loaded into the wells of an agarose gel and the gel is subjected to an electric current. Upon completion of the run, the gel is stained. The type and density of the gel used is important because?
    • A. 

      It influences the rate of migration of the fragments.

    • B. 

      It may cause some DNA molecules to replicate.

    • C. 

      Some DNA molecules nucleotides may be lost do to chemical reactions with the gel.

    • D. 

      Some DNA molecules may sink to the bottom and not migrate.

    • E. 

      Some DNA molecules may cross-link.

  • 63. 
    The rate of migration of the DNA fragments through the agarose gel is determined by the?
    • A. 

      Ratio of adenine to cytosine in the fragment.

    • B. 

      Presence of hydrogen bonds between base pairs.

    • C. 

      Length of time the electrophoresis unit is allowed to operate.

    • D. 

      Number of nucleotides in the fragment.

    • E. 

      Volume of the starting sample.

  • 64. 
    Which of the following is true of the dye used to stained the fragment?
    • A. 

      It increases the contrast between the agar and the DNA fragment.

    • B. 

      It must be accounted for when calculating the molecular weight of the fragment.

    • C. 

      Its charged areas interfere with the migration of the DNA.

    • D. 

      It is bonded only to the sticky ends of the fragments and can directly determine the sequence of the DNA fragments.

    • E. 

      T gives a three-dimensional view of the DNA fragments.

  • 65. 
    The procedure described can be used to do all of the following EXCEPT?
    • A. 

      Isolate and purify certain DNA fragments.

    • B. 

      Synthesize novel DNA molecules.

    • C. 

      Study the activity of restriction enzymes.

    • D. 

      Calculate the size of DNA fragments.

    • E. 

      Identify the source of DNA material.