2A651 CDC 5
Unit Review Exercise practice test for 2a651 cdc 5
- 1.
1. (801) After reviewing the aircraft/engine forms, where should you begin troubleshooting?
- A.
Discuss problem with other journeymen in the shop.
- B.
Check each part of every system.
- C.
Examine the most complex unit.
- D.
Observe gauge indications.
Correct Answer
D. Observe gauge indications. -
- 2.
2. (801) All of the options listed below are proper troubleshooting practices except
- A.
Checking the applicable trouble areas.
- B.
Understanding the function of each engine unit.
- C.
Performing easy checks, then going to more difficult checks.
- D.
Inspecting other areas after isolating the trouble between points.
Correct Answer
D. Inspecting other areas after isolating the trouble between points. -
- 3.
3. (801) Aircraft power plant and engine intermediate maintenance technical orders (TO) contain information on troubleshooting. This information is presented in the form of
- A.
Fix-it diagrams.
- B.
Power plant charts.
- C.
Mechanical drawings.
- D.
Troubleshooting charts.
Correct Answer
D. Troubleshooting charts. -
- 4.
4. (801) To become an expert troubleshooter, you must
- A.
Be a 7-level.
- B.
Have at least 5 years experience.
- C.
Attend college courses in troubleshooting techniques.
- D.
Understand the function of each unit within each system.
Correct Answer
D. Understand the function of each unit within each system. -
- 5.
5. (802) The F100-PW–220 engine monitoring system component that acquires fault data from the digital electronic engine control (DEEC) and logs the faults with the time of their occurrence is the
- A.
Data collection unit (DCU).
- B.
Ground station unit (GSU).
- C.
Engine analyzer unit (EAU).
- D.
Engine diagnostic unit (EDU).
Correct Answer
D. Engine diagnostic unit (EDU). -
- 6.
6. (803) An understanding of the operating principles of engine instruments will help you decide
- A.
If an engine should be removed from an aircraft.
- B.
If the engine should be sent to the test cell.
- C.
the meanings of the instrument readings.
- D.
What tools are required for maintenance.
Correct Answer
C. the meanings of the instrument readings. -
- 7.
7. (803) Most engine monitoring gauges and instruments require some type of
- A.
Electrical valve to the indicator.
- B.
Metal tubing for electron flow.
- C.
Radio frequency transmitter.
- D.
Transmitter and indicator.
Correct Answer
D. Transmitter and indicator. -
- 8.
8. (804) Which jet engine temperature is not measured?
- A.
Exhaust gas.
- B.
Turbine inlet.
- C.
Combustion inlet.
- D.
Fan turbine inlet.
Correct Answer
C. Combustion inlet. -
- 9.
9. (804) A typical jet engine exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicating system contains thermocouples, leads, an indicator, and
- A.
A resistor.
- B.
A resistor.
- C.
A control valve.
- D.
An exhaust duct.
Correct Answer
A. A resistor. -
- 10.
10. (805) The engine fuel-flow indicating system of most jet powered aircraft contains a fuel-flow
- A.
Transmitter and a float valve.
- B.
Control valve and a float valve.
- C.
Transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator.
- D.
Control valve and a fuel-flow transcriber.
Correct Answer
C. Transmitter and a fuel-flow indicator. -
- 11.
11. (805) The fuel system component of a jet engine that operates by using a water wheel concept is the
- A.
Fuel-flow generator.
- B.
Fuel-flow indicator.
- C.
Fuel-flow transmitter.
- D.
Fuel remaining counter.
Correct Answer
C. Fuel-flow transmitter. -
- 12.
12. (805) The fuel-flow indicator indicates the rate of fuel-flow as
- A.
Pounds per hour.
- B.
Gallons per hour.
- C.
Pounds per minute.
- D.
Gallons per second.
Correct Answer
A. Pounds per hour. -
- 13.
13. (806) Two units that work together to indicate that the oil system is operating correctly are the oil pressure
- A.
Transmitter and indicator.
- B.
Relief valve and indicator.
- C.
Relief valve and transmitter.
- D.
Synchronous unit.
Correct Answer
A. Transmitter and indicator. -
- 14.
14. (806) The oil pressure indicator receives an electrical signal from the
- A.
Gyro.
- B.
Transmitter.
- C.
Hydraulic unit.
- D.
Synchronous unit.
Correct Answer
B. Transmitter. -
- 15.
15. (807) The two primary units of the tachometer indicating system are the tachometer generator and tachometer
- A.
Indicator.
- B.
Fuse panel.
- C.
Transformer.
- D.
Thermocouple.
Correct Answer
A. Indicator. -
- 16.
16. (807) The N2 tachometer generator is usually driven from the tachometer drive located on the
- A.
Engine accessory section.
- B.
Engine turbine section.
- C.
Combustion case.
- D.
Fuel control.
Correct Answer
A. Engine accessory section. -
- 17.
17. (807) The tachometer indicator is
- A.
An electric direct-drive type instrument.
- B.
An electric-magnetic-drag-type instrument.
- C.
An electric direct-drive type instrument.
- D.
A mechanical-magnetic-drag-type instrument.
Correct Answer
B. An electric-magnetic-drag-type instrument. -
- 18.
18. (808) The exhaust nozzle position indicating system found on engines with afterburners is important because it
- A.
Helps the pilot determine engine power.
- B.
Helps the pilot determine fuel consumption.
- C.
Gives the pilot indications of electrical failures.
- D.
Aids the pilot in selection of proper altitude levels.
Correct Answer
A. Helps the pilot determine engine power. -
- 19.
19. (808) On engines with afterburners, the position of the exhaust nozzle is converted into an electrical signal by a
- A.
Rheostat.
- B.
Rectifier.
- C.
Transducer.
- D.
Transformer.
Correct Answer
C. Transducer. -
- 20.
20. (809) One type of overheat detector unit used on aircraft engines consists of a hollow stainlesssteel tube that covers
- A.
One gold contact.
- B.
Two silver contacts.
- C.
Three bronze contacts.
- D.
Four copper contacts.
Correct Answer
B. Two silver contacts. -
- 21.
21. (810) What is used to indicate the amount of thrust a dual-compressor engine is producing?
- A.
. Engine pressure ratio (EPR).
- B.
Exhaust gas temperature (EGT).
- C.
Revolutions per minute (RPM).
- D.
Turbine inlet temperature (TIT).
Correct Answer
A. . Engine pressure ratio (EPR). -
- 22.
22. (810) The pressures used in the operation of the engine pressure ratio (EPR) system are the
- A.
Engine inlet total pressure and exhaust total pressure.
- B.
Exhaust total pressure and turbine inlet total pressure.
- C.
Inlet total pressure and compressor discharge total pressure.
- D.
Compressor discharge total pressure and turbine inlet total pressure.
Correct Answer
A. Engine inlet total pressure and exhaust total pressure. -
- 23.
23. (810) Inlet pressure (Pt2) is transmitted from its sensing point
- A.
Electrically.
- B.
Mechanically.
- C.
Hydraulically.
- D.
Through tubing.
Correct Answer
D. Through tubing. -
- 24.
24. (811) The direct oil pressure gauge on a test cell is connected to an engine oil pressure line. This configuration will indicate oil pressure without using wiring, indicator, or
- A.
Engine transformer.
- B.
Aircraft transformer.
- C.
Engine transmitter.
- D.
Aircraft transmitter.
Correct Answer
D. Aircraft transmitter. -
- 25.
25. (811) The test cell exhaust gas temperature (EGT) selector allows selection of
- A.
The EGT parameter for transit speeds.
- B.
Accuracy check switch during adjustment.
- C.
The EGT indicator to be read in digital or analog.
- D.
Individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs.
Correct Answer
D. Individual thermocouple inputs or an average of these inputs. -
- 26.
26. (811) When properly adjusted, the accuracy of the test cell N1 and N2 speed indicator will be within
- A.
1 revolutions per minute (RPM).
- B.
2 RPM.
- C.
2 RPM.
- D.
4 RPM.
Correct Answer
B. 2 RPM. -
- 27.
27. (811) The test cell IC temperature indicator displays temperatures in degrees Fahrenheit, with a range of
- A.
–100 to +1,000°.
- B.
–75 to +1,400°.
- C.
–50 to +1,600°.
- D.
–25 to +1,800°.
Correct Answer
C. –50 to +1,600°. -
- 28.
28. (812) What type of vibration causes unnecessary engine removals and unwarranted repairs?
- A.
Forced.
- B.
Transient.
- C.
Unbalanced.
- D.
Externally excited.
Correct Answer
D. Externally excited. -
- 29.
29. (812) What kind of engine vibration does not persist, but comes and goes?
- A.
Forced.
- B.
Transient.
- C.
Resonance.
- D.
Externally excited.
Correct Answer
B. Transient. -
- 30.
30. (812) During vibration analysis, frequency is usually measured in
- A.
Mils.
- B.
Phase lags.
- C.
Cycles per second.
- D.
Phases per second.
Correct Answer
C. Cycles per second. -
- 31.
31. (812) Forces acting to create vibration in a jet engine present a highly complex pattern. This is because the main rotor
- A.
Is a rigid rotor system.
- B.
Is both a rigid and flexible system.
- C.
Functions as a flexible rotor system.
- D.
Acts as an unmeasurable rotation system.
Correct Answer
C. Functions as a flexible rotor system. -
- 32.
32. (812) During vibration analysis, why is it necessary to measure all parameters to identify a vibration source?
- A.
The compressor rotor is a freely rotating mass.
- B.
The main rotor functions as an inflexible system.
- C.
A change in mechanical condition will not be detected.
- D.
Displacement may be the same in two completely different problems.
Correct Answer
D. Displacement may be the same in two completely different problems. -
- 33.
33. (813) The two types of transducers used to measure vibration are
- A.
Velocity and phase accelerometer.
- B.
Velocity and displacement accelerometer.
- C.
Velocity and piezoelectric accelerometer.
- D.
Piezoelectric accelerometer and phase lag transducer.
Correct Answer
C. Velocity and piezoelectric accelerometer. -
- 34.
34. (813) Which type of vibration transducer is made up of certain ceramic compounds and natural crystals?
- A.
Velocity.
- B.
Phase log.
- C.
Displacement accelerometer.
- D.
Piezoelectric accelerometer.
Correct Answer
D. Piezoelectric accelerometer. -
- 35.
35. (814) The filter selector switch on the vibration analyzer is used to
- A.
Provide an exact revolutions per minute (RPM) indication.
- B.
Indicate the amplitude of the overall vibration.
- C.
Display the frequency of the overall engine.
- D.
Allow selection of the necessary filter.
Correct Answer
D. Allow selection of the necessary filter. -
- 36.
36. (815) What is used to support the fan and low pressure turbine?
- A.
Blades.
- B.
Bearings.
- C.
Brackets.
- D.
Bushings.
Correct Answer
B. Bearings. -
- 37.
37. (815) What procedure is used to ensure the fan and low pressure turbine are correctly balanced?
- A.
Engine trim.
- B.
Fan rotor trim balance.
- C.
Low-pressure turbine rotor trim balance.
- D.
High-pressure turbine rotor trim balance.
Correct Answer
B. Fan rotor trim balance. -
- 38.
38. (816) The carbon seal tester simulates the effects of
- A.
Turbine gas flow through the carbon seal.
- B.
Having no air pressure on the carbon seal.
- C.
Compressor airflow through the carbon seal.
- D.
Ambient (outside) pressure on the carbon seal.
Correct Answer
C. Compressor airflow through the carbon seal. -
- 39.
39. (816) The engine remote trimmer enables you to adjust the
- A.
Fuel enrichment valve without being under the engine.
- B.
Fuel flow transmitter while under the engine.
- C.
Fuel control without being under the engine.
- D.
Fuel pump while under the engine.
Correct Answer
C. Fuel control without being under the engine. -
- 40.
40. (817) When connected to the engine, which piece of F100-PW–100 engine test equipment becomes an engine electronic control (EEC)?
- A.
Supervisory control system (SCS) test set.
- B.
Mach number (Mn) simulator test set.
- C.
Mach number (Mn) simulator test set.
- D.
Remote trimmer.
Correct Answer
A. Supervisory control system (SCS) test set. -
- 41.
41. (817) Which piece of test equipment is used to troubleshoot a jet fuel starter (JFS) problem on an F–16 aircraft?
- A.
Supervisory control system (SCS) test set.
- B.
Mach number (Mn) simulator test set.
- C.
Engine start system (ESS) tester.
- D.
Engine start system (ESS) tester.
Correct Answer
C. Engine start system (ESS) tester. -
- 42.
42. (818) You can find written instructions for safe flight line vehicle operations in
- A.
AFI 36–2903.
- B.
AFOSH STD 91–100.
- C.
The flight line job guide (JG).
- D.
The intermediate maintenance TO.
Correct Answer
B. AFOSH STD 91–100. -
- 43.
43. (818) The term trim means to adjust the engine systems for optimum performance per the limits in the technical order (TO). There are two methods used to trim an engine. They are
- A.
Hydraulic and mechanical.
- B.
Hydraulic and electronic.
- C.
Manual and electronic.
- D.
Manual and mechanical.
Correct Answer
C. Manual and electronic. -
- 44.
44. (819) The pressure gauges used for an oil system pressure checks are connected at the
- A.
Inlet side of the oil pump and the vent system.
- B.
Output side of the main oil pump and the vent system.
- C.
Scavenge pump and the inlet side of oil pressure pump.
- D.
Bearing jets and the output side of the oil scavenge pump.
Correct Answer
B. Output side of the main oil pump and the vent system. -
- 45.
45. (819) When checking the turbine section, you do not measure
- A.
Fan turbine inlet temperature (FTIT).
- B.
Turbine inlet temperature (TIT).
- C.
Exhaust gas temperature (EGT).
- D.
Intake gas temperature (IGT).
Correct Answer
D. Intake gas temperature (IGT). -
- 46.
46. (820) Which F–16 operational check allows you to start the jet fuel starter (JFS) without advancing the throttle to idle or supplying fuel to the aircraft engine?
- A.
Dry motoring.
- B.
Wet motoring.
- C.
Bleed schedule.
- D.
Interface operational.
Correct Answer
A. Dry motoring. -
- 47.
47. (820) Prior to starting the engine when doing an anti-ice valve operational check on an F–16C/D, place the anti-ice engine switch to
- A.
ON
- B.
OFF
- C.
START
- D.
MANUAL
Correct Answer
B. OFF -
- 48.
48. (821) How many primary air silencers are there on aircraft noise suppressors to help reduce turbine whine?
- A.
Two.
- B.
Four.
- C.
Six.
- D.
Eight.
Correct Answer
A. Two. -
- 49.
49. (821) Where are the primary silencers positioned on an aircraft noise suppressor?
- A.
Near the bleed area.
- B.
To the rear exhaust area.
- C.
Against the aircraft fuselage.
- D.
Forward of the bleed exhaust area.
Correct Answer
C. Against the aircraft fuselage. -
- 50.
50. (821) To how many minutes should engine operation in afterburner be limited when the engine is operated in the aircraft noise suppressor?
- A.
2.
- B.
3.
- C.
4.
- D.
5.
Correct Answer
D. 5. -
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Jan 31, 2013Quiz Edited by
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Nov 16, 2011Quiz Created by
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