2A651 CDC 3

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Unit Review Exercise practice test for 2a651 cdc 3


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    1. (401) What is the composition of JP–8 fuel?

    • A.

      Gasoline and kerosene.

    • B.

      Diesel fuel and AV GAS.

    • C.

      Diesel fuel and kerosene.

    • D.

      Gasoline and diesel fuel.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gasoline and kerosene.
  • 2. 

    2. (401) At room temperature, how many times longer will it take water to settle out of JP–8 than out of gasoline?

    • A.

      Two.

    • B.

      Three.

    • C.

      Four.

    • D.

      Five.

    Correct Answer
    C. Four.
  • 3. 

    3. (402) The main fuel control allows the engine to safely accelerate, reducing the possibility of

    • A.

      Flameout.

    • B.

      Turbine seizure.

    • C.

      Overtemperature.

    • D.

      Compressor shift.

    Correct Answer
    A. Flameout.
  • 4. 

    4. (402) The purpose of a fuel/oil cooler in a fuel system is to

    • A.

      Heat the fuel and cool the oil.

    • B.

      Cool the fuel and cool the oil.

    • C.

      Heat the fuel and heat the oil.

    • D.

      Cool the fuel and heat the oil.

    Correct Answer
    A. Heat the fuel and cool the oil.
  • 5. 

    5. (403) What type of fuel control uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids to help control a jet engine?

    • A.

      Pneumatic.

    • B.

      Fuel injection.

    • C.

      Hydromechanical.

    • D.

      Electrohydromechanical.

    Correct Answer
    D. Electrohydromechanical.
  • 6. 

    6. (403) On fuel controls that require setting during an engine trim, calibration and/or adjustment screws must be

    • A.

      Replaced.

    • B.

      Die marked.

    • C.

      Safety sealed and/or lockwired.

    • D.

      Apply a thread locking compound.

    Correct Answer
    C. Safety sealed and/or lockwired.
  • 7. 

    7. (404) When in the primary mode, what controls the operation of the F100-PW–220 engine?

    • A.

      MEC.

    • B.

      PMG.

    • C.

      DEEC.

    • D.

      DEEC.

    Correct Answer
    C. DEEC.
  • 8. 

    8. (404) On an F100-PW–220 engine, the MFC is capable of operating in how many modes?

    • A.

      One.

    • B.

      Two.

    • C.

      Three.

    • D.

      Three.

    Correct Answer
    B. Two.
  • 9. 

    9. (404) Which F100-PW–220 engine fuel system component controls pressurization of the core engine fuel system?

    • A.

      N2 sensor.

    • B.

      P&D valve.

    • C.

      Fuel nozzle.

    • D.

      Fan inlet Tt2.5 sensor.

    Correct Answer
    B. P&D valve.
  • 10. 

    10. (404) Which stage of compressor air drives the augmenter fuel pump on an F100-PW–220 engine?

    • A.

      7th.

    • B.

      10th.

    • C.

      13th.

    • D.

      14th.

    Correct Answer
    C. 13th.
  • 11. 

    11. (404) On the F100-PW–220 engine, which component controls the augmentor fuel control?

    • A.

      Fuel pump.

    • B.

      Fuel pump controller.

    • C.

      Signature elimination probe.

    • D.

      DEEC.

    Correct Answer
    D. DEEC.
  • 12. 

    12. (404) Core engine fuel flow sequence on an F100-PW–220 engine starts at the main fuel pump and then goes through the

    • A.

      Main fuel control, fuel/oil cooler, pressurizing and dump valve, and fuel nozzles.

    • B.

      Fuel/oil cooler, pressurizing and dump valve, main fuel control, and fuel nozzles.

    • C.

      C. augmentor fuel pump, augmentor fuel control, fuel/oil cooler, pressurizing and dump valve, and fuel nozzles.

    • D.

      D. augmenter fuel control augmentor fuel pump, fuel/oil cooler, pressurizing and dump valve, and fuel nozzles.

    Correct Answer
    A. Main fuel control, fuel/oil cooler, pressurizing and dump valve, and fuel nozzles.
  • 13. 

    13. (405) Operational control of the F108-CF–100 engine is achieved by the use of the power lever, fuel shut-off lever, and

    • A.

      Fuel pump.

    • B.

      Oil/fuel heat exchanger.

    • C.

      Air/fuel heat exchanger.

    • D.

      PMC.

    Correct Answer
    D. PMC.
  • 14. 

    14. (405) The F108 engine fuel pump contains a low-pressure stage (centrifugal boost stage) and a high-pressure

    • A.

      Gear stage.

    • B.

      Gerotor stage.

    • C.

      Axial boost stage.

    • D.

      Sliding vane stage.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gear stage.
  • 15. 

    15. (405) On an F108-CF–100 engine, the fuel injectors contain

    • A.

      Only primary fuel flow passages.

    • B.

      Only secondary fuel flow passages.

    • C.

      Both primary and secondary fuel flow passages.

    • D.

      Primary, secondary, and auxiliary fuel flow passages.

    Correct Answer
    C. Both primary and secondary fuel flow passages.
  • 16. 

    16. (406) What supplies the AE2100D3 FADEC with power until engine RPM is sufficient for the alternator stator to take control?

    • A.

      Airplane 28 VDC power supply.

    • B.

      NIU.

    • C.

      MIL-STD–1553B data bus.

    • D.

      Mission computer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Airplane 28 VDC power supply.
  • 17. 

    17. (406) What component is controlled by the AE2100D3 FADEC through the ENGINE START switch for normal engine shutdown or by the fire control handle for emergency shutdown?

    • A.

      Servo valve.

    • B.

      Fuel check valve.

    • C.

      Electric shutoff valve.

    • D.

      Latching shutoff valve.

    Correct Answer
    D. Latching shutoff valve.
  • 18. 

    18. (407) On the T56 engine, how many and what type of fuel pumps are contained in the fuel pump and filter assembly?

    • A.

      3 gear; 1 boost.

    • B.

      2 gear; 2 boost.

    • C.

      2 gear; 1 boost.

    • D.

      1 gear; 2 boost.

    Correct Answer
    C. 2 gear; 1 boost.
  • 19. 

    19. (407) What T56 engine controls the rotary movement of the fuel control metering valve?

    • A.

      Temperature.

    • B.

      Engine speed.

    • C.

      Throttle position.

    • D.

      Compressor inlet pressure.

    Correct Answer
    D. Compressor inlet pressure.
  • 20. 

    20. (407) On the T56 engine, what compares the desired throttle setting from the coordinator with the actual TIT signal from the thermocouples

    • A.

      TD valve.

    • B.

      Speed-sensitive control.

    • C.

      TD potentiometers.

    • D.

      TD amplifier.

    Correct Answer
    D. TD amplifier.
  • 21. 

    21. (407) Which T56 engine component sends the fuel to the fuel manifold?

    • A.

      TD valve.

    • B.

      Main fuel pump.

    • C.

      TD amplifier.

    • D.

      Fuel control.

    Correct Answer
    A. TD valve.
  • 22. 

    22. (407) When the null orifice on the T56 engine TD valve is set at zero, how much fuel will the valve bypass?

    • A.

      0%.

    • B.

      10%.

    • C.

      20%.

    • D.

      30%.

    Correct Answer
    C. 20%.
  • 23. 

    23. (407) In addition to the visual inspection the T–56 engine fuel nozzle also requires what type of inspection?

    • A.

      Nondestructive.

    • B.

      Spray pattern.

    • C.

      Pre-torque.

    • D.

      Ultrasonic.

    Correct Answer
    B. Spray pattern.
  • 24. 

    24. (408) Which type of oil cooler operates on the same principle as a radiator in an automobile?

    • A.

      Air.

    • B.

      Fuel.

    • C.

      Hydraulic.

    • D.

      Pneumatic.

    Correct Answer
    A. Air.
  • 25. 

    25. (408) When an engine is not operating, static preload for a carbon oil seal is provided by

    • A.

      Air pressure.

    • B.

      Oil pressure.

    • C.

      Spring pressure.

    • D.

      Hydraulic pressure.

    Correct Answer
    C. Spring pressure.
  • 26. 

    26. (409) The F100-PW–100 engine oil pressure varies with N2 speed, engine inlet oil temperature, and

    • A.

      Oil jet pressure.

    • B.

      Fan turbine speed.

    • C.

      Oil nozzle condition.

    • D.

      Number of oil jets used.

    Correct Answer
    C. Oil nozzle condition.
  • 27. 

    27. (409) What term is used to indicate that air is being mixed with the oil in the oil pump to create pockets of air?

    • A.

      Aeration.

    • B.

      Induction.

    • C.

      Convection.

    • D.

      Compression.

    Correct Answer
    A. Aeration.
  • 28. 

    28. (409) In an engine oil tank, which device separates the air from the oil?

    • A.

      Aerator.

    • B.

      Deaerator.

    • C.

      Check valve.

    • D.

      Bypass valve.

    Correct Answer
    B. Deaerator.
  • 29. 

    29. (409) Which type of oil system stores the oil in a tank fitted to the side of the engine?

    • A.

      Wet sump.

    • B.

      Dry sump.

    • C.

      Hot tank.

    • D.

      Cold tank.

    Correct Answer
    B. Dry sump.
  • 30. 

    30. (409) Which type of oil system design places the oil cooler in the pressure subsystem?

    • A.

      Wet tank.

    • B.

      Dry tank.

    • C.

      Hot tank.

    • D.

      Cold tank.

    Correct Answer
    C. Hot tank.
  • 31. 

    31. (410) On an F100 engine, the breather pressurizing valve is internally mounted in the

    • A.

      Oil tank.

    • B.

      Gearbox.

    • C.

      Gearbox.

    • D.

      Gearbox.

    Correct Answer
    B. Gearbox.
  • 32. 

    32. (410) On an F100-PW–220 engine, the air/oil coolers are mounted on the fan duct and use

    • A.

      Secondary fan airflow as a coolant.

    • B.

      Secondary fan airflow as an oil heater.

    • C.

      Primary core engine airflow as a coolant.

    • D.

      Primary core engine airflow as an oil heater.

    Correct Answer
    A. Secondary fan airflow as a coolant.
  • 33. 

    33. (410) On an F100-PW–220 engine, what component permits oil to bypass the oil filter during cold weather starts?

    • A.

      Oil relief valve.

    • B.

      Filter bypass valve.

    • C.

      Filter poppet valve.

    • D.

      Oil pressure transmitter tap.

    Correct Answer
    B. Filter bypass valve.
  • 34. 

    34. (411) What is used to check the oil level in a F108-CF–100 engine?

    • A.

      Sight gauge on the oil tank.

    • B.

      Flight station oil level gauge.

    • C.

      Filler cap with a graduated gauge.

    • D.

      Graduated marking on the outside of the tank.

    Correct Answer
    C. Filler cap with a graduated gauge.
  • 35. 

    35. (412) Approximately how many GPM does the AE2100D3 PUAD lube and scavenge pump provide at engine PTO?

    • A.

      3.

    • B.

      5.

    • C.

      7.

    • D.

      9.

    Correct Answer
    B. 5.
  • 36. 

    36. (412) What AE2100D3 component drives the PGB lube and scavenge pump?

    • A.

      Alternator stator.

    • B.

      PGB.

    • C.

      PUAD.

    • D.

      GMAD.

    Correct Answer
    D. GMAD.
  • 37. 

    37. (413) Which type of oil pump is used on the T56 engine?

    • A.

      Gear.

    • B.

      Float.

    • C.

      Gerotor.

    • D.

      Centrifugal.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gear.
  • 38. 

    38. (413) The amount of ram air passing through the oil cooler core is regulated by the

    • A.

      Thermostat.

    • B.

      Flap actuator.

    • C.

      Size of the core.

    • D.

      Regulating valve.

    Correct Answer
    B. Flap actuator.
  • 39. 

    39. (413) Bleed air flowing through which component increases airflow through the cooler?

    • A.

      Flap actuator.

    • B.

      Oil cooler flap.

    • C.

      Augmentation valve.

    • D.

      Augmentation ejector.

    Correct Answer
    D. Augmentation ejector.
  • 40. 

    40. (413) The valve that allows fluid to flow in only one direction is the

    • A.

      Check.

    • B.

      Relief.

    • C.

      Bypass.

    • D.

      Pressurizing.

    Correct Answer
    A. Check.
  • 41. 

    41. (413) In the power unit oil system, the dual-port oil jet mounted on the front side of the compressor air inlet housing is used to lubricate the

    • A.

      Mid and center sleeve bearings.

    • B.

      Torquemeter and compressor front bearings.

    • C.

      Torquemeter and compressor front bearings.

    • D.

      Torquemeter and compressor front bearings.

    Correct Answer
    A. Mid and center sleeve bearings.
  • 42. 

    42. (413) The power section and RGB oil systems are joined together at the

    • A.

      Fuel heater and strainer.

    • B.

      External scavenge oil filter.

    • C.

      External scavenge oil pump.

    • D.

      Scavenge element of the main pump.

    Correct Answer
    B. External scavenge oil filter.
  • 43. 

    43. (413) Which RGB component prevents oil in the oil tank from draining into the RGB rear case?

    • A.

      Shutoff valve.

    • B.

      Oil pump and filter.

    • C.

      Oil pump check valve.

    • D.

      Oil pump bypass valve.

    Correct Answer
    C. Oil pump check valve.
  • 44. 

    44. (413) How many scavenge oil pumps are located in the RGB?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      2.

    • C.

      3.

    • D.

      4.

    Correct Answer
    B. 2.
  • 45. 

    45. (414) The journeyman must be aware of which hazardous property of modern jet engine oil?

    • A.

      Toxicity.

    • B.

      Viscosity.

    • C.

      Alkalinity.

    • D.

      Corrosiveness.

    Correct Answer
    D. Corrosiveness.
  • 46. 

    46. (415) The primary benefit of identifying an impending failure through the OAP is

    • A.

      Improved safety.

    • B.

      Increased component life.

    • C.

      Reduced maintenance cost.

    • D.

      Increased equipment availability.

    Correct Answer
    A. Improved safety.
  • 47. 

    47. (415) Who is responsible for ensuring that the OAP operates properly?

    • A.

      Project monitor.

    • B.

      Logistics commander

    • C.

      Propulsion flight chief.

    • D.

      Laboratory supervisor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Project monitor.
  • 48. 

    48. (415) What are microscopic metallic particles in the oil system called?

    • A.

      Wear metals.

    • B.

      Friction metals.

    • C.

      Precious metals.

    • D.

      Transformation metals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Wear metals.
  • 49. 

    49. (415) Oil sampling intervals should not vary by more than

    • A.

      5 percent.

    • B.

      10 percent.

    • C.

      15 percent.

    • D.

      20 percent.

    Correct Answer
    B. 10 percent.
  • 50. 

    50. (415) The SEM/EDX analysis process differs from conventional oil analysis in which major aspect?

    • A.

      SEM/EDX samples must be sent off-site for analysis.

    • B.

      SEM/EDX particles must be oil free for analysis to take place.

    • C.

      SEM/EDX provides results concerning equipment and components condition.

    • D.

      SEM/EDX samples can only be obtained in an intermediate maintenance shop.

    Correct Answer
    B. SEM/EDX particles must be oil free for analysis to take place.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Jan 31, 2013
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 17, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Spalliero
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